MCQ Marketing

All variables other than the independent variables that affect the response of the test units are
known as:
a. Independent variables
b. Dependent variables
c. Extraneous variables
d. Test units
The extent to which a cause, X, and an effect, Y, occur together or vary together in the way predicted
by the hypothesis under consideration is known as:
a. None of these
b. Possible causal factors
c. Time order of occurrence
d. Concomitant variation
.................refers to the loss of test units while the experiment is in progress.
a. History
b. Maturation
c. Selection bias
d. Mortality
....................is a series of basic experiments that allows for statistical control and analysis of external
variables.
a. Pre-experimental designs
b. Quasi-experimental designs
c. True-experimental designs
d. Statistical design
An experimental design is a set of procedures specifying:
b. All of these
d. Test units
....................refers to whether the cause-and-effect relationships found in the experiment can be

generalized.
a. External validity
b. Internal validity
c. Testing effects
d. Maturation
When the researcher is unable to achieve full manipulation of scheduling or allocation of treatments
to test units but can still apply part of the apparatus of true experimentation, we call it:
Multiple Time Series Design is a type of:
Latin square design is a type of:
Individuals, organizations, or other entities whose response to the independent variables or

treatments is being examined, e.g., consumers or stores are known as:
b. Dependent variables
d. Test units
How many paired comparisons would be required for a set of four toothpaste brands?
a. 8
b. 6
c. 10
d. 12
If an attribute is twice as important as some other attribute, it receives twice as many points. This
statement holds true for
a. Preference Comparison Scaling

b. Paired Comparison Scaling
c. Rank Order Scaling
d. Constant Sum Scaling
.................means assigning numbers or other symbols to characteristics of objects according to

certain pre-specified rules.
a. Rank
b. Order
c. Scaling
d. Measurement
Comparative scale data must be interpreted in relative terms and have only ordinal or rank order
properties. T/F
a. True
b. False
Under Assumption of Transivity:
a. If A>B, B>C, it means that A>C
b. If A=B, then B=C
c. If (A+B)(A+B)= 2AB
d. None of the above
What involves creating a continuum?
a. Rank
b. Order
c. Scaling
d. Measurement
A dichotomous question always has only two response alternatives. T/F
a. True
b. False
An alternative that is thought to be implied in the options and not exclusively mentioned is called:
a. Explicit alternative
b. Implicit alternative
c. Exclusive alternative
d. None of these
................are open-ended questions that respondents answer in their own words.

a. Unstructured questions
b. Structured questions
c. Questionnaire
We should place sensitive topics at the end of the questionnaire.
a. True
b. False
"Do you think Coca-Cola is a tasty and refreshing soft drink?" This question is good to be put in a
questionnaire. T/F
a. True
b. False
Response error arises bacause of:
a. Unwillingness
b. Inability
c. Both of these
d. None of these
Which of this is not a part of "Six Ws":
a. Who
b. What
c. Which
d. Way
Perception analyzer is a type of
a. Itemized Rating Scale
b. Continuous Rating Scale
c. Likert Scale
d. Semantic Differential Scale
A unipolar rating scale without a neutral point (zero) and usually presented vertically is called:
a. Itemized Rating Scale
b. Staple Scale
c. Likert Scale
d. Semantic Differential Scale

If a measure is perfectly valid, it is also perfectly reliable. T/F
a. True
b. False
........... are useful when there are a number of related questions that use the same set of response
categories.
a. Vertical responses
b. Dichotomous questions
c. Grid questions
d. Pre-coded questions
During pretesting stage, when we ask the respondent to tell us about his experience of filling up the
survey at the end, it is called:
a. Post-testing
b. Protocol analysis
c. Debriefing
d. None of these
Asking a person whether he is religious or non-religious on a scale of -3 to +3 is an example

of:Response error arises because of:
a. Likert Scale
b. Semantic Scale
c. Staple Scale
d. Continuous Scale
Collected data from a large pretest sampleis statistically analyzed before developing a purified scale.
T/F
a. True
b. False
................can be defined as the extent to which measures are free from random error
a. Validity
b. Reliability
c. Generalizability
d. None of these
Non-comparative scales are often referred to as monadic scales. T/F

a. True
b. False
The elements within a stratum should be as ............. as possible, but the elements in different strata
should be as ............. as possible.
a. homogeneous, heterogeneous
b. heterogeneous, homogeneous
c. exclusive, exhaustive
d. exhaustive, exclusive
Population devided into various segments on the basis of their income is an example of:
a. Cluster Sampling
b. Stratified Sampling
c. Random Sampling
d. Systematic Sampling
Which of these is not a Nonprobability Sampling technique?
a. Judgemental Sampling
b. Snowball Sampling
c. Quota Sampling
d. Systematic Sampling
MECE means:
a. Mutually Exclusive Collectively Exhaustive
b. Mutually Exhaustive Collectively Exclusive
c. Market Exclusive Consumer Exhaustive
d. Market Endurance Consumer Extent
When attention to individual cases needs to be given, use of Sample is preferred to the use of
Census. T/F
a. True
b. False
Which of these is not a Probability Sampling technique?
a. Cluster Sampling
b. Stratified Sampling
c. Random Sampling
d. Quota Sampling
A number of times, the element and the sampling unit are the same. T/F
a. False
b. True
In which Sampling technique, do we select an initial group of respondents and then take their
referels to identify others who belong to the target population of interest?
a. Judgemental Sampling
b. Snowball Sampling
c. Quota Sampling
d. Convenience Sampling
...............refers to the geographical boundaries.
a. Element
b. Sampling unit
c. Extent
d. Time
Cost of sampling errors is low in use of Sample as compared to the use of Census. T/F
a. True
b. False
How many major strategies did Arbitron's research suggest to improve the response rate which was
considered as a "breakthrough method"?
a. Four
b. Six
c. Eight
d. Five
In ................. the nonrespondents in the current survey are replaced with nonrespondents from an
earlier, similar survey.
a. Replacement
b. Substitution
c. Subjective Estimates
d. Trend Analysis
Which of these is not a method of reducing refusals?
a. Prior Notification
b. Motivating Respondents
c. Incentives
d. Threatnings
Finite Population Correction is valid when the sample size is 5% or more of the population size. T/F
a. False
b. True
Drawing a line as per the early and late respondents and then having a projection for
nonrespondents to estimate where they stand on the characteristic of interest is called:
a. Replacement
b. Substitution
d. Trend Analysis
...................involves evaluating the likely effects of nonresponse based on experience and available
information.
a. Replacement
b. Substitution
d. Trend Analysis
The ...............is the range into which the true population parameter will fall, assuming a given level
of confidence..
a. Precision level
b. Sampling unit
c. Confidence interval
d. Confidence level
A Statistic is generally more accurate than a Parameter. T/F
a. True
b. False
Incentives are the most effective methods to reduce not-at-homes. T/F
a. False
b. True
"Mu" is a symbol representing:
a. Mean
b. Standard deviation
c. Variance
d. Proportion
Which is the least required qualification of a field worker?
a. Health
b. Experience
c. Pleasant Appearance
d. Education
Which is the last step in Fieldwork process?
a. Evaluating
b. Supervising
c. Validating
d. Selecting
"We caught the people doing right things" is a statement made by:
a. Steve Jobs
b. Bill gates
c. Jack Welch
d. Indra Nooyi
Which is the type of an employee who can be led most effectively through Free-reign leadership.
a. High Willed High Skilled
b. Low Willed Low Skilled
c. Low Willed High Skilled
d. High Willed Low Skilled
Which of these is not an example of probing?
a. Repeating the question
b. Repeating the respondent's reply
c. Clarification
d. Argumenting
Training should only be given to the people who sign a bond with organization. T/F
a. True
b. False
Cheating of field workers can be controlled by:

a. Training
b. Supervision
c. Validation
d. Sharing
Summarizing or paraphrasing a respondent's answers is a great way to record responses. T/F
a. False
b. True
Which of these is not a way towards evaluation of field workers.
a. Cost
b. Time
c. Response rates
d. Trend Analysis
Experienced interviewers are likely to do a better job. T/F
a. False
b. True
1. Causality refers to when the occurrence of X causes the occurrence of Y.
(False, easy, page 204)
2. The everyday meaning of causality is more appropriate to marketing research than is the
scientific meaning.
(False, moderate, page 204)
3. The conditions of concomitant variation, time order of occurrence of variables and elimination
of other possible causal factors, are necessary but not sufficient to demonstrate causality.
(True, moderate, page 205)
4. Concomitant variation is the extent to which a cause, X, and an effect, Y, occur together or vary
together in the way predicted by the hypothesis under consideration.
5. Evidence pertaining to concomitant variation can only be obtained in a qualitative manner.

6. In an after-the-fact examination of a situation, we can confidently rule out all other causal
factors.
7. With experimental designs, it is possible to control for some of the other causal factors.
8. Evidence of concomitant variation, time order of occurrence of variables, and elimination of

other possible causal factors, when combined, demonstrate conclusively that a causal
relationship exists.
(False, difficult, page 207)
9. Price levels, package designs, and advertising themes are examples of independent variables
manipulated by the researcher.
(True, easy, page 207)
10. Independent variables are variables or alternatives that are manipulated and whose effects are
measured and compared.
11. Independent variables are the variables that measure the effect of the dependent variables on
the test units.
12. Test units are individuals, organizations, or other entities whose response to independent
variables or treatments is being studied.
13. Extraneous variables are all variables other than the independent variables that affect the
response of the test units.

14. An experiment is formed when the researcher manipulates one or more dependent variables
and measures their effect on one or more independent variables, while controlling for the effect
of extraneous variables.
15. If the goal of the researcher is to make valid generalizations to a larger population of interest,
then, the researcher is concerned with internal validity.
16. There is no problem developing experimental designs that have high levels of both internal and
external validity.
17. History (H) refers to the occurrence of events before the experiment.
18. The longer the time interval between observations, the greater the possibility that history will
confound an experiment.
19. Extraneous variables are also called confounding variables because unless they are controlled
for, they affect the independent variable and thus confound the results.
20. Matching is a method of controlling extraneous variables that involve matching test units on a
set of key background variables before assigning them to the treatment conditions.
21. Experimental designs may be classified as pre-experimental, true experimental, quasi-

experimental, or post-experimental.
22. Also known as the after-only design, the one-shot case study may be symbolically represented
as: X 01.
(True, difficult, page 214)
23. In practice, a control group is sometimes defined as the group that receives the current level of
marketing activity, rather than a group that receives no treatment at all because it is difficult to
reduce current marketing activities, such as advertising and personal selling, to zero.
24. The distinguishing feature of the true experimental designs, as compared to pre-experimental
designs, is lack of randomization.
25. Quasi-experimental designs are useful because they can be used in cases when true
experimentation cannot, and because they are quicker and less expensive.
26. Full experimental control is available in quasi-experimental designs; therefore, the researcher
does not need to take into account the specific variables that are not controlled.
27. Potential sources of invalidity are the same as actual errors.
28. When more than one variable must be controlled, the researcher must use randomized block or
factorial designs.
29. A Latin square is conceptualized as a table, with the rows and the columns representing the
blocks in the two external variables.
30. Unlike the randomized block design and the Latin square, factorial designs allow for interactions
between variables.
31. A laboratory environment is synonymous with actual market conditions.

32. Causal studies do not meet all conditions required for causality.
33. Experimentation is becoming increasingly important in marketing research, but there are
limitations of time, cost, type of experiment, and administration of an experiment.
34. Standard text markets can cost as much as $1 million; simulated test markets cost less than 10
percent as much.
35. In many countries, the marketing, economic, structural, information, and technological
environments are not developed to the extent that they are in the United States.
36. The internal and external validity of field experiments conducted overseas is generally lower
than in the United States.
Multiple Choice Questions
37. The scientific concept of causality is complex. “Causality” means something very different to the
average person on the street than to a scientist. If the ordinary meaning of a statement is “ X is
the only cause of Y,” its related scientific meaning is:
a. The occurrence of X makes the occurrence of Y.
b. We can never prove that X is a cause of Y. At best, we can infer that X is a cause of Y.
c. X is only one of a number of possible causes of Y.
d. None of the above is correct.
(c, difficult, page 205)

38. The conditions that must be satisfied before making causal inferences include all of the following
except _____.
a. time order of occurrence of variables
b. role of evidence
c. concomitant variation
d. elimination of other possible factors
(b, moderate, page 205)
39. _____ is the extent to which a cause, X, and an effect, Y, occur together or vary together in the
way predicted by the hypothesis under consideration.
a. The time order of occurrence of variables
b. The role of evidence
c. Concomitant variation
d. The elimination of other possible factors
(c, moderate, page 205)
40. The statement ‘An effect cannot be produced by an event that occurs after the effect has taken
place,’ refers to _____.
a. the time order of occurrence of variables
b. the role of evidence
d. the elimination of other possible factors
(a, moderate, page 206)

41. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the time order of occurrence of
variables?
a. In an after-the-fact examination of the situation, we can never confidently rule out all other
causal factors.
b. The causing event must occur either before or simultaneously with the effect; it cannot
occur afterwards.
c. An effect cannot be produced by an event that occurs after the effect has taken place.
d. It is possible for each event in a relationship to be both a cause and an effect of the other
event.
42. _____ means that the factor or variable being investigated should be the only possible causal
explanation.
a. The time order of occurrence of variables
b. The role of evidence
c. Concomitant variation
d. The absence of other possible causal factors
(d, moderate, page 206)
43. When considering _____, accumulated evidence from several investigations increases our
confidence that a causal relationship exists.
a. the time order of occurrence of variables
b. the role of evidence
d. the elimination of other possible factors
44. Experimental design is the set of experimental procedures specifying the test units and sampling
procedures and all of the following except:
a. specifying the independent variables
b. specifying the dependent variables
c. specifying the plan for data analysis
d. specifying how to control the extraneous variables

45. Using the set of symbols commonly used in marketing research to denote experimental designs,
which symbol below represents the exposure of a group to an independent variable, treatment,
or event the effects of which are to be determined?
a. T
b. O
c. R
d. X

which symbol below represents the random assignment of test units or groups to separate
treatments?
a. T
b. O
c. R
d. X
which symbol below represents the process of observation or measurement of the dependent
variable on the test units or group of units?
a. T
b. O
c. R
d. X
48. Which experimental design means that two groups of test units were randomly assigned to two
different treatment groups at the same time, and the dependent variable was measured in the
two groups simultaneously?
a. R X 1 O1
R X 2 O2
b. R X 1 O1
O2 X 2 O2
c. X O1 O2
X O 1 O2
d. R X1 O1
R X 1 O1
(a, difficult, page 209)
49. _____ is a measure of accuracy of an experiment. It measures whether the manipulation of the
independent variables, or treatments, actually caused the effects on the dependent variable(s).
b. Extraneous validity
c. Internal validity

50. _____ is a determination of whether the cause-and-effect relationships found in the experiment
can be generalized. Can the results be generalized beyond the experimental situation and if so,
to what populations, settings, times, independent variables and dependent variables can the
results be projected?
b. Extraneous validity
c. Internal validity
51. _____ refers to an extraneous variable attributable to changes in the test units themselves that
occur with the passage of time.
a. Mortality
b. Interactive testing effect
c. Maturation
d. Main testing effect
52. _____ refers to an effect in which a prior measurement affects the test unit’s response to the
independent variable.
a. Mortality
c. Maturation
(b, difficult, page 211)
53. _____ refers to an effect of testing occurring when a prior observation affects a latter
observation.
a. Mortality
c. Maturation
(d, difficult, page 211)

54. _____ refers to an extraneous variable involving changes in the measuring instrument or in the
observers or scores themselves.
a. Instrumentation
b. Statistical regression
c. Selection bias
(a, easy, page 211)

55. _____ refers to an extraneous variable that occurs when test units with extreme scores move
closer to the average score during the course of the experiment.
a. Instrumentation
c. Selection bias
56. _____ refers to an extraneous variable attributable to the improper assignment of test units to
treatment conditions.
a. Instrumentation
c. Selection bias
57. _____ refers to an extraneous variable attributable to the loss of test units while the experiment
is in progress.
a. Mortality
c. Maturation
58. If the experimental design called for the respondents to be randomly assigned to one of three
experimental groups and for one of three versions of a test commercial to be randomly
administered to each group, this design would be using _____.
a. design control
b. statistical control
c. randomization
d. matching
(c, easy, page 212)

59. _____ involves measuring the extraneous variables and adjusting for their effects through
statistical analysis.
a. Design control
b. Statistical control
c. Randomization
d. Matching
(b, easy, page 212)

60. If in test marketing a new product, the researcher ensures that the product is positioned in the
correct aisle in each store and obtains the right level of store acceptance and all commodity
volume distribution, more than likely, the researcher used _____ to help control for extraneous
variables.
a. design control
b. statistical control
c. randomization
d. matching
61. The one-group pretest-posttest is a type of _____. These designs do not control for extraneous
factors by randomization.
a. quasi-experimental design
b. true experimental design
c. statistical design
d. pre-experimental design
62. _____ are experimental designs distinguished by the fact that the researcher can randomly
assign test units to experimental groups and also randomly assign treatments to experimental
groups.
a. Quasi-experimental design
b. True experimental design
c. Statistical design
d. Pre-experimental design
63. Time series and multiple time series designs are types of _____which apply part of the
procedures of true experimentation but lack full experimentation control.
a. quasi-experimental designs
b. true experimental designs
c. statistical designs
d. pre-experimental designs
(a, moderate, pages 213-214)
64. _____ allow for the statistical control and analysis of external variables.
a. Quasi-experimental designs
b. True experimental designs
c. Statistical designs
d. Pre-experimental designs

65. Which of the following is true of the one-shot case study pre-experimental design (X O1)?
a. It does not provide a basis of comparing the level of O1 to what would happen when X was
absent.
b. The level of O1 might be affected by many extraneous variables such as history, maturation,
selection, and mortality.
c. It is more appropriate for exploratory than for conclusive research.
d. All of the above statements are true.
66. The one-group pretest-posttest design may be symbolized as O1 X2 O2. In this design, a group
of test units is measured _____.
a. once
b. twice
c. not at all
d. none of the above
67. The static group is a two-group experimental design. One group, called the _____, is exposed to
the treatment, and the other, called the _____, is not. Measurements on both groups are made
only after the treatment, and test units are not assigned at random.
a. experimental group (EG); control group (CG)
b. experimental group (EG);
c. pretest group (PG); control group (CG)
d. control group (CG); experimental group (EG)
68. EG: R O1 X O2
CG: R O3 O4
In the pretest-posttest control group design shown above, selection bias is eliminated by _____.
a. design control
b. randomization
c. matching
d. statistical control
69. EG: R X O1
CG: R O2
The true experimental design shown above is a _____ design.
a. pretest-posttest control group
b. one-shot case study
c. post-test-only control group
d. one-group pretest-posttest
70. In the posttest-only control group design, the treatment effect (TE) is obtained by _____.
a. TE= O1 - O2
b. TE= (O1 - O2) – (O3 – O4)
c. TE= (O2 – O1) – (O4 – O3)
d. TE= (O2 – O1)
71. Which of the following statements is true about the Solomon four-group design?
a. The Solomon four-group design should be used to examine the changes in the attitudes of
individual respondents.
b. The Solomon four-group design explicitly controls for interactive testing effect.
c. The Solomon four-group design is expensive and time consuming to implement.
72. O1 O2 O3 O4 O5 X O6 O7 O8 O9 O10
The above design is an example of a _____.
a. one group pretest-posttest design
b. multiple time series design
c. pretest-posttest control group design

d. time series design
73. The major weakness of the time series design is the failure to control _____.
a. mortality
b. history
c. selection bias
d. instrumentation
74. The effectiveness of a test commercial (X) may be examined by broadcasting the commercial a
predetermined number of times and examining the data from a preexisting test panel. Although
the marketer can control the scheduling of the test commercial, it is uncertain when or whether
the panel members are exposed to it. The panel members’ purchases before, during, and after
the campaign are examined to determine whether the test commercial has a short-term effect, a
long-term effect, or no effect. A _____ design was used in this research project.
a. pretest-posttest control group
b. time series
c. one-group pretest-posttest design
d. multiple time series design

75. Which of the following statements is an advantage of statistical designs?
a. The effects of more than one independent variable can be measured.
b. Specific extraneous variables can be statistically controlled.
c. Economical designs can be formulated when each test unit is measured more than once.
d. All of the statements are advantages.
76. _____ is a statistical design in which the test units are blocked on the basis of an external
variable to ensure that the various experimental and control groups are matched closely on that
variable.
a. Randomized block design
b. Latin square design
c. Factorial design
d. Solomon four-group design
77. What is the main limitation of randomized block designs?
a. They require an equal number of rows, columns, and treatment levels, which is sometimes
problematic.
b. They do not allow the researcher to examine interactions of the external variables with each
other or with the independent variable.
c. The researcher can control for only one external variable.
d. The number of treatment combinations increases multiplicatively with an increase in the

number of variables or levels.
78. _____ is a statistical design that allows for the statistical control of two non-interacting external
variables in addition to the manipulation of the independent variable.
c. Factorial design

79. Which of the following statements is a limitation of Latin square designs?
problematic.
d. Both a and b are correct.

80. _____ is a statistical experimental design that is used to measure the effects of two or more
independent variables at various levels and to allow for interactions between variables.
c. Factorial design
81. What is the main limitation of factorial designs?
problematic.
d. The number of treatment combinations increases multiplicatively with an increase in the

number of variables or levels.
82. Which statement is not true about laboratory experiments?
a. The laboratory environment offers a high degree of control because it isolates the
experiment in a carefully monitored environment.
b. The artificiality of the environment may cause reactive error, in that the respondents react
to the situation itself, rather than to the independent variable.
c. Laboratory experiments are likely to have higher external validity than field experiments.
d. Laboratory experiments allow for more complex designs than field experiments.
(c, difficult, pages 222-223)
83. Which of the following statements is true when considering experimental versus non-
experimental designs?
a. It is difficult in descriptive studies to establish the prior equivalence of the respondent

groups with respect to both the independent and dependent variables. However,
experiments can establish this equivalence.
b. Descriptive research offers little control over other possible causal factors.
c. In descriptive research, it is also difficult to establish time order of occurrence of variables.
However, in an experiment, the researcher controls the timing of the measurements and the
introduction of the treatment.
d. All of the above statements are correct.
84. ____ is a test market in which the product is sold through regular distribution channels.
a. Simulated test market
b. Partial test market
c. Controlled test market
d. Standard test market
(d, easy, page 224)
85. Which statement is not true concerning a standard test market?
a. It is a one-shot case study.
b. Test markets are selected and the product is sold through regular distribution channels.
c. Where external validity is important, at least four test markets should be used.
d. All statements are correct.
(d, moderate, pages 224-225)
86. Which statement is not true concerning a standard test market?
a. One or more combinations of marketing mix variables (product, price, distribution, and
promotional levels) are employed.
b. While a firm’s test marketing is in progress, competitors have an opportunity to beat it to

the national market.
c. Competitors often take actions such as increasing their promotional efforts to contaminate
the test marketing program.
d. All statements are correct.
87. _____ is a test marketing program conducted by an outside research company in field
experimentation. The research company guarantees distribution of the product in retail outlets
that represent a pre-determined percentage of the market.

88. _____ is a quasi test market in which respondents are pre-selected, then interviewed and
observed on their purchases and attitudes toward the product.
89. Which statement is true about simulated test markets?
a. Simulated test markets can be conducted in 16 weeks or less.
b. The information they generate is confidential and the competition cannot get hold of it.
c. They are relatively inexpensive.

90. Which of the following is an ethical concern associated with doing experiments?
a. how to disguise the purpose of the research in a manner that does not violate the rights of
the respondents
b. how to find respondents for the experiment
c. ensuring that the appropriate experimental design for the problem was used
d. both a and c are correct
1. Comparative techniques are comprised of continuous and itemized rating scales.
2. Non-comparative scales are often referred to as monadic scale.
3. Respondents using a non-comparative scale employ whatever rating standard seems

appropriate to them.
4. Burger King used the Perception Analyzer to measure responses to a series of “slice-of-life”
commercials.
5. In an itemized rating scale, the respondents are provided with a scale that has a number or brief
description associated with each category.
6. Itemized rating scales are widely used in marketing research and form the basic components of
more complex scales.
7. Typically, each Likert scale item has seven response categories, ranging from “strongly disagree”
to “strongly agree.”

8. A total (summated) score can be calculated for each respondent by summing across items.
9. Profile analysis involves determining the average respondent ratings for each item.
10. The semantic differential scale is also referred to as a summated scale.
11. The semantic differential is a five-point rating scale with endpoints associated with bipolar labels
that have semantic meaning.
12. The Stapel scale is usually presented horizontally.
13. An advantage of the Stapel scale is it can be administered over the telephone.
14. Of the three itemized rating scales considered, the semantic differential scale is used the least.
15. The researcher must make four major decisions when constructing non-comparative itemized
rating scales.
16. The smaller the number of scale categories, the finer the discrimination among stimulus objects
that is possible.

17. When determining the number of scale categories to use in a non-comparative itemized rating
scale, the nature of the object is relevant.
18. When determining the number of scale categories to use in a non-comparative itemized rating
scale, if individual responses are of interest, or the data will be analyzed by sophisticated
statistical techniques, five or more scale categories may be required.
19. The Likert scale is a balanced rating scale with an odd number of categories and a neutral point.
20. A forced rating scale forces the respondents to express an opinion because “no opinion” or “no
knowledge” options are not provided.
21. In situations where the respondents are expected to have no opinions, as opposed to simply
being reluctant to disclose it, the accuracy of data may be improved by a non-forced scale that
includes a “no opinion” category.
22. It has been found that providing a verbal description for each scale category consistently
improves the accuracy or reliability of the data.
23. Non-comparative itemized rating scales with weak adjectives as anchors (1=generally disagree,
7=generally agree) result in less variable and more peaked response contributions.
24. A construct is the theory being measured.
25. The scale development process is an iterative one.

26. XO = XT + XS + XR represents the pure score model.
27. Reliability refers to the extent to which a scale produces valid results if repeated measurements
are made.
28. Systematic sources of error do have an adverse impact on reliability because they affect the
measurement in a constant way and do not lead to inconsistency.
29. Reliability can be defined as the extent to which measures are free from random error, XR.
30. When assessing the test-retest reliability, the higher the correlation coefficient, between the
two measurements, the greater the reliability.
31. In alternative-forms reliability, the same respondents are measured at two different times,
usually one to three weeks apart, with a different scale form being administered each time.
32. With alternative forms reliability, a low correlation may reflect either an unreliable scale or
nonequivalent forms.
33. An important property of coefficient alpha is that its value tends to increase with an increase in
the number of scale items.
34. Coefficient alpha assists in determining whether the averaging process used in calculating
coefficient beta is masking any inconsistent items.
35. Perfect validity requires that there be no measurement error, therefore: (XO = XT, XR =
0, XS = 0).
36. Given its subjective nature, content validity alone is a sufficient measure of the validity of a
scale.
37. Construct validity is the simplest and easiest type of validity to establish.
38. Using several scale items to measure the characteristic of interest provides more accurate
measurement than a single-item scale.
39. The semantic differential scale may be said to be pan-cultural or free of cultural bias.
40. The researcher can bias the scales by either biasing the wording of the statements (Likert type
scales), the scale descriptors, or other aspects of the scale.
41. In a _____, respondents rate the objects by placing a mark at the appropriate position on a line
that runs from one extreme of the criterion variable to the other.
e. semantic differential scale
f. Likert scale
g. continuous rating scale
h. Stapel scale
(c, easy, page 256)

42. How would you rate Sears as a department store?
Version 1
Probably the worst - - - - - - -I - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - Probably the best
Version 2
Probably the worst - - - - - - -I - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - Probably the best
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
The above scales are all examples of a _____.
e. continuous rating scale
f. Stapel scale
g. Semantic differential scale
h. Likert scale
43. Scores assigned to continuous rating scales by the researcher are typically treated as _____ data.
e. nominal
f. ordinal
g. ratio
h. interval
44. Which of the following statements does not pertain to non-comparative scales?
a. Comparative scales are often referred to as monadic scales.
b. Respondents using a non-comparative scale employ whatever rating standard seems

appropriate.
c. Data must be interpreted in relative terms and have only ordinal or rank order properties.
d. Non-comparative techniques consist of continuous and itemized rating scales.
45. Which non-comparative scale has the advantage of being easy to construct and the
disadvantage of cumbersome scoring unless the scoring is computerized (Table 9.1)?
a. semantic differential scale
b. Likert scale
c. continuous rating scale
d. Stapel scale

51. The Perception Analyzer utilizes a _____.
a. continuous rating scale
b. staple scale.
c. semantic differential scale
d. Likert scale
52. Which scale is not an itemized rating scale?
e. Stapel scale
f. semantic differential scale
g. Likert scale
h. continuous rating scale
(d, easy, page 257)
53. A _____ is a measurement scale with five response categories ranging from “strongly disagree”
to “strongly agree,” which requires the respondents to indicate a degree of agreement or
disagreement with each of a series of statements related to the stimulus objects.
b. Likert scale
d. Stapel scale
(b, easy, page 258)
54. Neither
agree
Strongly nor Strongly
disagree Disagree disagree Agree agree
1. Sears has poor in-store service. 1 2X 3 4 5
2. I like to shop at Sears. 1 2X 3 4 5
The above scale is an example of a _____.

b. Stapel scale
d. Likert scale
55. Which non-comparative scale is analyzed using profile analysis?
e. Likert scale
f. semantic differential scale
g. Stapel scale
h. all of the above
(d, difficult, pages 258, 260, 261)
56. Which itemized rating scale takes longer to complete than other itemized rating scales because
respondents have to read each statement?
b. Likert scale
d. Stapel scale
57. A _____ is a seven point rating scale with endpoints associated with bi-polar labels that have
semantic meaning.
b. Likert scale
d. Stapel scale
(a, easy, page 259)
58. Sears is:
Powerful —:—:—:—:-X-:—:—: Weak
Unreliable —:—:—:—:—:-X-:—: Reliable

The above scale is an example of a _____ scale.
a. continuous rating
b. Stapel
c. semantic differential
d. Likert
(c, easy, page 260)
53. The _____ is known for its versatility and is very popular with marketing researchers.
b. Stapel scale
d. Likert scale
54. Which non-comparative scale is widely used in comparing brand, product, and company images?
b. Likert scale
d. Stapel scale

54. A _____ is a scale for measuring attitudes that consists of a single adjective in the middle of an
even-numbered range of values, from -5 to +5, without a neutral point (zero).
b. Likert scale
d. Stapel scale
55. Which scale asks the respondent to indicate how accurately or inaccurately each term describes
the object by selecting an appropriate numerical response category?
b. Stapel scale
d. Likert scale
64. The data obtained by using a Stapel scale can be analyzed in the same way as a_____.
b. Stapel scale
d. Likert scale
65. The _____ is confusing and difficult to apply. It is the least used of the itemized scales.
b. Stapel scale
d. Likert scale
66. Which of the following statements is not a consideration when making non-comparative
itemized rating scale decisions?
e. the number of scale categories to use
f. forced versus non-forced choice
g. balanced versus unbalanced scales
h. all are considerations

67. Which statement is not true if deciding the number of scale categories to use in a non-
compensatory itemized rating scale?
a. Traditional guidelines suggest that the appropriate number of categories should be seven
plus or minus two: between five and nine.
b. The smaller the number of scale categories, the finer the discrimination among stimulus
objects that is possible.
c. If the respondents are not very knowledgeable or involved with the task, fewer categories
should be used.
d. How the data are to be analyzed and used should also influence the number of categories.
68. Which statement is not true when deciding on whether to use balanced or unbalanced scales
when developing a non-comparative itemized rating scale?
a. The scale should be balanced to obtain objective data.
b. In a balanced scale, the number of favorable and unfavorable categories are equal.
c. If the distribution of responses is likely to be skewed, either positively or negatively, a

balanced scale with more categories in the direction of skewness may be appropriate.
d. If an unbalanced scale is used, the nature and degree of unbalance in the scale should be
taken into account in data analysis.
69. Which statement is not true when deciding on whether to use an odd or even number of
categories when developing a non-comparative itemized rating scale?
a. With an odd number of categories, the middle scale position is generally designated neutral
or impartial.
b. The decision to use an odd or even number of categories depends on whether some of the
respondents may be neutral on the response being measured.
c. A rating scale with an even number of categories should be used if the researcher wants to
force a response.
(d, easy, pages 262-263)
70. Deciding whether to present scales as vertical or horizontal is related to which of the non-
comparative itemized rating scale decisions?
a. number of scale categories

b. physical form or configuration
c. odd or even number of categories
d. nature and degree of verbal description
(b, easy, page 263)

65. _____ is the first step in developing a multi-item scale. _____ is the last step.
a. Generate an initial pool of item; Prepare the final scale
b. Develop a theory; Prepare a final scale
c. Develop a theory; Develop a purified scale
d. Generate an initial pool of items; Develop a purified scale
66. Validity can be assessed by examining all of the following except:
a. item validity
b. content validity
c. criterion validity
d. construct validity
67. Which of the following is not an approach to assess multi-item scale reliability?
a. test-retest reliability
b. construct reliability
c. alternative forms reliability
d. internal consistency reliability
68. _____ is the variation in the information sought by the researcher and the information
generated by the measurement process employed.
e. Systematic error
f. Measurement error
g. Random error
h. Variable error
69. XO = XT + XS + XR
In the true score model shown above, XT represents:
a. random error
b. the observed score or measurement
c. the true score of the characteristic
d. systematic error
70. Situational factors, such as the presence of other people, noise, and distractions and mechanical
factors, such as poor printing, overcrowding of items in the questionnaire, and poor design are
both _____ in measurement.
a. random error
b. potential sources of reliability
c. potential sources of error
d. systematic error
71. _____ represents stable factors that affect the observed score in the same way each time the
measurement is made, such as mechanical factors (see Fig. 9.6).
a. Systematic error
b. Measurement error
c. Random error
d. Variable error
72. _____ is not constant. It represents transient factors that affect the observed score in different
ways each time the measurement is made, such as transient personal or situational factors.
a. Systematic error
b. Measurement error
c. Random error
d. Variable error
91. _____ is the extent to which a scale produces consistent results if repeated measurements are
made on the characteristic.
e. validity
f. generalizability
g. reliability
h. none of the above
92. A measure is perfectly reliable if:
a. XO = 0
b. XT = 0
c. XS = 0
d. XR = 0
93. _____ is an approach for assessing reliability in which respondents are administered identical
sets of scale items at two different times under as nearly equivalent conditions as possible.
a. Internal consistency reliability
b. Split-half reliability
c. Test-retest reliability
d. Alternative-forms reliability

94. There are several problems associated with the test-retest approach to determining reliability. If
measuring respondents’ attitude toward low-fat milk may cause them to become more health
conscious and develop a more positive attitude toward low-fat milk, then there is a problem
with:
a. the time interval between testing.
b. the initial measurement altering the characteristic being measured.
c. it being impossible to make repeated measurements.
d. the first measurement having a carryover effect to the second or subsequent

measurements.
95. _____ is an approach for assessing reliability that requires two equivalent forms of the scale to
be constructed and then the same respondents are measured at two different times.
96. Which of the following is not a problem with alternative-forms reliability?
a. The results will depend on how the scale items are split.
b. It is time consuming and expensive to construct an equivalent form of the scale.
c. It is difficult to construct two equivalent forms of a scale.
d. Both b and c are correct.
97. _____ is an approach for assessing the internal consistency of the set of items when several
items are summated in order to form a total score for the scale.
(a, easy, page 268)

98. _____ is a form of internal consistency reliability in which the items constituting the scale are
divided into two halves and the resulting half scores are correlated.
(b, easy, page 268)

99. _____ is a measure of internal consistency reliability that is the average of all possible split-half
coefficients resulting from different splittings of the scale items.
a. Coefficient delta
b. Coefficient alpha
c. Coefficient beta
d. Coefficient eta
100. _____ is the extent to which differences in observed scale scores reflect true differences
among objects on the characteristics being measured, rather than systematic or random errors.
a. Validity
b. Generalizability
c. Reliability
101. _____ is a type of validity, sometimes called face validity, that consists of a subjective but
systematic evaluation of the representativeness of the content of a scale for the measuring task
at hand.
a. Construct validity
b. Content validity
c. Criterion validity
d. Internal consistency validity
102. A scale designed to measure store image would be considered inadequate if it omitted any
of the major dimensions (quality, variety, assortment of merchandise, etc.). This inadequacy
would be reflected in the _____ of the scale.
a. construct validity
b. content validity
c. criterion validity
d. internal consistency validity

103. _____ is a type of validity that examines whether the measurement scale performs as
expected in relation to other variables selected as meaningful criteria.
b. Content validity

104. _____ is assessed when the data on the scale being evaluated on the criterion variables are
collected at the same time.
a. Convergent validity
b. Predictive validity
c. Concurrent validity
d. Discriminant validity
105. _____ is a type of validity that addresses the question of what construct or characteristic the
scale is measuring. An attempt is made to answer theoretical questions of why a scale works
and what deductions can be made concerning the theory underlying the scale.
b. Content validity
(a, easy, page 269)
106. _____ is a measure of construct validity that measures the extent to which the scale
correlates positively with other measures of the same construct.
b. Discriminant validity
c. Nomological validity
d. Concurrent validity
107. _____ is a type of construct validity that assesses the extent to which a measure does not
correlate with other constructs from which it is supposed to differ.

108. _____ is the extent to which the scale correlates in theoretically predicted ways with
measures of different but related constructs.

109. Which statement is not true regarding the relationship between reliability and validity?
a. If a measure is perfectly valid, it is also perfectly reliable.
b. Unreliability implies invalidity.
c. If a measure is perfectly reliable, it is perfectly valid.
d. Reliability is a necessary, but not sufficient, condition for validity.
110. _____ is the degree to which a study based on a sample applies to a universe of
generalizations.
a. Validity
b. Generalizability
c. Reliability
(b, easy, page 270)
111. Which statement about generalizability is not true?
a. The set of all conditions of measurement over which the investigator wishes to generalize is
the universe of generalizations.
b. In generalizability studies, measurement procedures are designed to investigate the

universes of interest by sampling conditions of measurement from each of them.
c. To generalize to other universes, facet theory procedures must be employed.
d. Traditional reliability methods can be viewed as single-facet generalizability studies.
112. When choosing a scaling technique, which of the following factors should be considered?
a. the capabilities of the respondents
b. the characteristics of the stimulus objects
c. the method of administration
d. all of the above
(d, easy, page 270)

113. When developing scales for international research, the researcher must pay special
attention to details that can make the measurement instrument specific to the country in which
the instrument will be used. Which of the following should be of concern to the marketing
researcher when developing scales for international research?
a. Special attention should be devoted to determining equivalent verbal descriptors in

different languages and cultures.
b. Scale endpoints and the verbal descriptors should be employed in a manner that is
consistent with the culture.
c. It is critical to establish the equivalence of scales and measures used to obtain data from
different countries.
d. All of the above are correct.
1. When we measure the perceptions, attitudes, and preferences of consumers, we are measuring
the objects of other relevant characteristics.
2. In measurement, when assigning numbers to the characteristics there must be a one-to-one

correspondence between the numbers and the characteristics being measured.
3. There are three primary scales of measurement: nominal, ordinal, and ratio.
4. A nominal scale can only involve the assignment of numbers; alphabets or symbols cannot be
assigned.
5. Only a limited number of statistics, all of which are based on frequency counts, are permissible
on the numbers in a nominal scale.
6. An ordinal scale indicates relative position and the magnitude of the differences between the
objects.
7. In addition to the counting operation allowable for nominal scale data, ordinal scales permit the
use of statistics based on percentiles.

8. Ratios of differences between scale values are permissible.
9. Statistical techniques that may be used on interval scale data include all of those that can be
applied to nominal, ordinal, and ratio data.
10. Ratio scales allow proportionate transformations of the form y = bx, where b is a positive
constant. One can add an arbitrary constant, as in the case of an interval scale.
11. All statistical techniques can be applied to ratio data.
12. It is possible to construct a nominal scale that provides partial information on order (the partially
ordered scale).
13. Comparative scales involve the direct comparison of stimulus objects.
14. In non-comparative scales, the scaling of each object is dependent on the others in the stimulus
set.
15. Non-comparative scales data are generally assumed to be interval or ratio scaled.
16. In paired comparison scaling, the data obtained are interval in nature.
17. Transitivity of preference is an assumption made in order to convert constant sum data to rank
order data. It implies that if brand A is preferred to brand B and brand B is preferred to brand C,
then brand A is preferred to brand C.
18. Paired comparisons bear little resemblance to the marketplace situation that involves selection
from multiple alternatives.
19. Paired comparison scaling is useful when the number of brands is large, because it requires
direct comparison and overt choice.
20. Rank order scaling is commonly used to measure preferences for brands as well as attributes.
21. In constant sum scaling, if an attribute is twice as important as some other attribute, it receives
twice as many points.
22. Constant sum scale data are sometimes treated as metric.
23. The constant sum should be considered an ordinal scale.
24. From the viewpoint of the respondents, ratio scales are the simplest to use, whereas the
nominal scales are the most complex.
25. It is the obligation of the researcher to obtain data that are most appropriate, given the research
questions to be answered.
26. All the primary scales of measurement explained in the text can be implemented on the
Internet.
27. It may be difficult to implement specialized scales such as the Q-sort on the Internet.
28. _____ is the assignment of numbers or other symbols to characteristics of objects according to
certain pre-specified rules.
a. Ranking
b. Measurement
c. Scaling
d. Rating
29. _____ is the generation of a continuum upon which measured objects are located.
a. Ranking
b. Measurement
c. Scaling
d. Rating
30. Which statement is correct about measurement?
a. The assignment of numbers to characteristics must be isomorphic.
b. The rules for assigning numbers should be standardized and applied uniformly.
c. Assigned numbers must not change over objects or time.

31. Consider a scale from 1 to 100 for locating consumers according to the characteristic “attitude
toward department stores.” Each respondent is assigned a number from 1 to 100 indicating the
degree of (un)favorableness, with 1 = extremely unfavorable, and 100 = extremely favorable.
_____ is the actual assignment of a number from 1 to 100 to each respondent. _____ is the
process of placing the respondents on a continuum with respect to their attitude toward
department stores.
a. Measurement; Scaling
b. Scaling; Ranking
c. Scaling; Measurement
d. Ranking; Measurement
32. A(n) _____ is a scale whose numbers serve only as labels or tags for identifying and classifying
objects with a strict one-to-one correspondence between the numbers and the objects.
a. ordinal scale
b. interval scale
c. ratio scale
d. nominal scale
33. When a _____ scale is used for the purpose of identification, there is a strict one-to-one
correspondence between the numbers and the objects.
a. nominal
b. ordinal
c. interval
d. ratio
34. When used for classification purposes, the _____ scaled numbers serve as labels for classes or
categories.
a. ordinally
b. intervally
c. nominally
d. ratio scale
35. Which of the following statistics is not permissible with nominally scaled data (Table 8.1)?
a. chi-square
b. median
c. range
d. both b and c are not permissible

36. _____ is a ranking scale in which numbers are assigned to objects to indicate the relative extent
to which some characteristic is possessed. Thus it is possible to determine whether an object has
more or less of a characteristic than some other object.
a. Ordinal scale
b. Interval scale
c. Ratio scale
d. Nominal scale
37. The rankings of teams in a tournament constitute a _____ scale.
a. nominal
b. ordinal
c. interval
d. ratio
(b, easy, page 238)
38. In marketing research, _____ scales are used to measure relative attitudes, opinions,
perceptions, and preferences. In the opening example for Chapter 8, this was shown by the rank
order of the most admired companies.
a. nominal
b. ordinal
c. interval
d. ratio
39. Which of the following statistics is permissible with ordinally scaled data (Table 8.1)?
a. percentages
b. mode
c. rank order correlation
d. all of the above

40. _____ is a scale in which the numbers are used to rank objects such that numerically equal
distances on the scale represent equal distances in the characteristic being measured.
a. Ordinal scale
b. Interval scale
c. Ratio scale
d. Nominal scale

41. In marketing research, attitudinal data obtained from rating scales are often treated as _____
data.
a. nominal
b. ordinal
c. interval
d. ratio
42. Which statement is true about the interval scale?
a. Ratios of scale values can be computed.
b. Both the zero point and the units of measurement are arbitrary.
c. Any positive linear transformation of the form y = a + bx will preserve the properties of the
scale.
43. Which of the following statistics is not permissible for interval data (Table 8.1)?
a. factor analysis
b. harmonic mean
c. binomial test
d. t-tests
44. The _____ is the highest scale. It allows the researcher to identify or classify objects, rank order
the objects, and compare intervals or differences. It is also meaningful to compute ratios of scale
values.
a. ordinal scale
b. interval scale
c. ratio scale
d. nominal scale
(c, easy, page 241)

45. In marketing, sales, cost, market share, and number of customers are variables measured on a
_____ scale.
a. nominal
b. ordinal
c. interval
d. ratio
(d, easy, page 241)

46. _____ are one of two types of scaling techniques in which there is direct comparison of stimulus
objects with one another.
a. Preference scales
b. Comparative scales
c. Non-comparative scales
47. Which of the following statements is not true about the comparative scales technique?
a. An example of using comparative scales is asking respondents to evaluate Coke on a 1 to 6

preference scale.
b. Comparative scale data must be interpreted in relative terms and have only ordinal or rank
order properties.
c. Comparative scaling is also referred to as non-metric scaling.
d. Comparative scales include paired comparisons, rank order, and constant sum scales.
48. The benefits of comparative scaling includes all of the following except:
a. Comparative scales involve fewer theoretical assumptions.
b. Comparative scales are easily understood and can be applied easily.
c. Comparative scales tend to reduce halo or carryover effects from one judgment to another.
d. Small differences between stimulus objects can be detected.
49. Which of the following scales is not a type of comparative scale?
a. semantic differential
b. constant sum
c. Likert
d. both a and c

50. _____ are one of two types of scaling techniques in which each stimulus object is scaled
independently of the other objects in the stimulus set.
a. Preference scales
b. Comparative scales
c. Non-comparative scales

51. Which of the following is not a type of non-comparative scale?
a. semantic differential
b. constant sum
c. Likert
d. both a and c
52. _____ is a comparative scaling technique in which a respondent is presented with two objects at
a time and asked to select one object in the pair according to some criterion. The data obtained
is ordinal in nature.
a. Constant sum
b. Q-sort
c. Paired comparison
d. Rank order
(c, easy, page 242)
53. Paired comparison data can be analyzed in several ways. One way is for the researcher to
calculate the percentage of respondents who prefer one stimulus to another. The researcher
can also perform all of the following analyses on paired comparison data except:
a. simultaneous evaluation of all the stimulus objects
b. convert paired comparison data to a rank order
c. derive an interval scale from paired comparison data
d. order a set of objects into an internally consistent, uni-dimensional scale
54. Which of the following is not one of the suggested modifications of the paired comparison
technique?
a. inclusion of a neutral/no difference opinion response
b. graded paired comparisons
c. obtaining similarity judgments in multidimensional scaling
d. ranked paired comparisons

55. The most common method of taste testing is paired comparison. A minimum of _____
responses is considered an adequate sample.
a. 500
b. 1000
c. 2000
d. 4000

56. _____ is a comparative scaling technique in which respondents are presented with several
objects simultaneously and asked to order or rank them according to some criterion.
a. Constant sum
b. Q-sort
d. Rank order
(d, easy, page 244)
57. _____ scaling and _____ scaling both are comparative in nature. Both result in ordinal data and
might result in the respondent disliking the brand ranked 1 in an absolute sense.
a. Paired comparison; constant sum
b. Rank order; paired comparison
c. Rank order; constant sum
d. Q-sort; constant sum
(b, easy, page 244)
58. _____ is a comparative scaling technique in which respondents are required to allocate a
constant sum of units such as point, dollars, chits, stickers, or chips among a set of stimulus
objects with respect to some criterion.
a. Constant sum
b. Q-sort
d. Rank order
(a, easy, page 246)
59. If respondents are asked to allocate 100 points to attributes of a toilet soap in a way that reflects
the importance they attach to each attribute, _____ scaling is being used.
a. constant sum
b. q-sort
c. paired comparison
d. rank order
(c, easy, page 246)

60. Which statement is true concerning constant sum scaling?
a. It does not have an absolute zero.
b. It allows for fine discrimination among stimulus objects without requiring much time.
c. Respondents may allocate more or fewer units than those specified.

61. _____ scaling is a comparative scaling technique that uses a rank order procedure to sort objects
based on similarity with respect to some criterion.
a. Constant sum
b. Q-sort
d. Rank order
(b, easy, page 247)
62. _____ is being used if respondents are given 100 attitude statements on individual cards and
asked to place them into 11 piles, ranging from “most highly agreed with” to “least highly agreed
with.”
a. Constant sum
b. Q-sort
d. Rank order
63. When using Q-sort scaling, the number of objects to be sorted should not be less than _____ or
more than _____.
a. 60; 90
b. 90; 140
c. 60; 140
d. 40; 60
64. _____ is a procedure for determining whether a set of objects can be ordered into an internally
consistent, uni-dimensional scale.
a. Magnitude estimation
b. Q-sort scaling
c. Guttman scaling

Which statement is not correct concerning international marketing and the use of comparative
scaling techniques?
a. Opinion formation may not be well crystallized.
b. In some developing countries, preferences can be best measured by using ordinal scales.
c. Respondents in many developed countries, due to higher education and consumer

sophistication levels, are quite used to providing responses on interval and ratio scales.
d. None of the above statements are incorrect.
38. A standardized questionnaire or form will ensure comparability of the data, increase speed and
accuracy of recording, and facilitate data processing.
39. A questionnaire is an informal set of questions for obtaining information from respondents.
40. Two apparently similar ways of posing a question always yields the same information.
41. A well-designed questionnaire can motivate the respondents and increase the response rate.
42. The steps in the questionnaire design process are interrelated and the development of a
questionnaire will involve some iteration and looping.
43. The more diversified the respondent group, the more difficult it is to design a single
questionnaire that is appropriate for the entire group.
44. All questions on a questionnaire should relate directly to the research purpose at hand.

45. Respondents may not be able to respond because they are unable to articulate a response, they
may not be informed, or they may not remember.
46. Respondents do not answer questions on which they are not informed.
47. Filter questions enable the researcher to filter out respondents who are not adequately
informed.
48. A “don’t know” option does not appear to reduce uninformed responses without reducing the
overall response rate or the response rate for questions about which the respondents have
information.
49. Questions such as “What did you have for lunch a week ago?” are correct questions because
consumers are very good at remembering quantities of products consumed.
50. Creation error is the inability to recall an event that actually took place.
51. Research indicates that questions that rely on unaided recall can underestimate the actual
occurrence of an event.
52. Respondents with responses that are difficult to articulate should be given aids such as pictures,
maps, and descriptions to help them articulate their responses.
53. The researcher can manipulate the context in which the questions are asked so that the
questions seem appropriate.

54. Sensitive topics should be placed at the beginning of the questionnaire to get the difficult
questions over with.
55. Respondents exhibiting order or position bias tend to check the first or last number in a list of
numbers.
56. To control for order bias, several forms of the questionnaire should be prepared with the order
in which alternatives are listed varied from form to form.
57. Dichotomous questions cannot have neutral alternatives such as “don’t know” or “no opinion.”
58. Deciding on question wording is probably the most difficult task in developing a questionnaire.
59. When developing questions, the researcher should avoid leading questions like “What is your
favorite brand of toothpaste?”
60. Mentioning the sponsor of a project in the question might bias the respondent towards the
sponsor.

61. An alternative that is not explicitly expressed in the options is an implicit alternative.
62. There is evidence that the response to a question is influenced by the directionality of the
question.
63. Opening questions should be used to get at the purpose of the questionnaire quickly.
64. Qualifying questions should not serve as opening questions.
65. Information should be obtained in the following order: basic, identification, classification.
66. The inverted funnel is a strategy for ordering questions in a questionnaire in which the sequence
starts with the general questions that are followed by progressively specific questions in order to
prevent specific questions from biasing general questions.
67. The inverted funnel approach is useful when respondents have no strong feelings or have not
formulated a point of view.
68. In questionnaire design, assigning a code to every conceivable response before data collection is
called pre-coding.
69. All aspects of the questionnaire should be tested, including question content, wording,
sequence, form and layout, question difficulty, and instructions.

70. Respondents for the pretest and for the actual survey should not be drawn from the same
population.
71. Forms for recording observational data are more difficult to construct than questionnaires.
72. Observational forms and questionnaires require adequate pretesting.
73. The questionnaire or research instrument should be biased in terms of the country in which it
will be used.
74. Information on demographic characteristics such as marital status, education, household size,
occupation, income, and dwelling unit may have to be specified differently for different
countries, as these variables may not be directly comparable across countries.
38. Unstructured questions reduce cultural bias because they do not impose any response
alternatives.
44. Which of the following is not an objective of a questionnaire?
1. A questionnaire must translate the information needed into a set of specific

questions that the respondents can and will answer.
2. A questionnaire must be easy to use.

3. A questionnaire must uplift, motivate, and encourage the respondent to become
involved in the interview, to cooperate, and to complete the interview.
4. A questionnaire should minimize response error.
45. The great weakness of questionnaire design is _____.
i. precision
j. accuracy
k. theory
l. consensus
46. The first step in the questionnaire design process is _____.
i. specify the type of interview method
j. identify the form and layout
k. specify the information needed
l. determine the content of individual questions
46. When developing a questionnaire, to ensure that the information obtained fully addresses all
components of the problem, the researcher should:
a. review components of the problem and the approach.
b. prepare a set of dummy tables.
c. have a clear idea of the target population.
d. all of the above
43. A _____ describes how the analysis will be structured once the data have been collected.
e. dummy table
f. analysis table
g. dummy plan

44. The type of method influences questionnaire design. Considering how the questionnaire is
administered under each method, which method is most appropriate if lengthy, complex, and
varied questions need to be asked?
i. mail questionnaire
j. telephone interview
k. personal interview
l. Internet questionnaire
45. Deciding if a question is necessary or if several questions are needed rather than one are
decisions involved with _____.
e. determining the order of scales
f. choosing question wording
g. choosing question structure
h. individual question content
46. “Do you think Coca-Cola is a tasty and refreshing soft drink?” is an example of a _____.
e. structured question
f. dichotomous question
g. double-barreled question
h. branching question
47. A _____ is a single question that attempts to cover two issues.
i. structured question
j. dichotomous question
k. double-barreled question
l. branching question
(c, easy, page 284)

48. When determining if a question is necessary, in some situations it may be necessary to ask
questions that are not directly related to the information that is needed. Which of the types of
questions below was mentioned in your text as an example of such a question?
e. neutral questions
f. filler questions
g. questions about competing brands
h. all of the above
49. Most “why” questions about the use of a product or choice alternative involve two aspects:
_____ and _____.
e. attributes of the product; influences leading to knowledge of the product
f. attributes of the product; how the product is used
g. how the product is used; influences leading to knowledge of the product
50. _____ that measure familiarity, product use, and past experience should be asked before
questions about the topics themselves.
e. Branching questions
f. Filler questions
g. Dichotomous questions
h. Filter questions
55. Respondents’ inability to remember leads to three types of error. Which of the errors listed
below is not mentioned in the text as one of the types of errors created by respondents?
e. telescoping
f. creation error
g. recall error
h. omission error

56. The respondents’ ability to remember an event is influenced by all of the following except:
e. the event itself
f. the time elapsed since the event
g. the presence or absence of events that would aid memory
h. where you were when the event occurred

55. Which of the following is not a reason why a respondent might be unwilling to answer a
particular question?
e. The respondent may not be informed.
f. Too much effort is required.
g. The situation or context may not seem appropriate for disclosure.
h. No legitimate purpose or need for the information requested is apparent.
56. When trying to overcome respondents’ unwillingness to answer, explaining why the data are
needed or the use of counter-biasing statements can _____.
e. put the request in context
f. make the request seem legitimate
g. help reduce the effort required of the respondent
h. both a and b
71. _____ refer to open-ended questions that respondents answer in their own words.
a. Dichotomous questions
c. Unstructured questions
d. Branching questions
(c, easy, page 289)
72. “Describe your college experience” and “What is your occupation?” are _____ questions.
a. dichotomous
b. filter
c. structured
d. unstructured
73. Which of the following statements is not an advantage of unstructured questions?
i. Unstructured questions are good as first questions on a topic.

j. Implicitly, unstructured questions give extra weight to respondents who are more articulate.
k. Unstructured questions have a much less biasing influence on response than structured
questions.
l. Unstructured questions are useful in exploratory research.

74. Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of unstructured questions?
a. Unstructured questions are not suitable for self-administered questionnaires.
b. Coding of responses is costly and time consuming.
c. Unstructured questions have a much less biasing influence on response than structured
questions.
d. Implicitly, unstructured questions give extra weight to respondents who are more articulate.
(c, easy, page 289)
75. _____ specify the set of response alternatives and the response format.
a. Filter questions
c. Unstructured questions
d. Branching questions
(b, easy, page 290)
76. Which of the following is not a type of structured question?
a. multiple choice
b. dichotomous
c. scale
d. none of the above
(d, easy, page 290)
77. When developing questionnaire questions, if you are considering order position bias and the set
of all possible response alternatives, you are developing _____ questions.
a. multiple choice
b. dichotomous
c. scale
d. branching
78. Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of structured questions?
a. Coding and processing of data are much less costly and time consuming.
b. Considerable effort is required to design effective multiple choice questions.
c. Showing respondents the list of possible answers produces biased responses.
d. It is difficult to obtain information on alternatives not listed.
(a, easy, pages 290-291)
79. What is the one acute problem of dichotomous questions?
a. There is potential for position bias.
b. It is difficult to obtain information on alternatives not listed.
c. The response can be influenced by the wording of the question.
d. None of the above.

80. _____ is the translation of the desired question content and structure into words that
respondents can clearly and easily understand.
a. The questionnaire design process
b. Question wording
c. Overcoming inability to answer
d. Determining the content of individual questions
81. When developing a questionnaire, the following guidelines: (1) define the issue, (2) use ordinary
words, and (3) avoid ambiguous words are used when _____.
a. arranging questions in proper order
b. choosing question wording
c. designing questions to overcome the respondent’s inability to answer
d. determining the content of individual questions
71. When developing a questionnaire, the six Ws (who, what, when, where, why, and way) are used
when _____.
a. defining the issue
b. choosing question wording
c. avoiding generalizations and estimates
d. determining the content of individual questions
(a, moderate, pages 292-293)
72. Choosing between the questions “Do you think the distribution of soft drinks is adequate?”
(Incorrect) and “Do you think soft drinks are readily available when you want to buy them?”
(Correct) are examples of situations that pertain to _____.
i. avoiding leading questions
j. avoiding ambiguous words
k. using positive and negative statements
l. using ordinary words

73. Which of the words below is not an ambiguous word?
a. frequently
b. twice
c. often
d. occasionally

74. When developing a questionnaire, if the researcher is asking him/herself if the word means what
he/she intended; if it has any other meanings; if the word has more than one pronunciation; or if
a simpler phrase is suggested then, he/she is probably concerned with _____.
a. avoiding leading questions
b. avoiding ambiguous words
c. using defining the issue
d. using ordinary words
68. A _____ is a question that gives the respondent a clue as to what answer is desired or leads the
respondent to answer in a certain way.
e. leading question
f. implicit alternative
g. filter question
h. structured question
69. Which of the following statements is correct about implicit alternatives?
e. Making an implied alternative explicit may increase the percentage of people selecting that
alternative.
f. When alternatives are close in preference or large in number, the alternatives at the end of
the list have a greater chance of being selected.
g. The split ballot technique should be used to rotate the order in which a list of alternatives
appear.
h. All of the above are correct.
114. The statement “Questions should be specific, not general.” pertains to the _____ aspect of
questionnaire development.
i. avoid implicit assumptions
j. avoid implicit alternatives
k. avoid generalizations and estimates
l. use unambiguous words

115. The information that is of the most importance to the research project and should be
obtained first is _____.
a. qualifying information
b. identification information
c. basic information
d. classification information

116. _____ is information that relates directly to the research problem.
a. Qualifying information
b. Identification information
c. Basic information
d. Classification information
117. _____ is socioeconomic and demographic characteristics used to classify respondents.
118. _____ is a type of information obtained in a questionnaire that includes name, address, and
phone number.
119. Which of the following statements is true about difficult questions?
a. Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the section on basic information.
b. Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the identification section.
c. Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the classification section.
d. All of the statements are correct.
120. Which statement is correct concerning the effect on subsequent questions?
a. As a rule of thumb, general questions should precede specific questions to prevent specific
questions from biasing responses to general questions.
b. The inverted funnel approach is useful when respondents have no strong feelings or have
not formulated a point of view.
c. The inverted funnel approach is particularly useful when information has to be obtained
about respondents’ general choice behavior and their evaluations of specific products.
d. All are correct.
121. _____ are questions used to guide an interviewer through a survey by directing the
interviewer to different spots on the questionnaire depending on the answers given.
a. Leading questions
b. Branching questions
c. Opening questions
d. Multiple choice questions
122. Experiments on mail questionnaires for census of population revealed what about
questionnaire form and layout?
a. Questions at the top of the page received more attention than those placed at the bottom.
b. Sensitive information placed at the end of the questionnaire was answered more frequently
than sensitive information placed elsewhere.
c. Instructions printed in red made little difference except that they made the questionnaire
appear more complicated to the respondents.
d. Both ‘a’ and ‘c’ are correct.
123. Which of the following practices should be avoided when reproducing the questionnaire?
a. If the printed questionnaire runs to several pages, it should take the form of a booklet.
b. Sideways formatting and splitting should be done to conserve space.
c. Directions or instructions should be placed as close to the questions as possible.
d. Surveys directed at different respondent groups can be reproduced on different colored

paper.
124. _____ is the testing of the questionnaire on a small sample of respondents for the purpose
of improving the questionnaire by identifying and eliminating potential problems.
a. Funneling
b. Telescoping
c. Posttesting
d. Pretesting
125. Observational forms should specify the who, what, and when of the behavior to be
observed. The forms should also specify all of the items below except:
a. where
b. whether
c. why
d. way
126. Which of the following statements are true concerning questionnaire design for
international marketing research?
a. The questionnaire may have to be suitable for administration by more than one method.
b. It is desirable to have two or more simple questions rather than a single complex question.
c. Unstructured or open-ended questions should be used with caution in countries with high
illiteracy rates.

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All variables other than the independent variables that affect the response of the test units are

b. Possible causal factors

c. Time order of occurrence

.................refers to the loss of test units while the experiment is in progress.

An experimental design is a set of procedures specifying:

....................refers to whether the cause-and-effect relationships found in the experiment can be

Multiple Time Series Design is a type of:

Latin square design is a type of:

Individuals, organizations, or other entities whose response to the independent variables or

a. Preference Comparison Scaling

c. Rank Order Scaling

d. Constant Sum Scaling

.................means assigning numbers or other symbols to characteristics of objects according to

Under Assumption of Transivity:

a. If A&gt;B, B&gt;C, it means that A&gt;C

b. If A=B, then B=C

d. None of the above

What involves creating a continuum?

A dichotomous question always has only two response alternatives. T/F

................are open-ended questions that respondents answer in their own words.

d. None of the above

We should place sensitive topics at the end of the questionnaire.

Response error arises bacause of:

Which of this is not a part of "Six Ws":

Perception analyzer is a type of

a. Itemized Rating Scale

b. Continuous Rating Scale

d. Semantic Differential Scale

a. Itemized Rating Scale

d. Semantic Differential Scale

Asking a person whether he is religious or non-religious on a scale of -3 to +3 is an example

Non-comparative scales are often referred to as monadic scales. T/F

Which of these is not a Nonprobability Sampling technique?

a. Mutually Exclusive Collectively Exhaustive

b. Mutually Exhaustive Collectively Exclusive

c. Market Exclusive Consumer Exhaustive

d. Market Endurance Consumer Extent

Which of these is not a Probability Sampling technique?

...............refers to the geographical boundaries.

Which of these is not a method of reducing refusals?

A Statistic is generally more accurate than a Parameter. T/F

Incentives are the most effective methods to reduce not-at-homes. T/F

"Mu" is a symbol representing:

Which is the least required qualification of a field worker?

Which is the last step in Fieldwork process?

a. High Willed High Skilled

b. Low Willed Low Skilled

c. Low Willed High Skilled

d. High Willed Low Skilled

Which of these is not an example of probing?

a. Repeating the question

b. Repeating the respondent's reply

Cheating of field workers can be controlled by:

Summarizing or paraphrasing a respondent's answers is a great way to record responses. T/F

Which of these is not a way towards evaluation of field workers.

Experienced interviewers are likely to do a better job. T/F

1. Causality refers to when the occurrence of X causes the occurrence of Y.

a. If A>B, B>C, it means that A>C