Chapter 1-10 Answer Help

Exam
Name___________________________________
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
1) The wellness concept defines health as the absence of disease. 1)

Answer: True False
2) Wellness is largely determined by the decisions you make about how you live. 2)
Answer: True False
3) Self-control is one characteristic of a person who possesses good emotional health. 3)

Answer: True False
4) A person who is devoutly religious is assured of good spiritual health. 4)

Answer: True False
5) In order to achieve overall wellness, an individual must seek to develop at least four of 5)
the six dimensions of wellness.
Answer: True False
6) Social wellness requires participating in and contributing to your community and society. 6)
Answer: True False
7) Occupational wellness is enhanced with high salaries and prestigious titles. 7)

Answer: True False
8) Prior to the twentieth century, a person was most likely to die of a chronic disease. 8)
Answer: True False
9) During the early twentieth century people were more likely to die from infectious disease 9)
than from heart disease.
Answer: True False
10) Length of life is synonymous with quality of life. 10)

Answer: True False
11) Poor lifestyle choices can be directly linked to mortality rates in the late twentieth 11)
century.
Answer: True False
12) In the long run, what we do for ourselves has a great influence on our health. 12)
Answer: True False
13) Knowledge about health is all you need to undertake a behaviour change. 13)
Answer: True False
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14) Most health problems occur at the same rate for men and women. 14)
Answer: True False
15) The estimated total cost of illness, disability, and death attributed to chronic diseases in 15)
Canada is $100 billion.
Answer: True False
16) Women are more likely to be afflicted with Alzheimer's disease than men are. 16)
Answer: True False
17) Groups who have high poverty rates most often have the worst health status. 17)
Answer: True False
18) The costs associated with behaviour change far outweigh the benefits. 18)
Answer: True False
19) Short-term benefits of behaviour change are important as a motivating force. 19)
Answer: True False
20) Belief that you are in control of your own life is known as having an internal locus of 20)
control.
Answer: True False
21) Having an external locus of control is associated with motivation and commitment to 21)
change behaviour.
Answer: True False
22) Social support is not important for motivation during a behaviour change program. 22)
Answer: True False
23) Expecting success in behaviour change actually decreases the likelihood of achieving 23)
success.
Answer: True False
24) Health journals are most effective as a behaviour change tool when they address only the 24)
specific target behaviour.
Answer: True False
25) The transtheoretical model has been shown to be an effective approach to lifestyle 25)
self-management.
Answer: True False
26) Working toward realistic goals will increase your chances of success. 26)
Answer: True False
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27) Having incremental steps toward a long-term goal increases the chance that you will 27)
achieve the ultimate goal.
Answer: True False
28) Effective rewards and support for behaviour change can be provided by family and 28)
friends.
Answer: True False
29) It would be fair to describe "slips" in the attempt to change behaviours as failures. 29)
Answer: True False
30) Making changes in your original plan of action will decrease your chance of reaching 30)
your goal.
Answer: True False
31) If you are facing stress in your life, it might be necessary to delay a behaviour change 31)
program.
Answer: True False
32) Stress from other parts of a person's life often makes it more difficult to be successful in 32)
changing a behaviour.
Answer: True False
33) Making successful change in a health behaviour has the additional benefit of allowing 33)
you to feel better about yourself.
Answer: True False
34) Behaviour choices and actions impact only the health and wellness of the individual. 34)
Answer: True False
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
35) The six dimensions of wellness include all of the following, EXCEPT 35)
A) dietary wellness.
B) spiritual wellness.
C) emotional wellness.
D) environmental, or planetary, wellness.
Answer: A
36) Which one of the following qualities contributes positively to one's physical wellness? 36)
A) being open to new ideas B) maintaining an optimistic attitude
C) maintaining satisfying relationships D) eating a balanced diet
Answer: D
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37) Optimism, trust, and self-confidence are components of 37)
A) spiritual wellness. B) interpersonal wellness.
C) emotional wellness. D) physical wellness.
Answer: C
38) Adam's parents are not unduly concerned about their son's ability to adapt to college 38)
because he has always had a good sense of humor, been curious, and demonstrated an
openness to ideas. These qualities are reflective of Adam's _______________ wellness.
A) intellectual B) emotional C) interpersonal D) spiritual
Answer: A
39) Spiritual wellness is best described as having 39)

A) the ability to share one's feelings.
B) the ability to express oneself creatively.
C) a strong support network of family and friends.
D) meaning and purpose in one's life.
Answer: D
40) Reducing pollution and waste in the workplace is an example of promoting 40)
_______________ wellness.
A) social B) intellectual
C) spiritual D) environmental
Answer: D
41) The six dimensions of wellness 41)

A) demonstrate the separateness of mind and body.
B) affect health independently of each other.
C) seldom influence one another.
D) are interrelated.
Answer: D
42) The environmental health threats faced by our ancestors included all of the following, 42)
EXCEPT
A) acid rain. B) water pollution.
C) lack of physical activity. D) poor sanitary conditions.
Answer: A
43) If you were born in 1900, your life expectancy was approximately 43)
A) 47 years. B) 77 years. C) 62 years. D) 32 years.
Answer: A
44) The average life span in the twentieth century 44)

A) did not change significantly. B) increased slightly.
C) nearly tripled. D) nearly doubled.
Answer: D
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45) The top three causes of death among Canadians age 15 to 24 are 45)
A) smoking, heart disease, and suicide. B) homicide, cancer, and accidents.
C) accidents, cancer, and suicide. D) accidents, heart disease, and cancer.
Answer: C
46) The best response to behaviour-related diseases is 46)

A) chemical treatment. B) rehabilitation.
C) prevention. D) surgical treatment.
Answer: C
47) Occupational wellness is measured by how much _____________ the job offers. 47)
A) money B) work C) prestige D) happiness
Answer: D
48) In the past 100 years, the major causes of death have shifted from ______________ to 48)
_____________.
A) childbirth; infectious diseases B) infectious diseases; heart disease
C) accidents; AIDS D) heart disease; cancer
Answer: B
49) The health determinant over which we have least control is 49)
A) exercise. B) diet.
C) tobacco use. D) genetic makeup.
Answer: D
50) Which of the following is currently Canada's number-one cause of death? 50)
A) unintentional injuries B) heart disease
C) suicide D) cancer
Answer: D
51) The single most important factor in determining an individual's level of wellness is 51)
A) behaviour. B) environment. C) genetics. D) age.
Answer: A
52) John, an Inuit Aboriginal student, has chosen to incorporate exercise into his daily 52)
routine and to reduce the amount of salt in his diet after finding out that his blood
pressure is high. His decision to make these lifestyle changes is most likely based on the
following health concerns for Inuit Aboriginals.
A) They have higher rates of infant mortality.
B) They have higher rates of heart disease and obesity.
C) They have higher suicide rates.
D) They have a higher incidence of tuberculosis than males in other population groups.
Answer: B
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53) When compared to the general Canadian population, those of French-Canadian heritage 53)
have
A) higher rates of Tay-Sachs disease. B) higher overall death rates.
C) shorter life expectancies. D) lower overall death rates.
Answer: A
54) Men have higher rates of death than women from all of the following, EXCEPT 54)
A) homicide. B) unintentional injuries.
C) stroke. D) suicide.
Answer: C
55) Income and education are closely linked with health status. The _____________ the 55)
poverty rate and the _____________ the education level, the better the health.
A) lower; higher B) higher; lower C) higher; higher D) lower; lower
Answer: A
56) Heart disease, a leading cause of death in Canada, is strongly related to all of the 56)
following EXCEPT
A) high levels of physical activity. B) high levels of stress.
C) cigarette smoking. D) a sedentary lifestyle.
Answer: A
57) People with disabilities are more likely to 57)

A) die at a young age. B) have cancer.
C) have HIV. D) be obese.
Answer: D
58) Gay, lesbian, bisexual, and transgender teens are at greater risk for 58)
A) asthma. B) cancer. C) obesity. D) suicide.
Answer: D
59) The complete set of genetic material in an individual's cells is referred to as her or his 59)
A) proteome. B) RNA. C) genes. D) genome.
Answer: D
60) The following are all environmental factors, EXCEPT the 60)
A) air you breathe.
B) amount of alcohol consumption in your home.
C) genetic make-up in your body.
D) water you drink.
Answer: C
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61) The top health issue affecting students' academic performance today is 61)
A) relationship problems. B) stress.
C) alcohol abuse. D) depression.
Answer: B
62) The most harmful consequence of environmental abuse is 62)

A) global warming. B) contaminated drinking water.
C) pesticides. D) acid rain.
Answer: A
63) The "greenhouse" effect is 63)

A) not yet proven.
B) more pronounced in under-developed nations.
C) a complex system of burning coal.
D) an invisible insulating blanket that traps heat and increases the temperature of the
atmosphere.
Answer: D
64) The first step in improving wellness by lifestyle management is to 64)

A) ask your family for assistance. B) begin with a self-assessment.
C) reward yourself. D) ask friends what you should improve.
Answer: B
65) Integral to a successful plan to change an unhealthy behaviour is to 65)

A) start small.
B) choose your most unhealthy behaviour.
C) keep the plan to yourself.
D) pick your top three unhealthy behaviours.
Answer: A
66) The behaviour one identifies for change is called 66)

A) target behaviour. B) enabling behaviour.
C) predisposed behaviour. D) bad news.
Answer: A
67) Eduardo has identified gambling as a target behaviour because it is interfering with his 67)
schoolwork. To aid him in stopping this behaviour, he may need to
A) buy a self-help book. B) use a self-management approach.
C) find outside help. D) spend more time with his friends.
Answer: C
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68) A target behaviour can best be defined as 68)
A) an isolated behaviour that is the focus of your behaviour change plan.
B) a lifelong habit you want to stop immediately.
C) several bad habits in need of change.
D) a friend's behaviour that you urge him or her to change.
Answer: A
69) The belief in one's ability to be successful in the performance of a given task is termed 69)
A) self-esteem. B) self-concept.
C) self-fulfilling prophecy. D) self-efficacy.
Answer: D
70) A comparison survey of North American smokers and non-smokers found that 70)
A) non-smokers report fewer days of sadness.
B) smokers report fewer days of troubled sleep.
C) smokers report more energy.
D) non-smokers report eating more.
Answer: A
71) "Your ability to successfully take action and perform specific tasks" defines the term 71)
A) self-esteem. B) self-talk. C) self-efficacy. D) self-control.
Answer: C
72) Those with an internal locus of control believe that events turn out as they do based on 72)
A) their actions. B) luck. C) heredity. D) fate.
Answer: A
73) Donna is about 25 pounds overweight, has tried a variety of diets, and has repeatedly 73)
failed to maintain weight loss. She defends her weight with the explanation that almost
all of her relatives are overweight, and none has ever been successful with attempts to
lose weight. Donna can best be described as
A) being unmotivated. B) being a victim of genetics.
C) having an internal locus of control. D) having an external locus of control.
Answer: D
74) The technique of visualization is one of the best ways to 74)

A) boost your confidence. B) keep an eye on your future.
C) improve physical strength. D) heighten your senses.
Answer: A
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75) A strategy to increase your chances of success in the pursuit of a new behaviour is to 75)
A) find a new behaviour to change if you experience a temporary failure.
B) frequently visualize goal attainment and enjoy its benefits.
C) stick with the program even during periods of high stress.
D) rationalize temporary setbacks to minimize feelings of failure.
Answer: B
76) The precontemplation stage is characterized by 76)

A) a modification of behaviour.
B) an awareness of the problem.
C) a planning for change.
D) a belief that there is no need for change.
Answer: D
77) During a "stages of change" behaviour change program, some people may lapse. If this 77)
occurs, the best strategy for them is to
A) start over from the beginning.
B) give up.
C) learn from the lapse as they slip back to an earlier stage.
D) choose a different behaviour for change.
Answer: C
78) The order in which a behaviour change strategy is implemented is 78)

A) devise a plan of action, set goals, monitor behaviour, analyze data, make contract.
B) monitor behaviour, analyze data, set goals, devise a plan of action, make contract.
C) make contract, set goals, devise a plan of action, monitor behaviour, analyze data.
D) analyze data, monitor behaviour, devise a plan of action, set goals, make contract.
Answer: B
79) Entries made into a health journal about a behaviour should note all the following, 79)
EXCEPT
A) what the activity was. B) what your friends/family did.
C) how you felt at the time. D) when and where it happened.
Answer: B
80) Which of the following health journal information would be of little benefit in promoting 80)
personal behaviour change?
A) identification of other people's reactions to your behaviour
B) descriptions of exactly what your behaviours are
C) recording your feelings at the time you were engaging in the behaviour
D) identification of when and where activities occurred
Answer: A
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81) Anne wants to lose weight and is keeping a health journal to record her progress. Which 81)
of the following questions might be appropriately asked in the course of analyzing data
from her health journal?
A) What will be the consequences of not changing my risky health behaviour?
B) When am I most likely to overeat?
C) How many behaviours in my life are serious health threats?
D) What behaviour do I want to change?
Answer: B
82) The best plan for behaviour change 82)

A) begins with a negative self-assessment.
B) concentrates on several behaviours.
C) works at change systematically.
D) begins with a positive self-assessment
Answer: C
83) To help ensure success with a behaviour change program, you should 83)
A) re-evaluate your friendships.
B) consider potential genetic factors.
C) develop a reward system.
D) avoid enlisting your family as support.
Answer: C
84) Chances of success in behaviour management DECREASE if 84)

A) efforts are cost-effective.
B) programs are those that can be followed over a long time.
C) change in behaviour is real and lasting.
D) environmental cues are ignored.
Answer: D
85) According to the "SMART" criteria; a behaviour change such as "drink eight cups of 85)
water every day" is an example of being
A) too easy. B) realistic. C) specific. D) truthful.
Answer: C
86) Rewards included in health action plans should 86)

A) increase in cost over time.
B) be meaningful and affordable.
C) reinforce your efforts.
D) be provided only when you reach your overall goal.
Answer: C
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87) A primary purpose of developing a personal contract for behaviour change is to 87)
A) notify others of your intent to change your behaviour.
B) assess your motivation for changing a health behaviour.
C) prioritize the behaviours that you are considering changing.
D) commit you to your word of behaviour modification.
Answer: D
88) Writing a contract for behaviour change involves all of the following, EXCEPT 88)
A) identifying the consequences of failure to reach the established goal.
B) clearly stating your goal.
C) identifying the steps to be used to measure progress.
D) setting a date to begin.
Answer: A
89) Someone you know at work who is attempting to lose weight has been repeatedly 89)
"derailed" by coworkers who bring high-calorie snacks to work every day. It would be
fair to say that this person does NOT
A) have the knowledge to change. B) want to change.
C) have the skills to change. D) have the support to change.
Answer: D
90) Information from a health journal maintained after a behaviour change plan is put into 90)
action should be used to do all of the following, EXCEPT
A) track progress. B) identify barriers to progress.
C) identify new behaviours to change. D) make revisions in the plan.
Answer: C
91) Obstacles in the process of behaviour change 91)

A) are a sign of failure in the pursuit of a new behaviour.
B) often cause us to settle for a level of success that is less than our original goal.
C) should be avoided, if possible, in the pursuit of a new behaviour.
D) are a natural part of the process.
Answer: D
92) The most constructive response to a temporary setback in the pursuit of a new behaviour 92)
is
A) accepting the fact that problems may periodically occur.
B) increasing rewards to make efforts more worthwhile.
C) accepting the blame for failing if you return to your old behaviour.
D) not tolerating temporary failure.
Answer: A
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93) Which of the following is a positive social influence on health behaviours? 93)
A) supportive friends B) money
C) personal skills D) attitudes
Answer: A
94) Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy for maintaining behaviour 94)
change?
A) refocusing B) evaluating social influences
C) rationalizing D) assessing stress levels
Answer: C
95) With regard to one's health, which one of the following elements is most within an 95)
individual's control?
A) behaviour B) health care C) environment D) heredity
Answer: A
96) Which of the following is an example of taking action to modify the environment and 96)
support health behaviours?
A) encouraging legislators to pass legislation increasing the number of public areas
where smoking is allowed
B) smoking your friend's cigarettes so that she does not have to
C) serving alcoholic drinks at your parties
D) voting for measures that reduce air pollution
Answer: D
97) When evaluating health topics on the Internet, check the 97)
A) testimonials for evidence.
B) blogs first.
C) qualifications of the people behind the site.
D) latest media post on the topic.
Answer: C
98) Which of the following is NOT a modifiable risk factor? 98)

A) exercising B) smoking C) healthy diet D) family history
Answer: D
99) The six dimensions of wellness include all of the following, EXCEPT 99)
A) intellectual wellness. B) emotional wellness.
C) environmental wellness. D) physical activity wellness.
Answer: D
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100) Emotional wellness includes all of the following, EXCEPT 100)
A) making choices to avoid illnesses and injuries.
B) attending to your own thoughts and feelings.
C) identifying obstacles to emotional stability.
D) monitoring your reactions.
Answer: A
101) Your ability to develop and maintain satisfying and supportive relationships is referred to 101)
as _____________ wellness.
A) intellectual B) spiritual C) interpersonal D) emotional
Answer: C
102) Openness to new ideas, capacity to question, and creativity are components of 102)
A) spiritual wellness. B) intellectual wellness.
C) emotional wellness. D) interpersonal wellness.
Answer: B
103) Altruism, compassion, and fulfillment are components of 103)

A) intellectual wellness. B) interpersonal wellness.
C) emotional wellness. D) spiritual wellness.
Answer: D
104) Communication skills, intimacy, and satisfying relationships are components of 104)
A) emotional wellness. B) spiritual wellness.
C) intellectual wellness. D) interpersonal wellness.
Answer: D
105) The level of happiness and fulfillment you gain through your work is referred to as 105)
A) intellectual wellness. B) occupational wellness.
C) spiritual wellness. D) emotional wellness.
Answer: B
106) All of the following are key aspects of occupational wellness, EXCEPT 106)
A) feelings of achievement. B) job dissatisfaction.
C) opportunities to learn and grow. D) enjoyable work.
Answer: B
107) All of the following are characteristic of people with low socioeconomic status, 107)
EXCEPT
A) less likely to have access to health services.
B) higher rates of death.
C) lower rates of injury.
D) more likely to engage in unhealthy habits.
Answer: C
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108) The percentage of overweight or obese Canadians is 108)
A) 45 percent. B) 60 percent. C) 18 percent. D) 33 percent.
Answer: B
109) The percentage of Canadian men that have not seen their doctor for a checkup in the past 109)
year is
Answer: A
110) Men are more likely to experience all the following compared to women, EXCEPT 110)
A) cluster headaches. B) higher rates of spit tobacco use.
C) stronger immune systems. D) alcoholism.
Answer: C
111) What percentage of First Nations people living on reserve have type 2 diabetes? 111)
Answer: A
112) Canadians with low incomes and education have higher rates, on average, of all of the 112)
following, EXCEPT
A) post traumatic stress disorder. B) violent death.
C) infant mortality. D) traumatic injury.
Answer: A
113) First Nations people living on reserve have TB infection rates ____ times higher than the 113)
Canadian average.
A) 30 B) 10 C) 2 D) 5
Answer: A
114) All of the following are true of people living in rural areas of Canada as compared to 114)
their urban counterparts, EXCEPT
A) less likely to use seat belts.
B) less physically active.
C) more likely to experience an injury-related death.
D) more likely to obtain preventive health screening tests.
Answer: D
115) All of the following are true of people living in rural areas of Canada as compared to 115)
their urban counterparts, EXCEPT
A) less likely to obtain preventive health screening tests.
B) less likely to be diagnosed with cancer.
C) greater sense of community belonging.
D) more likely to experience stress.
Answer: D
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116) What percentage of Canadian adults identify themselves as gay, lesbian, or bisexual? 116)
Answer: D
117) Heart disease is associated with all of the following risk factors, EXCEPT 117)
A) smoking. B) stress.
C) regular exercise. D) hostile and suspicious attitudes.
Answer: C
118) Regular exercise decreases one's risk of all of the following EXCEPT 118)
A) lung cancer. B) osteoporosis. C) heart disease. D) diabetes.
Answer: A
119) All of the following are important considerations whenever you encounter health-related 119)
information, EXCEPT
A) go to the original source.
B) apply anecdotes to your own life.
C) watch for misleading language.
D) distinguish between research reports and public health advice.
Answer: B
120) When considering health information available on the Internet, which of the following is 120)
not an important question to ask yourself when considering the reliability and accuracy
of the information?
A) Is the site promotional?
B) How often is the site updated?
C) Where is the headquarters for the publisher?
D) What do other sources say about the topic?
Answer: C
121) When learning about the risks and benefits of a target behaviour, all of the following are 121)
important questions to ask, EXCEPT
A) How is your target behaviour affecting your level of wellness today?
B) Is your target behaviour too difficult to change?
C) What diseases or conditions does this behaviour place you at risk for?
D) What effect would changing your behaviour have on your health?
Answer: B
122) Strategies for boosting self-efficacy include all of the following, EXCEPT 122)
A) visualization.
B) developing an external locus of control.
C) self-talk.
D) encouragement from supportive people.
Answer: B
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123) According to the stages of change model, people at this stage do not think they have a 123)
problem and do not intend to change their behaviour.
A) preparation B) action
C) contemplation D) precontemplation
Answer: D
124) According to the stages of change model, people at this stage know they have a problem 124)
and intend to take action within six months.
A) contemplation B) preparation
C) action D) precontemplation
Answer: A
125) According to the stages of change model, people at this stage plan to take action within a 125)
month or may already have begun to make small changes in their behaviour.
A) precontemplation B) action
C) preparation D) contemplation
Answer: C
126) According to the stages of change model, people at this stage have practiced their new, 126)
healthier lifestyle for at least six months.
A) preparation B) contemplation
C) maintenance D) action
Answer: C
127) All of the following are important considerations during the precontemplation stage of 127)
behaviour change, EXCEPT
A) raise your awareness. B) keep a journal.
C) seek social support. D) be self-aware.
Answer: B
128) All of the following are important considerations during the contemplation stage of 128)
A) identify barriers to change. B) do a cost-benefit analysis.
C) engage your emotions. D) seek social support.
Answer: D
129) All of the following are important considerations during the preparation stage of 129)
A) make change a priority. B) create a plan.
C) identify helpful resources. D) take short steps.
Answer: C
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130) All of the following are important considerations during the action stage of behaviour 130)
change, EXCEPT
A) practice visualization and self-talk. B) involve your friends.
C) change your environment. D) monitor your progress.
Answer: A
131) All of the following are important considerations during the maintenance stage of 131)
A) be a role model. B) be prepared for lapses.
C) keep a journal. D) keep going.
Answer: C
132) The six stage of behaviour change according to the stages of change model is 132)
A) completion. B) action. C) termination. D) maintenance.
Answer: C
133) Approximately what percentage of individuals experience some backsliding during 133)
behaviour change?
Answer: C
134) The stages of change model is most accurately described as a ______________ model. 134)
A) constellation B) spiral C) circular D) linear
Answer: B
135) The 'S' in SMART goals stands for 135)

A) smart. B) specific. C) super. D) social.
Answer: B
136) The 'M' in SMART goals stands for 136)

A) meaningful. B) moderate. C) mini. D) measurable.
Answer: D
137) The 'A' in SMART goals stands for 137)

A) attainable. B) achievable. C) awesome. D) absolute.
Answer: A
138) The 'R' in SMART goals stands for 138)

A) relative. B) relational. C) realistic. D) radical.
Answer: C
139) The 'T' in SMART goals stands for 139)

A) tangible. B) time-frame specific.
C) tough. D) theoretical.
Answer: B
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140) When devising a plan of action for behaviour change, all of the following are important 140)
steps, EXCEPT
A) avoid others. B) reward yourself.
C) control related habits. D) modify your environment.
Answer: A
141) When devising a plan of action for behaviour change, all of the following are important 141)
steps, EXCEPT
A) plan for challenges.
B) involve the people around you.
C) reward yourself.
D) change multiple behaviours simultaneously.
Answer: D
142) A personal contract for behaviour change includes all of the following details, EXCEPT 142)
A) strategies you plan to use to promote change.
B) steps you will take to measure your progress.
C) rewards for good behaviour.
D) date you will start.
Answer: C
143) Barriers to health behaviour change progress may include all of the following, EXCEPT 143)
A) stress barriers.
B) social influences.
C) excess effort.
D) levels of motivation and commitment.
Answer: C
144) Taking your focus off the real problem and denying responsibility for your own actions is 144)
referred to as
A) blaming. B) rationalizing.
C) procrastinating. D) justifying.
Answer: A
145) If you tell yourself, "It's Friday already, I might as well wait until Monday to start" you 145)
are
Answer: C
146) If you tell yourself, "I wanted to go swimming today but wouldn't have had time to wash 146)
my hair afterward" you are
Answer: B
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147) If you tell yourself, "I couldn't exercise because Dave was hogging the treadmill" you are 147)
Answer: A
148) All of the following are important aspects of well-being that you may not be able to 148)
control, EXCEPT
A) environment. B) heredity.
C) smoking status. D) health care.
Answer: C
149) Environmental challenges that we currently face include all of the following, EXCEPT 149)
A) under population. B) global warming.
C) traffic congestion. D) air and water pollution.
Answer: A
150) Carla has become very busy since she came to university. She is a full-time student and 150)
is very active in campus clubs and organizations. Her classes and campus activities leave
her little time to socialize with her friends. She is beginning to feel as if she has let her
friends down because she has had to cancel several activities that they had planned, but she
also feels guilty if she isn't able to meet her other obligations. Carla has always thought that she
was in control of her life and has managed well up until now. She wants to spend more time with
her friends without giving up her other activities.
Carla's desire to spend more time with her friends indicates that she needs to improve her level
of _______________ wellness.
A) spiritual B) intellectual C) interpersonal D) emotional
Answer: C
If Carla succeeds in improving her target area of wellness, she will most likely see a
corresponding improvement in her _______________ wellness.
A) emotional B) occupational C) intellectual D) spiritual
Answer: A
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Carla made a plan to spend more time with her friends but found that her plan didn't seem to be
working too well. Which of the following is the most likely reason that Carla's plan is
not working as she expected?
A) Carla made a plan without first monitoring and evaluating her schedule.
B) Carla is more committed to her activities than to her friends.
C) Carla has an external locus of control.
D) Carla is not adequately motivated.
Answer: A
Carla realized and corrected her mistake. What can Carla do to ensure that she will continue to
have enough time to have fun with her friends without compromising any area of
wellness?
A) Be flexible with her time and acknowledge that obstacles may occasionally disrupt
her plans.
B) Tell her friends that they have to participate in some of the campus activities with
her so that they can have more time together.
C) Establish set times and days to be with her friends.
D) Eliminate some of her participation in campus activities.
Answer: A
20
Carla will probably be able to balance her time so that she can study, be active on campus, and
have fun with her friends because she
A) has an external locus of control.
B) will stick to her plan without making changes.
C) has an internal locus of control.
D) is persuasive and her friends will do as she asks.
Answer: C
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
155) Define the six dimensions of wellness discussed in the text and, for each 155)
dimension, list two behaviours or habits that would promote its development.
Answer: Answers will vary
156) Discuss the role that lifestyle choices play in determining quality of life. Provide 156)
three examples of healthy lifestyle choices and explain how each promotes
quality of life and the dimensions of wellness.
157) Describe at least five strategies for critically evaluating health-related 157)
information.
158) Describe which stage of change each of the following situations represents, and provide
158)
two appropriate strategies in each case to help the person move forward in the cycle of
change.
• José wants to get back into shape, but he can't figure out how to fit activity into his day
and doesn't know what to do next about his desire to change.
• Ellen has tried unsuccessfully to quit smoking in the past and now assumes that she
won't ever be able to quit.
• Gary has decided to improve his diet, beginning in two weeks; he has already started to
change by eating cereal for breakfast at home one day per week rather than picking up his
usual fast food breakfast on the way to his first class.
21
159) List the six major steps in a behaviour change plan of action. Select a target 159)
behaviour, and briefly describe how you would apply the steps to that behaviour.
22
Exam
Name___________________________________
1) Being normal is an accurate definition of psychological health. 1)

Answer: True False
2) It is easier to identify criteria for good psychological health than it is to identify criteria 2)
for poor psychological health.
Answer: True False
3) The most contemporary definition of psychological health is the absence of 3)

psychological illness.
Answer: True False
4) A simple, but accurate, definition of normality is "what most people do." 4)

Answer: True False
5) In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, safety and security are more basic needs than is being 5)
loved.
Answer: True False
6) Abraham Maslow arrived at his definition of self-actualized people by studying people of 6)

limited abilities.
Answer: True False
7) One of the characteristics of the self-actualized person is that she or he is self-accepting. 7)

Answer: True False
8) Other-directed individuals are more likely to be influenced by external forces. 8)

Answer: True False
9) Inner-directed people make choices that satisfy themselves instead of making choices 9)
that satisfy others.
Answer: True False
10) Physical intimacy, as it relates to psychological health, is the same as sexual intimacy. 10)
Answer: True False
11) Being able to engage in open communication and risk having hurt feelings is necessary 11)
for developing a capacity for intimacy.
Answer: True False
12) Without becoming self-actualized, we fail to become mentally healthy. 12)

Answer: True False
1
13) One's mental health is based on the presence or absence of symptoms. 13)
Answer: True False
14) Most people intent on committing suicide warn a friend or family member. 14)
Answer: True False
15) A primary developmental task of adolescence is the development of identity. 15)

Answer: True False
16) A person's earliest identity is most likely modeled after parents. 16)
Answer: True False
17) Identity is a way of viewing oneself and the world. 17)

Answer: True False
18) Identities are established early in adolescence and are usually permanent. 18)
Answer: True False
19) Individuals who do not establish a firm sense of identity may have difficulty establishing 19)
relationships.
Answer: True False
20) A thinking pattern common to demoralized individuals is an all-or-nothing view of 20)

events.
Answer: True False
21) Cognitive distortions are patterns of thinking that make events seem better than they are. 21)
Answer: True False
22) Realistic self-talk is based on substituting a positive thought for a negative one. 22)
Answer: True False
23) Expecting the worst and expecting perfection are both examples of negative self-talk. 23)
Answer: True False
24) Negative beliefs can be so strong that they become self-fulfilling prophesies. 24)
Answer: True False
25) Defense mechanisms may be used positively as long as reality is kept in perspective. 25)
Answer: True False
26) An example of rationalization would be a shy person who uses boredom as an excuse not 26)
to attend a social function.
Answer: True False
2
27) An optimist is one who expects failure and accepts it as deserved. 27)
Answer: True False
28) Loneliness is an active feeling state. 28)

Answer: True False
29) The ability to express anger is healthy. 29)

Answer: True False
30) Explosive anger and unexpressed anger are at opposite extremes on the anger continuum. 30)
Answer: True False
31) Assertiveness is an expression that is confident and direct but not hostile. 31)
Answer: True False
32) Shyness is often the basis for social phobias. 32)

Answer: True False
33) About 12% of Canadians currently have an anxiety disorder. 33)

Answer: True False
34) Fear of public speaking is categorized as a simple phobia. 34)

Answer: True False
35) People who suffer from panic disorders usually experience them for the first time during 35)
childhood.
Answer: True False
36) Agoraphobia may be caused by multiple panic attacks. 36)

Answer: True False
37) The end result of generalized anxiety disorder is the impairment of one's ability to enjoy 37)
life.
Answer: True False
38) Excessive worry about probable, ordinary concerns is a common manifestation of 38)
obsessive-compulsive disorder.
Answer: True False
39) Treatment two weeks following a traumatic event is recommended for people with 39)
symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder.
Answer: True False
40) It is important not to discuss suicide in front of someone you believe is contemplating 40)
suicide because you may give him or her ideas.
Answer: True False
3
41) Schizophrenia is a rare mental disorder. 41)
Answer: True False
42) For major depression, treatment should begin with antidepressants. 42)
Answer: True False
43) Self-harm is usually a simple act to get attention and is not serious. 43)
Answer: True False
44) Suicide is the ultimate form of mental illness. 44)

Answer: True False
45) Medication is the main factor in treating schizophrenia. 45)

Answer: True False
46) Bipolar disorder affects women and men equally. 46)

Answer: True False
47) Using St. John's wort may interfere with depression medications. 47)
Answer: True False
48) The behavioural model of human nature focuses on what people do. 48)
Answer: True False
49) The cognitive model of human nature emphasizes the effect of ideas on behaviours and 49)
feelings.
Answer: True False
50) The only way to solve a mental health problem is to seek professional help. 50)
Answer: True False
51) Which of the following statements regarding psychological health is TRUE? 51)
A) Psychological health is freedom from all disorders.
B) Psychological health is independent of physical health.
C) Psychological health and physical health are linked.
D) Psychological health is a myth.
Answer: C
52) The percentage of adult Canadians that suffer from a diagnosable psychological disorder 52)
is
Answer: D
4
53) Which of the following phrases is the best description of normality? 53)
A) what people think they should do B) the right thing to do
C) what most people should do D) what most people do
Answer: D
54) Which of the following is most likely to separate those individuals with psychological 54)
problems from those who enjoy good psychological health?
A) conforming to social demands
B) always having a smile on their face
C) ideas and attitudes that vary from the norms
D) denying the reality of problems
Answer: D
55) Which of the following statements is most TRUE regarding psychological health? 55)
A) Psychological health is the absence of anxiety.
B) Freedom from psychological disorders is a comprehensive definition of
psychological health.
C) It is as difficult to define it as it is important to understand it.
D) Being normal is the same as being psychologically healthy.
Answer: C
56) According to Maslow, basic human needs are ranked in the following order as they 56)
DECREASE in urgency:
A) physiological needs, safety, being loved, maintaining self-esteem, self-actualization.
B) self-actualization, physiological needs, safety, maintaining self-esteem, being loved.
C) safety, physiological needs, being loved, maintaining self-esteem, self-actualization.
D) safety, physiological needs, maintaining self-esteem, self-actualization.
Answer: A
57) Being self-actualized is characterized by 57)

A) good physical and mental health. B) realism.
C) strong work habits. D) passivity.
Answer: B
58) Maslow would NOT have described a self-actualized person as 58)

A) willing to accept evidence that contradicts what one wants to believe.
B) remaining focused on the idea of the way things should be.
C) not wasting energy trying to force people into the ideal picture of the way they
should be.
D) knowing the difference between what is and what one wants.
Answer: B
5
59) Which of the following statements describes a characteristic of self-actualized people? 59)
A) They are outer-directed.
B) They are largely able to accept themselves and others.
C) They do not trust their own senses and feelings.
D) They are autocratic.
Answer: B
60) People with acceptance usually 60)

A) have big egos.
B) have a positive but realistic perception of themselves.
C) feel good about themselves but are not likely to live up to their positive self-image.
D) have a lower opinion of themselves than is healthy.
Answer: B
61) Being inner-directed is most closely associated with 61)

A) capacity for intimacy. B) autonomy.
C) acceptance. D) creativity.
Answer: B
62) Which of the following statements describes people who are autonomous? 62)
A) They don't express their feelings because of fear of disapproval.
B) They act because they feel driven.
C) They are inner-directed.
D) They respond only to what they feel as outside pressure.
Answer: C
63) Other-directed decision making refers to 63)

A) value-based decision making. B) seeking the approval of others.
C) intrinsic decision making. D) satisfying your own desires.
Answer: B
64) People not afraid to be themselves and be "real" can be described as 64)
A) authentic. B) extroverted. C) successful. D) creative.
Answer: A
65) The ability to share feelings without fear of rejection from another is most closely 65)
associated with
A) acceptance. B) capacity for intimacy.
C) autonomy. D) creativity.
Answer: B
66) An openness to new experiences is most closely associated with 66)

A) self-esteem. B) capacity for intimacy.
C) autonomy. D) creativity.
Answer: D
6
67) Alex is a 28 year old who lives in a safe and friendly community, has a stable job, and is 67)
involved in a relationship with a loving and supportive person. According to Maslow,
Alex has a chance of attaining
A) mastery in life accomplishments. B) self-actualization.
C) autonomy. D) psychological freedom.
Answer: B
68) Being psychological normal is the same as 68)

A) being psychologically unhealthy. B) being psychologically healthy.
C) mentally, being above average. D) being mentally normal.
Answer: D
69) The stages of Erik Erikson's model of psychological development are experienced 69)
A) beginning in the teen years. B) sequentially.
C) simultaneously. D) randomly.
Answer: B
70) The development of trust begins 70)

A) in infancy. B) in adolescence.
C) in early childhood. D) in early adulthood.
Answer: A
71) The conflict of Erikson's first stage of development is between 71)

A) autonomy and shame/self-doubt.
B) trust and mistrust.
C) freedom and responsibility.
D) inner-directed and outer-directed behaviour.
Answer: B
72) A 10-year-old girl learning about her capabilities in the classroom and on the playground 72)
would be in Erikson's stage of
A) integrity vs. despair. B) identity vs. role confusion.
C) industry vs. inferiority. D) autonomy vs. shame and doubt.
Answer: C
73) According to Erikson's stages of development, the conflict stage for a typical young adult 73)
involves
A) autonomy vs. shame and doubt. B) integrity vs. despair.
C) intimacy vs. isolation. D) industry vs. inferiority.
Answer: C
74) Our early identity models are most likely to be 74)

A) peers. B) political leaders.
C) celebrities. D) parents.
Answer: D
7
75) Maggie, a third year university student, is changing her major for the fourth time. She 75)
expresses frustration about her attempt to choose a course of study that reflects who she
is and what her interests are rather than walking down the career path her family expects
of her. According to Erikson, Maggie is
A) experiencing an identity crisis.
B) feeling overwhelmed by too many career options.
C) afraid of making a commitment.
D) subconsciously rebelling against her parents.
Answer: A
76) One's identity 76)

A) rarely changes from year to year. B) is established early in life.
C) is a lifelong process. D) changes profoundly as an adult.
Answer: C
77) People with established identities tend to do all the following, EXCEPT 77)
A) remain isolated. B) share open communication.
C) form intimate, lasting relationships. D) love and be loved.
Answer: A
78) Which statement is FALSE regarding the development of self-esteem? 78)

A) It is based on experiences that occur with family and friends.
B) Children knowingly build images of themselves based on the models of their
parents.
C) Rejected children may not develop feelings of self-worth.
D) It is influenced by personality.
Answer: B
79) Stability, as it relates to self-esteem, is best described as 79)

A) a necessary component for the establishment of a sense of love and belonging.
B) an unwavering positive self-image.
C) a complete absence of mixed messages about oneself from others.
D) an integration of the self.
Answer: D
80) A demoralized person would do all of the following, EXCEPT 80)

A) use all-or-nothing thinking.
B) engage in cognitive distortions.
C) minimize the success of others.
D) take responsibility for poor outcomes.
Answer: C
8
81) A technique that may aid in fighting demoralization is 81)
A) use of defense mechanisms. B) keeping a journal of self-talk.
C) recognizing failure. D) giving up.
Answer: B
82) Which of the following statements is an example of negative self-talk? 82)

A) "I'll have to start working on that next paper earlier."
B) "Too bad I missed the one problem through carelessness, but overall I did pretty
well on this test."
C) "I won the speech contest, but only because none of the other speakers was very
good."
D) "I wonder why my boss wants to see me? I guess I'll just have to wait and see."
Answer: C
83) Defense mechanisms like humor and substitution might best be described as 83)
A) temporary means of coping.
B) personality characteristics.
C) age-specific responses to stress.
D) effective solutions to minor problems.
Answer: A
84) A person who expects failure and accepts it as deserved is called a(n) 84)
A) pessimist. B) realist. C) masochist. D) optimist.
Answer: A
85) A psychological defense by which unacceptable feelings are transferred from one event 85)
or person to a less threatening one is
A) rationalization B) displacement.
C) repression. D) projection.
Answer: B
86) A defense mechanism by which unacceptable thoughts or wishes are excluded from 86)
consciousness is
A) projection. B) displacement.
C) repression. D) rationalization.
Answer: C
87) A defense mechanism by which unacceptable inner impulses are attributed to others is 87)
A) displacement. B) rationalization.
C) repression. D) projection.
Answer: D
9
88) What is the defense mechanism that allows a false, acceptable reason to be given when 88)
the real reason is unacceptable?
A) repression B) projection
C) displacement D) rationalization
Answer: D
89) A person tells a co-worker, with whom she competes for project assignments, that she'll 89)
help him with a report but then never follows through. This is an example of which
defense mechanism?
A) projection B) displacement
C) Substitution D) passive-aggressive behaviour
Answer: D
90) Expressing wishes forcefully, but not necessarily hostilely, describes being 90)
A) passive. B) aggressive. C) overbearing. D) assertive.
Answer: D
91) A part of assertiveness is characterized most by 91)

A) aggressiveness. B) getting what you want.
C) honest communication. D) dominating others.
Answer: C
92) All of the following are positive reasons to socialize, EXCEPT 92)
A) fear of being alone.
B) meeting new people.
C) enjoying the company of others.
D) improving your personal knowledge base.
Answer: A
93) If you feel explosive anger coming on, you should 93)
A) go to the hospital.
B) replay scenes from the past to help act in the present.
C) reframe what you are thinking at the moment.
D) avoid the issue/person that is upsetting you.
Answer: C
94) If you are dealing with anger in another person, you should NOT 94)
A) disengage for the time being.
B) attempt to validate the other person.
C) react in a calm manner.
D) accept the verbal abuse, as it is usually a temporary display.
Answer: D
10
95) Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy for heading off explosive 95)
anger?
A) distracting yourself B) having a drink
C) having a cooling off period D) reframing your thoughts
Answer: B
96) People exposed to a higher number of traumatic life events than others typically 96)
A) have greater vulnerabilities to future traumas.
B) have a genetic predisposition to these events.
C) develop strong communication skills.
D) develop worse coping skills.
Answer: A
97) Psychological disorders may be a result of all of the following, EXCEPT 97)
A) genetic differences. B) poor communication skills.
C) exposure to traumatic events. D) life experience.
Answer: B
98) Which of the following statements about fear is false? 98)

A) It is a basic and useful emotion.
B) It is a useful daily tool to cope with life.
C) It is another word for anxiety.
D) It is considered to be a problem if it is out of proportion to real danger.
Answer: B
99) An example of a simple phobia is fear of 99)

A) embarrassment. B) public speaking.
C) dogs. D) interaction.
Answer: C
100) Which of the following is a social phobia? 100)

A) fear of high places B) fear of animals
C) fear of embarrassment D) fear of seeing blood
Answer: C
101) Which of the following does NOT play a major part in psychological disorders? 101)
A) biology B) culture C) employment D) genetics
Answer: C
102) People usually develop panic disorder in their 102)

A) late adulthood. B) early twenties.
C) early childhood. D) teenage years.
Answer: B
11
103) Panic disorder is 103)
A) a form of depression. B) a traumatic disorder.
C) a type of anxiety disorder. D) a characteristic of bipolar disorder.
Answer: C
104) Symptoms of panic disorder typically include 104)

A) a depressed heart rate. B) lethargy.
C) a sudden drop in blood pressure. D) a loss of physical equilibrium.
Answer: D
105) A person with panic disorder 105)

A) will eventually have agoraphobia.
B) can function normally in feared situations as long as someone he trusts is with him.
C) is not alone as approximately 2% of Canadians experience them.
D) will develop the disorder in her early teenage years.
Answer: B
106) A condition that causes the sufferer to fear future threats, pushing out all other thoughts, 106)
is called
A) panic disorder. B) generalized anxiety disorder.
C) simple phobia. D) obsessive compulsive disorder.
Answer: B
107) An obsession is a _______________ thought. 107)

A) rational, unwanted B) cultivated, rational
C) cultivated, irrational D) recurrent, unwanted
Answer: D
108) Repetitive, hard-to-resist actions associated with obsessions are 108)

A) delusions. B) hallucinations.
C) phobias. D) compulsions.
Answer: D
109) An example of a compulsion is 109)

A) the impulse to hurt a family member.
B) uncontrollable worry about an accident.
C) constant and repetitive hand washing.
D) anxiety about contracting HIV infection from a sneeze.
Answer: C
12
110) An example of an obsession is 110)
A) repeating someone's name five times every time you see her.
B) concern of contracting syphilis from a handshake.
C) constant hand washing.
D) repeatedly checking to see if the stove is turned off.
Answer: B
111) What percentage of Canadians aged 15 years and older experience Generalized Anxiety 111)
Disorder?
A) 2.6% B) 3.9% C) 5.3% D) 1.2%
Answer: A
112) Symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder 112)

A) usually do not include symptoms of depression.
B) will often decrease in intensity, but will never go away.
C) include re-experiencing the trauma in dreams and intrusive memories.
D) include actively seeking out anything associated with the trauma.
Answer: C
113) Post-traumatic stress disorder is most likely to occur after 113)

A) nightmares. B) failure in school.
C) prolonged compulsive behaviour. D) rape.
Answer: D
114) Which of the following statements is TRUE about shyness? 114)

A) Shyness is often hidden from others.
B) It usually doesn't appear as part of a person's personality until adolescence.
C) Shy people are prevented from fulfilling their desire for social interaction by the
actions of others.
D) It is the same as being introverted.
Answer: A
115) Symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder include 115)

A) re-experiencing of trauma in dreams.
B) loss of memory.
C) aggressive attempts to relive the stressful situation.
D) uncontrollable fear of failure.
Answer: A
116) Which of the following is a characteristic of depression? 116)

A) loss of pleasure in doing formerly pleasurable things
B) obsession with exercise
C) increased social interaction
D) autonomy
Answer: A
13
117) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of depression? 117)
A) overeating
B) poor appetite and weight loss
C) increased energy
D) too much or disturbed sleep
E) thoughts of worthlessness or guilt
Answer: C
118) Though ________ attempt suicide more often, ________ succeed more often. 118)
A) Aboriginals; whites B) blacks; whites
C) women; men D) adults; teenagers
Answer: C
119) Which of the following is a risk factor that increases the likelihood of suicide? 119)
A) obsession with social causes B) suicide of a family member or friend
C) increased social interactions D) multiple minor health problems
Answer: B
120) Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for suicide? 120)
A) readily available means B) addiction to alcohol or drugs
C) a history of previous attempts D) a high anxiety level
Answer: D
121) What percentage of Canadian women experience depression at some point during their 121)
lifetime?
A) 19.8% B) 14.1% C) 5.9% D) 12.3%
Answer: B
122) What percentage of Canadian men experience depression at some point during their 122)
lifetime?
A) 14.1% B) 21.0% C) 8.5% D) 4.9%
Answer: C
123) Which of the following is the best initial treatment for a person with moderate to severe 123)
depression?
A) drug therapy combined with psychotherapy
B) drug therapy exclusively
C) electroconvulsive therapy
D) psychoanalysis and amphetamines
Answer: A
124) The neurotransmitter that seems to be the most important in the treatment of depression 124)
is called
A) serotonin. B) dopamine. C) acetylcholine. D) lutein.
Answer: A
14
125) A treatment used for severe depression when other approaches fail is 125)
A) psychoanalysis. B) electroconvulsive therapy.
C) herbal therapy. D) drug therapy.
Answer: B
126) The preferred method of treatment for seasonal affective disorder is 126)
A) electroconvulsive therapy. B) light therapy.
C) hypnosis. D) psychotherapy.
Answer: B
127) Seasonal affective disorder 127)

A) is more prevalent during seasons with more sunlight and snow.
B) is more prevalent among people living at higher latitudes.
C) has no effective treatment.
D) is more prevalent during the summer months.
Answer: B
128) The neurotransmitters _____________ and _____________ are responsible for mood, 128)
attentiveness level, and other psychological states.
A) endorphins; serotonin B) serotonin; estrogen
C) serotonin; norepinephrine D) estrogen; norepinephrine
Answer: C
129) Which of the following attributes best characterizes manic behaviour? 129)
A) increased energy B) lack of appetite
C) classical depression D) decreased sexual activity
Answer: A
130) Manic disorders are characterized by 130)

A) slow, slurred speech.
B) the individual's limited vision of his or her potential.
C) high energy levels.
D) very focused thinking.
Answer: C
131) A drug commonly used to prevent mood swings associated with bipolar disorder is 131)
A) lithium carbonate. B) Haldol.
C) thorazine. D) amphetamines.
Answer: A
132) What percentage of Canadians over the age of 15 have bipolar disorder? 132)
A) 1.0% B) 0.5% C) 2% D) 2.5%
Answer: A
15
133) A delusion is 133)
A) a form of disorganized thought. B) a firmly held, false belief.
C) similar to an auditory hallucination. D) an obsession with a fantasy.
Answer: B
134) Which of the following is NOT a likely characteristic of a schizophrenic disorder? 134)
A) delusions B) compulsive organization
C) deteriorating social functioning D) auditory hallucinations
Answer: B
135) Schizophrenic disorders are characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT 135)
A) disorganized thoughts. B) extremely high energy levels.
C) auditory hallucinations. D) inappropriate emotions.
Answer: B
136) Which of the following statements is TRUE of schizophrenia? 136)

A) An individual can manage schizophrenia without professional help.
B) Schizophrenics can be logical in their thinking.
C) Schizophrenia is another name for "split personality."
D) Medication is not effective in treating it.
Answer: B
137) Which statement regarding schizophrenics is false? 137)

A) They may act to obey inner voices.
B) They may require the help of a mental health professional.
C) They may also have some form of depression.
D) They are not at risk for suicide.
Answer: D
138) The model of human nature that proposes that the mind's activity depends on organic 138)
structure and genetics is the _____________ model.
A) cognitive B) behavioural
C) biological D) psychodynamic
Answer: C
139) Biological researchers have found genetic influences on 139)

A) depression. B) social phobia.
C) simple phobia. D) post-traumatic stress syndrome.
Answer: A
140) All of the following drug categories are prescribed for treatment of psychological 140)
disorders, EXCEPT
A) hallucinogens. B) antidepressants.
C) stimulants. D) antipsychotics.
Answer: A
16
141) The model of human nature that focuses on what people do is the _______________ 141)
model.
A) behavioural B) psychodynamic
C) cognitive D) biological
Answer: A
142) All of the following terms are used in the behaviourist's analysis of behavioural 142)
dysfunction, EXCEPT
A) response. B) stimulus.
C) reinforcement. D) intervention.
Answer: D
143) The technique of exposure is used to 143)

A) discourage people from encountering their fears.
B) promote avoidance of the feared situation.
C) introduce the patient to other frightening situations.
D) encourage people to face their fears.
Answer: D
144) The model of human nature that emphasizes the effects of ideas on behaviours and 144)
feelings is the _______________ model.
A) psychodynamic B) behavioural
C) cognitive D) biological
Answer: C
145) All of the following are characteristic of the cognitive therapeutic approach, EXCEPT 145)
A) mentally rehearsing the situation in a positive way before you actually face it.
B) suggesting different ways of looking at the situation.
C) showing there is enough evidence for the idea fueling the anxiety.
D) showing that no disaster is going to occur.
Answer: C
146) The model of human nature that emphasizes behaviour as a complex system hidden by 146)
active defenses is the _______________ model.
A) cognitive B) biological
C) behavioural D) psychodynamic
Answer: D
147) According to the psychodynamic model, the basis of human behaviour is 147)
A) rooted in the unconscious mind.
B) established through imitation and practice of life experiences.
C) rooted in reasoned intellectual responses.
D) generated from an innate desire to be mentally healthy.
Answer: A
17
148) Cognitive-behavioural therapies have been developed for all of the following, EXCEPT 148)
A) OCD. B) seasonal affective disorder.
C) panic disorder. D) general anxiety disorder.
Answer: B
149) Psychodynamic therapies allow the patient to 149)

A) consume prescription medications in a safe environment.
B) think cognitively about his or her problem.
C) speak freely with a supportive but objective person.
D) receive reinforcement for inappropriate behaviour.
Answer: C
150) Religious belief 150)

A) is a substitute for a positive self-concept.
B) has little bearing on mental health.
C) promotes psychological health for some individuals.
D) undermines problem solving.
Answer: C
151) For some, self-help can be very useful. This includes 151)
A) raising self-esteem by counteracting negative thoughts and people.
B) ignoring self-defeating actions and ideas.
C) becoming more passive.
D) avoiding objects and people that are feared.
Answer: A
152) Which of the following statements regarding professional help for psychological health 152)
is TRUE?
A) Everyone will need professional help at some point in his or her life.
B) For some, professional help is a choice; for others, it is a necessity.
C) Never seeking professional health for personal problems means you are
psychologically healthy.
D) Seeking professional help for personal problems proves that you have a
psychological illness.
Answer: B
153) Which of the following mental health professionals is a licensed physician? 153)
A) clinical psychologist B) counselor
C) social worker D) psychiatrist
Answer: D
154) Which of the following professionals requires the most formal education? 154)
A) social worker B) counselor
C) psychiatrist D) nurse-practitioner
Answer: C
18
155) University students can typically find inexpensive mental health care through all of the 155)
following ways EXCEPT
A) support groups.
B) off-campus counseling centers.
C) on-campus counseling centers.
D) psychology or education departments.
Answer: B
156) To help reduce social anxiety, 156)

A) avoid taking breaks during anxious situations whenever possible.
B) realize your nervousness is not as visible as you think.
C) imagine that you are on a warm tropical island.
D) get out of the situation if you feel stress.
Answer: B
157) Living according to values does NOT mean doing the following: 157)
A) considering your options carefully before making a choice.
B) making a choice and acting on it rather than doing nothing.
C) standing up to outside pressures that oppose your values.
D) agreeing to do something simply because it will make someone happy.
Answer: D
158) A defense mechanism in which hostility is expressed toward someone by being covertly 158)
uncooperative or passive is
A) projection. B) repression.
C) passive-aggressive behaviour. D) displacement.
Answer: C
159) A defense mechanism in which an individual expels from awareness an unpleasant 159)
feeling, idea, or memory is
A) passive-aggressive behaviour. B) projection.
C) repression. D) displacement.
Answer: C
160) What percentage of Canadian children and youth are affected by mental illness at any 160)
given time?
A) 23% B) 31% C) 15% D) 5%
Answer: A
19
161) All of the following are characteristic of individuals experiencing an intermittent 161)
explosive disorder (IED), EXCEPT
A) may not think straight or act in their own best interest.
B) may lash out uncontrollably, hurting someone else or destroying property.
C) often accompanied by depression or another disorder.
D) expresses oneself constructively and assertively.
Answer: D
162) What percentage of Canadians currently have an anxiety disorder? 162)

A) 25% B) 18% C) 5% D) 12%
Answer: D
163) Agoraphobia is characterized by a fear of all of the following, EXCEPT 163)

A) loss of control. B) being alone.
C) leaving home (in extreme cases). D) away from help.
Answer: A
164) What percentage of North Americans describe themselves as shy? 164)

A) 40-50% B) 10-20% C) 30-40% D) 20-30%
Answer: A
165) Which of the following is NOT true of depression in Canada? 165)

A) 10% of Inuit have experienced major depression.
B) 16% of First Nations people have experienced major depression.
C) Affects 11% of Canadians.
D) Women twice as likely as men to experience.
Answer: A
166) All of the following may be associated with depression EXCEPT 166)
A) insomnia or disturbed sleep. B) thoughts of death or suicide.
C) pleasure in doing normal activities. D) poor appetite and weight loss.
Answer: C
167) Which of the following is NOT a myth about suicide? 167)

A) People who succeeded in suicide really wanted to die.
B) Suicide is proof of mental health problems.
C) Most people who eventually commit suicide have talked about doing it.
D) All suicides are irrational.
Answer: C
168) Auditory hallucinations are characteristic of which mental health disorder? 168)
A) depression B) bipolar disorder
C) schizophrenia D) suicide
Answer: C
20
169) General characteristics of schizophrenia include all of the following EXCEPT 169)
A) delusions B) hallucinations
C) disorganized thoughts D) enhanced social functioning
Answer: D
170) According to the cognitive model of therapeutic change, behaviour results from all of the 170)
following, EXCEPT
A) expectations.
B) attitudes.
C) simple, immediate and repeated reinforcements.
D) motives.
Answer: C
171) To reduce anxiety in social situations, all of the following are appropriate strategies, 171)
EXCEPT
A) be an active listener.
B) practice realistic self-talk.
C) avoid frequent eye contact.
D) refocus your attention away from the stress reaction.
Answer: C
172) Roger is a single father of two young daughters and has been dating Cheryl for the past 2 172)
years. He recently learned that his company is going to be downsizing. Although Roger
is financially stable, he is worried that his job is in jeopardy. He hasn't told anyone of the
situation. Cheryl and his daughters have noticed that Roger is irritable and doesn't seem to
be interested in doing anything. He is experiencing headaches, restlessness, and insomnia. Roger
decides to seek professional help and starts seeing a cognitive therapist.
Roger's symptoms are signs of

A) panic disorder.
B) personality disorder.
C) depression.
D) ineffective use of defense mechanisms.
Answer: C
21
173) Roger is a single father of two young daughters and has been dating Cheryl for the past 2 173)
years. He recently learned that his company is going to be downsizing. Although Roger
is financially stable, he is worried that his job is in jeopardy. He hasn't told anyone of the
situation. Cheryl and his daughters have noticed that Roger is irritable and doesn't seem to
be interested in doing anything. He is experiencing headaches, restlessness, and insomnia. Roger
decides to seek professional help and starts seeing a cognitive therapist.
Which one of the following approaches is Roger's therapist LEAST likely to use?
A) encouraging Roger to disclose his fears to Cheryl
B) telling Roger that there is absolutely nothing to worry about
C) encouraging Roger to identify his fears and examine them logically
D) helping Roger accept that he isn't going to experience a financial disaster
Answer: B
174) List and describe three of the characteristics of a self-actualized person. 174)
175) For each of the following situations, give (1) an example of negative self-talk based on
175)a
cognitive distortion and (2) an example of realistic self-talk:
• after a fight with a friend

• not receiving an invitation to an event that others you know are attending
• an average grade on a project
• receiving a surprise message asking you to meet with your academic advisor
• after drinking too much at a party
176) Terry, a university student, just got a new job in a marketing firm and wants to do 176)
well. Her husband Bob has been talking about starting a family and her father has
just been diagnosed with prostate cancer. Anxiety disorders have been diagnosed
on both sides of her family. Identify and define an anxiety disorder that Terry
may be at risk for. What are the symptoms of the disorder, and how might it be
treated?
177) List five warning signs of severe depression and suicide, and describe what 177)
actions you could take to help a depressed or suicidal friend.
178) Think of the last time you were upset at receiving a poor test grade. Write down 178)
five positive, healthy self-talk statements that will help you through this problem.
22
Exam
Name___________________________________
1) A stressful situation would be one an individual perceives as challenging. 1)

Answer: True False
2) A stressful situation would be one an individual perceives as exceeding her ability to 2)

cope.
Answer: True False
3) Laughing is an effective behavioural response to stress. 3)

Answer: True False
4) The physical response to taking a final exam varies in intensity from student to student. 4)
Answer: True False
5) Responses to stressors include physical and emotional behavioural responses. 5)

Answer: True False
6) The stress response in the human being is triggered by a nonspecific agent called a 6)
stressor.
Answer: True False
7) The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system initiates the stress 7)
response.
Answer: True False
8) Endorphins are body-produced chemicals that relieve pain in case of injury. 8)

Answer: True False
9) Homeostasis is the body's state of normalcy. 9)

Answer: True False
10) The physical response to a stressor has little variance in intensity from person to person. 10)
Answer: True False
11) The fight-or-flight response prepares the body for physical action regardless of whether 11)
action is needed.
Answer: True False
12) Ineffective behavioural responses to stressors may include talking or laughing. 12)
Answer: True False
1
13) The somatic nervous system is largely under conscious control. 13)
Answer: True False
14) People with Type C personalities tend to have no difficulty expressing emotion. 14)
Answer: True False
15) Type B personalities tend to be schedule driven, competitive, and even hostile. 15)
Answer: True False
16) Individuals with psychological hardiness view stressors as opportunities for growth. 16)
Answer: True False
17) The three basic types of resiliency center on how individuals respond to stress. 17)
Answer: True False
18) The ability to trust others is an effective coping behaviour. 18)

Answer: True False
19) Women and men experience stress differently. 19)

Answer: True False
20) Distress is linked with positive stressors. 20)

Answer: True False
21) Eustress is linked with negative stressors. 21)

Answer: True False
22) The general adaptation syndrome is believed to be a universal and predictable response 22)
pattern to all stressors.
Answer: True False
23) The resistance state of the general adaptation syndrome is characterized by symptoms 23)
such as distorted perceptions and disorganized thinking.
Answer: True False
24) The fight-or-flight reaction occurs during the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation 24)
syndrome.
Answer: True False
25) Psychoneuroimmunology (PNI) is the study of the relationship between one's mental 25)
health and immune system.
Answer: True False
26) There is no link between cardiovascular heart disease and stress. 26)
Answer: True False
2
27) There is very little research linking stress to psychological problems such as depression 27)
and panic attacks.
Answer: True False
28) Insomnia, headaches, and digestive problems may be caused by uncontrolled stress. 28)
Answer: True False
29) There is a strong link between psychological disorders and stress. 29)
Answer: True False
30) People with more stress tend to have more colds. 30)
Answer: True False
31) Daily hassles such as misplacing your car keys are often greater sources of stress than 31)
major life changes.
Answer: True False
32) People who work in rewarding "helping" professions, such as teachers and social 32)
workers, are less prone to burnout than are people in other types of professions.
Answer: True False
33) Industrial accidents are an example of environmental stressors. 33)

Answer: True False
34) Regular physical activity can reduce various aspects of stress. 34)
Answer: True False
35) Lack of sleep can be both a cause and effect of excess stress. 35)
Answer: True False
36) Lack of sleep can cause an increase in the level of stress hormones. 36)
Answer: True False
37) Caffeine consumption is associated with lower levels of cortisol. 37)

Answer: True False
38) Smiling can produce changes in the autonomic nervous system. 38)
Answer: True False
39) A counterproductive coping strategy is alcohol use. 39)

Answer: True False
40) Research supports the regular use of marijuana as an effective stress management 40)
technique.
Answer: True False
3
41) Regular physical activity trains your body to return to homeostasis more quickly after a 41)
stressful situation.
Answer: True False
42) The term stress refers to 42)

A) a physical reaction to fright.
B) an unpleasant situation that disrupts normal activity.
C) any imbalance of homeostasis.
D) situations that can trigger physical and emotional reactions.
Answer: D
43) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding stress and the lives of 43)
postsecondary students?
A) It is a period when stress is easily managed.
B) It is a period where stress will have little impact on your sense of wellness.
C) It may be one of the most stressful periods in one's life.
D) It is a period of low stress.
Answer: C
44) Which one of the following is a stressor? 44)

A) high fever B) bad grade C) sweaty palms D) rapid pulse
Answer: B
45) Which of the following systems are responsible for your body's physical response to 45)
stressors?
A) nervous and endocrine B) muscular and skeletal
C) cardiovascular and respiratory D) digestive and lymph
Answer: A
46) The branch of the autonomic nervous system that is activated when a person is exposed 46)
to a stressor is the _______________ nervous system.
A) somatic B) central
C) parasympathetic D) sympathetic
Answer: D
47) The autonomic nervous system controls all the following, EXCEPT the 47)
A) ability to alter your blood pressure. B) ability to write.
C) speed of your heart rate. D) ability to digest food.
Answer: B
4
48) The parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system 48)
A) aids in digestion and promoting growth.
B) is responsible for mobilizing energy sources for use in a crisis.
C) activates the endocrine system.
D) is in control when one is frightened or angry.
Answer: A
49) Situations that trigger physical and emotional reactions are termed 49)
A) distress. B) unmanaged stress.
C) stress responses. D) stressors.
Answer: D
50) The system of glands, tissues, and cells that helps control body functions by releasing 50)
hormones is the
A) reproductive system. B) central nervous system.
C) endocrine system. D) digestive system.
Answer: C
51) During the stress response, which of the following changes does NOT occur throughout 51)
the body as a result of epinephrine being released?
A) Your bronchi constrict and allow more air into the lungs.
B) Your hearing and vision become more acute, and your bronchi dilate and allow
more air into the lungs.
C) Your hearing and vision become more acute.
D) Your liver releases more sugar into the blood.
Answer: A
52) During the stress response, the human adrenal glands release 52)
A) endorphins. B) epinephrine.
C) norepinephrine. D) adrenocorticotropic hormone.
Answer: B
53) Which of the following body reactions is characteristic of the stress response? 53)
A) Your heart rate decreases. B) Your digestion speeds up.
C) Your blood pressure increases. D) Your pupils constrict.
Answer: C
54) All of the following are TRUE regarding the fight-or-flight response, EXCEPT 54)
A) it is a relatively new human adaptation.
B) it prepares our bodies to engage in a physical battle.
C) it enables our bodies to prepare quickly to escape from an injury.
D) it enables our bodies to prepare quickly escape from an injury and prepares our
bodies to engage in a physical battle.
Answer: A
5
55) Homeostasis 55)
A) is a state of normal "housekeeping" functions.
B) describes the body during the fight-or-flight reaction.
C) is a state of unmanaged stress.
D) is the response of the body to prolonged exposure to stressors.
Answer: A
56) The branch of the autonomic nervous system that slows down the body as it recovers 56)
from exposure to a stressor is the _______________ nervous system.
A) parasympathetic B) central
C) somatic D) sympathetic
Answer: A
57) Once the stressful situation ends, your parasympathetic nervous system 57)
A) increases perspiration. B) increases heart rate.
C) slows breathing. D) slows digestion
Answer: C
58) The somatic nervous system manages 58)

A) the fight-or-flight reaction to a stressor.
B) hormones released in response to a stressor.
C) conscious actions.
D) emotions.
Answer: C
59) Which of the following nervous systems manages John's moves as he participates in a 59)
spinning exercise class?
A) sympathetic B) autonomic
C) somatic D) parasympathetic
Answer: C
60) The way in which an individual responds to stress is influenced by all of the following, 60)
EXCEPT
A) past experiences and current circumstances.
B) familial response.
C) biological predispositions.
D) personality.
Answer: B
61) The sum of cognitive, behavioural, and emotional tendencies refers to one's 61)
A) ability to succeed in life. B) happiness.
C) wellness. D) personality.
Answer: D
6
62) An individual with a Type C personality is characterized by 62)
A) being controlling.
B) having a greater tolerance of others.
C) having difficulty expressing emotions.
D) being contemplative.
Answer: C
63) Which one of the following characteristics is most closely associated with elevated risk 63)
of cardiovascular disease?
A) lack of purpose B) procrastination
C) hostility D) excitability
Answer: C
64) A person who suppresses anger and feels hopeless has characteristics of which 64)
personality type?
A) Type A B) Type B C) Type C D) Type D
Answer: C
65) The personality type associated with relaxation and contemplation is 65)
A) Type A B) Type B C) Type C D) Type D
Answer: B
66) Which statement about people with hardy personalities is FALSE? 66)
A) They view stressors as challenges.
B) They tend to perceive fewer situations as stressful.
C) They feel at least partly in control of their lives.
D) They tend to believe their lives are controlled by outside factors.
Answer: D
67) An example of a resilient person would be 67)

A) a person with a disability going undiagnosed.
B) an intelligent person failing an exam.
C) a fit person completing a marathon.
D) a low-income student graduating from university.
Answer: D
68) The more intense an emotional response to a stressor, the __________ the physical 68)
response will be.
A) weaker B) stronger
Answer: B
69) Which of the following is a hormone involved in the regulation of mood and social 69)
interaction?
A) oxygen B) niacin C) oxytocin D) insulin
Answer: C
7
70) According to Statistics Canada, the percentage of Canadians over age 15 who report that 70)
most days feel stressed is
A) 12%. B) 33%. C) 17%. D) 23%.
Answer: D
71) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding stress? 71)

A) Changes in one's life are significant stressors.
B) Positive events are less stressful than negative events.
C) Financial problems are significant stressors.
D) The university years are often one of the most stressful periods of a person's life.
Answer: B
72) GAS is an acronym for 72)

A) general acceleration due to stress. B) general adaptation syndrome.
C) growth adjustment of stress. D) genetically alleviated stress.
Answer: B
73) Eustress 73)

A) is a specific type of distress.
B) is stress that is triggered by something pleasant.
C) is much more common than distress.
D) does not trigger the stress response.
Answer: B
74) Mohammed just received an F on his term paper. Which type of stress is he likely to 74)
experience?
A) distress B) malstress
C) eustress D) unmanaged stress
Answer: A
75) Which one of the following is NOT a stage of the general adaptation syndrome? 75)
A) alarm B) exhaustion C) acceleration D) resistance
Answer: C
76) The fight-or-flight reaction occurs during which stage of the general adaptation 76)
syndrome?
A) recovery B) resistance C) exhaustion D) alarm
Answer: D
77) Tom is very anxious about an upcoming exam. He has no appetite, is easily distracted, 77)
and has a headache. In what stage of the general adaptation syndrome is Tom?
A) alarm B) resistance C) acceleration D) exhaustion
Answer: A
8
78) During the resistance stage of the general adaptation syndrome, the body 78)
A) can no longer react effectively to normal life situations.
B) responds to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system.
C) readjusts, regulating body systems to establish a new level of homeostasis.
D) is in a relaxed state.
Answer: C
79) General exhaustion results when 79)

A) stress-related hormones are secreted.
B) the fight-or-flight reaction is resolved.
C) a stressor persists over a long period of time.
D) distress occurs.
Answer: C
80) The long-term wear and tear of the stress response has been termed 80)
A) homeostasis. B) eustress.
C) distress. D) the allostatic load.
Answer: D
81) Psychoneuroimmunology (PNI) is the study of the interaction among all the following 81)
systems, EXCEPT the _______________ system.
A) nervous B) endocrine C) respiratory D) immune
Answer: C
82) Which one of the following has NOT been linked to a high allostatic load? 82)
A) hypertension B) obesity
C) obesity and hypertension D) enhanced immune function
Answer: D
83) The result of the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome may include all of 83)
the following, EXCEPT
A) disorganized thinking. B) distorted perceptions.
C) death. D) maintenance of homeostasis.
Answer: D
84) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding a high allostatic load? 84)
A) A high allostatic load is linked with heart disease.
B) A high allostatic load is linked with physical wellness.
C) A high allostatic load is linked with obesity.
D) A high allostatic load is linked with hypertension.
Answer: B
9
85) Shauna expects all of the following to happen when she is stressed, EXCEPT 85)
A) an increased risk of developing cardiovascular disease.
B) an increase in heart rate.
C) a dilation of her blood vessels.
D) an increase in blood pressure.
Answer: C
86) Which one of the following has NOT been linked to unmanaged stress? 86)
A) premature labour B) glaucoma
C) digestive problems D) psychological problems
Answer: B
87) Stress has been found to contribute to all of the following psychological problems, 87)
EXCEPT
A) happiness. B) post-traumatic stress disorder.
C) eating disorders. D) depression.
Answer: A
88) According to your text, which of the following are common sources of stress for most 88)
postsecondary students?
A) involvement in political causes
B) academic demands and time management concerns
C) laundry and dishes
D) children and pets
Answer: B
89) Acts of violence, industrial accidents, and intrusive noises are examples of 89)
A) social stressors. B) environmental stressors.
C) internal stressors. D) external stressors.
Answer: B
90) Unrealistic expectations are a type of _______________ stressor. 90)

A) internal B) environmental
C) interpersonal D) social
Answer: A
91) The primary determinant of the health consequences of stress is 91)

A) how the individual responds to the stress.
B) whether it is pleasant or unpleasant stress.
C) how long the stress has been present.
D) whether it is emotional or physical stress.
Answer: A
10
92) All of the following are TRUE regarding the brain and stress, EXCEPT 92)
A) the accumulation of stress effects across the life span can contribute to brain aging.
B) moderate stress enhances your ability to retain information.
C) being a little nervous before an exam will lower your performance.
D) high levels of chronic stress can cause brain cells to shrink.
Answer: C
93) About 90 percent of all headaches are 93)

A) sinus headaches. B) tension headaches.
C) cluster headaches. D) migraines.
Answer: B
94) The majority of migraine sufferers are 94)

A) men. B) elderly. C) women. D) teenagers.
Answer: C
95) If you are still emotionally distressed days or weeks after a tragic event, 95)
A) consider seeking professional help.
B) consider sharing your feelings with others.
C) consider taking a leave of absence from work.
D) that is normal; give yourself more time.
Answer: A
96) Which of the following would be the LEAST effective strategy for coping with stress? 96)
A) improving time-management skills
B) exercising
C) denying the reality of the stress
D) maintaining a strong social support system
Answer: C
97) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding exercise and its ability to help 97)
manage stress?
A) Exercise reduces energy levels.
B) Exercise enhances one's sense of general well-being.
C) Exercise reduces anxiety levels.
D) Exercise decreases tension.
Answer: A
98) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding exercise and its ability to help 98)
manage stress?
A) Three 45-minute walks per week can increase your sense of wellness.
B) A long walk can help increase blood pressure.
C) Exercise does not help you manage stress.
D) A brisk 10-minute walk can relax and energize you up to ten hours.
Answer: A
11
99) Exercise can 99)
A) become another stressor in a highly stressed life.
B) decrease your sense of wellness.
C) heighten your anxiety.
D) increase your blood pressure.
Answer: A
100) Which of the following is NOT a reason why one should avoid or limit caffeine as a 100)
stress management technique?
A) Caffeine is mildly addictive.
B) Caffeine might cause sleeplessness.
C) Caffeine acts as a sedative.
D) Caffeine is associated with irritability.
Answer: C
101) Peak concentrations of the levels of stress hormones in the bloodstream occur 101)
A) just before bedtime. B) during the final stages of sleep.
C) just after lunch. D) just before dinner.
Answer: B
102) All of the following occur in non-REM sleep, EXCEPT 102)

A) the occurrence of dreams. B) a drop in heart rate.
C) slower and more even brain waves. D) the release of growth hormone.
Answer: A
103) Regarding a good night's sleep, 103)

A) the more sleep you get, the lower your stress levels.
B) an increase in total sleep time causes an increase in the level of stress hormones.
C) the average Canadian sleeps an average of 8 hours per night.
D) the body is completely still and relaxed during REM.
Answer: C
104) The biggest single time-management problem for most people is 104)
A) overconfidence. B) list writing.
C) goal setting. D) procrastination.
Answer: D
105) According to your text, a person seeking to overcome procrastination should 105)
A) make narrow time frames to complete tasks.
B) do favorite tasks first to build up momentum.
C) divide tasks into groups that can be prioritized.
D) avoid asking others for help.
Answer: C
12
106) Which one of the following statements reflects your text's recommendations regarding 106)
the prioritization of tasks?
A) Some attention should be paid to all tasks, even if it is only a few minutes.
B) Tasks should be divided into two groups: hard and easy.
C) Tasks should be divided into three groups, and you should ignore the least
important group.
D) Priorities should be based on whether or not you like performing the task.
Answer: C
107) In terms of time-management strategies, which one of the following is NOT considered 107)
helpful to you in improving your efficiency at completing your tasks?
A) aiming for realistic goals
B) memorizing your goals
C) writing down your goals
D) allowing more time to achieve your goals than you actually expect them to take
Answer: B
108) All of the following are recommended by your text as time-management strategies, 108)
EXCEPT
A) breaking down long-term goals into short term ones.
B) keeping track of tasks you put off.
C) avoiding unstructured time.
D) setting priorities.
Answer: C
109) Which of the following would NOT be helpful to you in attempting to improve your 109)
productivity?
A) Focus on long-term goals only. B) Visualize achievement of your goals.
C) Say "no" when necessary. D) Delegate responsibility.
Answer: A
110) Since watching television is usually a "time sink" while you are on a deadline, it is wise 110)
to
A) surf the Internet for a few minutes instead.
B) avoid turning on the television.
C) realize you need a break and just watch a few shows.
D) limit your television break to 5-10 minutes.
Answer: B
111) If you are bothered by insomnia, you may try 111)

A) going to bed at the same time and getting up at the same time seven days per week.
B) exercising just before bedtime to ensure fatigue.
C) taking several naps during the day.
D) all of the above.
Answer: A
13
112) Which one of the following is a cognitive technique for stress management? 112)
A) imagery B) meditation
C) progressive relaxation D) thinking constructively
Answer: D
113) Which one of the following is NOT a cognitive technique for stress management? 113)
A) maintaining positivity B) solving problems
C) using imagery D) setting moderate expectations
Answer: C
114) Philip is attempting to deal with his stress. Which of the following would NOT be 114)
helpful?
A) living in the present
B) trying to remember as much information as possible
C) keeping his expectations at moderate and achievable levels
D) thinking and acting constructively
Answer: B
115) Laughter may be the best medicine for stress because after a good laugh your 115)
A) heart rate is increased.
B) blood pressure is increased.
C) muscles are relaxed.
D) stress levels return to their pre-laughter level.
Answer: C
116) Laughter does all of the following, EXCEPT 116)

A) ease pain. B) aid digestion.
C) increase pulse rate. D) lower blood pressure.
Answer: D
117) A helpful behaviour in dealing with stressful situations is to 117)

A) attempt to fulfill others' expectations.
B) cultivate the ability to laugh at yourself.
C) keep a mental log of past mistakes and errors as an instant reference.
D) work hard so that you can play hard.
Answer: B
118) Which one of the following statements is FALSE regarding the relaxation response? 118)
A) You may feel an overall warmth and quiet mental alertness.
B) Brain waves shift from an alert beta rhythm to a relaxed alpha rhythm.
C) Metabolism and oxygen consumption are reduced.
D) Blood flow to the brain and skin is reduced.
Answer: D
14
119) Progressive relaxation techniques 119)
A) involve a lot of imagination and willpower.
B) can be quite complex and difficult to master.
C) increase heart rate.
D) involve tensing and then relaxing the muscles in your body.
Answer: D
120) Which one of the following statements is TRUE of progressive relaxation? 120)
A) It is based on the use of your imagination and your skill at imagery.
B) It is the only relaxation technique that also permits you to achieve cardiovascular
fitness benefits.
C) It increases oxygen consumption to the muscles.
D) It requires no willpower or imagination.
Answer: D
121) Progressive relaxation is best described by which one of the following statements? 121)
A) It is a form of cognitive development.
B) It is an aerobic exercise.
C) It is a process that uses simple tensing and relaxing of muscles.
D) It is a mental exercise that requires special training to address stress.
Answer: C
122) Which one of the following statements is FALSE regarding imagery? 122)
A) Imagery is a cognitive technique designed to change typical patterns of thinking.
B) Imagery can be an aid in changing habits.
C) Imagery can enhance physical performance.
D) Visualizing yourself performing a task can help improve performance.
Answer: A
123) Carey would like to use meditation to help her manage her stress. Which of the following 123)
is likely to happen as a result of her use of this technique?
A) It will help her to analyze the stressors in her life more effectively.
B) It will help her rehearse upcoming events so that stress in her life will be reduced.
C) It will help her tune out the world, temporarily removing sources of stress.
D) It will help her visualize her tasks that need to be completely in a more efficient
way.
Answer: C
124) A stress management technique that focuses primarily on your breathing pattern is called 124)
A) hatha yoga. B) deep breathing.
C) laughter. D) tai chi.
Answer: B
15
125) Which of the following stress management techniques emphasizes the use of breathing, 125)
stretching, and balance?
A) visualization B) hatha yoga
C) meditation D) progressive relaxation
Answer: B
126) Tai chi can be an effective stress reducer as it 126)

A) is easily self-taught.
B) aids the student in working against various stressors.
C) teaches students to remain calm and centered.
D) it an excellent cardiovascular workout.
Answer: C
127) Biofeedback helps people reduce stress by 127)

A) enabling them to become more aware of their levels of physical arousals.
B) cleaning the body of toxins.
C) increasing muscle strength and flexibility.
D) removing internal and external stressors.
Answer: A
128) All of these are considered counterproductive coping strategies, EXCEPT 128)
A) use of a multivitamin. B) drug abuse.
C) alcohol use. D) tobacco use.
Answer: A
129) Approximately _____________ of Canadians use television, alcohol, cigarettes, or food 129)
as coping devices against stress.
A) 65% B) 25% C) 45% D) 75%
Answer: D
130) The first step in creating a personal plan for managing stress is to 130)
A) seek professional help. B) investigate support groups.
C) design your plan. D) identify your stressors.
Answer: D
131) Exercise stimulates which of the following? 131)

A) analgesia (pain relief). B) tension.
C) heightened emotions. D) death of cells.
Answer: A
132) Which neurotransmitter is used by the sympathetic nervous system to exert its actions? 132)
A) dopamine. B) GABA.
C) acetylcholine. D) norepinephrine.
Answer: D
16
133) The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is activated during all of the 133)
following, EXCEPT:
A) fear. B) severe pain.
C) exercise. D) digesting food.
Answer: D
134) Chemicals that can inhibit or block sensations of pain are: 134)
A) GABA. B) serotonin.
C) norepinephrine. D) endorphins.
Answer: D
135) All of the following may result from the fight-or-flight response, EXCEPT: 135)
A) increased digestion. B) bronchial dilation.
C) endorphins released. D) dilated pupils.
Answer: A
136) All of the following may result from the fight-or-flight response, EXCEPT: 136)
A) decreased digestion. B) increased saliva secretion.
C) decreased pancreatic secretions. D) increased blood sugar.
Answer: B
137) Common emotional responses to stressors include all of the following, EXCEPT: 137)
A) anxiety. B) talking. C) fear. D) depression.
Answer: B
138) Effective behavioural responses to stressors include all of the following, EXCEPT: 138)
A) hostility. B) laughter. C) exercising. D) talking.
Answer: A
139) Ineffective behavioural responses to stressors include all of the following, EXCEPT: 139)
A) using tobacco. B) limiting alcohol consumption.
C) expressing hostility. D) overeating.
Answer: B
140) What percentage of Canadian university and college students feel more than average or 140)
tremendous stress?
A) 25%. B) 47%. C) 58%. D) 33%.
Answer: C
141) An individual with a Type B personality is characterized by 141)

A) few social contacts.
B) having difficulty expressing emotions.
C) being controlling.
D) having a greater tolerance of others.
Answer: D
17
142) An individual with a Type D personality is characterized by 142)
A) being controlling.
B) avoiding social contact with others.
C) having a greater tolerance of others.
D) having difficulty expressing emotions.
Answer: B
143) The type of resilience in which a person does not respond to a stressor is: 143)
A) homeostatic. B) reactive.
C) nonreactive. D) positive growth.
Answer: C
144) The type of resilience in which a person may react strongly to a stressor but returns to 144)
baseline functioning quickly afterwards is:
A) nonreactive. B) reactive.
C) positive growth. D) homeostatic.
Answer: D
145) The type of resilience in which a person learns and grows from the stress experience is: 145)
A) reactive. B) positive growth.
C) nonreactive. D) homeostatic.
Answer: B
146) Physical symptoms of excess stress include all of the following, EXCEPT: 146)
A) low blood pressure. B) dry mouth.
C) excessive perspiration. D) headaches.
Answer: A
147) Emotional symptoms of excess stress include all of the following, EXCEPT: 147)
A) irritability. B) social isolation.
C) anxiety. D) edginess.
Answer: B
148) Behavioural symptoms of excess stress include all of the following, EXCEPT: 148)
A) social problems. B) problems communicating.
C) crying. D) dry mouth.
Answer: D
149) The primary male hormone responsible for many masculine traits is: 149)
A) estrogen. B) testosterone. C) glucagon. D) oxytocin.
Answer: B
18
150) The study of the interactions among the nervous system, the endocrine system, and the 150)
immune system:
A) gerontology. B) thanatology.
C) psychoneuroimmunity. D) psychology.
Answer: C
151) All of the following are examples of postsecondary stressors, EXCEPT: 151)
A) financial concerns. B) interpersonal stress.
C) time pressures. D) worries about the past.
Answer: D
152) The state of physical, mental, and social exhaustion is called: 152)
A) depression. B) uncertainty. C) burnout. D) stress.
Answer: C
153) What percentage of Canadian college and university students are interested in receiving 153)
information from their schools about how to help others in distress?
A) 35% B) 13% C) 50% D) 63%
Answer: D
154) What of the following does NOT contain caffeine? 154)

A) cold remedies B) green tea
C) aspirin products D) chocolate
Answer: B
155) Which of the following does NOT occur during non-rapid eye movement sleep? 155)
A) body temperature rises
B) growth hormone is released
C) brain wave patterns become slow and even.
D) blood pressure drops
Answer: A
156) During REM sleep all of the following occur, EXCEPT: 156)
A) increased blood pressure. B) increased contraction of muscles.
C) increased breathing rate. D) increased heart rate.
Answer: C
157) Which of the following can mimic the effects of your body's nature painkillers? 157)
A) nicotine B) heroine C) alcohol D) marijuana
Answer: B
158) Which of the following may reduce the stress response by promoting activity of the 158)
parasympathetic nervous system?
A) proteins B) water C) carbohydrates D) fats
Answer: C
19
159) What percentage of postsecondary students report having at least one indicator of alcohol 159)
dependence?
A) 45% B) 53% C) 33% D) 25%
Answer: C
160) Sue has been attending university for about a month. During the past week, she has been having
160)
trouble sleeping, experiencing headaches, and is having trouble concentrating, especially when
she has an upcoming test.
Sue most likely is experiencing

A) eustress. B) burnout. C) test anxiety. D) depression.
Answer: C
161)
Which of the following strategies would NOT help alleviate Sue's symptoms?
A) devising a study plan
B) ignoring the symptoms because they will go away with time
C) learning and practicing muscle relaxation
D) practice deep breathing exercise during stressful times
Answer: B
162)
A lack of sleep can be both a cause and an effect of stress. In order to overcome insomnia, Sue
should consider
A) exercising just before going to bed to release excess stress.
B) using her bed only for sleeping, not for studying.
C) taking a nap when she feels tired.
D) sleeping in on weekends.
Answer: B
163) Describe the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome, and give examples 163)
that support each.
20
164) List and explain the three common factors that negatively impact time 164)
management. Give three characteristics that are representative of each factor and
at least two strategies for managing time more effectively.
165) Describe how stress levels can affect the immune system, and give three 165)
examples of stress-related health problems that could result from changes in
immune system functioning.
166) List your top three stressors. Detail a plan to lessen each of these stressors using 166)
the methods detailed in this chapter.
167) Carrie constantly finds herself worrying about events that haven't happened yet. 167)
As a result, she has trouble sleeping and experiences frequent headaches. Give
Carrie six cognitive techniques that she could use to help her cope with stressors
that greatly impact her life and why they may be valuable.
168) Select a common college stressor and describe how it would affect one's stress 168)
levels. Then choose and explain three possible stress management techniques that
you think would be particularly useful for coping with the stressor.
169) Consider your living environment (school, work, or home). List three 169)
environmental factors that can increase your stress levels. How can you make
each factor less stressful?
21
Exam
Name___________________________________
1) It is not total weight, but rather percentage of body fat that is most important to health. 1)
Answer: True False
2) Most people who succeed in their weight loss efforts do so by emphasizing short-term 2)
weight loss.
Answer: True False
3) Body weight is a more important indicator of health than is body composition. 3)

Answer: True False
4) Overfat is a more accurate term than overweight when describing the condition of having 4)
too much body fat.
Answer: True False
5) The energy balance concept is based primarily on the amount of sleep you get. 5)
Answer: True False
6) A person has control over both parts of the energy equation. 6)

Answer: True False
7) Waist fat is more closely associated with disease than is fat deposited in the buttocks 7)
area.
Answer: True False
8) A body mass index of 28.5 is classified as normal weight. 8)

Answer: True False
9) Body mass index is a less accurate assessment of body fat than are height-weight charts. 9)
Answer: True False
10) Body mass index is a direct measure of fat-free mass. 10)

Answer: True False
11) A body mass index between 18. 5 and 24.9 is acceptable. 11)
Answer: True False
12) The skinfold measurement technique for determining body fat composition involves 12)
measuring fat found under the skin.
Answer: True False
1
13) Most people with pre-diabetes will develop full-blown diabetes if they do not adopt 13)
preventive lifestyle measures.
Answer: True False
14) Resting metabolic rate (RMR) reflects the minimal energy expenditure necessary for 14)
exercise to be beneficial in weight loss.
Answer: True False
15) Hormones play no significant role in the accumulation of body fat. 15)
Answer: True False
16) Rates of overweight and obesity tend to be higher among Canadian men than women; 16)
however women experience larger socioeconomic disparities.
Answer: True False
17) Genetic predisposition to weight gain has been identified as the main reason for the high 17)
rate of obesity in Canada.
Answer: True False
18) Eating patterns are often an intricate component of family values. 18)
Answer: True False
19) Carrots have a higher energy density than pretzels. 19)

Answer: True False
20) Energy density of foods refers to the number of calories per gram of weight. 20)
Answer: True False
21) An important weight management strategy is to eat small, frequent meals. 21)
Answer: True False
22) Reduced-fat foods usually contain significantly fewer calories than their full-fat 22)
counterparts.
Answer: True False
23) The guiding principle for the development of healthy eating habits for weight 23)
management is "everything in moderation."
Answer: True False
24) Regular physical activity is essential for maintaining weight loss. 24)
Answer: True False
25) Most low-calorie diets cause a rapid loss of body water at first. 25)
Answer: True False
2
26) Ephedra is a safe and effective supplement that promotes weight loss. 26)
Answer: True False
27) Eating disorders are associated with dissatisfaction with body image. 27)
Answer: True False
28) An eating disorder is often a means of coping. 28)

Answer: True False
29) Treatment of eating disorders usually involves a combination of psychotherapy and 29)
medical management.
Answer: True False
30) What percentage of Canadians have a healthy body weight? 30)

A) 48% B) 28% C) 38% D) 58%
Answer: C
31) Results from consulting height-weight tables reflect 31)

A) a range of recommended body weights associated with the lowest mortality.
B) an accurate index of body composition.
C) true percent body fat.
D) an accurate assessment of obesity.
Answer: A
32) Researchers frequently use BMI in conjunction with ____________ to examine the 32)
health risks associated with body weight.
A) activity assessments B) resting metabolic rate
C) waist circumference D) caloric intake estimates
Answer: C
33) Hydrostatic weighing is used to predict percent body fat based on 33)
A) fat weight. B) body mass index.
C) height and total body weight. D) body density.
Answer: D
34) According to standards issued by the World Health Organization, a healthy BMI is 34)
between
A) 30.0 and 40.0. B) 25.0 and 29.9. C) 12.5 and 18.4. D) 18.5 and 24.9.
Answer: D
35) A female with a BMI value of 17.5 or less may be used as a diagnostic criterion for 35)
A) diabetes. B) obesity.
C) depression. D) anorexia nervosa.
Answer: D
3
36) A person with a body mass index of 26.5 is classified as 36)
A) obese. B) underweight.
C) normal weight. D) overweight.
Answer: D

A) overweight. B) underweight.
C) normal weight. D) obese.
Answer: D

A) obese. B) underweight.
C) overweight. D) normal weight.
Answer: D

A) obese. B) normal weight.
C) overweight. D) underweight.
Answer: D
40) People who tend to store body fat in the _________ are at increased risk for chronic 40)
disease.
A) abdomen B) thighs C) hips D) buttocks
Answer: A
41) All of the following are factors in the development of diabetes, EXCEPT 41)
A) obesity. B) age.
C) a diet high in protein. D) physical inactivity.
Answer: C
42) Type 2 diabetes 42)

A) has obvious symptoms in the early stages.
B) always requires insulin injections as a method of treatment.
C) occurs in 1 in 18 Canadians.
D) is best prevented by eating a healthy diet and exercising.
Answer: D
43) Psychological problems stemming from obesity include all of the following, EXCEPT 43)
A) body dissatisfaction. B) schizophrenia
C) low self-esteem. D) depression.
Answer: B
4
44) Which of the following statements about insulin resistance and pre-diabetes is TRUE? 44)
A) Elevated blood glucose levels associated with pre-diabetes do not increase heart
attack risk, but levels associated with full-blown diabetes do.
B) Treatment with medication is more important than lifestyle measures for people
with pre-diabetes.
C) Risk of a heart attack or stroke is increased by 50%.
D) About 10% of people with pre-diabetes will go on to develop type 2 diabetes.
Answer: C
45) A person with diabetes may benefit from all of the following, EXCEPT 45)
A) increasing intake of refined carbohydrates.
B) substituting monounsaturated for saturated fats.
C) increasing fiber intake.
D) increasing physical activity.
Answer: A
46) A condition characterized by extreme dissatisfaction with appearance, body type, and/or 46)
body composition is
A) body dysmorphic disorder. B) female athlete triad.
C) bipolar disorder. D) amenorrhea.
Answer: A
47) A condition called the female athlete triad consists of all of the following, EXCEPT 47)
A) abnormal eating patterns. B) amenorrhea.
C) muscle dysmorphia. D) premature osteoporosis.
Answer: C
48) Which of the following statements about genetic factors in obesity is TRUE? 48)
A) Genetic factors influence body fat distribution.
B) Researchers have identified a single gene responsible for obesity.
C) The weight of an adopted child is more closely related to the weights of the
adoptive parents than to the weights of the biological parents.
D) The genetic contribution to obesity is about 75%.
Answer: A
49) The largest component of metabolism is 49)

A) base metabolic expenditure. B) metabolic equivalency rate.
C) resting metabolic rate. D) caloric expenditure rate.
Answer: C
5
50) Resting metabolic rate is 50)
A) the energy required to maintain vital body functions.
B) the energy required to digest food.
C) the body's daily energy expenditure.
D) the sum of all the processes by which food energy is used by the body.
Answer: A
51) The greater the amount of muscle mass, the 51)

A) easier it is to gain weight. B) more fat that is needed in the diet.
C) lower the resting metabolic rate. D) higher the resting metabolic rate.
Answer: D
52) Exercise affects metabolic rate by doing all of the following, EXCEPT 52)
A) building strength during exercise.
B) increasing resting metabolic rate.
C) increasing muscle mass.
D) burning calories during the exercise itself.
Answer: A
53) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of visceral fat? 53)

A) It is located at waist level.
B) It is considered an active endocrine organ.
C) It contains many biologically active substances.
D) It is not associated with increased health risks.
Answer: D
54) A hormone thought to be linked to obesity is 54)

A) adrenalin. B) creatine. C) leptin. D) epinephrine.
Answer: C
55) What percentage of Canadian children and youth are meeting the national guidelines of 55)
60 minutes of moderate-to-vigorous physical activity each day?
A) 27% B) 67% C) 7% D) 47%
Answer: C
56) Which of the following is NOT related to obesity? 56)

A) having a low income
B) being of certain racial and ethnic groups
C) living in a city
D) family eating patterns
Answer: C
6
57) Most weight problems are problems of 57)
A) emotional disorders. B) metabolic disorders.
C) lifestyle. D) childhood abuse.
Answer: C
58) An example of a snack low in energy density is 58)

A) an ice cream cone. B) a cookie.
C) crackers. D) an apple.
Answer: D
59) Recent research indicates that drinking more than one diet pop per day may be associated 59)
with
A) eating disorders. B) metabolic syndrome.
C) gum disease. D) nutritional deficiencies.
Answer: B
60) Even processed foods labeled "fat-free" or "reduced fat" may 60)
A) be as satisfying as high fat foods. B) contain hidden fats.
C) contain high levels of cholesterol. D) be high in calories
Answer: D
61) Which of the following patterns of eating is recommended for weight management? 61)
A) four to five small meals per day, including breakfast and snacks
B) one small meal per day
C) three larger meals per day with no snacks
D) one large meal in the evening
Answer: A
62) What protects against weight gain and is essential for maintaining weight loss? 62)
A) certain nutritional supplements B) physical activity
C) at least 8 glasses of water per day D) a 1, 000-calories-per-day diet plan
Answer: B
63) A person's ongoing internal comments about events happening to him and around him is 63)
called
A) self-image. B) self-talk. C) self-esteem. D) self-blame.
Answer: B
64) Which of the following is an appropriate use of food? 64)

A) to alleviate loneliness B) to satisfy hunger needs
C) as an antidote for boredom D) as a pickup for fatigue
Answer: B
7
65) Fat substitutes 65)
A) are not yet on the market.
B) generally contribute the same amount of calories per gram as fat.
C) are used only in dessert foods and snacks.
D) can be carbohydrate-or protein-based.
Answer: D
66) Which of the following is NOT an effective strategy for successful weight management? 66)
A) Ensure you only consume "reduced fat" alternatives.
B) Watch for hidden calories.
C) Choose foods with a low energy density and a high nutrient density.
D) Always check food labels for serving size, calories, and nutrient content.
Answer: A
67) Which of the following characteristics should one look for in evaluating and selecting a 67)
diet book?
A) recommendations to combine foods in special ways or to rotate levels of calorie
intake to effect weight loss
B) claims that the book is based on scientific breakthroughs
C) advocacy of special diets
D) advocacy of a balanced approach to diet plus exercise
Answer: D
68) Which of the following books is most likely to contain valid weight-management 68)
information?
A) Secrets to a Thinner You Through Vitamins
B) The Physical Activity and Diet Weight-Loss Plan
C) The High-Protein, High-Fat Diet
D) The Five-Day Fat-Burning Program
Answer: B
69) All of the following weight-management strategies are typical of participants in the 69)
National Weight Control Registry, EXCEPT
A) diets moderate in calories and relatively low in fat.
B) 60 or more minutes of daily moderate physical activity.
C) frequent monitoring of food intake and body weight.
D) very-low-carbohydrate diets.
Answer: D
70) Adverse effects of ephedra include all of the following, EXCEPT 70)
A) nausea. B) seizures. C) lethargy. D) panic attacks.
Answer: C
8
71) The fibre in diet pills 71)
A) provides dietary fibre and suppresses appetite.
B) satisfies a person's normal daily fibre requirement.
C) has been clinically demonstrated to facilitate weight loss.
D) acts as a bulking agent in the large intestine and not in the stomach.
Answer: D
72) Which of the following does a commercial weight-loss program typically NOT provide? 72)
A) behaviour modification advice
B) group support
C) outside recommendations for individualized nutrition plans
D) physical activity recommendations
Answer: C
73) What is the over-the-counter, lower dose version of the prescription fat-blocking drug 73)
Orlistat?
A) sibutramine B) Alli C) phentermine D) leptin
Answer: B
74) Prescription drugs are usually recommended only to people with a BMI over 74)
A) 15. B) 30. C) 40. D) 20.
Answer: B
75) Surgery for the severely obese is usually recommended only for individuals with a BMI 75)
over _____.
A) 50 B) 30 C) 40 D) 45
Answer: C
76) An eating disorder characterized by a refusal to eat enough food to maintain a reasonable 76)
body weight is
A) anorexia nervosa. B) bulimia nervosa.
C) binge-eating disorder. D) voluntary starvation.
Answer: A
77) An eating disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by 77)
purging is
A) bulimia nervosa. B) voluntary starvation.
C) anorexia nervosa. D) binge-eating disorder.
Answer: A
78) Eating disorders in Canada affect 78)

A) mostly minorities. B) all persons equally.
C) mostly women. D) mostly adults.
Answer: C
9
79) Dissatisfaction with body image and weight is associated least with 79)
A) perfectionist beliefs.
B) excessive self-criticism.
C) below-average academic achievement.
D) unreasonable demands for self-control.
Answer: C
80) Which one of the following is MOST closely associated with anorexia nervosa? 80)
A) self-induced vomiting
B) uncontrollable binge eating
C) a belief that one is overweight even when dangerously thin
D) near-normal body weight
Answer: C
81) Fear of fat is most strongly associated with 81)

A) anorexia nervosa. B) restrictive dieting.
C) binge-eating disorder. D) bulimia nervosa.
Answer: A
82) A health risk associated with anorexia nervosa is 82)

A) chronic hoarseness. B) low blood pressure.
C) stomach rupture. D) eroded tooth enamel.
Answer: B
83) Characteristics of bulimia include all of the following, EXCEPT 83)

A) bingeing followed by purging. B) significant weight loss.
C) concern about control. D) fear of becoming fat.
Answer: B
84) A health problem associated with bulimia is 84)

A) dry skin. B) muscle wasting.
C) tooth decay. D) fine body hair.
Answer: C
85) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of binge-eating disorder? 85)

A) eating more rapidly than normal B) eating alone
C) purging D) eating when not hungry
Answer: C
86) The crucial first step in the treatment of anorexia is to 86)

A) restore adequate body weight. B) provide vitamin supplements.
C) change the person's body image. D) initiate psychological support.
Answer: A
10
87) An initial step in the treatment of bulimia is 87)
A) changing thought processes associated with body image.
B) stabilizing eating patterns.
C) treating depression.
D) restoring body weight.
Answer: B
88) To lose one kilogram, you need to create a negative energy balance of _____ calories. 88)
A) 3,500 B) 1,000 C) 500 D) 7,000
Answer: D
89) Which of the following is the most significant risk factor for type 2 diabetes? 89)
A) smoking B) overweight or obesity
C) low-fibre diet D) inactivity
Answer: B
90) What percentage of Canadian adults are overweight? 90)

A) 44% B) 24% C) 14% D) 34%
Answer: D
91) What percentage of Canadian adults are obese? 91)

A) 26% B) 36% C) 16% D) 46%
Answer: A
92) All of the following are types of body fat, EXCEPT: 92)
A) ectopic fat. B) topical fat.
C) subcutaneous fat. D) visceral fat.
Answer: A
93) Approximately what percentage of total body fat is subcutaneous fat? 93)
A) 20% B) 40% C) 80% D) 60%
Answer: C
94) Visceral fat accounts for approximately _____ percent of total body fat in women. 94)
A) 17% B) 6% C) 13% D) 10%
Answer: B
95) Visceral fat accounts for approximately _____ percent of total body fat in men. 95)
A) 10-20% B) 25-30% C) 15-25% D) 5-10%
Answer: A
96) What type of fat is located on or within organs, such as the liver, heart, and brain? 96)
A) subcutaneous B) visceral C) topical D) ectopic
Answer: D
11
97) What type of fat is embedded within the mesentery surrounding the abdominal organs? 97)
Answer: B
98) What type of fat is located just below the skin? 98)
Answer: A
99) Which of the following is the correct formula to calculate BMI? 99)
A) Body Weight (pounds) divided by Height Squared (inches)
B) Height (metres) divided by Body Weight (kilograms)
C) Height Squared (metres) divided by Body Weight (kilograms)
D) Body Weight (kilograms) divided by Height Squared (metres)
Answer: D
100) All of the following are common ways of assessing body composition, EXCEPT: 100)
A) electrical impedance analysis. B) skinfold measurements.
C) hydrostatic (underwater) weighing. D) observation.
Answer: D
101) Which of the following is NOT a scanning procedure used to determine body 101)
composition?
A) electrical impedance analysis
B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
C) computed tomography (CT)
D) dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA)
Answer: A
102) Obesity is associated with all of the following health risks, EXCEPT? 102)
A) hypotension. B) impotence.
C) gallbladder and kidney diseases. D) impaired immune function.
Answer: A
103) Approximately how many adults worldwide are affected by diabetes? 103)
A) 350 million B) 200 million C) 250 million D) 300 million
Answer: A
104) Diabetes is associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: 104)

A) blindness. B) seizures.
C) kidney failure. D) amputations.
Answer: B
105) Diabetes is the ____________ leading cause of death in Canada. 105)

A) 6th B) 4th C) 5th D) 3rd
Answer: A
12
106) Symptoms of diabetes include all of the following, EXCEPT: 106)
A) frequent infections. B) infrequent urination.
C) extreme fatigue. D) blurred vision.
Answer: B
107) Approximately what percentage of individuals with type 2 diabetes are unaware that they 107)
have the condition?
A) 33% B) 23% C) 40% D) 10%
Answer: A
108) All of the following are linked to higher diabetes risk, EXCEPT: 108)
A) French fries. B) wholegrain rice.
C) soft drinks. D) white bread.
Answer: B
109) The "pear" shape distribution of body fat is most commonly seen among: 109)
A) older men. B) young men.
C) premenopausal women. D) postmenopausal women.
Answer: C
110) Which of the following is NOT one of the three interrelated disorders comprising the 110)
female athlete triad?
A) osteoporosis B) amenorrhea
C) abnormal eating patterns D) physical inactivity
Answer: D
111) Left untreated, the female athlete triad may lead to all of the following, EXCEPT: 111)
A) increased incidence of bone fractures.
B) increased incidence of diabetes.
C) disturbances of heart rhythm.
D) decreased physical performance.
Answer: B
112) The study of how nutrients and genes interact and how genetic variations can cause 112)
people to respond differently to nutrients in food is:
A) alimentation genetics. B) nutrigenetics.
C) epigenetics. D) genetics
Answer: B
113) Approximately how many genes are associated with obesity? 113)
A) 600 B) 10 C) 100 D) 300
Answer: A
13
114) Why is exercise so important during a weight-loss program? 114)
A) helps maintain metabolic rate
B) helps maintain muscle mass and metabolic rate
C) decreases metabolic rate
D) helps maintain muscle mass
Answer: B
115) Greater amounts of visceral and ectopic fat lead to all of the following, EXCEPT 115)
A) metabolic syndrome. B) type 1 diabetes.
C) type 2 diabetes. D) heart disease.
Answer: B
116) Which type of fat carries little to no health risk? 116)

A) visceral B) subcutaneous C) ectopic D) topical
Answer: B
117) People who display gynoid obesity generally have the following shape: 117)
A) pear B) melon C) apple D) banana
Answer: A
118) People who display android obesity generally have the following shape: 118)
A) apple B) melon C) pear D) banana
Answer: A
119) Approximately how many calories are there in a regular can of pop? 119)
A) 150 calories B) 200 calories C) 100 calories D) 250 calories
Answer: A
120) Why does drinking more pop lead to obesity and insulin resistance? 120)
A) high-fructose corn syrup content of pops
B) consuming fewer in general
C) higher feelings of satiety
D) low-fructose corn syrup content of pops
Answer: A
121) The best approach for weight loss is: 121)

A) increase physical activity and moderate calorie restriction
B) significant calorie restriction
C) increase physical activity
D) moderate calorie restriction
Answer: A
14
122) Energy density is defined as: 122)
A) number of kilojoules per gram of food
B) number of joules per gram of food
C) number of calories per gram of food
D) number of kilocalories per gram of food
Answer: C
123) Which of the following foods has a low energy-density value? 123)
A) white bread B) apple C) popcorn D) pretzels
Answer: B
124) Which of the following foods has a high energy-density value? 124)
A) ice cream B) apple
C) whole grain bread D) broccoli
Answer: A
125) All of the following are strategies to lower the energy density of your diet, EXCEPT: 125)
A) include a green salad or fruit salad with meals.
B) eat fruit with breakfast and for dessert.
C) start meals with a bowl of creamy soup.
D) snack on fresh fruits and vegetables rather than crackers or cookies.
Answer: C
126) Regular physical activity is beneficial for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: 126)
A) essential for maintaining weight loss. B) improves quality of life.
C) decreases cardiac function. D) protects against weight gain.
Answer: C
127) All of the following are NOT effective strategies for weight management, EXCEPT: 127)
A) eating as an antidote to boredom. B) eating a well-balanced diet.
C) eating to stay awake. D) overeating to alleviate loneliness.
Answer: B
128) In general a low-calorie diet should have _____ calories per day. 128)
A) 1500-1800 B) 1000-1200 C) 1800-2100 D) 1200-1500
Answer: A
129) The amount of recommended weight loss per week is: 129)
A) 1.5 to 2 kilograms. B) 0.25 to 1 kilogram.
C) 1 to 1.5 kilograms. D) 2 to 2.25 kilograms.
Answer: B
130) Reasonable weight loss over a six month period is _____________ of body weight: 130)
A) 8 to 10%. B) 3 to 5%. C) 10 to 12%. D) 5 to 8%.
Answer: A
15
131) Individuals who are trying to lose weight should do all of the following when reading 131)
weight loss books, EXCEPT:
A) reject books that claim to be based on a "scientific breakthrough".
B) reject books that use gimmicks such as matching eating to blood type.
C) reject books that advocate an unbalanced way of eating.
D) reject books that promise slow and steady weight loss.
Answer: D
132) All of the following are strategies for eating a well-balanced diet, EXCEPT: 132)
A) check food labels for serving sizes, calories, and nutrient levels.
B) follow recommendations outlined in Eating Well with Canada's Food Guide.
C) consume more calories in the form of drinks.
D) favour foods with low energy density and high nutrient density.
Answer: C
133) Planning and serving recommendations for eating well include all of the following, 133)
EXCEPT:
A) avoid making shopping lists.
B) consume majority of daily calories in the morning rather than the evening.
C) keep a log of what you eat.
D) eat four to five meals and snacks daily including breakfast.
Answer: A
134) Planning and serving recommendations for eating well include all of the following, 134)
EXCEPT:
A) avoiding late night eating.
B) serving meals on large plates and bowls.
C) paying special attention to portion sizes.
D) eating slowly.
Answer: B
135) To eat well during special occasions all of the following are recommended strategies, 135)
EXCEPT:
A) if you cook a large meal for friends, send leftovers home with friends.
B) when eating at a friend's house, do not simply eat everything to be polite.
C) only splurge during the winter holidays.
D) choose restaurants where you can make healthy choices.
Answer: C
136) The bottom line on nonprescription diet aids is caveat emptor which means: 136)
A) let the buyer beware. B) consumer's choice.
C) avoid at all costs. D) use in moderation.
Answer: A
16
137) Adverse effects of ephedrine include all of the following, EXCEPT: 137)
A) appetite suppression. B) seizures.
C) panic attacks. D) elevated blood pressure.
Answer: A
138) Unpleasant effects of a low carbohydrate diet include all of the following, EXCEPT: 138)
A) appetite suppressant. B) bad breath.
C) headache. D) constipation.
Answer: A
139) Diets high in protein and saturated fat have been linked with all of the following, 139)
EXCEPT:
A) cancer. B) low breathing rate.
C) high blood pressure. D) increased risk of heart disease.
Answer: B
140) Green tea extract is claimed to: 140)

A) stimulate the CNS. B) serve as a diuretic.
C) serve as a laxative. D) suppress appetite.
Answer: B
141) Caffeine is claimed to: 141)

A) stimulate the CNS. B) suppress appetite.
C) serve as a laxative. D) serve as a diuretic.
Answer: A
142) Bitter orange extract is claimed to: 142)

A) serve as a diuretic. B) stimulate the CNS.
C) suppress appetite. D) serve as a laxative.
Answer: B
143) Uva-ursi is claimed to: 143)

A) suppress appetite. B) stimulate the CNS.
C) serve as a laxative. D) serve as a diuretic.
Answer: D
144) Which of the following programs largely provides weight loss group support? 144)
A) Jenny Craig.
B) Take Off Pounds Sensibly (TOPS).
C) Overeaters Anonymous (OA)
D) Take Off Pounds Sensibly (TOPS) and Overeaters Anonymous (OA)
Answer: D
17
145) All of the following are potential side effects of weight loss surgery for individuals with 145)
poor cardiorespiratory fitness, EXCEPT:
A) diabetes. B) kidney failure.
C) stroke. D) death.
Answer: A
146) Alan is somewhat surprised that he has gained a couple of kilograms since coming to 146)
university. He has never had a weight problem. He was always active every day in high
school sports. Alan admits that his eating habits probably aren't as good as they should
be. Still, he eats only three meals a day and a snack at night. He doesn't snack between
meals because he doesn't get hungry. The food servers in the cafeteria where he eats
always give him generous servings of food. Alan isn't involved with any university sport,
but he does play basketball with his friends occasionally. He also has a part-time job and
has a full course load. Alan thinks he is more active in university than when he was in
high school. In fact, he often feels rushed going to classes because of the distance between
classroom buildings and the fact that most of his classes are on the third or fourth floor and he has
to wait to get an elevator.
The most likely cause of Alan's weight gain is

A) stress related to leaving home.
B) reduced activity level.
C) poor eating habits.
D) the inevitable weight gain associated with getting older.
Answer: B
An initial step that Alan can take toward solving the problem contributing to his weight gain is to
A) adopt a vegetarian diet.
B) take the stairs, instead of the elevator, to class.
C) eat two large meals instead of three each day.
D) eliminate all snacks.
Answer: B
18
What additional consideration would help Alan manage his weight? He should
A) quit his part-time job.
B) reduce calories from complex carbohydrates.
C) reduce portion sizes.
D) increase calories from protein.
Answer: C
149) Canadians currently consume about 200-400 more calories per day than they did 149)
20 years ago, and they engage in less physical activity. Describe five factors that
may help explain this shift.
150) Define subcutaneous fat, visceral fat, and percent body fat. Identify and describe 150)
three methods for assessing body weight and body composition.
151) Define diabetes and pre-diabetes, and describe the basic physiology of type 2 151)
diabetes. List three risk factors and three preventive strategies for type 2 diabetes.
152) Describe the energy balance equation and how it relates to weight management. 152)
What parts of the equation are under individual control, and how can the equation
be tipped in favour of weight loss and weight gain?
153) Describe at least five components of a healthy lifestyle for weight management. 153)
You can include factors relating to diet and eating habits, activity habits,
emotions, patterns of thinking, and coping strategies.
19
154) Mari would like to lose a few pounds, but she doesn't want to spend money on a 154)
special book or program or on special foods. Mari usually fixes and eats her own
breakfast and dinner at home, but she has lunch in her school's food court.
Describe at least eight lifestyle strategies she could try for successful weight loss
on her own.
155) Books and programs advocating low-carbohydrate and low-fat diets have flooded 155)
the market. Give one pro and one con for each of these two dietary patterns. In
addition, list three general weight-loss strategies advocated by many experts.
156) Define body image, and list two factors that can contribute to a negative body 156)
image among women and men. In addition, list five strategies for avoiding
problems with body image.
157) Name and describe the three major types of eating disorders discussed in your 157)
text. List three suggestions for what a person can do to help someone with an
eating disorder.
20
Exam
Name___________________________________
1) Essential nutrients are produced by the body. 1)

Answer: True False
2) Alcohol has no nutritional role but does provide energy. 2)

Answer: True False
3) Complete proteins are found in animal food sources. 3)

Answer: True False
4) Incomplete proteins are missing at least one essential amino acid. 4)

Answer: True False
5) To obtain a complete protein from plant foods, you must combine two different sources 5)
of plant proteins in the same meal.
Answer: True False
6) Excess protein intake can increase fat stores. 6)

Answer: True False
7) Foods containing large amounts of saturated fatty acids are usually solid at room 7)
temperature.
Answer: True False
8) Soybeans are a good source of polyunsaturated fat. 8)

Answer: True False
9) Omega-3 fatty acids decrease the inflammatory response in the body. 9)

Answer: True False
10) Recommended daily fat intake is 20-35 percent of total daily calories. 10)
Answer: True False
11) Carbohydrates are classified into two groups: simple and complex. 11)
Answer: True False
12) The refinement of whole grains transforms brown rice into white rice. 12)
Answer: True False
13) Consumption of refined carbohydrates causes a slower rise in blood glucose levels than 13)
does consumption of unrefined carbohydrates.
Answer: True False
1
14) Carbohydrates consumed in excess of the body's energy needs are stored in the muscle as 14)
glucose.
Answer: True False
15) Fibre is a source of dietary carbohydrates. 15)

Answer: True False
16) Fibre consumption can lower cholesterol levels. 16)

Answer: True False
17) Beta-carotene, vitamin C, and vitamin E are antioxidants. 17)

Answer: True False
18) All fluids, including those that contain caffeine, can count towards your total daily fluid 18)
intake.
Answer: True False
19) Lean meats are a good source of phytochemicals. 19)

Answer: True False
20) The aim of the Dietary Reference Intake is to guide you in meeting your nutritional needs 20)
with vitamin and mineral supplements.
Answer: True False
21) Whole grain bread is more nutrient-dense than are most white breads. 21)
Answer: True False
22) Vegans eat plant food, dairy products, and eggs. 22)
Answer: True False
23) Individuals with diabetes benefit from a diet that is low in simple sugars and complex 23)
carbohydrates.
Answer: True False
24) The recommended self-treatment for foodborne illness is limiting intake of food and 24)
water.
Answer: True False
25) The use of food irradiation is not permitted on foods certified as organic. 25)
Answer: True False
26) The purpose of food irradiation is to kill potentially harmful pathogens. 26)
Answer: True False
2
27) A true food allergy is a reaction of the body's immune system to a food or food 27)
ingredient.
Answer: True False
28) Shelley is pregnant and has concerns about possible mercury contamination in the fish 28)
she eats. According to Health Canada, she should avoid all of the following, EXCEPT
A) swordfish B) salmon C) king mackerel D) shark
Answer: B
29) Essential nutrients include all of the following, EXCEPT 29)

A) minerals. B) amino acids. C) enzymes. D) vitamins.
Answer: C
30) The process in which foods you eat are broken down and absorbed is called 30)
A) digestion. B) respiration. C) catecation. D) metabolism.
Answer: A
31) Which of the following essential nutrients does NOT supply energy? 31)
A) fats B) carbohydrates C) proteins D) vitamins
Answer: D
32) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding alcohol? 32)

A) It supplies 7 calories of energy per gram.
B) It plays an important role in supplying necessary enzymes.
C) It is not an essential nutrient.
D) Alcohol is not an essential nutrient, and it supplies 7 calories of energy per gram.
Answer: D
33) Fat provides _____________ calories per gram. 33)

A) 4 B) 12 C) 7 D) 9
Answer: D
34) Protein provides _____________ calories per gram. 34)

A) 4 B) 9 C) 12 D) 7
Answer: A
35) Carbohydrate provides _____________ calories per gram. 35)

A) 7 B) 9 C) 12 D) 4
Answer: D
36) Alcohol provides ____________ calories per gram. 36)

A) 4 B) 7 C) 12 D) 9
Answer: B
3
37) The main structural components of the body, muscles, and bones are made up of 37)
A) proteins. B) carbohydrates.
C) lipids. D) fats.
Answer: A
38) Genetically modified foods 38)

A) can unexpectedly appear in the food supply through contamination during
processing.
B) require special labelling.
C) can be used in foods that are also certified organic or irradiated.
D) are not common in Canada but are very common in other countries.
Answer: A
39) The building blocks of proteins are called 39)

A) amino acids. B) hormones. C) enzymes. D) minerals.
Answer: A
40) Of the 20 common amino acids, how many of these are termed "essential"? 40)
A) 3 B) 29 C) 9 D) 18
Answer: C
41) Protein sources that provide all the amino acids that cannot be manufactured in the body 41)
are best described as
A) incomplete. B) essential. C) nonessential. D) complete.
Answer: D
42) Meats, fish, poultry, and eggs are sources of ___________ protein. 42)
A) incomplete B) complete C) primary D) secondary
Answer: B
43) Foods from most plant sources supply ____________ proteins. 43)
A) complete B) primary C) incomplete D) secondary
Answer: C
44) Which of the following is a source of incomplete protein? 44)

A) eggs B) meat C) beans D) cheese
Answer: C
45) Martha is a vegetarian and wants to eat a source of complete protein. Which of the 45)
following would not be a complete protein combination?
A) rice and beans B) peanut butter and milk
C) corn and beans D) corn and apple sauce
Answer: D
4
46) All of the following will help supply Carey with an adequate daily intake of protein, 46)
EXCEPT
A) 1/2 cup of tofu B) 20 grams of beef
C) 1 cup of yogurt D) 90 grams of chicken
Answer: B
47) The average Canadian diet includes about _____________ of total daily calories as 47)
protein.
A) 27% B) 50% C) 17% D) 5%
Answer: C
48) The recommended daily intake of protein is _____________ of total daily calories 48)
A) 20-35% B) 10-35% C) less than 10% D) 45-65%
Answer: B
49) Fats are also called 49)

A) lipids. B) glycerol. C) enzymes. D) glycogen.
Answer: A
50) The major source of fuel for the body during rest and light activity is 50)
A) vitamins. B) proteins.
C) fats. D) carbohydrates.
Answer: C
51) Which of the following is NOT a function of fats? 51)

A) They form important components of blood and some hormones.
B) They help insulate your body.
C) They support and cushion your organs.
D) They help your body absorb fat-soluble vitamins.
Answer: A
52) Most of the fats in food are in the form of 52)

A) low-density lipids. B) cholesterol.
C) high-density lipids. D) triglycerides.
Answer: D
53) The essential fatty acids, linoleic and alpha-linoleic acids, are both 53)
A) hydrosaturated. B) monounsaturated.
C) polyunsaturated. D) saturated.
Answer: C
5
54) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding fats? 54)
A) Food fats are composed of both saturated and unsaturated fatty acids.
B) Food fats containing large amounts of saturated fatty acids are usually solid at room
temperature.
C) Food fats that are polyunsaturated are usually solid at room temperature.
D) They are the most concentrated source of energy.
Answer: C
55) Food irradiation 55)

A) extends the shelf life of a food.
B) does not require special labeling.
C) utilizes radioactive materials.
D) is currently approved only for red meat.
Answer: A
56) Saturated fats are primarily found in 56)

A) animal food sources and are solid at room temperature.
B) plant food sources and are solid at room temperature.
C) animal food sources and are liquid at room temperature.
D) plant food sources and are liquid at room temperature.
Answer: A
57) Leading sources of saturated fat in the Canadian diet include all of the following, 57)
EXCEPT
A) whole milk and cheese. B) hot dogs and lunch meats.
C) poultry. D) red meats.
Answer: C
58) Which of the following does NOT contain mostly monounsaturated fatty acids? 58)
A) palm oil B) safflower oil C) peanut oil D) olive oil
Answer: A
59) All of the following contain mostly polyunsaturated fatty acids, EXCEPT 59)
A) cottonseed oil. B) corn oil.
C) coconut oil. D) soybean oil.
Answer: C
60) A by-product of hydrogenation is 60)

A) cholesterol. B) trans fatty acids.
C) monounsaturated fats. D) triglycerides.
Answer: B
6
61) In order to determine the presence of trans fat in a given product, consumers should 61)
check the label for
A) partially hydrogenated oils. B) unsaturated fat levels.
C) cholesterol content. D) carbohydrate content.
Answer: A
62) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding trans fatty acids? 62)
A) They raise the levels of low-density lipoproteins in the blood.
B) They increase one's risk of developing heart disease.
C) They lower the levels of high-density lipoproteins in the blood.
D) They decrease one's risk of having a heart attack.
Answer: D
63) Sulphites are used to 63)

A) protect vegetables from browning. B) protect meats from toxins.
C) fortify vitamins in juices. D) maintain the fresh taste of fruits.
Answer: A
64) Which of the following would be an effect of consuming omega-3 fatty acids? 64)
A) They inhibit inflammation.
B) They promote cancer at high levels of consumption.
C) They inhibit abnormal heart rhythms.
D) They reduce the tendency of blood to clot.
Answer: B
65) To control your blood cholesterol levels, the most important action you can take is to 65)
limit the amount of _______________ in your diet.
A) saturated and trans fats B) monounsaturated fat
C) polyunsaturated fat D) omega-3 fat
Answer: A
66) A guideline for food safety is to 66)

A) store eggs in their designated space in the refrigerator door.
B) wash hands for 10 seconds after handling food.
C) cook stuffing separately from poultry.
D) make certain that hamburgers are cooked to 110 F.
Answer: C
67) Plant sources that provide small amounts of omega-3 fatty acids include all of the 67)
following, EXCEPT
A) coconut oil. B) canola oil. C) walnut oil. D) flaxseed oil.
Answer: A
7
68) A good source of omega-3 fatty acids is 68)
A) spinach. B) chicken. C) pork. D) salmon.
Answer: D
69) Which of the following statement is FALSE regarding omega-6 fatty acids? 69)
A) They contain the essential nutrient linoleic acid.
B) Some nutritionists recommend people reduce the proportion of omega-6s they
consume in favor of omega-3s.
C) They are primarily found in palm and coconut oils.
D) They are another form of polyunsaturated fat.
Answer: C
70) When reducing fat intake, the emphasis should be placed on lowering intake of 70)
A) omega-3 fatty acids. B) trans fatty acids.
C) linoleic acid. D) monounsaturated fats.
Answer: B
71) The major source of fuel for the nervous system, brain, and red blood cells is 71)
A) carbohydrates. B) vitamins.
C) proteins. D) fats.
Answer: A
72) When John doesn't eat enough carbohydrates to satisfy his body's need, where will his 72)
body get the needed carbohydrates?
A) proteins B) minerals C) fats D) vitamins
Answer: A
73) Which of the following foods is NOT considered a simple carbohydrate? 73)
A) potato B) table sugar C) orange juice D) milk
Answer: A
74) Which of the following statement is FALSE regarding simple carbohydrates? 74)
A) They are found in a variety of plants.
B) They contain only one or two sugar units in each molecule.
C) They are found naturally in fruits and milk.
D) There is no evidence that any simple carbohydrate is more nutritious than others.
Answer: A
75) Refined carbohydrates 75)

A) take longer to digest than unrefined carbohydrates.
B) keep blood sugar and insulin levels low.
C) tend to be much lower in fibre and vitamins than their unrefined counterparts.
D) contain both the germ and bran of whole grains.
Answer: C
8
76) The refinement of whole grains transforms whole-wheat flour into 76)
A) enriched whole-wheat flour. B) whole-wheat flour dust.
C) unrefined whole-wheat flour. D) white flour.
Answer: D
77) The liver and muscles store carbohydrates in the form of 77)
A) fructose. B) sucrose. C) glucose. D) glycogen.
Answer: D
78) Which of the following are richest in complex carbohydrates? 78)

A) grains and legumes B) milk and vegetables
C) fruits, milk, and cheese D) fruits and honey
Answer: A
79) Cooked or refrigerated foods should not be left at room temperature for more than 79)
A) 1 hour. B) 2 hours. C) 3 hours. D) 4 hours.
Answer: B
80) Consumption of whole grains has NOT been linked to: 80)
A) an increased risk of heart rhythm abnormalities.
B) a reduced risk of heart disease.
C) a reduced risk of diabetes.
D) a reduced risk of certain forms of cancer.
Answer: A
81) Which of the following macronutrient distributions is consistent with the Acceptable 81)
Macronutrient Distribution Ranges set by the Institute of Medicine and adopted by
Health Canada?
A) 10 percent of daily calories as protein, 65 percent of daily calories as carbohydrate,
25 percent of daily calories as fat
B) 15 percent of daily calories as protein, 45 percent of daily calories as carbohydrate,
C) 30 percent of daily calories as protein, 35 percent of daily calories as carbohydrate,
D) 40 percent of daily calories as protein, 40 percent of daily calories as carbohydrate,
Answer: A
82) ________________ is nondigestible carbohydrates that occur naturally in plant foods. 82)
A) Dietary fibre B) Whole grains
C) Viscous fibre D) Functional fibre
Answer: A
9
83) Fibre can help do all of the following, EXCEPT 83)
A) prevent constipation by increasing fecal bulk.
B) reduce the absorption of cholesterol.
C) prevent heart disease by increasing contractility.
D) manage diabetes by slowing the movement of glucose into the blood.
Answer: C
84) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding foodborne illnesses? 84)
A) Children, pregnant women, and the elderly are more at risk for severe
complications.
B) Undercooked vegetable products pose a significant risk.
C) Most of the foodborne illness is caused by disease-causing microorganisms.
D) Raw or undercooked animal products and oysters pose the greatest risk.
Answer: B
85) All of the following are good sources of fibre, EXCEPT 85)
A) winter squash. B) oatmeal.
C) avocado. D) hamburger.
Answer: D
86) The recommended daily intake of fibre for women is ____________ grams. 86)
A) 15 B) 25 C) 45 D) 35
Answer: B
87) The recommended daily amount of fibre for men is ____________ grams. 87)
A) 18 B) 28 C) 38 D) more than 50
Answer: C
88) ___________ is often added to cereals or used in fibre supplements and laxatives, 88)
improves intestinal health, and also helps control glucose and cholesterol levels.
A) Fyllium B) Millium C) Trillium D) Psyllium
Answer: D
89) Which of the following is NOT a fat-soluble vitamin? 89)

A) vitamin D B) vitamin B C) vitamin K D) vitamin A
Answer: B
90) Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin? 90)

A) vitamin C B) vitamin E C) vitamin D D) vitamin K
Answer: A
10
91) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding vitamins? 91)
A) Vitamins are required by the body in large amounts.
B) Vitamins provide direct energy to the body.
C) Vitamins are important in the maintenance of the immune system.
D) Vitamins are best taken in the form of vitamin supplements.
Answer: C
92) Which of the following vitamins does not act as an antioxidant? 92)
A) vitamin B B) vitamin A C) vitamin E D) vitamin C
Answer: A
93) The best source of vitamin C is a(n) 93)

A) slice of whole-grain bread. B) orange.
C) glass of milk. D) hamburger.
Answer: B
94) Probably the best-known vitamin deficiency disease, caused by a lack of vitamin C in the 94)
diet, is
A) beriberi. B) gingivitis. C) scurvy. D) anemia.
Answer: C
95) The primary function of vitamins is to 95)

A) regulate various chemical reactions within cells.
B) supply energy to body cells.
C) provide texture and flavour to foods.
D) serve as an important component of muscle.
Answer: A
96) Two vitamins produced within the body are 96)

A) vitamin C and vitamin D. B) niacin and vitamin K.
C) vitamin B and biotin. D) vitamin D and vitamin K.
Answer: D
97) Which low intake of this vitamin has been linked to increased heart disease risk? 97)
A) vitamin A B) riboflavin C) folate D) vitamin D
Answer: C
98) High dosages of vitamin A are toxic and associated with an increased risk of 98)
A) night blindness. B) birth defects.
C) anemia. D) scurvy.
Answer: B
11
99) All of the following are cooking methods that preserve the nutrient value of vegetables, 99)
EXCEPT
A) boiling. B) baking. C) steaming. D) microwaving.
Answer: A
100) Examples of major minerals include 100)

A) zinc, iron, and calcium. B) potassium, sodium, and iron.
C) iron, calcium, and copper. D) calcium, potassium, and magnesium.
Answer: D
101) Examples of trace minerals include 101)

A) iodide, zinc, and chloride. B) potassium, zinc, and iron.
C) magnesium and phosphorus. D) fluoride, copper, and zinc.
Answer: D
102) A mineral commonly lacking in Canadian diets is 102)

A) chloride. B) sodium. C) iron. D) phosphorus.
Answer: C
103) Minerals 103)

A) help regulate body functions.
B) make up about 60% of total body weight.
C) provide the body with 4 calories per gram in energy.
D) are found only in animal products.
Answer: A
104) An essential nutrient commonly lacking in the Canadian diet is 104)

A) calcium. B) copper. C) fluoride. D) sodium.
Answer: A
105) A food rich in calcium is 105)

A) lean meat. B) green leafy vegetables.
C) nuts. D) apples.
Answer: B
106) Osteoporosis is associated with low intake of 106)

A) phosphorus. B) iron. C) zinc. D) calcium.
Answer: D
12
107) When it comes to building strong bones, good advice would be to 107)
A) consume calcium from supplements because it is absorbed better than calcium from
foods.
B) limit your sun exposure to less than 10 minutes per week.
C) engage in weight-bearing aerobic activities.
D) eat a diet high in protein.
Answer: C
108) Women who are capable of getting pregnant should include foods fortified with and 108)
supplements of which of the following nutrients?
A) vitamin C B) vitamin B12 C) folic acid D) potassium
Answer: C
109) Individuals with high blood pressure may benefit from dietary restriction of 109)
A) vitamin B12. B) calcium. C) sodium. D) fibre.
Answer: C
110) Strategies to prevent osteoporosis include all of the following, EXCEPT 110)
A) adequate vitamin D intake.
B) moderation in the consumption of caffeine.
C) high intake of vitamin A (as retinol).
D) weight-bearing aerobic exercise.
Answer: C
111) Human body weight is composed of approximately _______________ water. 111)

A) 20-30% B) 80-100% C) 50-60% D) 40-50%
Answer: C
112) Experts say that two of the most important factors in a healthy diet are eating the "right" 112)
kinds of fats and the "right" kinds of
A) cholesterol. B) carbohydrates.
C) proteins. D) fibre.
Answer: B
113) Which of the following should count toward your total daily fluid intake? 113)
A) only water
B) water and fruit juices
C) all fluids, including those containing caffeine
D) water and any sugar-free liquids
Answer: C
13
114) Antioxidants 114)
A) cause cancer.
B) are a type of mineral obtained exclusively from supplements.
C) are a particular type of phytochemical.
D) found in foods can help protect the body from damage caused by free radicals.
Answer: D
115) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding free radicals? 115)
A) Free radical production is increased by environmental factors such as exhaust
fumes.
B) Free radicals have been implicated in aging and many diseases.
C) Free radicals are produced when the body uses oxygen or breaks down fats and
proteins.
D) Free radicals must reach a threshold number before they are helpful in maintaining
overall health.
Answer: D
116) Phytochemicals 116)

A) are linked to the development of some cancers.
B) are best obtained through supplements rather than trying to eat a variety of fruits
and vegetables.
C) have been shown to be toxic if ingested in large amounts in plant foods.
D) are a substance found in plant food that may help prevent chronic disease.
Answer: D
117) Which of the following is a cruciferous vegetable? 117)

A) potato B) broccoli C) carrot D) pinto bean
Answer: B
118) The Dietary Reference Intakes 118)

A) are used as a basis for most food labels.
B) are a food group plan.
C) will eventually be replaced by RDA values.
D) are designed to prevent nutritional deficiencies and chronic diseases.
Answer: D
119) All of the following are TRUE about The Dietary Reference Intakes, EXCEPT 119)
A) focus on the role of vitamins in promoting optimal health and preventing acute
diseases.
B) focus on the role of nutrients in promoting optimal health and preventing chronic
diseases.
C) include standards for both recommended and maximum safe intakes.
D) are a current set of dietary standards established by the Institute of Medicine.
Answer: A
14
120) Hydrogenation 120)
A) reduces the amount of cholesterol in saturated fats.
B) turns liquid oils into solid or semi-solid fats
C) increases the shelf life of products containing fat.
D) has been banned by the FDA.
Answer: B
121) The leading source of added sugar in the Canadian diet is 121)
A) artificial sweeteners. B) pop.
C) candy bars. D) cakes and cookies.
Answer: B
122) High sodium condiments include all of the following, EXCEPT 122)
A) olives. B) mustard. C) soy sauce. D) lemon juice.
Answer: D
123) Moderate alcohol intake for women is no more than _____________ drink(s) per day. 123)
A) 1/2 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3
Answer: C
124) Moderate alcohol intake for men is no more than _____________ drink(s) per day. 124)
A) 1/2 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3
Answer: D
125) Salt consumption is most often from 125)

A) fruit juices. B) processed and prepared foods.
C) herbs and spices. D) potassium rich foods.
Answer: B
126) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding vegetarians? 126)

A) Lacto-ovo-vegetarians do not eat eggs.
B) Semivegetarians eat fish but do not eat dairy products.
C) Vegans eat only plant foods.
D) Lacto-vegetarians eat fish and plant foods.
Answer: C
127) Vegetarians who eat no meat, poultry, or fish, but do eat eggs and dairy products, are 127)
called
A) vegans. B) lacto-ovo-vegetarians.
C) lacto-vegans. D) semivegetarians.
Answer: B
15
128) Vegetarians who include milk and cheese products and small amounts of fish and poultry 128)
in their diets are called
A) vegans. B) lacto-ovo-vegetarians.
C) lacto-vegetarians. D) semivegetarians.
Answer: D
129) What is the main nutrition-related problem likely to be encountered by a vegan if his or 129)
her diet is not carefully selected?
A) insufficient intake of complex carbohydrates
B) insufficient intake of fibre
C) insufficient intake of vitamin B12
D) high cholesterol level
Answer: C
130) Which vitamin enhances the absorption of iron? 130)

A) vitamin D B) vitamin C C) vitamin B12 D) calcium
Answer: B
131) Endurance athletes may benefit from consuming additional 131)

A) minerals. B) vitamins. C) carbohydrate. D) protein.
Answer: C
132) Vitamin B12 is found naturally in all of the following, EXCEPT: 132)
A) beef. B) cheese. C) broccoli. D) eggs.
Answer: C
133) Approximately what percentage of Canadians use natural health products? 133)
A) 50% B) 100% C) 75% D) 25%
Answer: C
134) A nutrient claim of "low in calories" means which of the following? 134)
A) 40 calories or less per serving B) 75 calories or less per serving
C) 90 calories or less per serving D) 25 calories or less per serving
Answer: A
135) A nutrient claim of "high source of fibre" means which of the following? 135)
A) 4 grams or more B) 10 grams or more
C) 2 grams or more D) 20 grams or more
Answer: A
136) A nutrient claim of "good source of fibre" means which of the following? 136)
A) 10 grams or more B) 20 grams or more
C) 4 grams or more D) 2 grams or more
Answer: D
16
137) A nutrient claim of "cholesterol free" means which of the following? 137)
A) 0 milligrams of cholesterol B) 10 milligrams of cholesterol
C) 2 to 5 milligrams of cholesterol D) less than 2 milligrams of cholesterol
Answer: D
138) A nutrient claim of "low in cholesterol" means which of the following? 138)
A) contains 5 milligrams of cholesterol or less
B) low in saturated fatty acids
C) contains 20 milligrams of cholesterol or less
D) contains 20 milligrams of cholesterol or less and is low in saturated fatty acids
Answer: D
139) A nutrient claim of "lean" means which of the following? 139)

A) cooked seafood, meat, or poultry with less than 12 percent fat
B) cooked seafood, meat, or poultry with less than 25 percent fat
C) cooked seafood, meat, or poultry with less than 17 percent fat
D) cooked seafood, meat, or poultry with less than 5 percent fat
Answer: C
140) A nutrient claim of "fat free" means which of the following? 140)
A) contains 1 gram or less of fat per serving
B) contains 0.5 grams or less of fat per serving
C) contains 0 grams of fat per serving
D) contains 2 grams or less of fat per serving
Answer: B
141) A nutrient claim of "reduced fat or low in fat" means which of the following? 141)
A) contains 0 grams of fat per serving
B) contains 3 grams or less of fat per serving
C) contains 1 gram or less of fat per serving
D) contains 0.5 grams or less of fat per serving
Answer: B
142) Salmonella bacteria is commonly found in all of the following, EXCEPT 142)
A) raw or undercooked eggs B) milk and dairy products
C) poultry D) raw vegetables
Answer: D
143) E. coli bacteria are most often found in which of the following? 143)
A) rare ground beef B) raw milk
C) fish D) raw milk and rare ground beef
Answer: D
17
144) Listeria monocytogenes causes illness for approximately how many Canadians each 144)
year?
A) 100 to 140 B) 250 to 500 C) 500 or more D) 140 to 250
Answer: A
145) Staphylococcus aureus bacteria is mainly found in the following location: 145)
A) nasal passages B) moles
C) skin sores D) skin sores and nasal passages
Answer: D
146) Listeria is particularly dangerous for all of the following groups, EXCEPT 146)
A) babies and children
B) people with weakened immune systems
C) pregnant women
D) young adults
Answer: D
147) Connie is satisfied with her weight but would like to improve her eating habits. She 147)
typically has several slices of toast and a large coffee for breakfast, a turkey sandwich
and chips or sausage pizza for lunch, and a pasta dish with baked chicken or pork chops
for supper. She often has an evening snack of fat-free pudding or yogurt. She drinks
unsweetened iced tea, regular colas, water, and an occasional glass of milk.
Connie could adjust her diet closer to that recommended by Eating Well with Canada's Food
Guide by increasing her daily servings of all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) vegetables. B) fresh fruit and 100% fruit juice.
C) whole grains. D) refined sugars.
Answer: D
Connie's current diet is most likely to be adequate in which of the following nutrients?
A) folate B) protein C) fibre D) calcium
Answer: B
18
Connie has been evaluating her daily consumption of beverages to improve the overall quality of
her diet. Which of the following beverages should Connie choose less often?
A) low-fat milk B) water
C) regular pop D) unsweetened iced tea
Answer: C
150) Identify the six classes of essential nutrients; for each, give at least two major 150)
functions it performs in the body and two key food sources.
151) List and describe the various types of vegetarian diets mentioned in your text. 151)
Discuss at least two advantages and disadvantages associated with choosing this
type of diet.
152) List the food groups in Eating Well with Canada's Food Guide. For each group, 152)
provide the suggested range of daily servings.
153) Put together a sample day's diet that meets the recommended number of servings 153)
for all the food groups in Eating Well with Canada's Food Guide.
154) Josh is a freshman and is in need of eating strategies when he has his meals in the 154)
dining hall. List six strategies that will help him establish healthy eating habits.
155) Select one of the following food-related issues, and take a position pro or con. 155)
Describe your point of view and your reasoning; give at least three arguments to support
your position.
Wider use of genetically-modified foods

Greater regulation of dietary supplements
Wider use of food irradiation
19
Exam
Name___________________________________
1) Endurance training can improve the function of the body's chemical systems. 1)
Answer: True False
2) The five components of fitness most important to health are endurance, strength, 2)
flexibility, body composition, and skill attainment.
Answer: True False
3) Cardiorespiratory endurance is the ability to perform short-duration, high-intensity 3)

exercise.
Answer: True False
4) Muscular strength is the amount of force a muscle produces with a single maximum 4)
effort.
Answer: True False
5) The best way to lose fat is through a lifestyle that includes a sensible diet and exercise. 5)
Answer: True False
6) Regular exercise may prevent the onset of type 2 diabetes. 6)

Answer: True False
7) A sedentary lifestyle is classified as a major risk factor for CVD. 7)

Answer: True False
8) Strength training can help improve body composition by increasing muscle mass. 8)
Answer: True False
9) Exercise has social, emotional, and psychological benefits. 9)

Answer: True False
10) Endurance exercise provides protection against the negative effects of stress. 10)
Answer: True False
11) There is evidence that exercise reduces the risk of colon cancer. 11)
Answer: True False
12) Exercise improves memory and learning. 12)

Answer: True False
13) Increased muscle strength can help prevent low-back pain. 13)
Answer: True False
1
14) People with chronic health conditions or concerns should not exercise. 14)
Answer: True False
15) Any person planning to begin a fitness program should first have a medical exam. 15)
Answer: True False
16) To develop cardiorespiratory endurance, you need to engage in continuous activity 16)
involving large muscle groups.
Answer: True False
17) The principle of reversibility says your body adjusts to lower levels of physical activity 17)
in the same way it adjusts to higher levels.
Answer: True False
18) An appropriate exercise duration depends primarily on exercise frequency. 18)

Answer: True False
19) Synovial fluid is spread through the joints during warm-up. 19)
Answer: True False
20) In a weight training program, a heavy weight and low number of repetitions builds 20)
muscular strength.
Answer: True False
21) Men build larger muscles than women do through weight training because men have 21)
higher levels of testosterone.
Answer: True False
22) In a program to build flexibility, each stretch should be held for two minutes. 22)
Answer: True False
23) Thirst should be used as the guide for determining how much water a person should 23)
drink when exercising.
Answer: True False
24) Water is the best choice for fluid replacement for workouts lasting less than 90 minutes. 24)
Answer: True False
25) Studies have shown that bottled water is a more healthy choice than tap water. 25)
Answer: True False
26) After an injury, heat should be used for the first 48 hours or until the swelling is gone. 26)
Answer: True False
2
27) Cross-training is the practice of engaging in more than one activity to improve a 27)
particular component of fitness.
Answer: True False
28) The body's ability to respond or adapt to the demands and stress of physical effort 28)
denotes
A) physical activity. B) anaerobic capacity.
C) physical fitness. D) peak workload.
Answer: C
29) All of the following are health-related components of physical fitness, EXCEPT 29)
A) flexibility. B) cardiorespiratory endurance.
C) coordination. D) muscular strength.
Answer: C
30) The ability of the body to perform prolonged, large-muscle, dynamic exercise at 30)
moderate-to-high levels of intensity is
A) anaerobic capacity. B) cardiorespiratory capacity.
C) adaptive capacity. D) cardiorespiratory endurance.
Answer: D
31) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding cardiorespiratory endurance? 31)
A) As it improves, the heart can withstand the strains of everyday life.
B) As it improves, the heart pumps more blood per heartbeat.
C) As it improves, resting blood pressure increases.
D) As it improves, the body can do more exercise with less effort.
Answer: C
32) All of the following are cardiorespiratory endurance activities, EXCEPT 32)
A) cycling. B) walking.
C) aerobic dancing. D) weight training.
Answer: D
33) Muscular strength is the 33)

A) ability to move the joints through a full range of motion.
B) amount of force a muscle can produce repeatedly over 60 seconds.
C) ability to sustain a given level of muscular tension over time.
D) amount of force a muscle can produce with a single maximum effort.
Answer: D
3
34) Muscular endurance is the 34)
A) amount of time required to contract a muscle completely.
B) ability to move the joints through a full range of motion.
C) amount of force a muscle can produce with a single maximum effort.
D) ability to sustain a given level of muscular tension over time.
Answer: D
35) Flexibility is best described as 35)

A) sustained motion without resistance.
B) the ability to move the joints through their full range of motion.
C) the ability to move rapidly during exercise.
D) the ability to move without pain during exercise.
Answer: B
36) Which of the following is a person with excessive body fat likely to experience? 36)
A) back paint B) diabetes
C) joint problems D) All of these choices are correct.
Answer: D
37) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the effects of exercise on 37)
metabolism and body composition?
A) It slightly raises the metabolic rate for several hours after exercise.
B) The increase in muscle mass raises the metabolic rate.
C) It can result in substantial weight gain due to increase in muscle mass.
D) It increases caloric expenditure and thus helps regulate body weight.
Answer: C
38) Endurance exercise significantly increases 38)

A) body fat. B) vitamin stores.
C) cancer risk. D) daily calorie expenditure.
Answer: D
39) Which of the following statements BEST describes the effect of endurance exercise on 39)
lipids?
A) It has no effect on cholesterol. B) It decreases HDL and increases LDL.
C) It increases HDL and decreases LDL. D) It has no effect on triglycerides.
Answer: C
40) High levels of which of the following are associated with reduced risk of CVD? 40)
A) high-density lipoproteins (HDL)
B) triglycerides
C) low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
D) very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
Answer: A
4
41) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding exercise and disease prevention? 41)
A) Regular exercise reduces the risk of stroke.
B) Exercise prevents the development of type 2 diabetes.
C) Weight-bearing exercises provide women protection against osteoporosis.
D) All of these statements are true.
Answer: D
42) Exercise tends to result in all of the following, EXCEPT 42)

A) improved memory. B) decreased insulin sensitivity.
C) decreased stress. D) improved self-image.
Answer: B
43) Regular physical activity is linked to all of the following, EXCEPT 43)
A) improved mood. B) reduced anxiety.
C) improved sleep. D) lower endorphin levels.
Answer: D
44) All of the following statements are TRUE regarding the effects of exercise on 44)
psychological and emotional well-being, EXCEPT
A) exercise creates mood swings. B) exercise increases energy level.
C) exercise improves body image. D) exercise enhances self-image.
Answer: A
45) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding exercise programs? 45)
A) The best exercise programs promote health and are fun.
B) To be successful, the exercise program should be conducted only with a trainer.
C) To be successful, the exercise program should be treated as a chore.
D) To develop fitness, strenuous exercise should occur every day.
Answer: A
46) Exercise is a subset of physical activity that is 46)

A) random or unstructured. B) discontinuous and unplanned.
C) planned, structured, and repetitive. D) not a contributor to physical fitness.
Answer: C
47) All of the following are TRUE regarding exercise and people with chronic health 47)
concerns, EXCEPT
A) fitness recommendations for the general population are not appropriate for people
with chronic health concerns.
B) for many with chronic health concerns, the risks of NOT exercising are far greater
than those associated with moderate exercise.
C) anyone with a chronic health concern should consult a physician before beginning
an exercise program.
D) appropriate exercise is safe and beneficial for many with chronic health concerns.
Answer: A
5
48) Canada's Physical Activity Guide to Healthy Active Living includes all of the following, 48)
EXCEPT
A) cardiorespiratory endurance. B) flexibility.
C) strength training. D) agility and balance.
Answer: D
49) In which of the following situations should John get a medical examination before 49)
beginning an exercise program?
A) If he has a history of heart disease.
B) If he is inactive and over 40 years of age.
C) If he has diabetes or asthma.
D) All of these choices are correct.
Answer: D
50) All of the following are dimensions of overload, EXCEPT 50)

A) specificity. B) duration. C) intensity. D) frequency.
Answer: A
51) Which of the following activities will provide the MOST aerobic benefit for a beginning 51)
exerciser?
A) tennis B) basketball C) walking D) racquetball
Answer: C
52) To develop a particular fitness component, you must perform exercises that are designed 52)
particularly for that component. This is referred to as
A) mode. B) specificity. C) overload. D) structure.
Answer: B
53) Exercise frequency refers to 53)

A) the quantity of exercise you get.
B) how hard you work.
C) the number of times per week you exercise.
D) the length of your exercise session.
Answer: C
54) Exercise intensity refers to 54)

A) the length of your exercise session.
B) the quantity of exercise you get.
C) the number of times per week you exercise.
D) how hard you work.
Answer: D
6
55) Exercise duration refers to 55)
A) how hard you work.
B) the quantity of exercise you get.
C) the length of your exercise session.
D) the number of times per week you exercise.
Answer: C
56) One of the easiest ways to determine appropriate endurance exercise intensity involves 56)
measuring
A) running pace. B) resistance.
C) blood pressure. D) heart rate.
Answer: D
57) Your target heart rate for endurance exercise is a range based on your 57)
A) exercise duration. B) exercise frequency.
C) weight. D) maximum heart rate.
Answer: D
58) After reaching the level of cardiorespiratory fitness you want, you can maintain fitness 58)
by exercising at the same intensity at least _______________ times per week.
A) three B) two C) five D) four
Answer: A
59) The length of time you should spend on a workout depends on the 59)
A) frequency of workouts. B) desired target heart rate.
C) intensity of the workout. D) type of training.
Answer: C
60) To improve cardiorespiratory endurance during activities such as walking or swimming 60)
slowly, your heart rate should be kept in the target zone for at least
A) 45 minutes, three times per week. B) 15 minutes, four times per week.
C) 30 minutes, three times per week. D) 10 minutes, five times per week.
Answer: A
61) Which of these statements is FALSE regarding the warm-up session? 61)
A) It helps spread synovial fluid throughout joints and protect joint surfaces.
B) Warm-up activities are usually of high intensity.
C) It enhances performance.
D) Muscles work better when their temperature is slightly above resting level.
Answer: B
7
62) Cooling down after exercise is important to 62)
A) restore circulation to its normal resting condition.
B) maintain blood flow to the extremities.
C) increase lactic acid in the muscles.
D) boost oxygen consumption.
Answer: A
63) Which of the following would NOT develop muscle strength? 63)
A) push-ups B) running
C) exercise machines D) pull-ups
Answer: B
64) Weight training with free weights represents which one of the following types of 64)
exercise?
A) aerobic B) isometric C) isotonic D) ballistic
Answer: C
65) Application of muscular force without movement is called _______________ exercise. 65)
A) isometric B) isotonic C) isokinetic D) dynamic
Answer: A
66) For maximum strength gains, hold an isometric contraction maximally for 66)
A) 30 seconds. B) 6 seconds. C) 45 seconds. D) 15 seconds.
Answer: B
67) Application of force with movement is called _______________ exercise. 67)

A) isokinetic B) isotonic C) isometric D) static
Answer: B
68) According to the FITT principle, a workout frequency of _____________ per week is 68)
recommended to develop strength.
A) 1 to 2 days B) 4 to 5 days C) 1 day D) 2 to 4 days
Answer: D
69) All of the following are advantages of exercise machines compared to free weights, 69)
EXCEPT
A) machines are safer.
B) machines are more effective at training core muscles.
C) machines don't require spotters.
D) machines require less skill.
Answer: B
8
70) To improve muscular endurance, it is best to 70)
A) use medium resistance with a medium number of repetitions.
B) use light resistance with many repetitions.
C) do resistance exercises no more than 3 days per week.
D) use heavy resistance with few repetitions.
Answer: B
71) In a weight training program for general fitness, do _____________ repetitions of each 71)
exercise.
A) 1-5 B) 15-20 C) 25 or more D) 8-12
Answer: D
72) Phil is 50 years old. What recommendation should he follow in regard to the number of 72)
repetitions in his weight training program?
A) 7-10 B) 20-25 C) 10-15 D) 6-10
Answer: C
73) Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding gender and strength training? 73)
A) Men are about 10 percent stronger in upper body strength when compared to
women.
B) Women tend to lose inches and increase strength as a result of resistance training.
C) Testosterone levels in women are about two times higher than in men.
D) Men have a larger proportion of muscle mass in the lower body than women do.
Answer: B
74) Serena has been weight training for several months. Which one of the following results 74)
would she be MOST likely to notice?
A) an increase in strength B) an increase in overall fat levels
C) a significant increase in muscle size D) an increase in testosterone levels
Answer: A
75) An individual considering using dietary supplements or drugs to enhance performance 75)
should understand that
A) the long-term effects of many supplements are unknown.
B) supplements are usually inexpensive ways to build strength.
C) anabolic steroids are a safe way to increase strength.
D) supplements can help change an untrained person into a fit person.
Answer: A
9
76) Which of the following has been found to be a side effect of anabolic steroid use? 76)
A) baldness
B) diabetes.
C) alcoholism
D) weight loss
E) liver disease
Answer: E
77) Dustin has been using creatine supplements for a year. What are the long term effects of 77)
using this substance?
A) It has no long-term effects for its users.
B) It can increase the risk of heart attack or stroke.
C) It can increase the risk of liver disease.
D) Its long term effects are not well-established.
Answer: D
78) Stretching exercises should ideally be performed 78)

A) to the point of moderate pain. B) with a swinging, bouncing motion.
C) within a 5-minute time period. D) 5 to 7 days a week.
Answer: D
79) Stretching exercises should be held for 79)

A) 1 to 2 minutes. B) 15 to 30 seconds.
C) 5 to 10 seconds. D) 30 to 60 seconds.
Answer: B
80) When would be the time Jessica should perform stretching exercises to possibly become 80)
more flexible?
A) after she has done her cardiorespiratory portion of the workout
B) just before she goes to bed at night
C) after she has performed ballistic movements
D) before she warms up
Answer: A
81) Shimea is thinking of becoming a member of a health club Which of the following 81)
would NOT be considered a sound recommendation before she joins a facility?
A) She should join a club that has frequent membership promotions because she'll get
the best value for her dollar.
B) She should make sure the facility is certified by an approved trade association.
C) She should ask for a one-day-free trial workout.
D) She should choose a club that has the programs and times to meet her needs.
Answer: A
10
82) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding fluid balance during and after 82)
exercise?
A) After a workout, you should restore body fluids before exercising again.
B) Drinking water before and during exercise is important.
C) Avoiding water during exercise can lead to dehydration.
D) Thirst is a good indicator of how much you need to drink.
Answer: D
83) Serious dehydration may cause all of the following, EXCEPT 83)
A) increased heart rate. B) torn ligaments.
C) reduced blood volume. D) muscle cramps.
Answer: B
84) The recommended amount of fluid to drink during heavy exercise is 84)
A) 8 ounces for every 30 minutes of exercise.
B) 4 ounces for every 10 minutes of exercise.
C) 12 ounces for every 60 minutes of exercise.
D) 8 ounces for every 60 minutes of exercise.
Answer: A
85) The best fluid replacement during a 45-minute exercise session is 85)
A) any caffeine-free soft drink. B) cool water.
C) a sports drink. D) whatever a person wants to drink.
Answer: B
86) The key to getting into shape without injury is 86)

A) consistency. B) taking it easy. C) having fun. D) hard work.
Answer: A
87) The best way to ensure consistency with an exercise program is to 87)
A) exercise with a friend. B) join a fitness club.
C) exercise first thing every day. D) keep a training journal.
Answer: D
88) Do not increase the volume of your exercise by more than ____________ per week. 88)
A) 5-10 percent B) 1-2 percent C) 40 percent D) 25-30 percent
Answer: A
89) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding athletic injuries? 89)
A) If you are careful, you won't get injured.
B) Seek medical attention for minor injuries that do not get better within a reasonable
amount of time.
C) Most injuries are neither serious nor permanent.
D) B and C
Answer: D
11
90) For which of the following injuries is it usually NOT necessary to consult a physician? 90)
A) broken bones
B) head and eye injuries
C) minor cuts and scrapes
D) injuries that do not get better within a reasonable amount of time
Answer: C
91) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding treating injuries with application 91)
of heat?
A) It should be used to help reduce swelling.
B) It should not be used until after the swelling has completely disappeared.
C) It helps reduce stiffness.
D) It helps relieve pain and relax muscles.
Answer: A
92) Recommended treatment of minor soft tissue injuries such as bruises includes all of the 92)
following, EXCEPT
A) ice. B) rest. C) massage. D) elevation.
Answer: C
93) Mohammed wants to minimize the risk of athletic injuries. Which of the following 93)
recommendations would NOT be appropriate?
A) He should return to his exercise program even if his injury is not fully healed.
B) He should drink fluids when he is thirsty when exercising.
C) He should warm up thoroughly before exercising.
D) None of these choices is correct.
Answer: A
94) Which fitness principle states that when you stop exercising, you can lose up to 50% of 94)
fitness improvements in two months?
A) reversibility B) specificity
C) FITT D) progressive overload
Answer: A
95) As cardiorespiratory fitness improves, all of the following physical functions also result, 95)
EXCEPT:
A) blood volume increases.
B) body decreases its ability to cool itself.
C) heart pumps more blood per heartbeat.
D) blood supply to tissues improves.
Answer: B
12
96) A healthy heart is able to withstand which of the following? 96)
A) occasional emergencies B) strains of daily life
C) wear and tear of time D) all of the above
Answer: D
97) The amount of force a muscle can produce with a single maximum effort is: 97)
A) flexibility. B) cardiorespiratory endurance.
C) muscular endurance. D) muscular strength.
Answer: D
98) Strong muscles are important for all of the following activities, EXCEPT: 98)
A) preventing back and leg pain.
B) providing support necessary for good posture.
C) keeping skeleton in proper alignment.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
99) Muscular endurance depends on which of the following factors: 99)

A) ability of muscles to store fuel. B) size of muscle cells.
C) blood supply to muscles. D) all of the above.
Answer: D
100) What is the ability to move joints through their full range of motion? 100)
A) muscular strength B) flexibility
C) muscular endurance D) agility
Answer: B
101) Flexibility depends on which of the following factors? 101)

A) joint structure B) nervous system activity
C) length and elasticity of joint tissue D) all of the above
Answer: D
102) All of the following are skill-related components of fitness, EXCEPT: 102)
A) agility B) endurance C) power D) speed
Answer: B
103) Coordination is: 103)

A) ability to perform motor tasks accurately and smoothly by using body movements
and the senses
B) ability to change the body's position quickly and accurately
C) ability to maintain equilibrium while either moving or stationary
D) ability to respond quickly to a stimulus
Answer: A
13
104) Agility is: 104)
and the senses
Answer: B
105) Balance is: 105)

and the senses
Answer: C
106) Reaction time is: 106)

and the senses
Answer: A
107) According to the Public Health Agency of Canada, physical inactivity contributes to 107)
more than ____________ premature deaths in Canada each year.
A) 15000 B) 10000 C) 25000 D) 20000
Answer: D
108) Direct health costs due to physical inactivity are approximately ___________ each year 108)
in Canada.
A) $1.5 billion B) $2.0 billion C) $1.0 billion D) $0.5 billion
Answer: A
109) What is the most popular physical recreational activity for adults in Canada? 109)
A) gardening B) running C) walking D) swimming
Answer: C
110) Which province has the lowest percentage of children and youth meeting physical 110)
activity guidelines in Canada?
A) Ontario B) New Brunswick
C) Prince Edward Island D) British Columbia
Answer: B
14
111) Which province has the highest percentage of children and youth meeting physical 111)
activity guidelines in Canada?
A) New Brunswick B) British Columbia
C) Ontario D) Prince Edward Island
Answer: B
112) According to Active Healthy Kids Canada, what percentage of children in Canada meet 112)
physical activity guidelines?
A) 12 percent B) 20 percent C) 5 percent D) 37 percent
Answer: A
113) Physical activity helps do all of the following, EXCEPT: 113)

A) manage stress B) decrease immune response
C) generate more energy D) increase stamina
Answer: B
114) What percentage of Canadians are not active enough for health benefits? 114)
A) 83 percent B) 43 percent C) 23 percent D) 63 percent
Answer: D
115) Which of the following is considered a "light" activity? 115)

A) cooking B) frisbee
C) washing car D) social dancing
Answer: A
116) Which of the following is considered a "moderate" activity? 116)

A) cooking B) running
C) weeding D) social dancing
Answer: D
117) Which of the following is considered a "vigorous" activity? 117)

A) running B) washing car C) frisbee D) cooking
Answer: A
118) All of the following are examples of vigorous activities, EXCEPT: 118)
A) swimming laps. B) walking briskly uphill.
C) washing windows. D) digging.
Answer: C
119) Immediate effects of exercise include all of the following, EXCEPT: 119)
A) reduced blood flow to the stomach and intestines.
B) increased heart rate and stroke volume.
C) increased energy production in muscles.
D) decreased body fat.
Answer: D
15
120) Long-term effects of exercise include all of the following, EXCEPT: 120)
A) reduced risk of colon cancer. B) increased sweat rate.
C) increased blood flow to skin. D) improved self-image.
Answer: C
121) Which of the following is NOT a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease? 121)
A) metabolic syndrome B) smoking
C) high blood pressure D) sedentary lifestyle
Answer: A
122) The metabolic syndrome is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: 122)
A) high blood pressure B) type 1 diabetes
C) insulin resistance D) abnormal blood fats
Answer: B
123) Physical inactivity increases the risk of cardiovascular disease by: 123)
A) 35 to 50 percent. B) 20 to 35 percent.
C) 5 to 10 percent. D) 50 to 240 percent
Answer: D
124) Which of the following occurs when a blood vessel leading to the brain is blocked or 124)
ruptures?
A) angina B) heart attack C) stroke D) hypertension
Answer: C
125) Which of the following may result when there is a block in a coronary artery? 125)
A) transient ischemic attack B) heart attack
C) hypertension D) stroke
Answer: B
126) All of the following are important for strong bones, EXCEPT: 126)
A) exercise. B) normal hormone function.
C) vitamin D and calcium. D) all of the above.
Answer: D
127) People with diabetes are prone to which of the following: 127)
A) heart disease. B) nervous system problems.
C) blindness. D) all of the above.
Answer: D
16
128) All of the following are important considerations for people with arthritis, EXCEPT: 128)
A) begin exercise program as early as possible in the course of the disease.
B) stay alert for symptoms of heat-related problems during exercise.
C) warm up thoroughly before each workout.
D) avoid high-impact activities.
Answer: B
129) All of the following are important considerations for people with osteoporosis, 129)
EXCEPT:
A) choose low-impact, weight-bearing activities.
B) begin exercise program as early as possible in the course of the disease.
C) weight train to improve strength and balance and reduce risk of falls.
D) avoid any activities that stress the back or carry a risk for falling.
Answer: B
130) How many days per week should flexibility training be completed? 130)
A) 3 to 5 B) 1 to 2 C) 5 to 7 D) 2 to 3
Answer: C
131) Moderate physical activity-an amount of activity that uses about 150 calories per day-is 131)
referred to as which of the following?
A) sedentary behaviour B) moderate exercise program
C) lifestyle physical activity D) vigorous exercise program
Answer: C
132) Which of the following is NOT an example of a lifestyle physical activity session? 132)
A) yard work for 30 minutes
B) walking to and from work, 15 minutes each way
C) playing basketball for 20 minutes
D) stretching exercises, 3 days per week
Answer: D
133) Which of the following is NOT an example of a vigorous physical activity program? 133)
A) stretching exercises, 6 days per week
B) walking for 30 minutes, 5 days per week
C) jogging for 45 minutes, 3 days per week
D) weight training, 3 sets of 10 exercises, 3 days per week
Answer: B
134) VO2max stands for: 134)

A) target heart rate range. B) basal metabolic rate.
C) resting oxygen consumption. D) maximal oxygen consumption.
Answer: D
17
135) Exercise sessions may take place in bouts as short as _____________ minutes. 135)
A) 15 B) 5 C) 10 D) 30
Answer: C
136) Maximum heart rate can be approximated using which of the following? 136)
A) 260 - Age B) 250 - Age C) 200 - Age D) 220 - Age
Answer: D
137) Disadvantages of exercise machines include all of the following, EXCEPT: 137)
A) train muscles rather than movements. B) limited availability.
C) allow limited number of exercises. D) require spotters.
Answer: D
138) Advantages of exercise machines include all of the following, EXCEPT: 138)
A) don't require spotters. B) provide variable resistance.
C) allow dynamic movements. D) require less skill.
Answer: C
139) Disadvantages of free weights include all of the following, EXCEPT: 139)
A) are not as safe.
B) place minimal stress on core stabilizing muscles.
C) cause more blisters and calluses.
D) require more skill.
Answer: B
140) Advantages of free weights include all of the following, EXCEPT: 140)
A) are truer to real-life situations; strength transfers to daily activities.
B) are better for building power.
C) allow easy isolation of muscles and muscle groups.
D) allow user to develop control of weights.
Answer: C
141) Which of the following is NOT true of erythropoietin (EPO)? 141)

A) Is a naturally occurring hormone.
B) Boosts concentration of red blood cells.
C) Used by athletes wanting to build muscular strength.
D) Can cause blood clots and death.
Answer: C
142) Which of the following is NOT true of chromium picolinate? 142)

A) Less easily digested form of the trace mineral chromium.
B) Does not offer any positive effects according to most scientific research.
C) Is an over-the-counter drug.
D) Long-term use of high dosages may have serious health consequences.
Answer: A
18
143) A complete flexibility workout should take approximately how much time? 143)
A) 20 to 30 minutes B) 10 minutes
C) 40 minutes D) 25 to 35 minutes
Answer: A
144) How much fluid should be consumed two hours in advance of exercise? 144)
A) 600 ml B) 500 ml C) 400 ml D) 250 ml
Answer: B
145) For every 20 to 30 minutes of exercise, how much fluid should be consumed? 145)
A) 350 ml B) 150 ml C) 250 ml D) 500 ml
Answer: C
146) Treatment for muscle cramps includes all of the following, EXCEPT: 146)
A) massage the cramped area.
B) gently stretch for 15 to 30 seconds at a time.
C) RICE.
D) drink fluids and increase dietary salt intake if exercising in warm weather.
Answer: C
147) Treatment for shin splints includes all of the following, EXCEPT: 147)
A) non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
B) wrap with tape for support.
C) apply ice to the affected area several times daily and before exercise.
D) rest.
Answer: A
148) Treatment for a fracture or dislocation includes all of the following, EXCEPT: 148)
A) compression. B) apply cold.
C) seek medical attention. D) immobilize the affected area.
Answer: A
149) Ice should not be applied to an injured area for more than ___________ minutes at a 149)
time.
A) 20 B) 10 C) 5 D) 15
Answer: A
150) All of the following are recommendations for injury prevention, EXCEPT: 150)
A) avoid exercising when ill or overtrained.
B) warm up thoroughly before exercise.
C) use proper equipment.
D) avoiding lifting objects.
Answer: D
19
151) Larry started a fitness program about 8 weeks ago. He runs 5 kilometres every day and 151)
does some weight training. He likes to use weight machines and focuses on 1 or 2
muscle groups each day. He could initially do 6 repetitions of most exercises in his
program, and he can now do 15-20. Larry likes the initial improvement in his energy
level and appearance since starting the program. He has noticed that his work in construction
seems a little easier, too. However, Larry doesn't think he is getting as much benefit out of his
program now as he did at the start of his fitness program.
Larry isn't seeing as much improvement as he did initially because

A) his diet isn't compatible with his fitness program.
B) his body is conserving energy.
C) he has reached his optimal level of fitness.
D) his body isn't as responsive to the level of exercise as it was initially.
Answer: D
152) Larry started a fitness program about 8 weeks ago. He runs 5 kilometres every day and 152)
does some weight training. He likes to use weight machines and focuses on 1 or 2
muscle groups each day. He could initially do 6 repetitions of most exercises in his
program, and he can now do 15-20. Larry likes the initial improvement in his energy
level and appearance since starting the program. He has noticed that his work in construction
seems a little easier, too. However, Larry doesn't think he is getting as much benefit out of his
program now as he did at the start of his fitness program.
Larry wants to increase his strength level further. Larry needs to

A) use free weights instead of weight machines.
B) increase his daily run to 3 miles.
C) increase his warm-up and stretching time to make muscles more flexible.
D) increase the amount of resistance when weight training.
Answer: D
153) List and define the five health-related components of physical fitness. For each, 153)
briefly describe how an individual could increase her or his level of fitness in that
component.
Answer:
154) List and describe at least five substances that are intended to improve one's 154)
athletic performance. List one advantage and disadvantage associated with each
substance.
Answer:
20
155) Carmen just began an exercise program that includes endurance training, strength 155)
training, and stretching exercises. List three immediate and five long-term
benefits that Carmen can expect to experience as a result of her activity regimen.
Answer:
156) Describe the American College of Sports Medicine's recommendations for a 156)
formal exercise program to develop the health-related components of physical
fitness. For each component, list the appropriate type of activity and the
recommended intensity, frequency, and duration of activity. Outline a program
that conforms to the recommendations.
Answer:
157) Imagine that you are shopping for (1) a piece of exercise equipment, (2) a pair of 157)
fitness shoes, OR (3) a fitness center. List at least five consumer strategies for
obtaining suitable equipment or facilities.
Answer:
158) Ahmed runs distance events for his dorm's intramural track team. While 158)
practicing this week, he stepped on a rock during a run and twisted his ankle.
What is the suggested treatment for managing this type of soft-tissue injury?
Answer:
159) Many people have an easier time starting an exercise program than sticking with 159)
an exercise program over the long term. Describe five strategies that can help
people stick with a fitness program. You can suggest ideas to combat bad
weather, changes in schedules and lifestyle, and boredom.
Answer:
21
Exam
Name___________________________________
1) Arteries carry blood away from the heart. 1)

Answer: True False
2) Systole is the period of the heart's contraction. 2)

Answer: True False
3) The aorta is the body's largest artery. 3)

Answer: True False
4) The coronary arteries supply the heart muscle itself with oxygenated blood. 4)
Answer: True False
5) Hypertension usually has no warning signs. 5)

Answer: True False
6) High LDL levels and low HDL levels lower the risk of heart disease. 6)
Answer: True False
7) Increased physical activity may reduce one's triglyceride levels. 7)

Answer: True False
8) Alcohol use provides protection against CVD by lowering blood pressure. 8)

Answer: True False
9) Both the expression of anger and the suppression of anger may contribute to heart 9)
disease.
Answer: True False
10) High socioeconomic status is associated with increased risk for CVD. 10)
Answer: True False
11) Men are more likely than women to have a heart attack in their forties. 11)
Answer: True False
12) C-reactive protein is associated with inflammation and increased CVD risk. 12)
Answer: True False
13) Insulin resistance is a marker for metabolic syndrome. 13)

Answer: True False
1
14) Diets high in folic acid raise levels of homocysteine and CVD risk. 14)
Answer: True False
15) Prehypertension or mild hypertension can often be treated by changes in lifestyle alone. 15)
Answer: True False
16) Angina pectoris is another name for a heart attack. 16)

Answer: True False
17) Sudden cardiac death is most often caused by angina pectoris. 17)
Answer: True False
18) The most common surgical treatment for heart disease is an angiogram. 18)
Answer: True False
19) A stroke occurs when the blood supply to the brain is cut off. 19)
Answer: True False
20) The most common type of stroke is an ischemic stroke. 20)

Answer: True False
21) Hemorrhagic strokes occur when a blood vessel in the brain bursts. 21)
Answer: True False
22) Transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) are complications that follow a major stroke. 22)
Answer: True False
23) The most common congenital heart defects are holes in the walls of the heart that 23)
separate the chambers.
Answer: True False
24) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is the most common cause of sudden death among athletes 24)
younger than age 35.
Answer: True False
25) Individuals who are most vulnerable to early onset of cardiovascular disease include all 25)
of the following, EXCEPT
A) individuals with uncontrolled hypertension.
B) individuals with low cholesterol levels.
C) sedentary individuals.
D) smokers.
Answer: B
2
26) What is the number-one killer of Canadian women? 26)
A) stroke B) accidents C) cancer D) heart disease
Answer: C
27) What is the number-two killer of Canadian women? 27)

A) heart disease B) stroke
C) ovarian cancer D) breast cancer
Answer: A
28) How many chambers does the heart contain? 28)

A) four B) six C) two D) three
Answer: A
29) The portion of the circulation governed by the right side of the heart is the 29)
_______________ circulation.
A) pulmonary B) cerebral C) extremity D) systemic
Answer: A
30) The left side of the heart pumps blood in the _______________ circulation. 30)
A) pulmonary B) coronary C) cerebral D) systemic
Answer: D
31) The two upper chambers of the heart in which blood collects before passing to the lower 31)
chambers are called
A) valves. B) atria. C) ventricles. D) septum.
Answer: B
32) The large blood vessel through which waste-laden, oxygen-poor blood travels is called 32)
the
A) aorta. B) ventricle.
C) pulmonary artery. D) vena cava.
Answer: D
33) The large artery that receives blood from the left ventricle and distributes it to the rest of 33)
the body is called the
A) pulmonary vein. B) vena cava.
C) pulmonary artery. D) aorta.
Answer: D
34) The largest artery in the body is the 34)

A) carotid. B) coronary. C) aorta. D) atria.
Answer: C
3
35) Systole is the 35)
A) contraction of the heart. B) relaxation of the heart.
C) normal rhythm of the heart. D) normal pause between heartbeats.
Answer: A
36) Diastole is the 36)

A) main valve in the heart. B) contraction of the heart.
C) largest vein in the body. D) relaxation of the heart.
Answer: D
37) The arteries that branch from the aorta and provide blood to the heart muscle itself are 37)
_______________ arteries.
A) femoral B) pulmonary C) coronary D) systemic
Answer: C
38) The small blood vessels that connect the arteries and veins are the 38)
A) vascules. B) capillaries. C) venules. D) arterioles.
Answer: B
39) All of the following CVD risk factors can be changed, EXCEPT 39)
A) cigarette smoking. B) physical inactivity.
C) family history of CVD. D) cholesterol levels.
Answer: C
40) Smoking increases cardiovascular risk in all of the following ways, EXCEPT 40)
A) increasing blood pressure. B) reducing high-density lipoproteins.
C) increasing heart rate. D) increasing oxygen in the blood.
Answer: D
41) Smoking harms the cardiovascular system in all of the following ways, EXCEPT 41)
A) reducing level of high-density lipoproteins.
B) increasing adhesiveness of platelets.
C) decreasing plaque formation.
D) increasing blood pressure.
Answer: C
42) Blood cell fragments that are necessary for the clotting of blood are called 42)
A) leukocytes. B) erythrocytes. C) macrophages. D) platelets.
Answer: D
4
43) High blood pressure is best described as 43)
A) a side effect of cardiovascular disease.
B) a risk factor for cardiovascular disease and a disease itself.
C) a risk factor for cardiovascular disease.
D) a disease.
Answer: B
44) Hypertension probably contributes to atherosclerosis by 44)

A) causing injury to the artery walls. B) affecting sodium balance in the body.
C) dilating arteries. D) influencing cholesterol levels.
Answer: A
45) Sustained high blood pressure is an indicator of 45)

A) heart strength.
B) an unhealthy ratio of HDLs to LDLs.
C) excessive force being exerted against artery walls.
D) emotional stress.
Answer: C
46) Cholesterol is an important component of each of the following, EXCEPT 46)

A) fluid that coats the liver. B) sex hormones.
C) cell membranes. D) protective nerve sheaths.
Answer: A
47) The form of cholesterol that carries cholesterol out from the liver to other parts of the 47)
body and leads to cholesterol deposits on the artery walls is
A) HDL. B) triglyceride. C) VLDL. D) LDL.
Answer: D
48) The form of cholesterol that draws cholesterol out of the walls of the arteries and returns 48)
it to the liver for recycling is
A) VLDL. B) LDL. C) HDL. D) triglyceride.
Answer: C
49) The College of Family Physicians of Canada recommends all adults over age ____ talk 49)
with their physician about whether cholesterol testing is appropriate for them.
A) 30 B) 50 C) 20 D) 40
Answer: C
50) A desirable level of total cholesterol for adults is less than _______________ mmol/L. 50)
A) 8 B) 4 C) 6 D) 10
Answer: C
5
51) Which of the following combinations would place someone at greatest risk for 51)
cardiovascular disease?
A) low HDL and high LDL B) high HDL and low LDL
C) low HDL and low LDL D) high HDL and high LDL
Answer: A
52) It is estimated that patients can reduce their risk for heart attack by 2 percent for every 52)
_____ percent they reduce their total cholesterol.
A) 4 B) 2 C) 1 D) 8
Answer: C
53) What is thought to be the closest thing we have to a magic bullet against heart disease? 53)
A) exercise B) weight loss C) aspirin D) red wine
Answer: A
54) Exercise alters blood fat levels by 54)

A) raising triglyceride levels. B) lowering HDL levels.
C) raising LDL levels. D) raising HDL levels.
Answer: D
55) The recommended level of LDL cholesterol for adults is 55)

A) between 3.3 and 4.9 mmol/L. B) between 2.6 and 3.3 mmol/L.
C) 5 mmol/L or more. D) less than 1 mmol/L.
Answer: B
56) The recommended level of HDL cholesterol for adults is 56)

A) less than 1.6 mmol/L. B) above 1.6 mmol/L.
C) above 2.6 mmol/L. D) less than 2.6 mmol/L.
Answer: B
57) Evidence suggests that after a heart attack the risk of _________ rises. 57)
A) diabetes B) obesity
C) cancer D) high blood pressure
Answer: A
58) Diabetics also have higher rates of all of the following, EXCEPT 58)
A) dermatitis. B) hypertension.
C) obesity. D) atherosclerosis.
Answer: A
59) Which of the following does NOT raise triglyceride levels? 59)
A) very low carbohydrate diet B) cigarette smoking
C) excess body fat D) physical inactivity
Answer: A
6
60) Which of the following Type A personality characteristics is least closely associated with 60)
heart disease?
A) hostility B) cynicism C) hurrying D) anger
Answer: C
61) All of the following are characteristics of Type D personality, EXCEPT 61)
A) general negativity. B) pessimism.
C) unhappiness. D) angry outbursts.
Answer: D
62) All of the following increase risk for cardiovascular disease, EXCEPT 62)
A) alcohol abuse. B) social isolation.
C) low socioeconomic status. D) high educational attainment.
Answer: D
63) The incidence of stroke more than doubles each decade after what age? 63)
A) 75 B) 45 C) 65 D) 55
Answer: D
64) Men have a greater risk of heart attack and stroke than women do because 64)
A) fewer women than men have hypertension.
B) women have larger coronary arteries than men do.
C) men have more severe heart attacks than women do.
D) premenopausal women seem to be protected from heart disease by estrogen.
Answer: D
65) Compared to Caucasian Canadians, the incidence of cardiovascular disease among 65)
African Canadians is
A) about the same. B) undetermined.
C) higher. D) lower.
Answer: C
66) Which one of the following factors is not associated with elevated levels of 66)
homocysteine?
A) low intake of folic acid B) being female
C) low intake of vitamin B-12 D) low intake of vitamin B-6
Answer: B
67) Which of the following statements about gender and CVD is true? 67)
A) Estrogen may offer premenopausal women some protection against CVD.
B) The incidence of hypertension is higher in women than in men before age 55.
C) Women are more likely than men to have classic heart attack symptoms like chest
pain.
D) In Canada, CVD is the leading killer of men but not of women.
Answer: A
7
68) C-reactive protein is released into the bloodstream in response to 68)
A) phytochemicals. B) free radicals.
C) inflammation. D) antioxidants.
Answer: C
69) Which of the following is associated with metabolic syndrome? 69)

A) insulin resistance B) high HDL
C) low blood pressure D) low triglycerides
Answer: A
70) Which of the following is TRUE about homocysteine? 70)

A) It helps repair the linings of arteries.
B) Levels are higher in women than in men.
C) It is another type of cholesterol, similar to triglycerides.
D) Levels are higher in people whose diets are low in folic acid.
Answer: D
71) The LDL particle size that poses the greatest risk for CVD is 71)
A) pattern A. B) pattern B. C) pattern C. D) pattern D.
Answer: B
72) Blood viscosity can be reduced by 72)

A) limiting fluid intake. B) menopause.
C) taking iron supplements. D) donating blood regularly.
Answer: D
73) High uric acid levels in the blood may cause all of the following, EXCEPT 73)
A) gout. B) diabetes. C) kidney stones. D) hypertension.
Answer: B
74) Heart attacks are most likely to occur during which hours of the day? 74)
A) 6:00 am and noon B) midnight and 6:00 am
C) noon and 6:00 pm D) 6:00 pm and midnight
Answer: A
75) Nutritional experts recommend that saturated fat intake should be ____________ of total 75)
daily calories.
A) 7% or less B) 30% or less C) 2% D) 35% or less
Answer: A
76) When the heart contracts, called ____________, blood pressure ____________; when 76)
the heart relaxes, called ____________, blood pressure ____________.
A) systole; decreases; diastole; increases B) diastole; decreases; systole; increases
C) systole; increases; diastole; decreases D) diastole; increases; systole; decreases
Answer: C
8
77) Which one of the following blood pressure readings would be considered optimal for a 77)
young adult?
A) 135/92 B) 120/88 C) 144/90 D) 110/70
Answer: D
78) A sphygmomanometer is an instrument used to measure 78)

A) cardiac output. B) blood pressure.
C) heart sounds. D) blood flow.
Answer: B
79) The cutoff point for blood pressure at or above which an adult is diagnosed with 79)
hypertension is
A) 150/90. B) 130/80. C) 120/80. D) 140/90.
Answer: D
80) High blood pressure is a health risk when it is 80)

A) the product of exercise. B) the product of emotional excitement.
C) high most of the time. D) the product of sexual excitement.
Answer: C
81) A blood pressure reading of 121/81 is classified as 81)

A) low normal. B) high normal.
C) normal. D) high blood pressure.
Answer: C
82) Among the following treatment options for mild to moderate hypertension, which should 82)
be the LAST option tried, after the others have failed to produce an improvement?
A) change in exercise habits B) drug therapy
C) reduced salt intake D) weight loss
Answer: B
83) Atherosclerosis is 83)

A) sustained, abnormally high blood pressure.
B) the thickening of artery walls by deposits of fatty substances.
C) a condition resulting from the heart's inability to maintain its regular pumping force.
D) severe chest pain caused by insufficient blood supply to the heart.
Answer: B
84) If an artery in a limb becomes blocked, it causes 84)

A) stroke. B) heart attack.
C) peripheral arterial disease. D) arthritis.
Answer: C
9
85) When a coronary artery becomes blocked, the result is 85)
A) angina. B) an obstructive embolism.
C) a heart attack. D) arrhythmia.
Answer: C
86) Chest pain caused by lack of oxygen to the heart is called 86)
A) angina. B) thrombosis. C) hypertension. D) infarction.
Answer: A
87) Damage to the heart muscle because of lack of blood supply is called 87)
A) ischemia. B) cardiac arrest.
C) myocardial infarction. D) angina pectoris.
Answer: C
88) Symptoms of a myocardial infarction include 88)

A) headache. B) difficulty breathing.
C) sore throat. D) low back pain.
Answer: B
89) All of the following groups are more likely to experience heart attack without chest pain, 89)
EXCEPT
A) people with diabetes. B) men.
C) older adults. D) ethnic minorities.
Answer: B
90) Angina pectoris is caused by 90)

A) the complete blockage of a coronary artery.
B) a need for oxygen in the heart that exceeds supply.
C) sustained high blood pressure.
D) a disruption of the electrical system of the heart.
Answer: B
91) The most common symptom associated with angina is 91)

A) shortness of breath.
B) pain or numbness in the shoulder or in the arm.
C) nausea.
D) tightness or pressure in the chest.
Answer: D
92) An arrhythmia is 92)

A) an irregular heartbeat.
B) another name for high blood pressure.
C) a blood clot found near the heart.
D) a ruptured blood vessel.
Answer: A
10
93) Sudden cardiac death most often occurs because of 93)
A) coronary thrombosis. B) blocked cerebral arteries.
C) arrhythmia. D) low blood pressure.
Answer: C
94) Most deaths from heart attacks occur within ___________ from the onset of symptoms. 94)
A) 3 hours B) 2 hours C) 1 hour D) 30 minutes
Answer: B
95) A test that measures the electrical activity of the heart is called a(n) 95)
A) electrocardiogram. B) echocardiogram.
C) electroencephalogram. D) coronary arteriogram.
Answer: A
96) Which of the following is a noninvasive test that evaluates CVD by using sound waves 96)
to examine the heart?
A) magnetic resonance imaging B) echocardiography
C) angioplasty D) electron-beam computed tomography
Answer: B
97) Which of the following statements about taking aspirin is false? 97)
A) It can affect blood cholesterol levels. B) It reduces inflammation.
C) It has an anticlotting effect. D) It decreases adhesiveness of platelets.
Answer: A
98) Consuming aspirin on a regular basis reduces the risk of 98)

A) platelets forming clots. B) hemorrhagic stroke.
C) ulcers. D) gastrointestinal bleeding.
Answer: A
99) Repeat clogging of an artery after balloon angioplasty is called 99)

A) rethrombus. B) edema. C) angiography. D) restenosis.
Answer: D
100) Which of the following is a treatment for heart disease? 100)

A) balloon angioplasty B) angina pectoris
C) electrocardiogram D) angiogram
Answer: A
101) A cerebrovascular accident is another name for a 101)

A) ruptured blood vessel. B) stroke.
C) cerebral hematoma. D) cerebral thrombosis.
Answer: B
11
102) The type of stroke that is caused by a rupture of blood vessels is called 102)
A) ischemic. B) thrombotic. C) embolic. D) hemorrhagic.
Answer: D
103) Atherosclerosis is most closely associated with which type of stroke? 103)
A) infarct B) thrombotic C) embolic D) hemorrhagic
Answer: B
104) A wandering clot that causes a stroke is called a(n) 104)

A) thrombus. B) hemorrhage.
C) embolus. D) vascular accident.
Answer: C
105) What type of stroke is caused by the rupture of a blood vessel on the brain's surface 105)
resulting in bleeding into the space between the brain and the skull?
A) ischemic B) embolic
C) subarachnoid hemorrhage D) thrombotic
Answer: C
106) A hemorrhagic stroke may occur as a result of 106)

A) a thrombosis. B) an embolus.
C) low platelet levels. D) an aneurysm.
Answer: D
107) A blood-filled pocket bulging out from a weak spot in the artery wall is called a(n) 107)
A) aneurysm. B) thrombus. C) fibrillation. D) embolism.
Answer: A
108) All of the following may result from a stroke, EXCEPT 108)
A) language deficits. B) memory loss.
C) hormonal imbalances. D) paralysis.
Answer: C
109) A test that uses a computer to construct a picture of the brain using X-ray images is 109)
A) an MRI scan. B) radionuclide imaging.
C) an angiogram. D) a CT scan.
Answer: D
110) TIAs (transient ischemic attacks) 110)

A) produce permanent paralysis. B) require bed rest following an attack.
C) are also known as ministrokes. D) usually occur after a major stroke.
Answer: C
12
111) Daily oral aspirin is recommended for all of the following patients, EXCEPT those 111)
having had experienced
A) a prior ulcer. B) a prior MI.
C) a prior stroke. D) unstable angina.
Answer: A
112) Congestive heart failure is 112)

A) severe chest pain caused by insufficient blood supply to the heart.
B) a condition caused by the heart's inability to maintain its regular pumping force.
C) thickening of artery walls by deposits of fatty substances.
D) sustained abnormally high blood pressure.
Answer: B
113) Treatment for congestive heart failure may include all of the following, EXCEPT 113)
A) increasing salt intake.
B) heart transplant.
C) treatment with drugs that eliminate excess body fluid.
D) reducing the workload of the heart.
Answer: A
114) Cardiovascular disease in children is usually the result of 114)

A) childhood obesity. B) rheumatic heart disease.
C) congestive heart failure. D) congenital heart defect.
Answer: D
115) The most common congenital heart defect in children is 115)

A) underdeveloped left side of the heart.
B) holes in the wall that divides the ventricles or atria.
C) coarctation of the vena cava.
D) transposition of the aorta and pulmonary artery.
Answer: B
116) The most common cause of sudden death among athletes younger than 35 is 116)
A) myocardial infarction. B) stroke.
C) aneurysm. D) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
Answer: D
117) Rheumatic fever is a disease process that begins with 117)

A) staph infection. B) a viral infection.
C) influenza. D) strep throat.
Answer: D
13
118) Which one of the following is NOT a symptom of strep throat? 118)
A) fever B) gradual onset of a sore throat
C) swollen glands D) nausea and vomiting
Answer: B
119) Which of the following statements is TRUE about rheumatic fever? 119)
A) It occurs because of untreated diabetes.
B) It permanently damages the liver.
C) It affects mostly older adults.
D) The incidence of it has declined significantly in Canada since introduction of
antibiotics.
Answer: D
120) The best prevention for rheumatic fever is 120)

A) eradication of disease-transmitting mosquitoes.
B) treatment of strep throat with antibiotics.
C) immunization.
D) treatment of influenza with large doses of vitamin C.
Answer: B
121) The most common type of heart valve disorder 121)

A) is very likely to cause symptoms.
B) is treated with surgery in the majority of cases.
C) involves the mitral valve.
D) usually affects exercise ability.
Answer: C
122) A slightly higher intake of unsaturated fats may be recommended for people with 122)
A) low triglyceride levels. B) hypertension.
C) high HDL levels. D) metabolic syndrome.
Answer: D
123) Which of the following fats also contains cholesterol? 123)

A) butter B) olive oil C) corn oil D) margarine
Answer: A
124) Which of the following is a good source of omega-3 fatty acids? 124)
A) salmon B) egg whites C) pork chops D) kidney beans
Answer: A
125) Which of the following is NOT a heart-healthy food choice? 125)

A) walnuts B) cookies C) spinach D) beet greens
Answer: B
14
126) People with no CVD risk factors should have their blood pressure measured by a 126)
professional
A) once every 5 years. B) once a month.
C) once every 2 years. D) once a year.
Answer: C
127) Recent research concluded that which of the following is TRUE about taking vitamin E 127)
supplements?
A) Vitamin E supplements prevent heart disease.
B) Vitamin E supplements can reduce blood cholesterol levels.
C) Vitamin E supplements provide no protection against heart disease in men.
D) All adults should take additional vitamin E supplements.
Answer: C
128) Smoking contributes to approximately how many deaths each year in Canada? 128)
A) 27000 B) 17000 C) 7000 D) 37000
Answer: D
129) The risk of death from coronary heart disease increases up to _____ among those 129)
exposed to environmental tobacco smoke.
A) 10% B) 15% C) 25% D) 30%
Answer: D
130) Essential hypertension is responsible for what percentage of hypertension cases? 130)
A) 10% B) 35% C) 65% D) 90%
Answer: D
131) Approximately what percentage of Canadian adults have hypertension? 131)

A) 10% B) 15% C) 20% D) 25%
Answer: C
132) People with or at risk of hypertension should aim to consume no more than _____ 132)
milligrams of sodium per day
A) 1000 milligrams B) 1500 milligrams
C) 2000 milligrams D) 2500 milligrams
Answer: B
133) Adequate potassium intake is _____ grams per day. 133)

A) 2.2 B) 4.7 C) 6.9 D) 10.7
Answer: B
134) For every kilogram increase in weight, the risk of diabetes increases by approximately 134)
____________.
A) 5% B) 9% C) 17% D) 30%
Answer: B
15
135) First Nations adults with diabetes are _____ times as likely to have heart diseases as their 135)
counterparts without diabetes.
A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 10
Answer: B
136) What type of cells line the inside of arteries, help regulate blood flow, and prevent 136)
platelets from sticking?
A) endothelial cells B) exocrine cells
C) epithelial cells D) exothelial cells
Answer: A
137) Among young adults, those with high hostility levels were more than ____ times as 137)
likely to develop coronary artery calcification (a marker of early atherosclerosis) as those
with low hostility levels.
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
Answer: A
138) Approximately what percentage of Canadians that have a heart attack are 65 years of age 138)
and older?
A) 50% B) 65% C) 85% D) 90%
Answer: C
139) Higher homocysteine levels are found in individuals with diets low in all of the 139)
following, EXCEPT
A) Vitamin B12 B) Vitamin B6 C) Vitamin B3 D) Folic acid
Answer: C
140) Approximately what percentage of Canadians have metabolic syndrome? 140)

A) 15% B) 27% C) 11% D) 19%
Answer: D
141) Abdominal obesity is defined as having a waist circumference greater than _____ 141)
centimetres in men.
A) 110 B) 102 C) 95 D) 88
Answer: B
142) Abdominal obesity is defined as having a waist circumference greater than _____ 142)
centimetres in women.
A) 110 B) 95 C) 88 D) 102
Answer: C
143) What is the estimated annual financial burden of CVD in Canada? 143)
A) 31 billion B) 21 billion C) 11 billion D) 5 billion
Answer: B
16
144) Arnold is 56 years old and considers himself to be in good health. He has a family 144)
history of heart disease, stroke, and diabetes. He recently had a routine physical exam.
He was told that his blood pressure was 130/85, his total cholesterol was 8 mmol/L (LDL
was 7 and HDL was 1), and his glucose levels were normal. Arnold was also informed
that his weight of 190 pounds made him about 10 pounds overweight.
Arnold's physician expressed some concern about the results of the exam. What finding is most
likely the key cause of her concern?
A) Arnold's weight B) Arnold's age
C) Arnold's cholesterol levels D) Arnold's blood pressure
Answer: C
What is the nature of the physician's concern?

A) Arnold's risk for heart valve problems
B) Arnold's risk for coronary heart disease
C) Arnold's risk for obesity
D) Arnold's risk for diabetes
Answer: B
Arnold's physician will likely suggest that Arnold make all of the following lifestyle changes,
EXCEPT
A) increasing viscous (soluble) fiber intake.
B) increasing physical activity.
C) increasing trans fat intake.
D) decreasing saturated fat intake.
Answer: C
147) Describe how blood is pumped and circulated through the body. Include the roles 147)
of the four chambers of the heart, the major blood vessels leading in and out of
the heart and lungs, and the arteries, capillaries, and veins found in the body.
17
148) List the major controllable risk factors for CVD. For each, list one lifestyle 148)
strategy for reducing the associated risk.
149) Briefly describe the current thinking about the risks and benefits of hormone 149)
replacement therapy for post-menopausal women.
150) Choose one of the CVD risk factors under study that is described in your text, 150)
and briefly explain the mechanism by which it increases CVD risk.
151) At Betty's most recent medical check-up, her doctor found that she had high 151)
blood pressure, excessive abdominal fat, and a low HDL count. What condition
might Betty be suffering from? What specific lifestyle strategies might be
recommended to help her lower her risk of CVD?
152) Choose one of the major forms of cardiovascular disease described in your text. 152)
Briefly describe it, and then list typical symptoms and treatments. In addition, list
at least two strategies for preventing the disease.
153) List at least eight specific lifestyle strategies for reducing individual risk for 153)
CVD. In addition, list two additional strategies that might be recommended for
someone who currently has heart disease.
18
Exam
Name___________________________________
1) All tumours are cancerous. 1)

Answer: True False
2) Benign tumours never pose a health risk. 2)

Answer: True False
3) Leukemia is a tumour in the blood. 3)

Answer: True False
4) Cancer kills more people in Canada annually than any other disease. 4)
Answer: True False
5) The travelling and seeding of cancer cells beyond their site of origin is called metastasis. 5)
Answer: True False
6) Malignant tumours are classified according to the types of cells that give rise to them. 6)
Answer: True False
7) Lung cancers have a high survival rate. 7)

Answer: True False
8) Regular exercise reduces the risk of colon cancer. 8)

Answer: True False
9) A diet rich in fruits, vegetables, and whole grains can reduce the risk of colon cancer. 9)
Answer: True False
10) The majority of women who are diagnosed with breast cancer have a family history of 10)
the disease.
Answer: True False
11) Breast cancer is linked to alcohol consumption. 11)

Answer: True False
12) Late onset of menstruation and early onset of menopause are risk factors for breast 12)
cancer.
Answer: True False
13) Age is the strongest predictor of risk for prostate cancer. 13)
Answer: True False
1
14) Prostate cancers can be detected by a physical exam and by a blood test. 14)
Answer: True False
15) Cervical cancer is usually caused by an infection. 15)

Answer: True False
16) There is a link between human papillomavirus (HPV) infection and ovarian cancer. 16)
Answer: True False
17) Cervical cancer occurs frequently in women in their twenties and thirties. 17)
Answer: True False
18) Severe sunburns in childhood are a risk factor for skin cancer in adulthood. 18)
Answer: True False
19) If not detected early, basal cell skin cancer is the most dangerous skin cancer. 19)
Answer: True False
20) Use of tanning lamps is not linked to skin cancer because tanning lamps emit a safe form 20)
of UV radiation.
Answer: True False
21) Melanoma usually appears at the site of a preexisting mole. 21)

Answer: True False
22) Oral cancers are primarily the result of tobacco and alcohol use. 22)
Answer: True False
23) Bladder cancer is more common in women than men. 23)

Answer: True False
24) Smoking is the key risk factor for bladder cancer. 24)
Answer: True False
25) The majority of brain cancers develop for no apparent reason. 25)
Answer: True False
26) Cigarette smoke is a complete carcinogen because it acts as both an initiator and a 26)
promoter.
Answer: True False
27) Antioxidants may act as anticarcinogens. 27)

Answer: True False
28) Folic acid and calcium may provide protection against cancer. 28)
Answer: True False
2
29) Alcohol is associated with an increased risk of several cancers. 29)
Answer: True False
30) Nitrites and nitrates are common food additives found in processed meat. 30)
Answer: True False
31) Sunlight is a very important source of radiation. 31)

Answer: True False
32) Urban air pollution plays a significant role in the development of lung cancer for most 32)
people.
Answer: True False
33) Exposure to carcinogens in the environment causes about one-third of all cancers. 33)
Answer: True False
34) A sore that does not heal may be a warning sign of cancer. 34)
Answer: True False
35) Cancer vaccines may be available for certain cancers soon. 35)
Answer: True False
36) Which of the following factors contributes to about 25% of all cancer deaths? 36)
A) radiation B) alcohol use C) family history D) tobacco use
Answer: D
37) Which one of the following statements about cancer is FALSE? 37)
A) Cancer is characterized by controlled growth of cells.
B) Cancer has the ability to metastasize.
C) Cancer may take the form of a tumour.
D) Cancer is a group of diseases.
Answer: A
38) A tumour that is NOT cancerous is called 38)

A) melanoma. B) malignant. C) benign. D) metastatic.
Answer: C
39) A malignant tumour is different from a benign tumour in that a malignant tumour is 39)
A) capable of invading surrounding structures.
B) dangerous only if its physical presence interferes with bodily functions.
C) enclosed in a membrane.
D) less of a threat to the patient.
Answer: A
3
40) Which of the following statements about leukemia is TRUE? 40)
A) Leukemia produces tumours.
B) Leukemia cells are benign.
C) Leukemia cells are considered malignant.
D) Leukemia is not considered cancer.
Answer: C
41) When a malignant tumour spreads to sites distant from the primary tumour, the process 41)
is known as
A) malignancy. B) metastasis. C) hyperplasia. D) dysplasia.
Answer: B
42) When cancer cells enter the lymph or blood system, 42)
A) they can form secondary tumours elsewhere.
B) the probability of cure increases.
C) it is easy to stop their spread to other organs.
D) they are known as benign tumours.
Answer: A
43) The most common form of cancer is 43)

A) melanoma. B) sarcoma. C) carcinoma. D) lymphoma.
Answer: C
44) Malignant tumours are classified according to 44)

A) how quickly they spread.
B) the type of cells that give rise to them.
C) how quickly they divide.
D) the type of cells they are most likely to spread to.
Answer: B
45) Cancers arising from connective and fibrous tissues such as bone, cartilage, or muscle 45)
are called
A) leukemias. B) lymphomas. C) sarcomas. D) carcinomas.
Answer: C
46) Sarcomas arise from 46)

A) lymph nodes. B) epithelial layers.
C) connective and fibrous tissue. D) blood-forming cells.
Answer: C
47) Leukemia is cancer of the 47)

A) lymph nodes. B) blood-forming cells.
C) gastrointestinal tract. D) urinary tract.
Answer: B
4
48) A physician who specializes in the study of tumours is known as a(n) 48)
A) pediatrician. B) internist. C) surgeon. D) oncologist.
Answer: D
49) Which of the following is TRUE about cancer death rates since 1991? 49)
A) There has been no change in cancer death rates.
B) Death rates from cancer are declining.
C) There is no reliable data available on cancer death rates.
D) Death rates from cancer are increasing.
Answer: B
50) The most common cause of cancer death in North America is 50)
A) prostate cancer. B) colon and rectal cancer.
C) breast cancer. D) lung cancer.
Answer: D
51) Death rates from lung cancer are 51)

A) increasing among women. B) highest in younger age groups.
C) rapidly declining in men. D) low compared to other cancers.
Answer: A
52) Smoking is responsible for what percentage of lung cancer? 52)

A) 72% B) 85% C) 100% D) 55%
Answer: B
53) Which of the following poses the greatest threat for the development of lung cancer 53)
among nonsmokers?
A) sun exposure
B) exposure to environmental tobacco smoke
C) inactivity
D) high-fat diet
Answer: B
54) Lymphoma is cancer of the lymph nodes, part of the body's 54)
A) blood-forming cells. B) gastrointestinal tract.
C) infection-fighting system. D) connective and fibrous tissues.
Answer: C
55) Lung cancer is 55)

A) easily detectable in early stages.
B) caused only by cigarette smoking.
C) difficult to cure at any stage.
D) the most common cause of cancer death in Canada.
Answer: D
5
56) A technique that detects lung cancer earlier than X-rays do is 56)
A) cell analysis. B) spiral CT scans.
C) blood test. D) MRI.
Answer: B
57) When there are no symptoms or other evidence of previously diagnosed disease, a cancer 57)
patient is said to
A) have metastasis. B) be in an immune state.
C) have a benign tumour. D) be in remission.
Answer: D
58) One type of cancer that seems to be linked to a diet high in red meat is 58)
A) colon cancer. B) leukemia.
C) cervical cancer. D) lymphoma.
Answer: A
59) After what age should a stool blood test be a standard annual screening test? 59)
A) 30 B) 40 C) 50 D) 60
Answer: C
60) Sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy is recommended to screen for ____________ cancer. 60)

A) throat B) uterine
C) colon and rectal D) lung
Answer: C
61) Daniel has a family history of colon cancer. To lower his personal risk of the disease, he 61)
should consider doing all of the following, EXCEPT
A) increasing his intake of fruits and vegetables.
B) increasing his intake of red meat.
C) using aspirin and ibuprofen regularly.
D) being physically active.
Answer: B
62) A signal of colon and rectal cancer is 62)

A) headaches. B) rectal bleeding.
C) high fever. D) cramping.
Answer: B
63) The most common form of cancer in women is ____________ cancer; the most common 63)
cause of cancer death in women is ___________.
A) breast; lung B) lung; breast
C) cervical; colon and rectal D) melanoma; ovarian
Answer: A
6
64) Risk factors for breast cancer include all of the following, EXCEPT 64)
A) genetic factors. B) diet.
C) previous injury to the breast. D) hormonal factors.
Answer: C
65) What do obesity and alcohol use have in common that increases breast cancer risk? 65)
A) They slow the rate of cell growth.
B) They increase estrogen levels in the blood.
C) They increase glucose levels in the blood.
D) They raise LDL cholesterol.
Answer: B
66) A woman is more likely to develop breast cancer if 66)

A) she is obese.
B) she had her first child before age 30.
C) her diet is high in vegetables.
D) her diet is low in monounsaturated fat.
Answer: A
67) Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for breast cancer? 67)
A) alcohol use B) obesity
C) early motherhood D) early onset of menstruation
Answer: C
68) The Canadian Cancer Society recommends routine use of mammography to detect breast 68)
cancer for women over age
A) 20. B) 30. C) 40. D) 50.
Answer: D
69) All of the following are true about prostate cancer, EXCEPT 69)
A) is the second leading cause of cancer death in men.
B) is influenced by diet and lifestyle.
C) is the most common cancer in males.
D) is associated with lack of fruit and vegetable consumption.
Answer: D
70) Techniques for early detection of prostate cancer include a digital rectal exam and 70)
A) a CT scan.
B) surgery.
C) ultrasound.
D) a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test.
Answer: D
7
71) Why has PSA testing for prostate cancer been the subject of controversy among experts? 71)
A) because it is so expensive
B) because it is only available in certain parts of the country
C) because of its tendency to yield misleading results
D) because it causes painful side effects
Answer: C
72) The infection that puts women at risk for cervical cancer is 72)
A) HPV. B) hepatitis. C) strep throat. D) pneumonia.
Answer: A
73) Scraping cells from the cervix for examination to screen for cancerous changes is called 73)
A) cryotherapy. B) a Pap test.
C) an endometrial smear. D) curetting.
Answer: B
74) It is recommended that girls get an HPV/cervical cancer vaccine at what age? 74)
A) 9 B) 16 C) 12 D) 10
Answer: A
75) In some cases, cervical dysplasia develops into 75)

A) cervical cancer. B) vaginal clear cell cancer.
C) chlamydia infection. D) HPV infection.
Answer: A
76) Cancer of the lining of the uterus is called ____________ cancer. 76)
A) myeloma B) ovarian C) endometrial D) cervical
Answer: C
77) Risk factors for endometrial cancer include all of the following, EXCEPT 77)
A) prolonged estrogen exposure. B) late menopause.
C) obesity. D) using oral contraceptives.
Answer: D
78) Ovarian cancers 78)

A) are detectable with Pap tests.
B) are usually found at an early stage.
C) decrease in incidence with age.
D) are relatively rare but have a high death rate.
Answer: D
8
79) Those most at risk of developing skin cancer include all of the following, EXCEPT 79)
A) fair-skinned people.
B) people who use tanning lamps.
C) people with naturally dark skin.
D) people with a family history of skin cancer.
Answer: C
80) Ultraviolet B (UVB) radiation 80)

A) is the main type of radiation emitted from tanning beds.
B) is not linked to skin cancer.
C) can cause immediate sunburns.
D) does not damage the skin.
Answer: C
81) Basal cell and squamous cell carcinomas 81)

A) are usually painful.
B) are rare forms of skin cancer.
C) may be pearly nodules or red and scaly patches.
D) spread rapidly.
Answer: C
82) The most dangerous form of skin cancer is 82)

A) actinic keratosis. B) melanoma.
C) basal cell carcinoma. D) squamous cell carcinoma.
Answer: B
83) _____________ are more likely to develop and die from melanoma. 83)
A) Children B) Men C) Teens D) Women
Answer: B
84) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of melanoma? 84)

A) invades surrounding tissue
B) bleeds easily
C) appears at the site of a preexisting mole
D) occurs most commonly on the face
Answer: D
9
85) Which of the following statements about ultraviolet radiation is TRUE? 85)
A) Sand reflects ultraviolet radiation, so beach-goers need to wear sunscreen even if
they sit under a beach umbrella.
B) You do not need to wear sunscreen when outdoors at high elevations because the
atmosphere at high altitude filters out most ultraviolet radiation.
C) Swimming is a good choice of outdoor activity because ultraviolet rays cannot
penetrate water.
D) It's best to avoid outdoor activity in the late afternoon because the sun's rays are
most intense after 3 p.m.
Answer: A
86) Melissa uses a sunscreen with an SPF rating of 20, which means that 86)
A) she can stay in the sun for 20 minutes without getting tanned or burned.
B) her sunscreen contains 20 different ingredients to block ultraviolet radiation.
C) she is protected from the full range of ultraviolet radiation.
D) she can stay in the sun 20 times longer without getting burned than if she did not
use it.
Answer: D
87) Steps to prevent skin cancer include all of the following, EXCEPT 87)
A) avoiding sunburns.
B) using sunscreens and protective clothing.
C) using tanning salons instead of sunbathing.
D) avoiding prolonged exposure to the sun.
Answer: C
88) A characteristic of a skin lesion that may be a melanoma is one with a 88)
A) solid brown colour. B) asymmetrical shape.
C) smooth border. D) diameter smaller than 5 mm.
Answer: B
89) The most common treatment for skin cancer is 89)

A) surgical removal. B) radiation therapy.
C) immunotherapy. D) chemotherapy.
Answer: A
90) Risk factors for oral cancer include all of the following, EXCEPT 90)
A) use of spit tobacco. B) high protein consumption.
C) excess alcohol consumption. D) cigarette and cigar smoking.
Answer: B
10
91) All of the following groups are at increased risk of testicular cancer, EXCEPT 91)
A) men whose mothers took DES during pregnancy.
B) men with undescended testicles.
C) circumcised males.
D) white males.
Answer: C
92) Which of the following statements regarding testicle self-examination is FALSE? 92)
A) It is recommended only if the man is sexually active.
B) It is best performed following a bath or shower.
C) It should be done monthly.
D) It should be performed using a gentle rolling motion.
Answer: A
93) Which of the following statements regarding bladder cancer is FALSE? 93)
A) The first signs of cancer are increased frequency of urination and/or blood in the
urine.
B) Risk factors include occupational exposure to chemicals used in the dye, rubber,
and leather industries.
C) Bladder cancer is linked to tobacco use.
D) Bladder cancer is four times more common in women than it is in men.
Answer: D
94) Which of the following statements is TRUE about brain cancer? 94)
A) The incidence of brain cancer has dramatically decreased in the last 20 years.
B) Most brain cancers are curable by surgery.
C) The risks factors for brain cancers are firmly established.
D) The vast majority of brain cancer develops for no apparent reason.
Answer: D
95) Which of the following cancers is significantly more prevalent outside Canada? 95)
A) kidney cancer B) bladder cancer
C) stomach cancer D) pancreatic cancer
Answer: C
96) Which one of the following best describes leukemia? 96)

A) malignant disease of the white blood cells
B) benign disease of the lymph system
C) nonmelanoma skin cancer
D) benign disorder of glucose metabolism
Answer: A
11
97) All the following statements are TRUE about multiple myeloma (MM), EXCEPT 97)
A) MM is more common in older people.
B) MM is most common among thin white women.
C) MM can lead to anemia, excessive bleeding, and decreased resistance to infection.
D) MM is more common among African Americans.
Answer: B
98) A section of DNA that controls the production of a particular protein is a 98)
A) nucleotide. B) chromosome. C) gene. D) double helix.
Answer: C
99) Carcinogens are best described as 99)

A) substances that can cause mutation.
B) substances or factors that mutate genes and cause cancer.
C) substances that increase the growth rate of cells.
D) tumours that invade surrounding tissues.
Answer: B
100) Ultraviolet rays are 100)

A) cancer promoters. B) oncogenes.
C) suppressor agents. D) cancer initiators.
Answer: D
101) Estrogen is an example of a 101)

A) mutagen. B) cancer promoter.
C) cancer initiator. D) carcinogen.
Answer: B
102) A diet high in ___________ is linked to increased risk of colon, stomach, and prostate 102)
cancers.
A) fibre B) fat and meat C) carotenoids D) nitrosamines
Answer: B
103) Smoking is responsible for about ___________ of ALL cancer deaths. 103)
A) 10% B) 20% C) 30% D) 40%
Answer: C
104) Naturally occurring substances found in plant foods that help prevent chronic diseases 104)
are
A) free radicals. B) anticarcinogens.
C) phytochemicals. D) nitrosamines.
Answer: C
12
105) Which one of the following is a good source of phytochemicals? 105)
A) nonfat milk B) lean portion of beef
C) halibut D) broccoli
Answer: D
106) Diets high in which of the following foods are associated with increased risk of cancer? 106)
A) cruciferous vegetables B) red meats
C) whole grains D) citrus fruits
Answer: B
107) Foods are a better source of phytochemicals than supplements are for all of the following 107)
reasons, EXCEPT
A) isolated phytochemicals may be harmful in high doses.
B) supplements do not contain antioxidants.
C) the anticancer effects of phytochemicals may be due to several chemicals from a
single food working in combination.
D) whole foods can have nutritional benefits not available from supplements.
Answer: B
108) Obesity increases a person's risk of 108)

A) breast and colon cancers. B) colon and skin cancers.
C) oral and brain cancers. D) lung and brain cancers.
Answer: A
109) Fifteen percent of the world's cancers are caused by 109)

A) asbestos. B) diabetes. C) microbes. D) inactivity.
Answer: C
110) A potentially dangerous additive found in processed meats is 110)

A) nitrate. B) sodium chloride.
C) beta-carotene. D) sulforaphane.
Answer: A
111) All of the following are sources of radiation, EXCEPT 111)

A) medical X-rays. B) hydrocarbons.
C) tanning lamps. D) radon gas.
Answer: B
112) The acronym "CAUTION" is a good way to remember 112)

A) the seven most common types of cancer.
B) the seven carcinogens to avoid.
C) the seven major warning signs of cancer.
D) the seven major categories of cancer.
Answer: C
13
113) Methods for precise visualization of tumours do NOT include 113)
A) conventional X-rays. B) ultrasonography.
C) CT scans. D) MRI scans.
Answer: A
114) A test using computerized X-ray images to detect tumours is called a(n) 114)
A) sonogram. B) angiogram. C) CT scan. D) MRI scan.
Answer: C
115) To obtain nutrients, cancer cells signal the body to produce new blood vessels, a process 115)
called
A) proteasome inhibiting. B) angiogenesis.
C) telomerase. D) enzyme activation.
Answer: B
116) What is the approximate economic burden of cancer in Canada annually? 116)
A) 11.5 billion dollars B) 22.5 billion dollars
C) 19 billion dollars D) 7 billion dollars
Answer: B
117) Advanced cancer that has spread to another organ is classified as what stage? 117)
A) I B) II C) III D) IV
Answer: D
118) Early cancer, present only in the layer of cells where it originated, is classified as what 118)
stage?
A) 0 B) I C) II D) III
Answer: A
119) Major sites of carcinomas include all of the following, EXCEPT: 119)
A) bone. B) breast. C) skin. D) uterus.
Answer: A
120) Major sites of sarcomas include all of the following, EXCEPT: 120)
A) skin. B) cartilage. C) bone. D) muscle.
Answer: A
121) What percentage of cases of prostate cancer are successfully treated? 121)
A) 82% B) 73% C) 50% D) 96%
Answer: D
122) Heavy users of alcohol and tobacco have a risk of oral cancer up to _____________ 122)
times as great as that of people who don't drink or smoke.
A) 5 B) 15 C) 2 D) 10
Answer: B
14
123) Anticarcinogens include all of the following, EXCEPT: 123)
A) vitamin D. B) vitamin C. C) vitamin E. D) selenium.
Answer: A
124) Carotenoids include all of the following, EXCEPT: 124)

A) xanthin B) lycopene C) beta-carotene D) lutein
Answer: A
125) Capsaicin is found in which of the following foods: 125)

A) citrus fruit. B) broccoli. C) grapes. D) chili peppers.
Answer: D
126) Polyphenols are found in which of the following foods: 126)

A) black tea. B) kale. C) leeks. D) onions.
Answer: A
127) Resveratrol is found in which of the following foods: 127)

A) lemons. B) grapes. C) peppers. D) flax seeds.
Answer: B
128) Phytoestrogens are found in which of the following foods: 128)

A) nuts. B) red wine. C) limes. D) cherries.
Answer: A
129) Phytic acid is found in which of the following foods: 129)

A) shallots. B) apples. C) whole grains. D) chives.
Answer: C
130) Allyl sulphides are found in which of the following foods: 130)
A) berries. B) red wine. C) peanuts. D) shallots.
Answer: D
131) Monoterpenes are found in which of the following foods: 131)

A) citrus fruit. B) garlic. C) cauliflower. D) legumes.
Answer: A
132) Flavonoids are found in which of the following foods: 132)

A) grapes. B) citrus fruit. C) chili peppers. D) broccoli.
Answer: B
15
133) Capsaicin has which of the following potential anticancer effects? 133)
A) Blocks effects of estrogen on cell growth.
B) Binds iron reducing free radicals.
C) Acts as an antioxidant.
D) Neutralizes effect of nitrosamines.
Answer: D
134) Resveratrol has which of the following potential anticancer effects? 134)
B) Acts as an antioxidant.
C) Neutralizes effect of nitrosamines.
D) Binds iron reducing free radicals.
Answer: B
135) Phytoestrogens have which of the following potential anticancer effects? 135)
A) Bind iron reducing free radicals.
B) Neutralize effect of nitrosamines.
C) Block effects of estrogen on cell growth.
D) Act as an antioxidant.
Answer: C
136) Phytic acid has which of the following potential anticancer effects? 136)
B) Acts as an antioxidant.
C) Neutralizes effect of nitrosamines.
D) Binds iron reducing free radicals.
Answer: D
137) Allyl sulphides have which of the following potential anticancer effects? 137)
B) Increase levels of enzymes that break down potential carcinogens.
C) Act as an antioxidant.
D) Neutralize effect of nitrosamines.
Answer: B
138) Monoterpenes have which of the following potential anticancer effects? 138)
B) Help detoxify carcinogens.
C) Neutralize effect of nitrosamines.
D) Block effects of estrogen on cell growth.
Answer: B
16
139) Hepatitis viruses B and C together cause as many as ____________ percent of the 139)
world's liver cancers.
A) 80 B) 50 C) 30 D) 60
Answer: A
140) General environmental pollution such as substances in our air and water are responsible 140)
for approximately ____________ percent of cancer deaths.
A) 10 B) 1 C) 2 D) 5
Answer: C
141) The 'C' in the acronym CAUTION (indicating the major warning signs of cancer) stands 141)
for:
A) Change in colour. B) Change in wart or mole.
C) Change in sore. D) Change in bowel or bladder habits.
Answer: D
142) The 'U' in the acronym CAUTION (indicating the major warning signs of cancer) stands 142)
for:
A) Unusual cough. B) Upset stomach.
C) Unusual thirst. D) Unusual bleeding or discharge.
Answer: D
143) Men over what age should be tested for prostate cancer? 143)
A) 30 B) 50 C) 40 D) 60
Answer: B
144) A fecal occult blood test is used to test for which type of cancer? 144)
A) prostate B) colon
C) rectal D) colon and rectal
Answer: D
145) A mammogram is used to test for which type of cancer? 145)

A) rectal B) breast C) prostate D) colon
Answer: B
146) Which province has the greatest number of cancer deaths annually in Canada? 146)
A) Alberta B) British Columbia
C) Quebec D) Ontario
Answer: D
147) The use of chemotherapy before surgery to shrink a cancerous tumour and prevent 147)
metastasis is called:
A) induction chemotherapy. B) pre-surgery chemotherapy.
C) preventive chemotherapy. D) deductive chemotherapy.
Answer: A
17
148) These type of cells are unique, unspecialized cells that can divide and produce more 148)
specialized cell types.
A) progenitor cells B) endothelial cells
C) stem cells D) bone marrow cells
Answer: C
149) Jen has fair skin, and both her mother and her aunt have been treated for skin cancer. 149)
This coming weekend, Jen and her friends are planning an all-day outdoor hike near a
high-mountain lake; she expects there will be a mix of sun and shade on the trail and at
the lakeshore beach. She is looking forward to the hike, but she wants to avoid getting a
sunburn or any sun damage.
Jen should do all of the following before leaving for the hike, EXCEPT
A) pack a full bottle of sunscreen in her backpack.
B) buy or borrow a broad-brimmed hat.
C) visit a tanning salon to get a light tan to protect her skin.
D) consult the forecast for UV index to help determine how sunny it will be.
Answer: C
Jen applies sunscreen to the exposed areas of her skin before she leaves her apartment for the
hike; she should apply more sunscreen for all of the following, EXCEPT
A) 2 hours after sun exposure begins.
B) 1 hour after sunset.
C) after climbing a hill and sweating heavily.
D) 15 minutes after sun exposure begins.
Answer: B
18
The group is tentatively planning to have a noon lunch on the lakeshore beach. To protect her skin
at lunchtime, Jen's best strategy would be to
A) eat under a beach umbrella to protect herself from the sun's rays.
B) change the plan so that the group has lunch at a shaded picnic table and dinner on
the beach.
C) not worry, since the high altitude of the lake means the sun's rays are less intense.
D) go swimming for most of the lunch break because the water will protect her from
UV rays.
Answer: B
Jen is wearing a shirt with a UPF rating of 25. This means

A) Jen's shirt has the highest UPF rating ("excellent").
B) Jen can stay in the sun for 25 minutes without getting burned.
C) Clothing does not have UPF ratings.
D) Jen can stay in the sun without getting burned for 25 times longer than if she were
wearing a standard T-shirt.
Answer: A
153) Explain the difference between a benign tumour and a malignant tumour; include 153)
a description of metastasis in your answer. Finally, provide an example of one of
the four classes of malignant tumours-list the type of cells that gives rise to it and
where on the body it may cause cancer.
154) Choose one of the common cancers described in your text. Briefly describe the 154)
cancer, its risk factors, signs/symptoms, and treatment. List at least three lifestyle
strategies for prevention.
19
155) Trina is a 42-year-old woman who has lost two family members to breast cancer. 155)
Describe three lifestyle strategies that may help lower Trina's risk. In addition,
describe the three tests/exams that Trina should have to help detect breast cancer
in its early stages.
156) Self-exams can be an important part of early cancer detection. Describe the 156)
technique for the self-exam appropriate for your sex: women-breast self-exam;
men-testicle self-exam.
157) Pete has an outdoor job and is frequently out in the sun for an entire day. List five 157)
strategies that may help Pete avoid skin damage and skin cancer.
158) Diet can be a key risk factor for cancer. Describe three general dietary strategies 158)
for cancer prevention, and then list five foods that would be good anti-cancer
dietary choices.
159) Define carcinogen; give four examples of carcinogens and describe how they may 159)
cause cancer.
160) List the seven major warning signs of cancer. 160)

20
Exam
Name___________________________________
1) Pathogens can enter the body through penetration of skin, by inhalation, or by ingestion. 1)
Answer: True False
2) Antibodies are produced by macrophages. 2)

Answer: True False
3) The two main types of lymphocytes are T cells and B cells. 3)

Answer: True False
4) Killer T cells can destroy cancer cells. 4)

Answer: True False
5) During the incubation period for an infectious disease, you do not have any symptoms of 5)
illness and are not contagious.
Answer: True False
6) If an individual has active organisms replicating in his or her body, he or she may be 6)
contagious before experiencing any symptoms.
Answer: True False
7) Live, attenuated vaccines are used to vaccinate against influenza. 7)

Answer: True False
8) Some of the common allergens include dust mites, mold and mildew, and insect stings. 8)
Answer: True False
9) Histamine production may cause congestion and sneezing. 9)

Answer: True False
10) Anaphylaxis may be life threatening. 10)

Answer: True False
11) All bacteria are harmful to the body. 11)

Answer: True False
12) The use of over-the-counter antihistamines is a form of immunotherapy. 12)

Answer: True False
13) Mycoplasmas are a common cause of pneumonia among college students. 13)
Answer: True False
1
14) Viral meningitis is more dangerous than bacterial meningitis. 14)
Answer: True False
15) Rocky Mountain spotted fever and typhus are caused by rickettsias. 15)
Answer: True False
16) Toxic shock syndrome was first diagnosed in pregnant women. 16)
Answer: True False
17) Tuberculosis is a chronic bacterial infection that usually affects the brain. 17)
Answer: True False
18) Pertussis is another name for whooping cough. 18)

Answer: True False
19) Illnesses caused by viruses are the most common forms of contagious disease. 19)
Answer: True False
20) Failing to finish a prescription of antibiotics is a factor in the development of 20)

antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.
Answer: True False
21) A severe worldwide outbreak of a disease is called an epidemic. 21)

Answer: True False
22) Epstein-Barr virus causes infectious mononucleosis. 22)

Answer: True False
23) Malaria can cause severe anemia. 23)

Answer: True False
24) Prions are similar in makeup to spirochetes. 24)

Answer: True False
25) West Nile virus and hantavirus infections primarily involve transmission by vectors 25)
rather than person-to-person spread.
Answer: True False
26) Ebola hemorrhagic fever can spread widely because it has a long asymptomatic period 26)
following the initial infection.
Answer: True False
27) Multiple sclerosis is an example of an autoimmune disease. 27)

Answer: True False
2
28) Stress may decrease T cell and antibody levels. 28)
Answer: True False
29) An organism that causes disease is a(n) 29)

A) antigen. B) antibody. C) pathogen. D) toxin.
Answer: C
30) Which one of the following is NOT a vector of disease? 30)

A) ticks B) contaminated soil
C) mosquitoes D) rats
Answer: B
31) Vessels and organs that pick up excess fluids, filter out disease-causing organisms and 31)
other waste products, and return cleansed fluid to the general circulation belong to the
_______________ system.
A) neutrophil B) digestive C) lymphatic D) antibody
Answer: C
32) An infection that travels throughout the body is called 32)

A) transmitted. B) lymphatic. C) systemic. D) localized.
Answer: C
33) All of the following are considered portals of entry for a pathogen, EXCEPT 33)
A) ingestion through contaminated food or water
B) ingestion through uncontaminated food or water
C) inhaled through the mouth or nose
D) through the skin or by direct contact
Answer: B
34) One of the best ways to break the chain of infection is to 34)
A) wash your hands frequently.
B) get boosters for immunizations 6 months early.
C) drink water only if it is fluoridated.
D) use disinfectant agents when cleaning your house.
Answer: A
35) Tears, saliva, and vaginal secretions are rich in ________ and _________ that break 35)
down and destroy many microorganisms.
A) lymphocytes; neutrophils B) histamines; antigens
C) antibodies; enzymes D) macrophages; killer T-cells
Answer: C
3
36) The body's first line of defense against invasion of organisms is 36)
A) the skin. B) fever.
C) white blood cells. D) chlorination.
Answer: A
37) Obstacles to microorganisms entering the body include 37)

A) water. B) enzymes. C) antibodies. D) cilia.
Answer: A
38) Microscopic, hairlike structures that sweep mucus and foreign substances out of the 38)
lungs are called
A) cilia. B) enzymes.
C) macrophages. D) phagocytic cells.
Answer: A
39) White blood cells are produced in the 39)

A) heart. B) brain.
C) gastrointestinal tract. D) bone marrow.
Answer: D
40) A type of white blood cell that engulfs foreign organisms and infected, damaged, or aged 40)
cells, and that is particularly prevalent during the inflammatory response is a
A) platelet. B) macrophage. C) neutrophil. D) lymphocyte.
Answer: C
41) Macrophages 41)

A) are suppressor cells. B) act as scavengers.
C) trigger the immune response. D) counteract swollen lymph nodes.
Answer: B
42) White blood cells that directly destroy virus-infected and cancerous cells are _________ 42)
cells.
A) helper T B) natural killer C) B D) suppressor T
Answer: B
43) Which of the following are primary players in the body's immune response? 43)
A) T cells B) memory T and B cells
C) D cells D) B cells
Answer: C
44) All of the following are types of white blood cells, EXCEPT 44)
A) macrophages. B) lymphocytes. C) neutrophils. D) antibodies.
Answer: D
4
45) Lymph nodes 45)
A) produce antibodies and antigens.
B) are part of the respiratory system.
C) produce enzymes in the lymph.
D) are where macrophages congregate and filter pathogens from the lymph.
Answer: D
46) Swollen lymph nodes are an indication of 46)

A) hemophilia. B) poor diet. C) infection. D) anemia.
Answer: C
47) Lymphocytes that stimulate other lymphocytes to increase are called _____________ 47)
cells.
A) B B) memory C) helper T D) suppressor T
Answer: C
48) Lymphocytes that can get rid of cells of the body that have been invaded by foreign 48)
organisms or have turned cancerous are called
A) helper T cells. B) suppressor T cells.
C) phagocytes. D) killer T cells.
Answer: D
49) Chemicals responsible for the dilation and increased permeability of blood vessels in 49)
allergic reactions are called
A) histamines. B) lymphocytes. C) antibodies. D) antigens.
Answer: A
50) Lymphocytes that produce antibodies are called _______________ cells. 50)
A) helper T B) suppressor T C) B D) killer T
Answer: C
51) A marker on the surface of a foreign substance that triggers the immune response is 51)
called a(n)
A) enzyme. B) antibody. C) lymphocyte. D) antigen.
Answer: D
52) Lymphocytes generated during an initial infection that circulate in the body for years and 52)
quickly destroy the specific antigens if they ever appear again are called ____________
cells.
A) suppressor T B) memory T C) helper T D) killer T
Answer: B
5
53) A disease in which an individual's immune system attacks his or her own body's cells is 53)
called a(n)
A) natural immune disorder. B) acquired immune response.
C) autoimmune disease. D) antibody deficiency disease.
Answer: C
54) The release of histamines does NOT cause _______________ in the affected area. 54)
A) infection B) heat C) redness D) swelling
Answer: A
55) During this type of immune system response, the body's defense system literally eats 55)
invading pathogens.
A) natural immunity B) imagined immunity
C) acquired immunity D) adaptive immunity
Answer: A
56) T and B cells change after contact with the pathogen in a(n) _______________ immune 56)
response.
A) natural B) acquired C) imagined D) innate
Answer: B
57) Neutrophils, macrophages, dendritic cells, and natural killer cells are part of the 57)
________ response to invading pathogens
A) natural B) cell-mediated C) adaptive D) acquired
Answer: A
58) Antibodies have complementary surface markers that work with _______ like a lock and 58)
key.
A) antigens B) T cells C) histamines D) cytokines
Answer: A
59) Chemical messengers released by immune system cells that help amplify and coordinate 59)
the immune response are
A) antibodies. B) antigens. C) histamines. D) cytokines.
Answer: D
60) Which of the following are examples of cytokines? 60)

A) interleukins and interferons B) interferons and gamma globulin
C) gamma globulin and histamines D) histamines and interleukins
Answer: A
6
61) In the immune response, the phase in which killer T cells strike at foreign cells and at 61)
cells of the body that have been invaded and infected is called
A) recognition of the invading pathogen. B) cell-mediated immune response.
C) amplification of defenses. D) cell-dependent immune response.
Answer: B
62) Cell-mediated immune response 62)

A) is a function of B cells.
B) stimulates the production of antibodies.
C) is a function of killer T cells.
D) uses antibodies to recruit macrophages to help clean up.
Answer: C
63) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding antibody-mediated immune 63)
response?
A) Antibodies work against infected body cells.
B) Antibodies work against bacteria and viruses outside of body cells.
C) Antibodies produce killer T cells.
D) It is carried out by T cells.
Answer: B
64) The phase of the immune response in which suppressor T cells halt the immune response 64)
and restore the body's natural balance is called
A) amplification of defenses. B) slowdown.
C) attack. D) recognition of the invading pathogen.
Answer: B
65) The ability of memory lymphocytes to remember previous infections is known as 65)
A) passive immunity. B) acquired immunity.
C) future immunity. D) active immunity.
Answer: B
66) Examples of autoimmune disease include 66)

A) rheumatoid arthritis and HIV.
B) allergies and HIV.
C) cancer and systemic lupus erythematosus.
D) systemic lupus erythematosus and rheumatoid arthritis.
Answer: D
67) Lynette has begun feeling feverish and has a sore throat. Which phase of the immune 67)
response is she experiencing?
A) incubation B) initial C) prodromal D) clinical
Answer: C
7
68) Immunization is based on the 68)
A) body's ability to remember an encounter with a specific antigen.
B) introduction of an unrelated pathogen into the body to stimulate antigen production.
C) introduction of helper T cells into the body.
D) body's ability to differentiate a harmful pathogen from a harmless one.
Answer: A
69) A preparation of killed or weakened pathogens injected or taken orally to stimulate the 69)
body to produce antibodies is called a(n)
A) vaccine. B) immunoglobulin.
C) gamma globulin. D) antibody.
Answer: A
70) In which of the following diseases would one NOT have received a vaccine from a "live 70)
but weakened" organism?
A) rubella (German measles) B) influenza
C) measles D) mumps
Answer: B
71) Vaccines made from pathogens that have been killed in the laboratory, yet retain their 71)
ability to stimulate the production of antibodies, are used to provide protection against
A) mumps. B) rubella. C) measles. D) influenza.
Answer: D
72) Vaccines confer _______________ immunity. 72)

A) innate B) natural C) active D) passive
Answer: C
73) A person who is exposed to a disease and who is subsequently injected with antibodies 73)
produced by others has been given
A) active immunity. B) passive immunity.
C) natural immunity. D) innate immunity.
Answer: B
74) Serum that contains a variety of antibodies and is injected to provide temporary 74)
immunity is called
A) gamma globulin. B) plasma.
C) antivirals. D) immunotherapy.
Answer: A
75) When the body recognizes a relatively harmless substance as a dangerous antigen and 75)
mounts an immune response, this response is called
A) passive immunity. B) an allergic reaction.
C) pathogenesis. D) active immunity.
Answer: B
8
76) Substances that provoke allergies are known as 76)
A) antigens. B) bacteria. C) allergens. D) parasites.
Answer: C
77) Which of the following is NOT considered a common allergen? 77)

A) viruses B) molds C) pollen D) insect stings
Answer: A
78) The substance that increases the inflammatory response and the secretion of mucus 78)
following exposure to an allergen is
A) interferon. B) memory T cells.
C) immunoglobulin E. D) histamine.
Answer: D
79) The antibody most involved in triggering an allergic reaction is 79)

A) gamma globulin. B) histamine.
C) a mast cell. D) immunoglobulin E.
Answer: D
80) Key components of a typical asthma attack include all of the following, EXCEPT 80)
A) spasm in the muscles surrounding the airways.
B) inflammation of the airways.
C) anaphylaxis.
D) secretion of extra mucus.
Answer: C
81) Which of the following is NOT considered a pathogen? 81)

A) bacteria B) protozoa C) interferon D) prions
Answer: C
82) Streptococcus and staphylococcus are examples of 82)

A) rickettsiae. B) parasites. C) viruses. D) bacteria.
Answer: D
83) Meningitis is infection of the 83)

A) lining of the gastrointestinal tract.
B) bone marrow and lymphatic tissue.
C) membrane covering the brain and spinal cord.
D) alveoli in the lungs.
Answer: C
9
84) Johnny has a red, sore throat with white patches on the tonsils, swollen lymph nodes, 84)
fever, and a headache. Which of the following bacteria caused Johnny's symptoms?
A) Escherichia coli B) streptococcus
C) mycobacterium D) staphylococcus
Answer: B
85) A common bacterium found on the skin in healthy people, but capable of causing 85)
infection if it enters the body, is
A) mycoplasma. B) streptococcus.
C) spirochete. D) staphylococcus.
Answer: D
86) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding tuberculosis? 86)

A) Most infected people have latent infections.
B) It responds to a long course of antibiotic treatment.
C) It is typically transmitted via the respiratory route.
D) It usually affects the digestive tract.
Answer: D
87) Lyme disease can cause all of the following, EXCEPT 87)
A) fetal damage. B) impaired motor coordination.
C) arthritis. D) ulcers.
Answer: D
88) Lyme disease is transmitted by a 88)

A) dog flea. B) mosquito.
C) black widow spider. D) deer tick.
Answer: D
89) Most ulcers are caused by 89)

A) Helicobacter pylori infection. B) overconsumption of spicy food.
C) tickborne rickettsia. D) high levels of stress.
Answer: A
90) Tetanus is also known as 90)

A) meningitis. B) heartburn. C) lockjaw. D) gastritis.
Answer: C
91) Whooping cough is a respiratory illness cause by the bacterium 91)

A) Bordetella pertussis. B) streptococcus.
C) Escherichia coli. D) staphylococcus.
Answer: A
10
92) Generally, antibiotics are useful against 92)
A) influenza. B) colds. C) viruses. D) bacteria.
Answer: D
93) Viral diseases are the most common form of _______________ disease. 93)
A) recurrent B) chronic C) spontaneous D) contagious
Answer: D
94) Colds are almost always transmitted by 94)

A) sharing food or drink. B) coughing.
C) hand-to-hand contact. D) airborne respiratory droplets.
Answer: C
95) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the common cold? 95)
A) Most colds occur during the fall and winter months.
B) It may be caused by any or more than 200 different viruses.
C) It may be caused by any or more than 200 different viruses, and most colds occur
during the fall and winter months.
D) It may be caused by exposure to cold weather.
Answer: C
96) Influenza is highly contagious and spread via 96)

A) coughing. B) hand-to-hand contact.
C) respiratory droplets. D) ingesting food that has been infected.
Answer: C
97) Influenza virus infection usually causes all of the following symptoms, EXCEPT 97)
A) muscle aches. B) fever.
C) severe fatigue. D) gastrointestinal distress.
Answer: D
98) A vaccine is available to prevent infection by 98)

A) influenza virus. B) hepatitis C virus.
C) Epstein-Barr virus. D) rhinovirus.
Answer: A
99) All of the following are childhood viral illnesses that have waned in Canada, EXCEPT 99)
A) influenza. B) rubella. C) mumps. D) measles.
Answer: A
100) The herpes virus associated with infectious mononucleosis is 100)

A) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). B) herpes simplex type I.
C) cytomegalovirus. D) herpes simplex type II.
Answer: A
11
101) Viral encephalitis causes inflammation of the tissue in the 101)
A) heart. B) brain. C) kidney. D) liver.
Answer: B
102) The mildest form of hepatitis is hepatitis 102)

A) A. B) B. C) C. D) EB.
Answer: A
103) Hepatitis B is transmitted mainly by 103)

A) contaminated blood. B) intimate sexual contact.
C) contaminated food. D) organ donation.
Answer: B
104) Yellowing of the skin and whites of the eyes associated with hepatitis is called 104)
A) toxic shock. B) jaundice. C) impetigo. D) hemorrhage.
Answer: B
105) Which virus can cause irreversible paralysis and death in some infected individuals? 105)
A) herpes B) influenza C) hepatitis D) poliomyelitis
Answer: D
106) Most rabies-related deaths in Canada are traced to bites or scratches from 106)
A) raccoons. B) bats.
C) foxes. D) unvaccinated domestic pets.
Answer: B
107) Warts on the hands are caused by infection with a type of 107)
A) bacterium. B) fungus. C) prion. D) virus.
Answer: D
108) Molds, mushrooms, and yeasts belong to which classification? 108)

A) protozoa B) fungi C) prions D) spirochete
Answer: B
109) A fungus that causes vaginitis and thrush is 109)

A) dermatophyte fungus. B) Coccidioides immitis.
C) Histoplasma capsulatum. D) Candida albicans.
Answer: D
110) Mild fungal diseases that rarely give rise to major problems include all of the following, 110)
EXCEPT
A) athlete's foot. B) histoplasmosis.
C) ringworm. D) jock itch.
Answer: B
12
111) Microscopic, single-celled organisms that often cause recurrent diseases are called 111)
A) bacteria. B) parasites. C) viruses. D) protozoa.
Answer: D
112) Protozoa are associated with all of the following illnesses, EXCEPT 112)
A) histoplasmosis. B) giardiasis.
C) malaria. D) amoebic dysentery.
Answer: A
113) The largest organisms that can enter the body to cause infection are 113)
A) protozoa. B) bacteria.
C) parasitic worms. D) viruses.
Answer: C
114) An infectious agent that consists only of protein is a 114)

A) virus. B) protozoan. C) bacterium. D) prion.
Answer: D
115) Prions cause which of the following diseases? 115)

A) rabies B) syphilis
C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease D) toxic shock syndrome
Answer: C
116) Which of the following infections is transmitted by a mosquito bite? 116)

A) West Nile virus
B) hantavirus
C) E. Coli O157:H7
D) new variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
Answer: A
117) An example of an infection that was spread widely via air travel by infected people is 117)
A) severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS).
B) malaria.
C) new variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.
D) hantavirus.
Answer: A
118) Autoimmune diseases occur when 118)

A) the body erroneously recognizes its own cells as foreign.
B) a virus such as HIV destroys the immune system.
C) cancer creates an imbalance in the immune system.
D) bacteria severely damage the immune system.
Answer: A
13
119) You can reduce your chance of getting sick by doing all of the following, EXCEPT 119)
A) Keeping your immunizations up to date.
B) Washing your hands frequently.
C) Avoiding strenuous exercise.
D) Getting enough sleep.
Answer: C
120) All of the following may break the chain of infection, EXCEPT 120)
A) insect repellent B) water
C) masks D) condoms
Answer: B
121) Approximately how many people die worldwide each year of vaccine-preventable 121)
diseases?
A) 2.1 million B) 2.6 million C) 1.5 million D) 1.1 million
Answer: C
122) Approximately how many Canadians die of influenza annually? 122)

A) 5500 B) 1000 C) 2500 D) 7500
Answer: A
123) Scarlet fever is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: 123)

A) impetigo. B) light red tongue
C) sore throat D) superficial skin infection.
Answer: B
124) All of the following are strategies to prevent infections from MRSA, EXCEPT: 124)
A) keep your hands away from your face.
B) don't share personal items such as towels, razors, and tweezers.
C) keep open wounds moist with a warm wet cloth/bandage.
D) use soap and water for about 15 seconds to wash hands.
Answer: C
125) Approximately what percentage of Canadians have ulcers? 125)

A) 2% B) 10% C) 17% D) 5%
Answer: B
126) What percentage of ulcers are caused by H pylori? 126)

A) 70% B) 90% C) 20% D) 50%
Answer: B
127) All of the following are examples of analgesics, EXCEPT: 127)

A) Benadryl B) Tylenol C) Aspirin D) Advil
Answer: A
14
128) Varicella-zoster virus causes which of the following conditions? 128)
A) chicken pox B) chicken pox and shingles
C) shingles D) measles
Answer: D
129) All of the following are common symptoms of H1N1 influenza, EXCEPT: 129)
A) sore throat B) fatigue C) vomiting D) muscle aches
Answer: C
130) Which of the following diseases is commonly known as the "kissing disease"? 130)
A) mononucleosis B) influenza
C) chicken pox D) meningitis
Answer: A
131) Hepatitis C is usually transmitted by which of the following means? 131)

A) direct contact with blood
B) indirectly through contact with an inanimate object
C) sexually
D) contaminated food
Answer: A
132) In developing countries, more than 10% of children's deaths are caused by: 132)
A) dengue fever. B) malaria. C) tetanus. D) polio.
Answer: B
133) African sleeping sickness is a protozoan infection caused by: 133)

A) amoebic dysentery. B) guinea worms.
C) trypanosomiasis. D) trichomoniasis.
Answer: C
134) Prion diseases include all of the following, EXCEPT: 134)

A) scrapie. B) bovine spongiform encephalopathy.
C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. D) West Nile virus.
Answer: D
135) What percentage of individuals who develop ebola will die? 135)
A) 20-40% B) 10% C) 85% D) 25-90%
Answer: D
136) Herpesvirus causes all of the following, EXCEPT: 136)

A) rabies. B) mononucleosis.
C) herpes. D) chicken pox.
Answer: A
15
137) Encephalitis is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: 137)
A) vomiting B) inflammation of the brain.
C) lethargy. D) nausea.
Answer: A
138) All of the following are symptoms usually present in someone with influenza, EXCEPT: 138)
A) cough. B) fever. C) muscle aches. D) sneezing.
Answer: D
139) All of the following are symptoms usually present in someone with a common cold, 139)
EXCEPT:
A) fever. B) muscle aches.
C) runny, stuffy nose. D) fatigue.
Answer: A
140) All of the following are symptoms usually present in someone with allergies, EXCEPT: 140)
A) itchy eyes, nose, throat. B) muscle aches.
C) nasal discharge. D) sneezing.
Answer: B
141) All of the following are symptoms usually present in someone with sinusitis, EXCEPT: 141)
A) headache. B) stuffy nose. C) cough. D) fatigue.
Answer: D
142) All of the following are symptoms rarely present in someone with sinusitis, EXCEPT: 142)
A) sneezing. B) fatigue. C) headache. D) muscle aches.
Answer: C
143) All of the following are symptoms rarely present in someone with allergies, EXCEPT: 143)
A) sneezing. B) weakness. C) fatigue. D) muscle aches.
Answer: A
144) Approximately how many hospitalizations result from influenza each year in Canada? 144)
A) 15000 B) 20000 C) 10000 D) 5000
Answer: B
145) How many people die from influenza each year in Canada? 145)
A) 8000 B) 2000 C) 4000 D) 1000
Answer: C
146) Approximately what percentage of people with hepatitis C in Canada do now know they 146)
have it?
A) 20% B) 35% C) 10% D) 50%
Answer: B
16
147) Approximately how many cases of MRSA are reported in Canada annually? 147)
A) 9000 B) 6000 C) 3000 D) 1000
Answer: B
148) MRSA is resistant to which of the following? 148)

A) amoxicillin B) penicillin C) oxacillin D) levofloxacin
Answer: D
149) 149) he
Andrew loves to go camping and hiking in the fall. About two weeks after his last camping trip,
noticed an expanding red rash on his arm.
Andrew is most likely suffering from

A) West Nile virus infection.
B) Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
C) hantavirus pulmonary syndrome (HPS).
D) Lyme disease.
Answer: D
150) Andrew loves to go camping and hiking in the fall. About two weeks after his last camping trip,
150) he
noticed an expanding red rash on his arm.
In order to have avoided coming in contact with the organism that caused this illness, Andrew
should have
A) boiled his water before drinking.
B) worn clothing that covered exposed skin.
C) avoided contact with fleas found on mice.
D) camped only in the spring.
Answer: B
151) Define pathogen and trace the chain of infection through its various steps. Give at 151)
least three strategies for breaking the chain of infection.
152) List and describe the function of five of the many different types of white blood 152)
cells, proteins, and chemicals involved in the immune response to a pathogen.
153) Briefly describe the immune response to a pathogen. What are the major phases 153)
of the immune response, and how does the immune system prepare for future
invasions by the same pathogen?
17
154) Define vaccine, and describe how immunization can help prevent infection. List 154)
at least three immunizations available in Canada.
155) Define allergy, and briefly explain how an allergic response occurs. List at least 155)
three common allergens and two strategies for dealing with allergies.
156) List the six general classes of pathogens described in your text; give at least one 156)
example of a disease caused by each type of pathogen.
157) Discuss the concept of emerging infectious diseases. In your discussion, identify 157)
at least three specific emerging infections and three factors contributing to
disease emergence worldwide.
158) Two of Greg's housemates have come down with severe colds, and Greg wants to 158)
avoid contracting a cold if he can. Describe at least five practical steps Greg
could take to help reduce the risk of catching a cold from one of his housemates.
Strategies can target any part of the chain of infection.
18
Exam
Name___________________________________
1) Gender role includes the activities, abilities, and characteristics our culture deems 1)
appropriate for us based on whether we're male or female.
Answer: True False
2) Our adult styles of loving may be based on the style of attachment we established in 2)
infancy with our mothers, fathers, or other parenting figure.
Answer: True False
3) Friendships have all the same characteristics as intimate partnerships. 3)

Answer: True False
4) Lovers are usually more accepting and less critical than friendships. 4)
Answer: True False
5) Love encompasses opposites such as affection and anger, excitement and boredom, and 5)
bonds and freedom.
Answer: True False
6) Intimacy and sex are the same. 6)

Answer: True False
7) Out of necessity, commitment and passion do diminish over time. 7)

Answer: True False
8) Most love relationships change over time. 8)

Answer: True False
9) Having the conviction that you are always right is harmless competitiveness. 9)
Answer: True False
10) Jealousy is an indicator of love. 10)

Answer: True False
11) Violence in dating relationships can be precipitated by jealousy. 11)

Answer: True False
12) If you are the rejected person in a failed relationship, you should go out and begin a new 12)
relationship immediately.
Answer: True False
1
13) The majority of the communication between two people is nonverbal. 13)
Answer: True False
14) The ability to interpret nonverbal messages correctly is important to the success of 14)
relationships.
Answer: True False
15) Effective communication includes making sure that your words match your body 15)
language.
Answer: True False
16) Conflict is an inevitable part of any intimate relationship. 16)

Answer: True False
17) Some of the difficulties people encounter in relationships can be traced to common 17)
gender differences in communication.
Answer: True False
18) Men tend to talk more and disclose less than women do. 18)
Answer: True False
19) Female conversation patterns could be characterized as generally competitive. 19)

Answer: True False
20) Even though gender differences exist in communication, when a man and a woman are 20)
talking about the same subject, their goals are usually the same.
Answer: True False
21) Conflict can be a sign that the relationship is growing. 21)

Answer: True False
22) Initial attraction is most likely to be based on looks, dress, and social status. 22)
Answer: True False
23) In those cultures where marriages are arranged by parents, it is likely that the marriage 23)
will be very stable, even though the partners may have barely known each other before
the marriage ceremony.
Answer: True False
24) Cohabitation is defined as living together in a sexual relationship without being married. 24)
Answer: True False
2
25) The roots of our identity and sense of self are in our 25)
A) peer group. B) childhood. C) community. D) heredity.
Answer: B
26) ______________ includes the activities, abilities, and characteristics that a culture has 26)
deemed appropriate for us based on whether we are male or female.
A) Stereotype B) Self-concept
C) Gender role D) Gender identity
Answer: C
27) Our gender role is first defined for us by our 27)

A) heredity. B) culture.
C) sexual orientation. D) teachers.
Answer: B
28) Individuals who had an anxious/ambivalent relationship with a parent may find that, as 28)
adults, they
A) avoid relationships with others.
B) worry about being abandoned by others.
C) avoid becoming dependent on others.
D) maintain their independence in a relationship.
Answer: B
29) Anxious/avoidant relationships with parents may produce children who, when they reach 29)
adulthood,
A) tend to be married to the same person for a lifetime.
B) are satisfied living a solitary lifestyle.
C) find it easy to establish relationships.
D) are inclined to run from relationships.
Answer: D
30) Our first relationships outside our family are 30)

A) intimate relationships. B) friendships.
C) dependent relationships. D) love relationships.
Answer: B
31) Friendships usually include all of the following characteristics, EXCEPT 31)
A) passion. B) acceptance.
C) reciprocity. D) companionship.
Answer: A
32) Characteristics of friendships include all of the following, EXCEPT 32)

A) respect. B) trust. C) loyalty. D) dependence.
Answer: D
3
33) A characteristic of friendship includes reciprocity, which means 33)
A) loyalty. B) mutual respect.
C) acceptance. D) give-and-take between friends.
Answer: D
34) The percentage of Canadians that have no one to confide in is about _____________ 34)
percent.
A) 10 B) 50 C) 20 D) 30
Answer: C
35) Intimate partnerships differ from friendships, in that intimate partnerships 35)
A) are more stable and enduring over time.
B) include the presence of sexual desire.
C) do not require exclusiveness.
D) are more accepting and less critical.
Answer: B
36) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of commitment? 36)

A) faithfulness B) reliability C) passion D) responsibility
Answer: C
37) The most long lasting element of love is 37)

A) euphoria. B) commitment.
C) preoccupation with the loved one. D) idealization of the loved one.
Answer: B
38) _____________ is an idealization of a loved one. 38)

A) Commitment B) Intimacy C) Infatuation D) Passion
Answer: C
39) The element that is least characteristic of enduring love relationships is 39)
A) absorption in each other. B) promise of a shared future.
C) pursuit of common goals. D) closeness.
Answer: A
40) All of the following are common relationship challenges, EXCEPT 40)
A) self-disclosure. B) commitment.
C) overfamiliarity. D) expectations.
Answer: C
4
41) Real friends 41)
A) do not share past difficult experiences.
B) can be tense with each other.
C) should not be altruistic.
D) include passion in their relationship.
Answer: B
42) Emotions that can accompany physiological arousal include all of the following, 42)
EXCEPT
A) betrayal. B) love. C) fear. D) frustration.
Answer: A
43) The transformation of love progresses in the following way: 43)

A) sex, passion, break up of relationship, increasing intimacy.
B) high levels of passion, increasing intimacy, diminished romance, break up of
relationship
C) high levels of passion, increasing intimacy, diminished romance, enduring love.
D) high levels of passion, increasing intimacy, diminished romance, enduring love or
break up of relationship
Answer: D
44) To develop a healthy intimate relationship, it is important to self-disclose 44)

A) early and often; vulnerability is part of the game.
B) early in the relationship.
C) rarely; you do not want to frighten your potential partner.
D) at a slow but steady rate.
Answer: D
45) Approximately ____________ percent of married people will have an affair during their 45)
marriage.
A) 15-20 B) 20-25 C) 25-30 D) over 30
Answer: A
46) Which is a common expectation that can hurt a relationship? 46)

A) expecting intimacy
B) expecting that your partner loves you
C) expecting that you can trust your partner
D) expecting your partner to change
Answer: D
47) Jealousy is 47)

A) proof that love exists. B) a harmless emotion.
C) unrelated to self-esteem. D) a measure of insecurity.
Answer: D
5
48) A successful relationship has proven to improve an individual's 48)
A) self-esteem. B) immune system.
C) earning power. D) physical strength.
Answer: A
49) Emotional intelligence includes 49)

A) responding reactively to feelings. B) blocking feelings as they occur.
C) recognizing feelings as they occur. D) responding impulsively to feelings.
Answer: C
50) Mindfulness can be cultivated by 50)

A) speeding up our thought process. B) concentrating on multiple tasks.
C) thinking ahead. D) maximizing awareness of ourselves.
Answer: D
51) Examples of unhealthy relationships include all of the following, EXCEPT 51)
A) codependency. B) physical or emotional abuse.
C) communicative withdrawal. D) a level of tension.
Answer: D
52) All of the following are important guidelines for ending a relationship, EXCEPT 52)
A) "Move on as quickly as possible."
B) "Be tactful."
C) "Give the relationship a fair chance before breaking up."
D) "Be fair and honest."
Answer: A
53) It appears that our partner may NOT be interested in what we are saying if he or she 53)
responds by
A) looking around the room. B) touching our hand.
C) leaning toward us as we speak. D) looking in our eyes.
Answer: A
54) The three keys of good communication in a relationship include all of the following, 54)
EXCEPT
A) listening skills. B) self-disclosure.
C) feedback skills. D) critical analysis.
Answer: D
55) "Revealing personal information that we ordinarily wouldn't reveal because of the risk 55)
involved" describes
A) constructive listening. B) self-disclosure.
C) feedback. D) non-verbal communication.
Answer: B
6
56) Which of the following is NOT a component of good listening? 56)
A) respecting B) empathizing
C) judging D) maintaining eye contact
Answer: C
57) ____________ is a constructive response to another's self-disclosure. 57)

A) Issue clarification B) Criticism
C) Nonverbal cue D) Feedback
Answer: D
58) If your partner expresses unhappiness in your relationship, it is best to 58)

A) leave the room before saying something you will regret later.
B) offer constructive criticism on how your partner can meet your needs.
C) validate your partner's feelings and respond with self-disclosure.
D) defend yourself and your actions.
Answer: C
59) Female communication patterns can often be described as 59)

A) affiliative. B) one-upping. C) dominating. D) competitive.
Answer: A
60) Male communication patterns can often be described as 60)

A) negotiating. B) cooperative. C) affiliative. D) competitive.
Answer: D
61) Which of the following goals is MOST likely to be associated with male conversation? 61)
A) receiving support B) achieving understanding
C) establishing closeness D) establishing dominance
Answer: D
62) When you want to have a serious discussion with your partner, 62)
A) avoid blaming.
B) sooner is usually better.
C) focus on the whole person, not just one behaviour.
D) state your concern in a general way, not too detailed.
Answer: A
63) All of the following are steps in effective conflict resolution, EXCEPT 63)
A) not compromising your position. B) reviewing and negotiating.
C) clarifying the issue. D) finding out what each person wants.
Answer: A
7
64) Which of the following is NOT a constructive strategy for conflict resolution? 64)
A) reviewing and renegotiating
B) clarifying the issue
C) finding out what the other person wants
D) providing selective information
Answer: D
65) Of the following, which is the MOST constructive conflict resolution strategy? 65)
A) providing selective information to minimize conflict
B) using intimacy to smooth over disagreements
C) using avoidance
D) identifying alternatives to get what each person wants
Answer: D
66) If you and your partner find that you argue again and again over the same issue, you 66)
should
A) end the relationship.
B) seek professional help.
C) accept the differences between yourselves.
D) put the issue aside and deal with it at another time.
Answer: C
67) Which of the following is usually the basis of first attraction to another person? 67)
A) religious affiliation B) educational level
C) appearance D) socioeconomic background
Answer: C
68) A characteristic of one's partner that becomes important in determining the quality and 68)
depth of a relationship after the euphoria of first attraction and initial romance winds
down is
A) general interests. B) social status.
C) appearance. D) future aspirations.
Answer: D
69) The most important question for potential mates is, 69)
A) "How much money do you make?"
B) "Will your parents like me?"
C) "How much do we have in common?"
D) "How flexible are you?"
Answer: C
8
70) In traditional male-female dating relationships, the development of the relationship 70)
follows the order of
A) casual dating, exclusive dating, cohabitation, marriage.
B) casual dating, exclusive dating, engagement, marriage.
C) casual dating, cohabitation, engagement, marriage.
D) exclusive dating, cohabitation, marriage.
Answer: B
71) Getting together in groups, a more casual form of contemporary dating, is probably a 71)
product of
A) fear of sexual assault. B) equality of the sexes.
C) the media. D) fear of commitment.
Answer: B
72) Living together in a sexual relationship without being married describes 72)
A) compatibility. B) roommates. C) cohabitation. D) marriage.
Answer: C
73) Approximately __________ of couples live together before marrying. 73)

A) 50% B) 35% C) 60% D) 20%
Answer: C
74) Cohabitation is 74)

A) limited to the younger population. B) increasing in popularity.
C) diminishing in popularity. D) remaining stable.
Answer: B
75) Which of the following factors is not associated with the increasing popularity of 75)
cohabitation?
A) younger average age at marriage
B) greater social acceptance of premarital sex
C) economics
D) increased availability of contraceptives
Answer: A
76) Intimate partners with different cultural backgrounds 76)

A) will need to adopt each other's culture.
B) encounter the same obstacles as individuals with the same cultural backgrounds.
C) may differ in communication styles, values, and views of the world.
D) experience more anxiety during the later stages of the relationship than partners
with similar backgrounds.
Answer: C
9
77) In cultures where parent-arranged marriages are common, marriages are 77)
A) likely to end in divorce.
B) stable.
C) generally part of polygamous relationships.
D) dependent on the fertility of the partners.
Answer: B
78) All of the following are drawbacks to online relationships, EXCEPT 78)
A) the relationship may become dangerous.
B) people can communicate in a relaxed way.
C) people can misrepresent themselves.
D) investing time and emotional resources in an unrealistic romance may be painful.
Answer: B
79) If you want to pursue an online relationship, 79)

A) use sexually oriented websites that will get your message across.
B) find out the other person's situation and intention.
C) give out only your name and placement of employment/school; never give out your
phone number.
D) hold out for a "perfect" partner; after all, you have thousands to choose from.
Answer: B
80) One advantage cohabitation has over marriage is 80)

A) health insurance benefits are better.
B) most societies are more accepting of cohabitation.
C) partners have a greater sense of autonomy.
D) inheritance rights are better.
Answer: C
81) All of the following are liabilities associated with cohabitation, EXCEPT 81)
A) loss of inheritance rights.
B) loss of protection against domestic violence.
C) absence of the legal protection of marriage.
D) loss of spousal health insurance benefits.
Answer: B
10
82) Which of the following statements about cohabiting couples as compared to married 82)
couples is FALSE?
A) Cohabiting couples are significantly less likely to have children in the household
than married couples.
B) Both partners are more likely to work outside the home in cohabiting couples than
in married couples.
C) Women who cohabit are more likely to have higher incomes than their male
partners (than are women who are married).
D) On average, cohabiting couples are younger than married couples.
Answer: A
83) Sexual orientation is best described as 83)

A) a consistent pattern of emotional and sexual attraction based on biological sex.
B) sexual attraction to individuals of the opposite sex.
C) one's preference regarding the type of sexual activity in which one wants to engage.
D) one's choice of sexual partner.
Answer: A
84) One difference between heterosexual and homosexual couples is that same-sex 84)
partnerships tend to
A) be more organized around gender role.
B) place more emphasis on role assignment and less on partnership.
C) have one partner provide for the other financially.
D) be more equal.
Answer: D
85) Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE of many gay and lesbian relationships? 85)
A) Each partner assumes a traditional gender role.
B) Household tasks are often shared or split between partners.
C) They provide intimacy, security, and support.
D) Both partners are usually self-supporting.
Answer: A
86) Fear or hatred of gay people is called: 86)

A) discrimination. B) homophobia.
C) arachnophobia. D) arrhenphobia.
Answer: B
87) All of the following contribute to the increasing popularity of singlehood, EXCEPT 87)
A) greater sexual freedom. B) low divorce rates.
C) desire for financial independence. D) career goals.
Answer: B
11
88) Which of the following statements is least TRUE regarding singlehood? 88)
A) Economic hardships are greater, especially for men.
B) Personal and career development can occur without the interference of family
obligations.
C) There is greater access to a variety of sexual partners.
D) There is more freedom of decision making.
Answer: A
89) Today, people marry more 89)

A) for personal, emotional reasons.
B) to raise children.
C) to form an economic unit.
D) None of these choices are reasons why people today marry.
Answer: A
90) Having strong social relationships may do all of the following, EXCEPT 90)
A) speed recovery from illness. B) improve measures of mental health.
C) reduce the risk of illness. D) decrease measures of physical health.
Answer: D
91) All of the following are health benefits of marriage, EXCEPT 91)
A) less likelihood of catching colds. B) greater mental health.
C) more effective fitness programs. D) longer life expectancy.
Answer: C
92) Commitment is based on 92)

A) conscious choice.
B) the level of romance in a relationship.
C) the level of intimacy in a relationship.
D) feelings and emotions.
Answer: A
93) Which of the following is NOT a predictor of happy marriage? 93)

A) feeling good about the personality of the other
B) agreement on religious values
C) good communication
D) previous positive sexual experience
Answer: D
94) Approximately what percentage of married or common law women are in the labour 94)
force?
A) 30% B) 50% C) 75% D) 20%
Answer: C
12
95) Which of the following statements is false regarding gender roles in marriage? 95)
A) Married men suffer more job-related stress than married women.
B) Married men have assumed an equal share in child care responsibilities.
C) There is a move toward equalization of responsibilities in marriages.
D) Married women, even those who work, do most domestic tasks.
Answer: B
96) The high Canadian divorce rate probably represents 96)

A) high emotional expectations of marriage.
B) greater maturity of married partners.
C) increased mobility in our society.
D) a growing need to be independent.
Answer: A
97) According to Statistics Canada, by the year 2035, about __________ of couples who 97)
married in 2004 will be divorced.
A) 15% B) 38% C) 52% D) 27%
Answer: B
98) The divorce process usually begins with 98)

A) emotional separation. B) physical separation.
C) legal separation. D) social isolation.
Answer: A
99) The greatest stress-producing event in life is usually 99)

A) marriage. B) divorce.
C) death of spouse or family member. D) marital separation.
Answer: C
100) After death of a spouse or family member, which of the following is the greatest 100)
stress-producing event in life usually?
A) marriage B) social isolation
C) marital separation D) divorce
Answer: D
101) After a divorce occurs, the recovery period usually does not start for about 101)
A) 3 months after the divorce. B) 1 year after the divorce.
C) 6 months after the divorce. D) 1 month for every year of marriage.
Answer: B
102) About 75 percent of divorced people remarry, often within _____________ year(s). 102)
A) 5 B) 7 C) 3 D) 1
Answer: A
13
103) The arrival of the first child is most likely to 103)
A) reduce relationship stress.
B) reinforce traditional marital roles.
C) cause very little change in a marriage.
D) cause an equal degree of job changes for fathers and mothers.
Answer: B
104) The birth of the first child is most likely to 104)

A) increase a mother's contentment.
B) make the parents' relationship more egalitarian.
C) lessen marital satisfaction.
D) increase pressure to maintain social relationships.
Answer: C
105) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic that helps couples avoid marital 105)
dissatisfaction after the birth of a baby?
A) good communication about feelings and expectations
B) development of a strong relationship before the baby is born
C) a high annual income
D) the child having been planned or wanted
Answer: C
106) The four general parenting styles include all the following, EXCEPT 106)
A) absence. B) authoritarian. C) indulgent. D) authoritative.
Answer: A
107) Once children grow up and leave home, marital satisfaction 107)
A) is not changed. B) increases.
C) decreases. D) severely decreases.
Answer: B
108) The number of Canadian women with children who are single and have never been 108)
married is:
A) decreasing. B) increasing.
C) remaining the same. D) unknown.
Answer: B
109) The primary problems for single-parent families headed by women are 109)
A) religious. B) economic. C) scholastic. D) social.
Answer: B
14
110) Children in single-parent families are more likely to 110)
A) have academic difficulty.
B) experience early school success.
C) be motivated to avoid relationships with others.
D) have professional success at an early age.
Answer: A
111) Although evidence has suggested that children from single-parent families are less 111)
successful in school, this could actually be attributed to _______________ and not the
absence of the second parent.
A) lack of an extended family
B) gang affiliation
C) low educational attainment of the single parent
D) drug abuse
Answer: C
112) Which of the following statements is FALSE for most strong families? 112)
A) Family members communicate with one another.
B) Family members share a sense of spiritual wellness.
C) Family members express appreciation for one another.
D) Family members rarely seek counseling.
Answer: D
113) Family rituals can best be described as 113)

A) ceremonies performed for greater connection with God.
B) methods by which parents control their children.
C) church-sponsored activities.
D) traditions that build family ties.
Answer: D
114) Qualities of strong families include all of the following, EXCEPT: 114)
A) appreciation. B) commitment.
C) avoiding stress. D) communication.
Answer: C
115) What percentage of Canadian children live in a single-parent home? 115)

A) 25.8% B) 5% C) 16.3% D) 2.5%
Answer: C
116) The ability of friends to be relaxed and happy in each other's company is called: 116)
A) help. B) acceptance.
C) companionship. D) respect.
Answer: C
15
117) The give-and-take between friends and the feeling that both share joys and burdens more 117)
or less equally over time is called:
A) companionship. B) reciprocity.
C) mutuality. D) respect.
Answer: B
118) Which of the following emotions is NOT accompanied by physiological arousal? 118)
A) fear B) love C) respect D) rejection
Answer: C
119) Which of the following may diminish over time within a relationship? 119)
A) acceptance B) commitment
C) passion D) companionship
Answer: C
120) The degree to which we can skillfully and adaptively deal with our emotions and those of 120)
others is called:
A) adaptation. B) emotional understanding.
C) emotional sensitivity. D) emotional intelligence.
Answer: D
121) What percentage of communication in a relationship may be nonverbal? 121)

A) 25% B) 45% C) 85% D) 65%
Answer: D
122) Revealing personal information that we ordinarily wouldn't reveal because of the risk 122)
involved is called:
A) listening. B) openness.
C) feedback. D) self-disclosure.
Answer: D
123) Keys to good communication include all of the following, EXCEPT: 123)
A) openness. B) listening.
C) self-disclosure. D) feedback.
Answer: A
124) All of the following are important for effective listening, EXCEPT: 124)
A) clarify your understanding of what your partner has said.
B) provide unsolicited advice.
C) provide appropriate nonverbal feedback.
D) avoid interrupting.
Answer: B
16
125) All of the following are important for effective speaking, EXCEPT: 125)
A) focus on the whole person.
B) make constructive requests.
C) state your concern or issue as clearly as you can.
D) use "I" statements.
Answer: A
126) All of the following are important for women to have effective communication with 126)
men, EXCEPT:
A) try to speak in ways not to provoke defensiveness.
B) do not run away from the issue.
C) try not to be critical of your partner's responses.
D) try to be calm when approaching conflict.
Answer: B
127) All of the following are important for men to have effective communication with 127)
women, EXCEPT:
A) do not run away from the issue.
B) try not to be critical of your partner's responses.
C) calm yourself if necessary.
D) try not to think of her comments as personal attacks.
Answer: B
128) What percentage of cohabitating couples get married? 128)

A) 25% B) 40% C) 55% D) 15%
Answer: B
129) Marital status affects all of the following, EXCEPT 129)

A) inheritance B) medical decision making
C) employment D) tax status
Answer: C
130) The median age for marriage for men and women respectively in Canada is: 130)
A) 27 and 26 years. B) 31 and 29 years.
C) 29 and 28 years. D) 28 and 26 years.
Answer: B
131) What percentage of Canadians 15 years of age and older have never been married? 131)
A) 34% B) 53% C) 6% D) 24%
Answer: B
17
132) Predictors of a happy marriage include all of the following, EXCEPT: 132)
A) share extensive common interests and leisure activities.
B) communicate well.
C) effective ways of resolving conflicts.
D) partners have realistic expectations of each other.
Answer: A
133) Primary benefits of marriage include all of the following, EXCEPT: 133)
A) affection. B) sexual fulfillment.
C) personal confirmation. D) emotional growth.
Answer: C
134) What percentage of Canadians consider extramarital affairs to be immoral? 134)

A) 24% B) 44% C) 74% D) 84%
Answer: C
135) Children who are happy, content, and have regular eating and sleeping habits are: 135)
A) easy. B) difficult.
C) slow-to-warm-up. D) nice.
Answer: A
136) Children who are fussy, fearful in new situations or with strangers, and have irregular 136)
eating and sleeping habits are:
Answer: B
137) Children who are somewhat fussy and tend to react negatively or fearfully to new people 137)
or situations are:
Answer: C
138) Authoritative parents are ___________ on demandingness and ___________ on 138)

responsiveness.
A) high; high B) low; low C) high; low D) low; high
Answer: A
139) Authoritarian parents are ___________ on demandingness and ___________ on 139)

responsiveness.
Answer: C
18
140) Permissive parents are ____________ on demandingness and _____________ on 140)
responsiveness.
Answer: D
141) Jake and Sally have dated for several months. They have talked briefly about marriage 141)
and more extensively about living together. They have a strong sexual attraction to each
other and describe their relationship as passionate. Sally feels very lucky to have met
someone like Jake and wants to spend all of their free time together. She is even willing
to take up Jake's hobbies so that they can be together all of the time. Lately, Sally has developed an
intense jealousy over Jake spending time with his friends from work. Jake cares for Sally but
wants to maintain some degree of freedom.
Sally's focus on spending all of her time with Jake probably stems from
A) an anxious/avoidant attachment to her parents.
B) an anxious/ambivalent attachment to her parents.
C) a lack of trust in Jake's fidelity.
D) a need to control the relationship.
Answer: B
According to Sternberg, Jake and Sally's relationship is based on which type of love?
A) infatuation B) liking C) consummate D) companionate
Answer: A
Sally's jealousy is an indicator of

A) love. B) a need for intimacy.
C) possessiveness. D) commitment.
Answer: C
19
If Jake and Sally were to marry without changes in the basic elements of their relationship, it is
not likely that the marriage would be successful because
A) Sally does not love Jake.
B) Sally has unrealistic expectations about their relationship.
C) Jake's desire to be with friends indicates he is unable to make a true commitment to
Sally.
D) Jake does not love Sally.
Answer: B
145) Some researchers have suggested that our adult styles of loving may be based on 145)
the style of attachment we establish as children. Identify two anxiety-driven styles
of attachment, and describe the behaviour associated with this type of attachment.
146) As relationships grow, many couples face challenges. List and describe three of 146)
the common challenges you have experienced, and give strategies for coping with
each.
147) Lupe and Jason disagree about their Friday night plans. Their argument ends with 147)
Lupe yelling, "You never agree to do anything with my friends," and with Jason
responding, as he rushes off to a class, "You always overreact about everything."
Provide five practical suggestions that might help Lupe and Jason resolve their
conflict; you can include ideas about where, when, and how they communicate.
148) List two positive and two potentially negative things about (1) being single, (2) 148)
cohabiting with a partner, and (3) being married.
149) Argue for or against same sex-marriages using only fact (do not give opinions). 149)
20
150) Couples who successfully weather the stresses of a new baby seem to have three 150)
characteristics in common. Name and describe them.
151) Researchers have proposed six major qualities that appear in strong families. 151)
Identify and explain at least three of these qualities.
21
Exam
Name___________________________________
1) Gonads are 1)
A) penises and vaginas. B) ovaries and testes.
C) vaginal lesions. D) hormones.
Answer: B
2) What are considered the basic units of reproduction in both males and females? 2)
A) chromosomes B) germ cells C) sex hormones D) gonads
Answer: B
3) The external female sex organs are called 3)

A) gonads B) vulva C) vagina D) uterus
Answer: B
4) The __________ consists of spongy tissue that becomes engorged with blood during 4)
sexual excitement.
A) clitoris B) penis
C) vulva D) penis and clitoris
Answer: D
5) The prepuce is also called the 5)

A) clitoral hood. B) glans. C) uterus. D) labia majora.
Answer: A
6) The hymen is 6)
A) tissue that can be stretched or torn during athletic activities.
B) the area between the vaginal opening and the anus.
C) the clitoral hood.
D) the uterine opening.
Answer: A
7) The passage that leads to the internal female reproductive organs is the 7)
A) cervix. B) vagina.
C) fallopian tube. D) clitoris.
Answer: B
8) A direct analogy can be made between the clitoris and the 8)

A) testis. B) foreskin. C) glans penis. D) vas deferens.
Answer: C
1
9) The fallopian tubes link the 9)
A) cervix and uterus. B) ovaries and uterus.
C) uterus and bladder. D) uterus and urethra.
Answer: B
10) The fertilized egg is implanted in the ________ where it grows into a fetus. 10)
A) vagina B) cervix C) uterus D) ovary
Answer: C
11) The purpose of the scrotum is to 11)

A) protect against sexually transmitted diseases.
B) transport semen.
C) hold the ovaries.
D) maintain the temperature of the testes.
Answer: D
12) The normal difference between testicular temperature and body temperature is that the 12)
testes are _______________ than the rest of the body.
A) 5 degrees cooler B) 3 degrees cooler
C) 3 degrees warmer D) 5 degrees warmer
Answer: B
13) Sperm are manufactured in the 13)

A) testes' tubules. B) seminal vesicle.
C) vas deferens. D) epididymis.
Answer: A
14) The sperm-storing structure on the surface of the testicles is the 14)
A) seminal vesicle. B) Cowper's gland.
C) epididymis. D) glans.
Answer: C
15) Sperm is carried from the epididymis through the 15)

A) seminal vesicle. B) urethra.
C) vas deferens. D) corpus spongiosum.
Answer: C
16) The prostate gland 16)

A) secretes a preejaculatory fluid to neutralize the sperm passageway.
B) has no known function in male reproduction.
C) is the site of sperm production.
D) produces part of the seminal fluid.
Answer: D
2
17) The route sperm take is 17)
A) testes to epididymis to vas deferens to seminal vesicles to prostate gland to
ejaculatory ducts.
B) testes to seminal vesicles to vas deferens to prostate gland to epididymis to
ejaculatory ducts.
C) testes to vas deferens to epididymis to prostate gland to seminal vesicles to
ejaculatory ducts.
D) testes to epididymis to vas deferens to prostate gland to seminal vesicles to
ejaculatory ducts.
Answer: D
18) It is thought that the purpose of preejaculatory fluid is to 18)

A) allow for an orgasm without ejaculation.
B) improve ovarian function.
C) lubricate the urethra.
D) serve as an indicator that ejaculation is about to occur.
Answer: C
19) The glans is 19)

A) another word for the prepuce.
B) the spongy component of the penis.
C) the scrotum sac.
D) the rounded head of the clitoris or the penis.
Answer: D
20) What percentage of newborn males in Canada are circumcised? 20)

A) 0-10% B) 60-70% C) 10-20% D) 80-90%
Answer: A
21) Male circumcision involves removal of 21)

A) the glans. B) erectile tissue. C) the scrotum. D) the prepuce.
Answer: D
22) Although Canadian newborn males are circumcised at a rate of _______ percent, the 22)
worldwide rate is about _________ percent.
A) 40; 60 B) 50; 50 C) 20; 40 D) 10; 30
Answer: D
23) Groups that tend to circumcise their newborn males include 23)
A) Canadians. B) Europeans and Asians.
C) South and Central Americans. D) Jews and Muslims.
Answer: D
3
24) Circumcision is the surgical removal of the 24)
A) foreskin of the penis. B) penis.
C) scrotum. D) testes.
Answer: A
25) Those who support male circumcision argue that 25)

A) the foreskin is a natural and needed part of the body.
B) the procedure exposes the glans.
C) the risk of prostate cancer is greatly reduced by circumcision.
D) it reduces the risk of urinary tract infections in newborns.
Answer: D
26) Hormones are produced by all of the following, EXCEPT 26)

A) the adrenal glands. B) the ovaries.
C) the penis. D) the testes.
Answer: C
27) Male sex hormones include high levels of 27)

A) androgens. B) progestins. C) estrogens. D) endorphins.
Answer: A
28) Which of the following sexual identification and set of hormones go together? 28)
A) male-androgens, progestins B) female-testosterone, progestins
C) female-estrogens, progestins D) male-estrogens, progestins
Answer: C
29) The female sex hormones include high levels of 29)

A) estrogens and premarin. B) estrogens and progestins.
C) androgens. D) FSH and LH.
Answer: B
30) The hormones secreted by the _______ gland regulate the hormones secreted by the 30)
ovaries, testes, and adrenal glands.
A) Cowper's B) Bartholin's C) pituitary D) endocrine
Answer: C
31) Which of the following chromosomal configurations denotes female? 31)

A) XX B) YY C) YX D) XY
Answer: A
32) Which of the following chromosomal configurations denotes male? 32)

A) XY B) XX C) XYZ D) YY
Answer: A
4
33) Which male organ produces testosterone? 33)
A) Cowper's gland B) seminal vesicles
C) prostate gland D) testes
Answer: D
34) The period during which both the male and the female reproductive system matures is 34)
called
A) growing pains. B) menopause.
C) puberty. D) menstruation.
Answer: C
35) The first sign of female puberty is 35)

A) underarm hair. B) the onset of menstruation.
C) an increase in growth rate. D) breast development.
Answer: D
36) Which of the following is the first phase of the menstrual cycle? 36)
A) menses B) ovulation C) estrogenic D) progestational
Answer: A
37) The average age of menarche in Canada is around 37)

A) 12.7 years of age. B) 14.7 years of age.
C) 10.5 years of age. D) too variable to pinpoint.
Answer: A
38) A reason for earlier onset of menarche is probably due to 38)

A) a poor diet. B) estrogen-like chemical exposure.
C) poverty. D) being underweight.
Answer: B
39) The menstrual cycle consists of four phases is the following order: 39)
A) progestational phase, ovulation, estrogenic phase, menses.
B) estrogenic phase, menses, ovulation, progestational phase.
C) menses, ovulation, estrogenic phase, progestational phase.
D) menses, estrogenic phase, ovulation, progestational phase.
Answer: D
40) Which of the four phases of the menstrual cycle is characterized by menstrual flow? 40)
A) menses B) ovulation C) estrogenic D) progestational
Answer: A
41) The release of the ovum is a characteristic of 41)

A) the estrogenic phase. B) ovulation.
C) menses. D) the progestational phase.
Answer: B
5
42) Ovulation usually occurs 42)
A) in the estrogenic phase of the menstrual cycle.
B) at the beginning of the menstrual cycle.
C) at the end of the menstrual cycle.
D) 14 days prior to the onset of menses.
Answer: D
43) Which of the following is the most accurate definition of dysmenorrhea? 43)
A) lengthy menstruation B) infrequent menstruation
C) interrupted menstruation D) painful menstruation
Answer: D
44) Place the following conditions in order of severity of symptoms, going from least severe 44)
to most severe.
A) premenstrual dysphoric disorder, premenstrual tension, premenstrual syndrome
B) premenstrual tension, premenstrual syndrome, premenstrual dysphoric disorder
C) premenstrual syndrome, premenstrual tension, premenstrual dysphoric disorder
D) premenstrual syndrome, premenstrual dysphoric disorder, premenstrual tension
Answer: B
45) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding premenstrual dysphoric disorder 45)
(PMDD)?
A) It is experienced by more than half of all women.
B) It occurs primarily in emotionally unstable women.
C) It interferes with normal daily activities.
D) It occurs primarily after age 40.
Answer: C
46) All of the following strategies are recommended for relief of PMS, EXCEPT 46)
A) exercising.
B) limiting salt intake.
C) using relaxation techniques.
D) eating a diet low in complex carbohydrates and higher in fat.
Answer: D
47) All of the following are recommended for the self-treatment of premenstrual syndrome, 47)
EXCEPT
A) decreasing alcohol consumption. B) eating a balanced diet.
C) decreasing exercise. D) decreasing caffeine consumption.
Answer: C
48) Reproductive maturation of boys lags behind that of girls by about _________ year(s). 48)
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
Answer: B
6
49) The cessation of menstruation around age 50 is called 49)
A) midlife crisis. B) senescence. C) menopause. D) menarche.
Answer: C
50) Which of the following is NOT a consequence of the decrease in estrogen production at 50)
menopause?
A) thinning vaginal walls
B) decreasing lubricatory response to sexual arousal
C) decreasing bone density
D) declining interest in sex
Answer: D
51) Which one of the following statements about the aging male is TRUE? 51)
A) Less direct physical stimulation is need for sexual arousal.
B) Orgasmic contractions are more intense in the older male.
C) Testosterone production decreases as men age.
D) It takes less time for an older male to achieve an erection.
Answer: C
52) The most obvious and effective physical stimulation involves 52)
A) hearing. B) touching. C) seeing. D) smelling.
Answer: B
53) Areas of the body that are sensitive to touch are called 53)
A) estrogenic sites. B) stimulators.
C) erogenous zones. D) orgasmic plateaus.
Answer: C
54) The engorgement of tissues that results when more blood flows into an organ than is 54)
flowing out is called
A) myotonia. B) menarche.
C) vaginismus. D) vasocongestion.
Answer: D
55) The first stage of the sexual response cycle is the _______________ phase. 55)
A) orgasmic B) resolution C) excitement D) plateau
Answer: C
56) Which of the following is NOT a common occurrence during the first stage of sexual 56)
response?
A) The testes are pulled upward within the scrotum.
B) Vaginal walls become moist with lubricant fluid.
C) The penis becomes erect.
D) Rhythmic contractions occur in the vagina and penis.
Answer: D
7
57) The second stage of the sexual response cycle is the _______________ phase. 57)
A) resolution B) excitement C) plateau D) orgasmic
Answer: C
58) The plateau phase of the sexual response cycle is characterized by 58)
A) more marked reactions than were initiated in the excitement phase.
B) more marked reactions than were initiated in the resolution phase.
C) a gradual reduction in sexual tension.
D) being an extension of the resolution phase.
Answer: A
59) The third stage of the sexual response cycle is the _______________ phase. 59)
A) excitement B) resolution C) plateau D) orgasmic
Answer: D
60) Rhythmical contractions of the male and female reproductive structures occur during the 60)
A) resolution phase. B) orgasmic phase.
C) excitement phase. D) plateau phase.
Answer: B
61) The fourth stage of the sexual response cycle is the _______________ phase. 61)
A) resolution B) orgasmic C) plateau D) excitement
Answer: A
62) Male and female reactions during the sexual response cycle differ in which one of the 62)
following ways?
A) Females experience a more uniform progression through the phases.
B) Males enter a refractory period.
C) Males experience a fusion of the plateau and orgasmic phases.
D) Females cannot be immediately restimulated to orgasm.
Answer: B
63) Mixing nitrates with Viagra can cause 63)

A) increased alertness. B) hallucinations.
C) blood pressure to plummet. D) an adrenaline rush.
Answer: C
64) Which of the following is the MOST accurate definition of endometriosis? 64)
A) blockage of the vas deferens
B) blockage of the urethra
C) surgical sterilization
D) growth of uterine tissue outside the uterus
Answer: D
8
65) Endometriosis is associated with all of the following, EXCEPT 65)
A) infertility. B) sterility.
C) painful intercourse. D) pelvic inflammatory disease.
Answer: D
66) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of pelvic inflammatory disease? 66)
A) pain in the pelvis B) rash
C) painful intercourse D) pain in the abdomen
Answer: B
67) The term impotence is another name for 67)

A) premature ejaculation. B) retarded ejaculation.
C) erectile dysfunction. D) orgasmic dysfunction.
Answer: C
68) A male attempting to engage in intercourse after excessive alcohol consumption is likely 68)
to experience
A) erectile dysfunction. B) retrograde ejaculation.
C) premature ejaculation. D) an intense orgasm.
Answer: A
69) The first step in treating a sexual dysfunction is 69)

A) improving sexual skills.
B) treating troubled relationships.
C) treating any irrational attitudes.
D) identifying underlying medical conditions.
Answer: D
70) ______________ is everything you do in your daily life that expresses your maleness or 70)
femaleness to others.
A) Gender role B) Gender identity
C) Sex D) Gender
Answer: A
71) A person's personal, inner sense of being male or female is 71)

A) gender identity. B) gender role.
C) gender. D) sex.
Answer: A
72) The most extreme form of sexual coercion is 72)

A) solicitation. B) rape. C) harassment. D) seduction.
Answer: B
9
73) Sexual privacy includes all of the following, EXCEPT 73)
A) respect. B) communication.
C) dark rooms. D) trust.
Answer: C
74) Drinking alcohol prior to sexual activity 74)

A) has no effect on orgasm abilities.
B) increases the intensity of an orgasm.
C) speeds up the orgasm.
D) makes orgasm more difficult to achieve for both genders.
Answer: D
75) According to the World Health Organization, how many women worldwide have 75)
unintended or unwanted pregnancies every year?
A) 1 million B) 10 million C) 80 million D) 50 million
Answer: C
76) A contraceptive that physically blocks the sperm from reaching the egg is 76)
A) rarely effective. B) a barrier method.
C) irreversible. D) a hormonal method.
Answer: B
77) A contraceptive that permanently prevents transport of the sperm or egg to the site of 77)
conception is a
A) surgical method. B) natural method.
C) barrier method. D) hormonal method.
Answer: A
78) Oral contraceptives primarily prevent conception by 78)

A) reducing the number of sperm that penetrate the cervix.
B) preventing ovulation by mimicking the hormonal activity of the corpus luteum.
C) blocking sperm from reaching the ovum.
D) changing the acidity of the vaginal canal.
Answer: B
79) In addition to preventing ovulation, the birth control pill prevents conception in all of the 79)
following ways, EXCEPT
A) inhibiting the implantation of the fertilized ovum by changing the lining of the
uterus.
B) thickening the cervical mucus.
C) altering the rate of ovum transport.
D) constricting the cervical opening.
Answer: D
10
80) The most common type of oral contraceptive is the 80)
A) minipill. B) sequential pill.
C) postcoital pill. D) combination pill.
Answer: D
81) In addition to hormone pills, most contraceptive packets also include 81)
A) postcoital pills. B) one week of inactive pills.
C) alternative contraceptive methods. D) instructions for the Billings method.
Answer: B
82) All of the following are TRUE about the minipill, EXCEPT 82)
A) it has more side effects and associated health risks than other hormonal
contraceptives.
B) it contains no estrogen.
C) it must be taken every day of the month.
D) it contains a small dose of a synthetic progesterone.
Answer: A
83) The benefit of smaller doses of estrogen in oral contraceptives is 83)

A) higher effectiveness.
B) fewer health risks.
C) higher sperm "kill" rate.
D) lower likelihood of contracting STDs.
Answer: B
84) Which of the following statements is TRUE of oral contraceptives? 84)

A) The most common type of oral contraceptive contains both estrogen and
progesterone.
B) Full protection is provided by oral contraceptives after three days of use.
C) A significant risk of pregnancy exists even if oral contraceptives are taken as
directed.
D) They are effective only because they prevent ovulation.
Answer: A
85) The main advantage of oral contraceptives is the 85)

A) low cost.
B) regularity of periods.
C) high continuation rate.
D) high degree of effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
Answer: D
11
86) The medical advantages of oral contraceptives include all of the following, EXCEPT 86)
decreased risk of
A) benign breast disease. B) pelvic inflammatory disease.
C) sexually transmitted diseases. D) ovarian, colon, and rectal cancers.
Answer: C
87) Which of the following is probably the most serious disadvantage of oral contraceptives 87)
for most women?
A) They are likely to cause acne.
B) They cause symptoms of early pregnancy.
C) They provide no protection against STDs.
D) They cause vaginal bleeding (spotting) between periods.
Answer: C
88) Oral contraception is NOT recommended for women with 88)

A) a history of blood clots. B) an intense exercise regimen.
C) a history of asthma. D) a low resting heart rate.
Answer: A
89) Which of the following actions will reduce the risk associated with the use of oral 89)
contraceptives?
A) checking weight daily B) using a high-dosage pill
C) stopping smoking D) having annual mammograms
Answer: C
90) The typical first-year failure rate for oral contraceptives is _________ percent. 90)
A) 9 B) 5 C) 12 D) 2
Answer: A
91) At what time during a woman's cycle should she insert the vaginal contraceptive ring? 91)
A) after she has ovulated
B) right prior to her entering menses
C) any time after her menstrual cycle
D) anytime during the first 5 days of her menstrual cycle
Answer: D
92) After insertion, the NuvaRing (vaginal contraceptive ring) is left in the vagina for 92)
______ before removal.
A) 1 day B) 1 week C) 3 weeks D) 6 hours
Answer: C
93) The NuvaRing offers pregnancy protection for how long? 93)
A) 1 month B) 1 week C) 6 months D) 1 year
Answer: A
12
94) The perfect-use failure rate of the NuvaRing is _____ percent. 94)
A) 1.0 B) 0.3 C) 0.6 D) 0.9
Answer: B
95) The typical-use failure rate for the NuvaRing is ______ percent. 95)
A) 9.5 B) 7.5 C) 8.7 D) 6.0
Answer: C
96) Depo-Provera is 96)

A) a form of long-acting estrogen. B) a barrier contraceptive.
C) administered by injection. D) administered by mouth.
Answer: C
97) A disadvantage of Depo-Provera is 97)

A) it may cause permanent infertility.
B) after use is discontinued, infertility may result for up to 12 months.
C) it has a relatively high failure rate.
D) it causes the same complications as other estrogen-based contraceptives.
Answer: B
98) Which of the following is a progestin-only contraceptive, providing no estrogen? 98)

A) Ortho Evra contraceptive patch B) Depo-Provera injections
C) vaginal contraceptive ring D) Lunelle injections
Answer: B
99) Which of the following can be used for emergency contraception? 99)
A) Depo-Provera B) Plan B C) Norplant D) Ortho Evra
Answer: B
100) An emergency hormonal contraceptive reduces the risk of pregnancy by almost 100)
___________ percent if taken within 24 hours of unprotected intercourse.
A) 95 B) 55 C) 35 D) 80
Answer: A
101) In order for emergency contraception to be effective, the first dose must be taken within 101)
____________ hours of unprotected intercourse.
A) 48 B) 96 C) 12 D) 72
Answer: C
102) After a women has taken her first Plan B pill, when should she administer the second 102)
pill?
A) in 12 hours B) in 24 hours
C) in 72 hours D) immediately after the first pill
Answer: A
13
103) How exactly does the IUD prevent pregnancy? 103)
A) It causes a spontaneous abortion.
B) It creates a sperm barrier.
C) It stops ovulation.
D) It is not known for certain how IUDs prevent pregnancy.
Answer: D
104) The nylon threads that are attached to the IUD and protrude through the cervix serve to 104)
A) act as a barrier to sperm.
B) provide penile stimulation during intercourse.
C) allow for placement check.
D) allow the woman to remove the IUD when contraception is no longer desired.
Answer: C
105) All of the following are advantages of the IUD, EXCEPT 105)
A) it is easily reversible.
B) for only localized side effects.
C) its use does not require consulting a health care provider.
D) for its high reliability.
Answer: C
106) Which of the following statements about IUDs is FALSE? 106)

A) Menstrual flow in IUD users is initially lighter.
B) There is higher expulsion rate.
C) Bleeding and spotting may occur between periods.
D) IUDs may cause uterine cramps.
Answer: A
107) Which of the following statements regarding IUDs and pelvic inflammatory disease 107)
(PID) is TRUE?
A) PID rates are high for the first 6 months of use.
B) PID rates are independent of risk factors.
C) Most cases of PID among IUD users can be treated with antibiotics.
D) PID is typically limited to women who have a history of spontaneous abortions.
Answer: C
108) IUDs are contraindicated for all of the following, EXCEPT women with 108)
A) rheumatic heart disease. B) past pregnancies.
C) a history of pelvic infection. D) irregular or unexplained bleeding.
Answer: B
109) The most popular barrier method of contraception is the 109)

A) female condom. B) cervical cap.
C) diaphragm. D) male condom.
Answer: D
14
110) The perfect use failure rate for male condoms during the first year of usage is about ____ 110)
percent.
A) 2 B) 12 C) 10 D) 5
Answer: A
111) The breakage rate for latex male condoms is about ____________ time(s) for every 100 111)
instances of use.
A) 10 B) 1 to 2 C) 25 D) 50
Answer: B
112) If a condom breaks, an appropriate strategy for reducing the risk of pregnancy is to 112)
A) use emergency contraception. B) douche.
C) insert a vaginal contraceptive ring. D) switch to an oil-based lubricant.
Answer: A
113) All of the following are advantages of condoms, EXCEPT 113)

A) being available without prescription.
B) being as effective as oral contraceptives.
C) helping prevent the transmission of HIV infection.
D) being relatively inexpensive.
Answer: B
114) Which of the following is a disadvantage of condom use? 114)

A) little protection against sexually transmitted diseases
B) difficulty in obtaining
C) diminished sensation
D) unreliability
Answer: C
115) The female condom 115)

A) does not require lubrication or spermicide.
B) is inserted completely into the vagina with none of it visible on the outside.
C) can be inserted up to 8 hours before intercourse.
D) can be washed and reused.
Answer: C
116) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the female condom? 116)
A) The female condom can be inserted before sexual activity and is, therefore, less
disruptive than male condoms.
B) The female condom offers protection against genital warts and herpes.
C) The female condom is less expensive than the male condom.
D) The female condom gives a woman more personal control over contraception and
STD protection.
Answer: C
15
117) The typical first-year failure rate of the female condom is _______ percent. 117)
A) 15 B) 38 C) 27 D) 32
Answer: C
118) The function of the diaphragm is to 118)

A) cover the cervix.
B) provide a sheath-like lining for the vagina.
C) cover the entrance to the fallopian tubes.
D) impair the swimming action of the sperm.
Answer: A
119) The diaphragm can be inserted up to how long before intercourse? 119)
A) 2 hours B) a few minutes C) 6 hours D) 1 hour
Answer: C
120) After intercourse, the diaphragm should be left in for at least 120)
A) 6 hours. B) 1 hour. C) 8 hours. D) overnight.
Answer: A
121) A disadvantage of the diaphragm is that 121)

A) you must remove it immediately after intercourse.
B) it requires the use of a spermicide.
C) you must wait to insert it minutes before intercourse.
D) a high percentage of women are allergic to it.
Answer: B
122) Which of the following is a reason that diaphragms have a relatively high failure rate? 122)
A) discomfort prohibits use B) incorrect insertion and positioning
C) sexual activity of user D) age of user
Answer: B
123) While in storage, diaphragms should be coated with 123)

A) spermicide. B) nothing.
C) Vaseline. D) talcum powder.
Answer: B
124) With perfect use of a diaphragm, the failure rate is about ______ percent. 124)
A) 9 B) 6 C) 1 D) 3
Answer: B
125) Which of the following is a one-size-fits-all, diaphragm-like, contraceptive device? 125)

A) Lea's Shield B) Seasonale
C) Dalcon Shield D) Today Sponge
Answer: A
16
126) A thimble-shaped cup that fits over the cervix and serves as a barrier to sperm is the 126)
A) diaphragm. B) FemCap.
C) sponge. D) Billings shield.
Answer: B
127) The FemCap may be left in place after intercourse for as long as 127)
A) 1 week. B) 6 hours. C) 24 hours. D) 48 hours.
Answer: D
128) An advantage of the FemCap over the diaphragm is that it 128)

A) may be left in place for up to 1 week.
B) does not require being fitted by a health care provider.
C) provides more protection against HIV infection.
D) may be left in place for up to 48 hours.
Answer: D
129) Vaginal spermicides must be inserted no more than how long before intercourse? 129)
A) 45 minutes B) 60 minutes C) 30 minutes D) 90 minutes
Answer: B
130) Douching is not recommended for women because it 130)

A) can lead to infertility. B) is too messy.
C) can irritate vaginal tissue. D) is too expensive.
Answer: C
131) Surgical severing of the ducts that carry the sperm to the seminal vesicles is called 131)
A) circumcision. B) tubal ligation.
C) tubal severing. D) vasectomy.
Answer: D
132) __________ is a spontaneous expulsion of an embryo or a fetus from the uterus 132)
occurring naturally with no causal intervention.
A) Evacuation B) Miscarriage C) Aspiration D) Abortion
Answer: B
133) As it is commonly used, the word abortion means 133)

A) the same thing as miscarriage.
B) any intervention in a pregnancy.
C) spontaneous expulsion of the fetus.
D) artificially induced expulsion of the fetus.
Answer: D
17
134) An agent or substance that produces abortions is a(n) 134)
A) teratogen. B) postcoital pill.
C) IUD. D) abortifacient.
Answer: D
135) Another name for suction curettage is 135)

A) dilation and curretage. B) saline instillation.
C) medical abortion. D) dilation and evacuation.
Answer: A
136) Suction curettage is the most common method of abortion in 136)

A) the first trimester. B) the second trimester.
C) the third trimester. D) all trimesters.
Answer: A
137) A newer abortion option available in some locations to women in the earliest stages of 137)
pregnancy is
A) dilation and evacuation. B) miscarriage.
C) manual vacuum aspiration. D) suction curettage.
Answer: C
138) Kate and Michael are 19-year-old university students who are beginning a sexual 138)
relationship. Both have had previous partners and have not been tested for STDs. Which
of the following contraceptive methods would be best for Kate and Michael to use?
A) latex male condom B) IUD
C) diaphragm D) Depo-Provera
Answer: A
139) After the birth of their second child, married couple Abbey and Joe can't decide if they 139)
want to have more children. If they do, they want to wait at least five years. Abbey wants
to choose a method of birth control that is convenient, is economical, and requires little
effort to use. Based on the factors that are important to Abbey and Joe, the best choice
for them is
A) the male condom. B) an IUD.
C) reversible sterilization. D) the diaphragm.
Answer: B
18
140) Bill and Janet are in their late twenties and have been married for two years. Their sexual 140)
intimacy includes various sexual behaviours. Bill has noticed that while he has no
difficulty getting an erection, he does have difficulty ejaculating when he and Janet are
having intercourse. Janet rarely feels sexually satisfied after intercourse and often relies
on self-stimulation to achieve an orgasm. Janet doesn't see her lack of orgasm with Bill as a
problem; however, Bill does. Bill is beginning to make excuses for not having sex.
Janet's sexual response is most likely due to

A) vaginismus.
B) psychological guilt because she and Bill engage in a variety of sexual behaviours.
C) orgasmic dysfunction.
D) a need for direct clitoral stimulation.
Answer: D
Bill's concern over Janet's lack of orgasm has led to

A) impotence B) lack of desire.
C) erectile dysfunction. D) orgasmic dysfunction.
Answer: B
Bill's sexual response can probably be attributed to

A) a variation of the normal sexual response cycle.
B) inadequate penile stimulation.
C) a physical problem that can be corrected with medication.
D) anxiety about performance.
Answer: D
19
What is the best initial approach to resolving the conflict within Bill and Janet's sexual
relationship?
A) Bill should seek counseling for his sexual dysfunction.
B) Janet and Bill should establish open communication about what is and what is not
important in their sexual relationship.
C) Janet should fake orgasm to make Bill more comfortable and boost his confidence.
D) Janet and Bill should both seek help from a sex counselor.
Answer: B
144) Melissa is 32 years old and single. She is career oriented and is happy in a long-term, 144)
monogamous relationship. Melissa and her partner have agreed that having children is
not part of their future. Despite using a reliable form of contraception, Melissa finds out
that she is 7-8 weeks pregnant. Melissa and her partner discuss the situation, and the
decision is made to abort the pregnancy.
Melissa will most likely have which one of the following methods of abortion?
A) suction curettage B) labor induction
C) RU-486 and prostaglandins D) dilation and evacuation
Answer: A
Following the procedure, Melissa will be given home care instructions. Which one of the
following is appropriate for Melissa?
A) Expect a fever of 38 degrees C for the first two or three days.
B) Return for a follow-up examination after four weeks if normal menstruation has not
resumed.
C) Douche twice each day for one week to reduce risk of infection.
D) Report any abdominal cramping and/or backache to her physician.
Answer: D
20
If Melissa is typical of most women who have recently experienced an abortion, she will
A) probably never recover emotionally from the experience.
B) experience a mixture of feelings following the abortion procedure.
C) be depressed for approximately six months.
D) feel total relief because she is no longer pregnant.
Answer: B
147) You/your partner have just given birth to a baby boy. Do you circumcise your 147)
son? Why or why not? Give at least three detailed reasons for your answer.
148) Describe and explain the differences among premenstrual tension, premenstrual 148)
syndrome, and premenstrual dysphoric disorder. List at least five coping
strategies.
149) Name and describe the four phases of the human sexual response cycle. 149)
150) Identify and describe a common male sexual health problem or dysfunction and a 150)
common female sexual health problem or dysfunction. For each, describe
possible causes and treatments.
151) There are many theories about the development of sexual orientation. What do 151)
you think? Is sexual orientation a result of biology, culture, and/or any
psychological factor? Support your answer using information presented in the
text.
152) Define typical-use effectiveness, perfect-use effectiveness, and continuation rate. 152)
Choose two contraceptive methods, and describe what factors lead to the
differences between typical-use effectiveness and perfect-use effectiveness.
21
153) Oral contraceptives are the most popular reversible contraceptive among North 153)
American women. Identify five advantages and five disadvantages associated
with use of oral contraceptives.
154) Yvonne's choice of contraceptive has been a combination oral contraceptive for 154)
the past 5 years. Yvonne recently got a new job that has very irregular hours, and
she now has difficulty taking her pills on a regular schedule. What other methods
of birth control could Yvonne use that would offer similar results and better fit
her new schedule? What would you recommend that she try?
155) Describe how to best use a male latex condom, from choosing one in a store to 155)
disposing of it after use.
156) For each of the following situations, suggest an appropriate contraceptive method, and
156)
explain the reasons for your recommendation. There may be more than one appropriate
response for each situation.
a. Key factors are preference for sexual spontaneity, high effectiveness, and frequent
intercourse.
b. Key factors are infrequent sexual intercourse, preference for involvement of both
partners, and preference for few or no side effects.
c. Key factors are variable daily routine, preference for sexual spontaneity, and high
effectiveness.
d. Key factors are preference for few or no side effects, multiple sexual partners, and
immediate need for a contraceptive.
e. Key factors are that the female partner is a nursing mother, preference for
involvement of both partners, and infrequent sexual intercourse.
157) A woman who has chosen to terminate her pregnancy is trying to decide between 157)
surgical and medical abortion. Explain the key differences between these
methods that might help a person decide between them.
158) Identify some of the physical complications that may occur following an 158)
abortion, and also be able to explain how these complications can be minimized.
159) With any type of big decision, there may be psychological ramifications. Outline 159)
how you can be a supportive partner and friend.
22

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Exam

1) The wellness concept defines health as the absence of disease. 1)

3) Self-control is one characteristic of a person who possesses good emotional health. 3)

4) A person who is devoutly religious is assured of good spiritual health. 4)

7) Occupational wellness is enhanced with high salaries and prestigious titles. 7)

10) Length of life is synonymous with quality of life. 10)

39) Spiritual wellness is best described as having 39)

41) The six dimensions of wellness 41)

44) The average life span in the twentieth century 44)

46) The best response to behaviour-related diseases is 46)

57) People with disabilities are more likely to 57)

62) The most harmful consequence of environmental abuse is 62)

63) The "greenhouse" effect is 63)

64) The first step in improving wellness by lifestyle management is to 64)

65) Integral to a successful plan to change an unhealthy behaviour is to 65)

66) The behaviour one identifies for change is called 66)

74) The technique of visualization is one of the best ways to 74)

76) The precontemplation stage is characterized by 76)

78) The order in which a behaviour change strategy is implemented is 78)

82) The best plan for behaviour change 82)

84) Chances of success in behaviour management DECREASE if 84)

86) Rewards included in health action plans should 86)

91) Obstacles in the process of behaviour change 91)

98) Which of the following is NOT a modifiable risk factor? 98)

103) Altruism, compassion, and fulfillment are components of 103)

135) The 'S' in SMART goals stands for 135)

136) The 'M' in SMART goals stands for 136)

137) The 'A' in SMART goals stands for 137)

138) The 'R' in SMART goals stands for 138)

139) The 'T' in SMART goals stands for 139)

1) Being normal is an accurate definition of psychological health. 1)

3) The most contemporary definition of psychological health is the absence of 3)

4) A simple, but accurate, definition of normality is "what most people do." 4)

6) Abraham Maslow arrived at his definition of self-actualized people by studying people of 6)

7) One of the characteristics of the self-actualized person is that she or he is self-accepting. 7)

8) Other-directed individuals are more likely to be influenced by external forces. 8)

12) Without becoming self-actualized, we fail to become mentally healthy. 12)

15) A primary developmental task of adolescence is the development of identity. 15)

17) Identity is a way of viewing oneself and the world. 17)

20) A thinking pattern common to demoralized individuals is an all-or-nothing view of 20)

28) Loneliness is an active feeling state. 28)

29) The ability to express anger is healthy. 29)

32) Shyness is often the basis for social phobias. 32)

33) About 12% of Canadians currently have an anxiety disorder. 33)

34) Fear of public speaking is categorized as a simple phobia. 34)

36) Agoraphobia may be caused by multiple panic attacks. 36)

44) Suicide is the ultimate form of mental illness. 44)

45) Medication is the main factor in treating schizophrenia. 45)

46) Bipolar disorder affects women and men equally. 46)

57) Being self-actualized is characterized by 57)

58) Maslow would NOT have described a self-actualized person as 58)

60) People with acceptance usually 60)

61) Being inner-directed is most closely associated with 61)

63) Other-directed decision making refers to 63)

66) An openness to new experiences is most closely associated with 66)

68) Being psychological normal is the same as 68)

70) The development of trust begins 70)