Code-A: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

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31/03/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Topics covered :
Physics : Bkslksa rFkk rjyksa ds ;kaf=d çxq.k] æO; ds m"eh; çxq.k] m"ekxfrdh] v.kqxfr fl)kUr
Chemistry : fjMkZDl vfHkfØ;k,a] gkbMªkstu] s-CykWd ds rRo ({kkj rFkk {kkjh; e`nk /kkrq,a), p-CykWd ds rRo
(oxZ -13 & 14)

Botany : [kfut iks"k.k ikniksa esa çdk'kla'ys"k.k


Zoology : “kjhj nzo rFkk ifjlapj.k] mRlthZ mRikn rFkk budk fu’dklu] xeu rFkk lapyu
funsZ'k :
(i) mi;qDr xksys dks Hkjus ds fy, dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy isu dk ç;ksx djsAa
(ii) fpUg xgjs gksus pkfg, rFkk xksys dks iw.kZr% Hkjk tkuk pkfg,A
(iii) çR;sd çfof"V ds fy, dsoy ,d xksyk HkjsaA
(iv) xksys dks dsoy fn, x, LFkku esa gh HkjsaA
(v) mÙkj iqfLrdk ij jQ dk;Z fcYdqy ugha djuk pkfg, rFkk mÙkj iqfLrdk ij 'osr&nzo ;k vU; fdlh feVkus okys
inkFkZ dk ç;ksx u djsaA
(vi) çR;sd ç'u ds 4 vad gSaA çR;sd xyr mÙkj ds fy, dqy çkIrkadksa esa ls ,d vad ?kVk fn;k tk,xkA

Choose the correct answer : lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft, :


1. The uniform additional pressure applied on a 1. ,d xksys ij vkjksfir le:i vfrfjDr nkc P gSA
sphere is P. How much its temperature should be
blds ewy vk;ru dks cuk, j[kus ds fy, blds rki
raised to maintain its original volume? (The bulk
modulus of elasticity of the sphere is  and the
dks fdruk c<+kuk gksxk? (xksys dk vk;ru çR;kLFkrk
xq.kkad  gS rFkk vk;ru çlkj xq.kkad  gS)
coefficient of volume expansion is  )
P P
(1)
P
(2)
P (1) (2)
 3  3

P P
(3)
P
(4)
P (3) (4)
   

2. According to Hooke’s law of elasticity, if stress is 2. gqd ds çR;kLFkrk fu;e ds vuqlkj] ;fn çfrcy
decreased, the ratio of stress to strain (in elastic ?kVrk gS] çfrcy rFkk fod`fÙk dk vuqikr (çR;kLFk
limit) lhek es)a
(1) Decrease (2) Increase (1) ?kVrk gS (2) c<+rk gS
(3) Remains same (4) Becomes zero
(3) leku jgrk gS (4) 'kwU; gksrk gS

(1)
Test-4 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

3. A metallic rod of length l and area of cross section 3. yEckbZ l rFkk vuqçLFk dkV {ks=Qy A dh ,d
A is made of material Young’s modulus Y. If rod is /kkfRod NM+ ;ax çR;kLFk xq.kkad Y ds inkFkZ ls
elongated by an amount x and work done is y, fufeZr gSA ;fn NM+ dks ek=k x ls çlkfjr fd;k x;k
then which one of the following graph is correct? gS rFkk fd;k x;k dk;Z y gS] rc fuEufyf[kr esa ls
dkSulk vkjs[k lgh gS?

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)

4. For which of the following types of material stress-


strain curve is not a straight line within elastic limit 4. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl inkFkZ ds fy, çfrcy-fod`fÙk
and strain produced is much large for small stress oØ çR;kLFk lhek ds vUnj ,d ljy js[kk ugha gS
applied? rFkk mRiUu fod`fr vkjksfir vYi çfrcy ds fy,
(1) Brittle material (2) Ductile material vR;f/kd gS?
(1) Hkaxqj inkFkZ (2) rU; inkFkZ
(3) Elastomers (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) çR;kLFkyd (4) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa
5. Two wires A and B of diameter of cross section
0.5 cm each are loaded as shown in figure. The 5. nks rkjksa A rFkk B esa ls çR;sd ds vuqçLFk dkV dk
unloaded length of wire A is 3 m and that of wire B O;kl 0.5 cm gSA ;s fp= easa n'kkZ, vuqlkj Hkkfjr gSA
is 2 m. If Young’s Modulus of both wire is same, rkj A dh vHkkfjr yEckbZ 3 m gS rFkk rkj B dh
then the ratio of elongation of wire A to the wire B vHkkfjr yEckbZ 2 m gSA ;fn nksuksa rkjksa dh ;ax
will be çR;kLFkrk xq.kkad leku gSA rc rkj A ds çlkj rFkk
rkj B ds çlkj dk vuqikr gksxk

(1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 2
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 2
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 3 : 1
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 3 : 1
6. A metal wire 8 m long is suspended vertically.
6. 8 m yEch ,d /kkrq rkj dks mèokZ/kj :i ls yVdk;k
How much does it stretch under its own weight?
(Density of material is 1600 kg/m3,
x;k gSA vius Lo;a ds Hkkj ds çHkko esa ;g fdruk
8
Y = 4 × 10 N/m2, g = 10 m/s2) (within elastic limit)
[khaprh gS? (inkFkZ dk ?kuRo
8
1600 kg/m gS] Y = 4 × 10 N/m , g = 10 m/s2)
3 2
(1) 6.4 mm (2) 1.28 mm
(çR;kLFk lhek esa)
(3) 40 mm (4) 80 mm (1) 6.4 mm (2) 1.28 mm
7. The approximate depth of an ocean is 2000 m. (3) 40 mm (4) 80 mm
The compressibility of water is 40 × 10–11 Pa–1 and 7. ,d egklkxj dh vuqekfur xgjkbZ 2000 m gSA ty
average density of water is 103 kg/m3. The dh lEihM~;rk 40 × 10–11 Pa–1 gS rFkk ty dk
fractional compression of water at the bottom of
vkSlr ?kuRo 103 kg/m3 gS] egklkxj ds isans ij ty
the ocean will be (g = 10 m/s2)
dk fHkUukRed laihM+u gksxk (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 2 × 10–3 (2) 1 × 10–3
(1) 2 × 10–3 (2) 1 × 10–3
(3) 8 × 10–3 (4) 4 × 10–3 (3) 8 × 10 –3 (4) 4 × 10–3

(2)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-4 (Code-A)

8. A wire of length l is hanging from a fixed support. 8. l yEckbZ dk ,d rkj ,d n`<+ vk/kkj ls yVdk gqvk
The length changes to l1 and l2 when masses m gSA tc æO;eku m rFkk 2m blds eqDr fljs ls
and 2m are suspended separately from its free
i`Fkd :i ls yVds gq, gS] rc yEckbZ l1 o l2 rd
end. Then l is equal to
ifjofrZr gksrh gS rc l dk eku gS
(1) 2l1– l2 (2) l1– l2
(1) 2l1– l2 (2) l1– l2
(3) l1– 2l2 (4) 3l1– 2l2
(3) l1– 2l2 (4) 3l1– 2l2
9. If the interatomic spacing in steel wire is 4.0 Å and
9. ;fn LVhy ds rkj esa vUrjkijek.kqd vUrjky
Young’s modulus of steel Ysteel = 20 × 1010 N/m2
4.0 Å gS rFkk LVhy dk ;ax çR;kLFkrk xq.kkad
then force constant is
YLVhy = 20 × 1010 N/m2 gS] rc cy fu;rkad gS
–3 –9
(1) 6 × 10 N/Å (2) 2 × 10 N/Å –3 –9
(1) 6 × 10 N/Å (2) 2 × 10 N/Å
–9 –3
(3) 8 × 10 N/Å (4) 4 × 10 N/Å –9 –3
(3) 8 × 10 N/Å (4) 4 × 10 N/Å
10. A steel wire can support a maximum load of W
before reaching its elastic limit. How much load
10. ,d LVhy rkj viuh çR;kLFk lhek rd igq¡pus ls
can another wire, made out of identical steel, but igys W dk vf/kdre Hkkj lgu dj ldrh gSA
with double the radius of cross section as that of leku LVhy ls fufeZr ysfdu çFke rkj ds vuqizLFk
the first wire, support before reaching its elastic dkV dh f=T;k ls nksxquh f=kT;k dh vU; rkj viuh
limit izR;kLFk lhek rd igq¡pus ls igys fdruk Hkkj lgu
(1) 2 W (2) W dj ldrh gS\
(3) 8 W (4) 4 W (1) 2 W (2) W
11. The area of cross-section of the wider limb shown (3) 8 W (4) 4 W
in figure is 500 cm2. If a mass of 10 kg is placed 11. fp= esa n'kkZ, pkSM+h Hkqtk dk vuqizLFk dkV {ks=Qy
on the piston, on the wider tube the difference in
500 cm2 gSSA ;fn 10 kg ds nzO;eku dks fiLVu ij
height h in level of water in two tubes is ( water =
j[kk tkrk gsS] rc pkSM+h ufydk esa nksuksa ufydkvkas esa
1000 kg/m3)
ty ds Lrj esa mpk¡bZ h esa vUrj gS
( ty = 1000 kg/m3)

(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm (4) 15 cm (1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm
12. Consider the following statements (3) 30 cm (4) 15 cm
(a) With increase in temperature, viscosity of gas 12. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft,A
increases
(a) rki esa o`f+) ds lkFk] xSl dh ';kurk c<+rh gS
(b) With decrease in temperature, viscosity of
(b) rki esa deh ds lkFk] æoksa dh ';kurk c<+rh gS
liquids increases
Correct statements are lgh dFku gS@gSa
(1) Only (a) (1) dsoy (a)

(2) Only (b) (2) dsoy (b)

(3) Both (a) and (b) (3) (a) rFkk (b) nksuksa

(4) Neither (a) nor (b) (4) u rks (a) u gh (b)

(3)
Test-4 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

13. The terminal velocity of copper ball of radius 13. 20°C ij rsy dh ,d Vadh ls fxjrh f=T;k 2 mm ds
2 mm falling through a tank of oil at 20°C is dkWij xsan dk VfeZuy osx 6.5 cm/s gSA ;fn 20°C
6.5 cm/s. If viscosity of the oil at 20°C is ij rsy dh ';kurk 9.9 × 10–1 kg m–1 s–1 rFkk dkWij
9.9 × 10–1 kg m–1 s–1 and density of copper is
8.9 × 103 kg m–3. Then density of the oil will be
dk ?kuRo 8.9 × 103 kg m–3 gSA rc rsy dk ?kuRo
gksxk
(1) 1.2 × 103 kg/m3 (2) 8.0 × 102 kg/m3
(1) 1.2 × 103 kg/m3 (2) 8.0 × 102 kg/m3
(3) 1.66 × 103 kg/m3 (4) 1.8 × 103 kg/m3
(3) 1.66 × 103 kg/m3 (4) 1.8 × 103 kg/m3
14. Figure shown below (a) and (b) indicates venturi
meter tube connected to the steady flow of a (non-
14. uhps n'kkZ, fp= (a) rFkk (b) ,d æo (v';ku) ds
viscous) liquid. Which of the two figures is correct LFkk;h çokg ls la;ksftr osaP;qjhekih uyh dks çnf'kZr
regarding the static water levels in the tubes? djrs gSaA nks fp=ksa esa ls dkSulk ufydk esa fLFfrd
ty Lrjksa ds lanHkZ esa lgh gS?

(1) Only (a) (2) Only (b)


(3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
(1) dsoy (a) (2) dsoy (b)

15. The pressure at the bottom of a tank of water is (3) (a) o (b) nksuksa (4) u rks (a) u gh (b)
4P where P is the atmospheric pressure. If the 15. ty dh Vadh ds isans ij nkc 4P gS tgk¡ P
water is drawn out such that the level of water is ok;qe.Myh; nkc gSA ;fn ty bl çdkj ckgj vkrk
lowered by one third, the pressure at the bottom of
the tank will now be
gS fd ty dk Lrj ,d-frgkbZ ls de gks tkrk gS]
vc Vadh ds isans ij nkc gksxk
2P
(1) (2) 3P 2P
3 (1) (2) 3P
3
5P
(3) 4P (4) 5P
3 (3) 4P (4)
3
16. The surface tension and vapour pressure of a fluid
at 20°C is 8 × 10–2 N/m and 4 × 103 Pa, 16. 20°C ij ,d rjy dk i`"Bh; ruko rFkk ok"i nkc
respectively. What is the radius of the smallest Øe'k% 8 × 10–2 N/m rFkk 4 × 103 Pa gS] lcls NksVh
spherical fluid droplet which can form without xksyh; rjy cwna dh f=T;k D;k gS tks 20°C ij fcuk
evaporating at 20°C? ok"ihdj.k ds fufeZr gksrh gS?
(1) 40  m (2) 4  m (1) 40  m (2) 4  m

(3) 6.81 10−3 m (4) 9  10−2 m (3) 6.81 10−3 m (4) 9  10−2 m

(4)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-4 (Code-A)

17. The minimum force required to separate two glass 17. {ks=Qy 1000 cm2 dh nks dk¡p dh IysVksa ds eè; 0.1
plate of area 1000 cm2 with film of water mm eksVh ty dh ijr gS] bUgsa i`FkDd`r djus ds
0.1 mm thick between them, is (surface tension of
water is 70 × 10–3 N/m and angle of contact is 0°)
fy, vko';d U;wure cy gS (ty dk i`"Bh; ruko
70 × 10–3 N/m gS rFkk lEidZ dks.k 0° gS)
(1) 70 N (2) 50 N
(1) 70 N (2) 50 N
(3) 140 N (4) 100 N
(3) 140 N (4) 100 N
18. A cylinder of height 30 m is completely filled with
water. If water coming out through a small hole hit
18. Å¡pkbZ 30 m ds ,d csyu ds iw.kZr% ty ls Hkjk x;k
the ground 30 m away from the bottom of the gSA ;fn ,d NksVs fNæ ls ckgj vkus okyk ty csyu
cylinder. Then distance of the hole from the ds isans ls 30 m nwj /kjkry ls Vdjkrk gSA rc csyu
bottom of the cylinder will be ds isans ls fNæ dh nwjh gksxh
(1) 10 m (2) 20 m (1) 10 m (2) 20 m
(3) 15 m (4) 5 m (3) 15 m (4) 5 m
19. The viscous fluid is flowing through a cylindrical 19. ';ku rjy ,d csyukdkj uyh ls çokfgr gks jgk
tube. The velocity distribution of the fluid is best gSA rjy dk osx forj.k fdl fp= }kjk lgh :i ls
represented by the diagram çnf'kZr gksrk gS\

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

20. Estimate the drop in temperature when a drop of 20. tc f=T;k R dh ,d cwna N3 NksVh cwna ksa esa VwV tkrh
3
radius R breaks into N small droplets. (T : surface gS rc rki esa deh dh x.kuk dhft,A (T : i`"Bh;
tension,  : density, C : specific heat capacity) ruko,  : ?kuRo, C : fof'k"V Å"ek /kkfjrk)
3T 2T 3T 2T
(1) (N − 1) (2) (1) (N − 1) (2)
CR CR (N − 1) CR CR (N − 1)

T 2T T 2T
(3) (4) (N − 1) (3) (4) (N − 1)
RC (N − 1) RC RC (N − 1) RC

21. A vessel of volume 0.04 m3 contains a mixture of 21. vk;ru 0.04 m3 ds ,d ik= esa 20°C rFkk 2
hydrogen and helium at 20°C and 2 atmospheric ok;qe.Myh; nkc ij gkbMªkt s u rFkk ghfy;e dk
pressure and the mass of mixture is 10 g. Then feJ.k lfEefyr gS rFkk feJ.k dk æO;eku 10 g gSA
the ratio of mass of hydrogen to that of helium in
rc feJ.k esa gkbMªkstu ds æO;eku rFkk ghfy;e ds
the mixture is nearly (1 atm = 105 Pa)
æO;eku dk vuqikr yxHkx gSA (1 atm = 105 Pa)
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 2
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2
22. The coefficient of volume expansion of an ideal 22. rki T K ij rFkk fu;r nkc ij ,d vkn'kZ xSl dk
gas at constant pressure at temp T K is equal to
vk;ru çlkj xq.kkad fdlds cjkcj gS?
1 −1 1 −1
(1) K (2) K 1 −1 1 −1
T T2 (1) K (2) K
T T2
2 −1 3 −1 2 −1 3 −1
(3) K (4) K (3) K (4) K
T T T T

(5)
Test-4 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

23. A cylinder of fixed capacity 67.2 litre contains 23. fLFkj /kkfjrk 67.2 yhVj ds ,d csyu esa ekud rki
helium gas at standard temperature and pressure.
rFkk nkc ij ghfy;e xSl lfEefyr gSA csyu esa xSl
The amount of heat needed to raise the
temperature of the gas in the cylinder by 20°C will ds rki dks 20°C ls c<+kus esa vko';d Å"ek dh
 25   25 −1 −1 
be  R = J mol−1 k −1  ek=k gksxh  R = 3 J mol k 
 3   

(1) 250 J (2) 750 J (1) 250 J (2) 750 J


(3) 400 J (4) 900 J (3) 400 J (4) 900 J
24. Which of the following figure does not depict ideal 24. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSulk fp= xSl dh nh xbZ ek=k ds
gas behaviour for a given amount of gas? fy, vkn'kZ xSl O;ogkj dks çnf'kZr ugha djrk gS?

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

25. The root mean square speed of the molecules of 25. f=ijek.kqd xSl ds v.kqvksa dh oxZ ekè; ewy pky V
triatomic gas is V. When the absolute temperature
is tripled, the molecules dissociate into three
gSA tc ijerki dks rhu xquk fd;k tkrk gS] rc
atoms, the new root mean square speed of the v.kq rhu ijek.kqvksa esa fo;ksftr gksrk gS] rc ijek.kq
atoms is dh uohu oxZ ekè; ewy pky gS
(1) 3V (2) V (1) 3V (2) V
(3) 3 V (4) 2 V (3) 3 V (4) 2 V
26. A fixed amount of an ideal monoatomic gas is 26. ,d vkn'kZ ,dy ijek.kqd xSl dh fuf'pr ek=k dks
taken through the cycle ABCD as shown in the fp= esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj oØ ABCD ls xqtkjk tkrk
figure. The efficiency of the cycle will be
gSA pØ dh n{krk gksxh

(1) 22.2% (2) 33.33%


(1) 22.2% (2) 33.33%
(3) 20% (4) 40%
(3) 20% (4) 40%
27. For two mole of diatomic gas, work done at
27. nks eksy f}ijek.kqd xSl ds fy,] fu;r nkc ij
constant pressure is W. The heat supplied at
constant volume for the same rise in temperature fd;k x;k dk;Z W gSA xSl ds rki esa leku o`f) ds
of the gas is fy, fu;r vk;ru ij vkiwrZ Å"ek gS
3W 5W 3W 5W
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2 2 2 2
(3) 2 W (4) W (3) 2 W (4) W

(6)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-4 (Code-A)

28. Consider the process on an ideal gas as shown in 28. fp= esa n'kkZ;h x;h vkn'kZ xSl ds çØe ij fopkj
figure. The work done by the system dhft,A fudk; }kjk fd;k x;k dk;Z gS

(1) First positive then negative (1) igys /kukRed fQj _.kkRed
(2) Always positive (2) lnSo /kukRed

(3) Always negative (3) lnSo _.kkRed

(4) First negative then positive (4) igys _.kkRed fQj /kukRed

29. If the heat input to a Carnot engine is four times 29. ;fn ,d dkuksZ batu dh fuos'kh Å"ek blds }kjk
the work it performs, then the fraction of heat fd;s x;s dk;Z dh pkj xquh gS] rc flad dks vkiwrZ
rejected to the sink is m"ek dh ek=k gS
1 3 1 3
(1) (2) (1) (2)
4 4 4 4
1 2 1 2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
3 3 3 3

30. When a person jogs, he produces 15 kcal/min.


30. tc ,d O;fDr tkfxax djrk gS] rc ;g
80% of this heat is removed as the sweat 15 kcal/min Å"ek mRiUu djrk gSA bl Å"ek dk
evaporates. The amount of sweat evaporated per 80% ilhus ds :i esa ok"ihd`r gksrk gSA rc
minutes is (1 kg sweat requires approximately 580 çfrfeuV ok"ihd`r ilhus dh ek=k gS (1 kg ilhus dks
kcal for evaporation) ok"ihd`r gksus ds fy, yxHkx 580 kcal dh
(1) 1.6 g (2) 20.7 g vko';drk gksrh gS)
(3) 4 g (4) 28 g (1) 1.6 g (2) 20.7 g
31. When one mole of gas expands as per the relation (3) 4 g (4) 28 g
V = KT2/3, where V is volume and T is 31. tc 1 eksy xSl lEcU/k V = KT2/3 ds vuqlkj çlkfjr
temperature. For the temperature change of gksrh gS] tgk¡ V vk;ru gS rFkk T rki gSA 40 K rki
40 K. Work done is (R is universal gas constant)
esa ifjorZu ds fy, fd;k x;k dk;Z gS (R lkoZf=d
(1) 35.6 R (2) 26.6 R xSl fu;rkad gS)
(3) 30.2 R (4) 20.1 R (1) 35.6 R (2) 26.6 R
32. The quantities of heat required to raise the (3) 30.2 R (4) 20.1 R
temperatures of two solid steel spheres of r and 32. nks Bksl LVhy xksyksa dh f=T;k Øe'k% r o 2r gS]
2r respectively through 1 K each are in the ratio of çR;sd xksys ds rki esa 1 K dh o`f) djus ds fy,
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 8 vko';d Å"ek dh ek=k dk vuqikr gS
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 8 : 27 (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 8
33. The temperature of 200 g of water is to be raised (3) 1 : 1 (4) 8 : 27
from 20°C to 60°C by adding steam at 100°C to it. 33. 100°C okyh Hkki dks tksM+rs gq, 200 g ty ds rki
The mass of steam required for this purpose dks 20°C ls 60°C rd c<+k;k tkrk gSA bl çfØ;k
nearly is
ds fy, vko';d Hkki dk æO;eku gS
(1) 10 g (2) 14 g (1) 10 g (2) 14 g
(3) 6 g (4) 18 g (3) 6 g (4) 18 g

(7)
Test-4 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

34. It is difficult to cook rice in open vessel by boiling it 34. vR;f/kd Å¡pkbZ ij [kqys ik= esa pkoy dks mckydj
at high altitudes because of idkuk vf/kd dfBu D;ksa gksrk gS?
(1) High boiling point due to low pressure (1) fuEu nkc ds dkj.k mPp DoFkukad fcUnw
(2) Low boiling point due to low pressure (2) fuEu nkc ds dkj.k fuEu DoFkukad fcUnw
(3) Low boiling point due to high pressure (3) mPp nkc ds dkj.k fuEu DoFkukad fcUnw
(4) High boiling point due to high pressure (4) mPp nkc ds dkj.k mPp DoFkukad fcUnw
35. Consider P-V diagram for fixed mass of an ideal 35. fp= esa n'kkZ;h x;h vkn'kZ xSl ds fuf'pr æO;eku
gas shown in figure. Choose correct ds fy, P-V vkjs[k ij fopkj dhft,A laxr
corresponding pressure-density (P-  ) diagram. nkc-?kuRo (P-  ) ds lgh vkjs[k dk p;u dhft,A

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)

36. rki js[kh; çlkj xq.kkad  okyh ,d le:i NM+ ds


36. The increase in moment of inertia I of a uniform ,d fljs ls xqtjus okys rFkk bldh yEckbZ ds
rod, having thermal coefficient of linear expansion
yEcor~ v{k ds lkis{k NM+ ds tM+Ro vk?kw.kZ I esa o`f)
, about an axis passing through its one end and
perpendicular to its length when its temperature is
D;k gksxh] tc blds rki dks vYi T }kjk c<+k;k
slightly increased by T . tkrk gS?
I T
I T (1) I T (2)
(1) I T (2) 2
2
(3) 2I T (4) 3I T
(3) 2I T (4) 3I T
37. rkih; pkydrk K okyh l yEckbZ dh NM+ A ds nksuksa
37. Ends of a rod A of length l having thermal fljksa dks rki T1 rFkk T2 (T1>T2) ij O;ofLFkr j[kk
conductivity K is maintained at temperature T1 and tkrk gSA NM+ ls xqtjus okyh Å"eh; /kkjk Q gSA NM+
T2 (T1>T2). The thermal current through the rod is
A ds leku yEckbZ rFkk vuqçLFk dkV {ks=Qy dh
Q. Now another rod B of same length and area of
vU; NM+ B (ftldh rkih; pkydrk 2K gS) dks Hkqtk
cross section as that of rod A and having thermal
conductivity 2K is welded together side by side ls Hkqtk dks ,d lkFk tksMk+ tkrk gs rFkk la;kstu ds
and common ends of the combination is mHk;fu"B fljksa dks rki T1 rFkk T2 ij O;ofLFkr
maintained at temperature T1 and T2. The new j[kk tkrk gSA la;kstu ls çokfgr uohu m"eh; /kkjk
thermal current through the combination will be gksxh
(1) Q (2) 2Q (1) Q (2) 2Q
Q
Q (3) (4) 3Q
(3) (4) 3Q 2
2

(8)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-4 (Code-A)

38. Choose the correct graph which represent Wien’s 38. ohu ds foLFkkiu fu;e dks çnf'kZr djus okys lgh
displacement law. (Symbols have their usual vkjs[k dk p;u dhft,A (ladsrksa ds vius lkekU;
meanings)
lkekU; vFkZ gS)

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4) Both (1) and (3)


(3) (4) (1) rFkk (3) nksuksa

39. If l is the distance between lower fixed point and 39. ;fn FkekZehVj ds fupys n`f<+r fcUnw rFkk mijh n`f<+r
upper fixed point of thermometer and X is the
length of the mercury column above the lower
fcUnw ds eè; nwjh l gS rFkk rki t°C ds fy, fupys
fixed point for temperature t°C, then value of t will n`f<+r fcUnw ds Åij edZjh LraHk dh yEckbZ X gS] rc
be t dk eku gksxk

100X 50X 100X 50X


(1) (2) (1) (2)
l l l l

X 50l X 50l
(3) (4) (3) (4)
l X l X

40. The rate of cooling of a body is 40. ,d oLrw ds 'khryu dh nj


(1) Independent of the nature of the surface of the (1) oLrq dh lrg dh çd`fr ij fuHkZj ugha djrh gS
body (2) oLrq ds {ks=Qy ij fuHkZj ugha djrh gS
(2) Independent of the area of the body
(3) ifjos'k ds rki ij fuHkZj ugha djrh gS
(3) Independent of the temperature of the
(4) ifjos'k ds Åij oLrq ds rki vkf/kD; ij fuHkZj
surrounding
djrh gS
(4) Depend on the excess of temperature of the
body above that of surrounding 41. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulh ifj?kVuk esa m"ek çdk'k
41. In which of the following phenomena, the heat
dh pky ds lkFk ljy js[kk ds vuqfn'k xfr djrh
travels along straight line with speed of light gS?
(1) Thermal radiation (1) m"eh; fofdj.k
(2) Thermal conduction (2) m"eh; pkyu
(3) Natural convection (3) çkd`frd laogu
(4) Forced convection (4) ç.kksfnr laogu
42. Hot water cools from 60°C to 50°C in the first 10 42. xeZ ikuh çFke 10 feuV esa 60°C ls 50°C rd B.Mk
minutes and to 42°C in next 10 minutes. Then the gksrk gS rFkk vxys 10 feuV esa 42°C rd B.Mk
temperature of the surrounding is
gksrk gSA rc ifjos'k dk rki gS
(1) 10°C
(1) 10°C
(2) 30°C (2) 30°C
(3) 20°C (3) 20°C
(4) 15°C (4) 15°C

(9)
Test-4 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

43. Two spherical black bodies have radii r and 9r. 43. r o f=T;k okyh nks xksyh; d`f".kdk ds i`"Bh; rki
9r
Their surface temperature are T1 and T2. If they T1 o T2 gSA ;fn ;s leku 'kfDr fofdfjr djrh gS]
T1
radiates same power then value of is rc T1
dk eku gS
T2 T2
(1) 1 : 9 (2) 3 : 1 (1) 1 : 9 (2) 3 : 1
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 8 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 8

R 2 R 2
44. If for an ideal gas = then the degree of 44. ;fn ,d vkn'kZ xSl ds fy, = gS] rc xSl dh
CV 5 CV 5
freedom of the gas will be Lora=rk dh dksfV gksxh
(1) 3 (2) 8 (1) 3 (2) 8

(3) 6 (4) 5 (3) 6 (4) 5

45. The power radiated by a black body is P and it 45. ,d d`f".kdk }kjk fofdfjr 'kfDr P gS rFkk ;g 0
radiates maximum energy around the wavelength rjax ds ifjr% vf/kdre ÅtkZ fofdfjr djrh gSA
0 . If the temperature of the black body is now ;fn rjaxnS;Z dk rki bl çdkj ifjofrZr gksrk gS fd
changed so that its radiates maximum energy 3 0
rjaxnSè;Z ds ifjr% vf/kdre ÅtkZ fofdfjr
30 4
around the wavelength , the power radiated
4 djrh gSA rc blds }kjk fofdfjr 'kfDr fdl xq.kkad
by it will increase by factor of ls c<+x
s h?
256 64 256 64
(1) (2) (1) (2)
81 27 81 27
16 4 16 4
(3) (4) (3) (4)
9 3 9 3

46. Oxidation state of nitrogen in HCN is 46. HCN esa ukbVªkt


s u dh vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk gS
(1) –2 (2) –3 (1) –2 (2) –3
(3) –1 (4) –5 (3) –1 (4) –5
47. In the balanced equation 47. larqfyr lehdj.k esa
xHNO3 + yH2S ⎯⎯→ pNO + qS + zH2O xHNO3 + yH2S ⎯⎯→ pNO + qS + zH2O

x and q respectively are x rFkk q Øe'k% gS


(1) 2, 2 (2) 3, 2 (1) 2, 2 (2) 3, 2

(3) 2, 4 (4) 2, 3 (3) 2, 4 (4) 2, 3

48. In all of its compounds, oxidation state of oxygen


48. vkWDlhtu ds lHkh ;kSfxdksa esa bldh vkWDlhdj.k
may vary from voLFkk ifjofrZr gksrh gS
(1) + 6 to – 6 (2) + 2 to –2 (1) + 6 ls – 6 (2) + 2 ls –2
(3) + 2 to + 6 (4) 0 to –2 (3) + 2 ls + 6 (4) 0 ls –2
49. Which of the following species may undergo 49. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl Lih'kht dk vkWDlhdj.k o
oxidation and reduction both? vip;u nksuksa gks ldrk gS\
(1) CO (2) N2 (1) CO (2) N2
(3) SO2 (4) All of these (3) SO2 (4) buesa ls lHkh

(10)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-4 (Code-A)

50. Eo = 0.8 V and Eo = −0.76 V . Eocell 50. Eo = 0.8 V rFkk EoZn2+ /Zn = −0.76 V gSA tc
Ag+ /Ag Zn2+ /Zn Ag+ /Ag
value when these electrodes are connected to bu nksuksa bysDVªkWMksa dks la;ksftr djds dk;Zdkjh lsy
construct a working cell will be
cuk;k tkrk gS rks Eolsy dk eku gksxk
(1) 1.56 V (2) –1.56 V
(1) 1.56 V (2) –1.56 V
(3) 0.04 V (4) –0.04 V
(3) 0.04 V (4) –0.04 V
51. Consider the given reaction
alkaline medium
51. uhps nh x;h vfHkfØ;k ij fopkj dhft,
Zn + NO3− ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ ⎯→ Zn2+ + NH+4
{kkjh; ekè;e
Zn + NO3− ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Zn2+ + NH+4

In alkaline medium, coefficients of Zn and OH ion
in the balanced equation respectively are larqfyr lehdj.k esa {kkjh; ekè;e esa Zn rFkk OH−

(1) 4, 7 (2) 4, 10
vk;uksa ds xq.kkad Øe'k% gS
(1) 4, 7 (2) 4, 10
(3) 2, 5 (4) 1, 7
(3) 2, 5 (4) 1, 7
52. The equivalent weight of KMnO4 in acidic medium
is 52. vEyh; ekè;e esa KMnO4 dk rqY;kadh Hkkj gS
M M M M
(1) (2)
(1) (2) 2 3
2 3
M M
M M (3) (4)
(3) (4) 5 4
5 4
53. fdlesa ukbVªkstu ijek.kq ,d ls vf/kd vkWDlhdj.k
53. Nitrogen atom exhibits more than one oxidation
state in voLFkk,¡ n'kkZrk gS?
(1) NH4NO3 (2) N2H4 (1) NH4NO3 (2) N2H4
(3) N2O5 (4) N2O4
(3) N2O5 (4) N2O4
54. ty dh LFkk;h dBksjrk laHkor% fdlds dkj.k gksrh gS \
54. Permanent hardness of water is most likely due to
(1) CaHCO3 (2) NaHCO3
(1) CaHCO3 (2) NaHCO3
(3) CaSO4 (4) NaCl
(3) CaSO4 (4) NaCl
55. vLFkk;h dBksjrk dks nwj fd;k tk ldrk gS
55. Temporary hardness can be removed by
(1) mckydj (2) DykdZ fof/k }kjk
(1) Boiling (2) Clark’s method
(3) lkWYos çØe }kjk (4) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa
(3) Solvay process (4) Both (1) and (2)
56. In ion exchange method hydrated salt of (X) is
56. vk;u fofue; fof/k esa (X) ds ty;ksftr yo.k dk
used, (X) is mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS] rc (X) gS
(1) Na2SO4 (2) NaAlF3 (1) Na2SO4 (2) NaAlF3
(3) NaAlSiO4 (4) NaAlO2
(3) NaAlSiO4 (4) NaAlO2
57. Value of which physical property of H2O is greater
57. H2O dh fdl HkkSfrd xq.k dk eku D2O dh vis{kk
than that of D2O vf/kd gksrk gS\
(1) ijkoS|qrkad (2) ?kuRo
(1) Dielectric constant (2) Density
(3) ';kurk (4) eksyj æO;eku
(3) Viscosity (4) Molar mass
58. Industrially H2O2 is prepared by the auto oxidation 58. vkS/kksfxd H2O2 dk fojpu fdlds Lor% vkWDlhdj.k
of }kjk fd;k tkrk gS\
(1) 2–Methylphenol (1) 2–esfFkyQhukWy
(2) 2–Alkylanthraquinol (2) 2–,fYdy ,UFkzkfDoukWy
(3) 3–Chlorophenol (3) 3–DyksjksQhukWy
(4) Barium sulphate (4) csfj;e lYQsV

(11)
Test-4 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

59. The volume of oxygen gas liberated at STP is 250 59. 10 mL H2O2 foy;u ds iw.kZ vo?kVu ls eqDr STP
mL from complete decomposition of 10 mL of ij vkWDlhtu xSl dk vk;ru 250 mL gSA H2O2
H2O2 solution. Volume strength of H2O2 solution is
foy;u dh vk;ru lkeF;Z gS
(1) 10 (2) 20 (1) 10 (2) 20
(3) 25 (4) 30 (3) 25 (4) 30
60. Ortho and para hydrogen differ is 60. vkWFkksZ rFkk iSjk gkbMªkstu esa vUrj gksrk gS
(1) Proton spin (2) Electron spin (1) çksVkWu pØ.k dk (2) bysDVªkWu pØ.k dk
(3) Molecular mass (4) Density (3) vk.kfod æO;eku (4) ?kuRo
acidic medium
61. PbS(s) + H2O2 (aq) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → (X) + H2O vEyh; ekè;e
61. PbS(s) + H2O2 (aq) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →(X) + H2O
In the above reaction (X) is mijksDr vfHkfØ;k esa (X) gS
(1) PbSO4 (2) Pb3O4 (1) PbSO4 (2) Pb3O4
(3) PbO2 (4) Pb(OH)2 (3) PbO2 (4) Pb(OH)2

62. Which of the following oxides is most basic in 62. fuEufyf[kr esa ls vR;f/kd {kkjh; çd`fr dk
nature? vkWDlkbM dkSulk gS\
(1) BeO (2) MgO (1) BeO (2) MgO
(3) K2O (4) Li2O (3) K2O (4) Li2O

63. Least soluble salt in water is 63. ty esa U;wure foys;'khy yo.k gS
(1) LiF (2) NaF (1) LiF (2) NaF

(3) KF (4) RbF (3) KF (4) RbF

64. Incorrect statement about a solution of alkali metal 64. æo veksfu;k esa {kkj /kkrq ds foy;u ds lanHkZ esa
in liquid ammonia is xyr dFku gS?
(1) It is blue coloured (1) ;g uhys jax dk gksrk gS
(2) It is paramagnetic in nature (2) ;g vuqpqEcdh; çd`fr dk gksrk gS
(3) In concentrated solution the blue colour (3) lkaæ foy;u esa uhyk jax lsc tSls gjs jax esa
changes to apple green ifjofrZr gks tkrk gS
(4) Metal amide is formed on standing (4) budks j[ks jgus ij /kkrq ,ekbM curk gS
65. Most stable metal carbonate is 65. vR;f/kd LFkk;h /kkrq dkcksZusV gS
(1) Li2CO3 (2) Na2CO3 (1) Li2CO3 (2) Na2CO3
(3) MgCO3 (4) K2CO3 (3) MgCO3 (4) K2CO3
66. Which oxide of nitrogen is liberated on heating 66. {kkjh; e`nk /kkrq ukbVªsV dks xeZ djus ij ukbVªkstu
alkaline earth metal nitrates? dk dkSulk vkWDlkbM eqDr gksrk gS?
(1) NO (2) NO2 (1) NO (2) NO2
(3) N2O3 (4) N2O5 (3) N2O3 (4) N2O5

67. Water gas is a mixture of 67. Hkki vaxkj xSl fdldk feJ.k gksrh gS?
(1) CO and H2 (2) CO2 and H2 (1) CO rFkk H2 (2) CO2 rFkk H2

(3) CO and N2 (4) N2 + O2 (3) CO rFkk N2 (4) N2 + O2

(12)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-4 (Code-A)

68. Highest hydration enthalpy is found for which of 68. fuEu esa ls fdl vk;u dh ty;kstu ,UFkSYih
the following ions? vf/kdre gksrh gS?
(1) Be2+ (2) Mg2+ (1) Be2+ (2) Mg2+
(3) Ca2+ (4) Ba2+ (3) Ca2+ (4) Ba2+
69. Which of the following alkali metals mainly forms 69. fuEu esa ls fdl {kkj /kkrq dks vkWDlhtu ds vkf/kD;
monoxide when it burns in excess of oxygen? esa ngu ij ;g eq[;r% eksuks vkWDlkbM cukrh gS?
(1) Na (2) K (1) Na (2) K
(3) Li (4) Rb (3) Li (4) Rb
70. Correct order of densities of alkali metals is 70. {kkj /kkrqvksa ds ?kuRo dk lgh Øe gS
(1) Li < Na < K < Rb (2) Rb < K < Na < Li (1) Li < Na < K < Rb (2) Rb < K < Na < Li
(3) Li < K < Na < Rb (4) Li < Rb < K < Na (3) Li < K < Na < Rb (4) Li < Rb < K < Na
71. Metal(s) which does (do) not impart any colour to 71. Tokyk dks dksbZ jax u çHkki djus okyh /kkrq gS@gSa
flame is/are
(1) Be (2) Sr
(1) Be (2) Sr
(3) Ca (4) (1) rFkk (3) nksuksa
(3) Ca (4) Both (1) and (3)
72. csjhfy;e fdlds lkFk fod.kZ lEcU/k n'kkZrk gS?
72. Beryllium shows diagonal relationship with which
element? (1) eSXuhf'k;e (2) ,yqfefu;e
(1) Magnesium (2) Aluminium (3) lksfM;e (4) flfydkWu
(3) Sodium (4) Silicon 73. ,d mÙke xq.koÙkk dh lhesUV ds fy, flfydk o
73. For a good quality cement, the ratio of silica to ,yqfeuk dk vuqikr fdlds eè; gksuk pkfg,\
alumina should be between (1) 1 rFkk 2 (2) 2.5 rFkk 4
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 2.5 and 4
(3) 1 rFkk 4 (4) 5 rFkk 7.5
(3) 1 and 4 (4) 5 and 7.5
74. fcu cw>s pwus dk jklk;fud lw= gS
74. Chemical formula of quick lime is
(1) CaCO3 (2) Ca(OH)2
(1) CaCO3 (2) Ca(OH)2
(3) CaSO4 (4) CaO
(3) CaSO4 (4) CaO
75. (X) dks 393 K rd xeZ djus ij IykLVj vkWQ isfjl
75. Plaster of Paris is obtained by heating (X) to 393 çkIr gksrk gS] (X) gS
K. (X) is
(1) CaSO4.H2O (2) CaSO4.2H2O
(1) CaSO4.H2O (2) CaSO4.2H2O
(3) CaSO4.½H2O (4) CaSO4.5H2O
(3) CaSO4.½H2O (4) CaSO4.5H2O
76. fuEufyf[kr esa ls oxZ 13 ds rRoksa esa ls lcls de
76. Among the following group of 13 elements,
ijek.kq f=T;k okyk rRo gS
smallest atomic radius is of
(1) Al (2) Ga
(1) Al (2) Ga
(3) In (4) Tl
(3) In (4) Tl
77. cksfjd vEy ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku gS
77. Incorrect statement about boric acid is
(1) ;g ,d nqcZy ,dd {kkjdh; vEy gS
(1) It is a weak monobasic acid
(2) ;g vkjgsfu;l vEy gS
(2) It is an Arrhenius acid
(3) It is formed by acidifying an aqueous solution (3) cksjsDl ds tyh; foy;u dks vEyhd`r djus ij
of borax ;g curk gS
;g ty esa B (OH)4  cukrk gS

(4) It forms B ( OH)4  in water

(4)

(13)
Test-4 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET-2020

78. Number of bridge B – H – B bonds in a B2H6 78. B2H6 v.kq esa lsrq B – H – B ca/kksa dh la[;k gS
molecule is (1) 2 (2) 4
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 3
(3) 1 (4) 3 79. fuEufyf[kr esa ls mHk;/kehZ vkDlkbM dkSulk gS?
79. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric?
(1) CO2 (2) Al2O3
(1) CO2 (2) Al2O3
(3) Na2O (4) BaO
(3) Na2O (4) BaO
80. fuEufyf[kr cksjkWu gSykbMksa esa çcyre ywbZl vEy gS
80. Strongest Lewis acid among the following boron
(1) BF3 (2) BCl3
halides is
(3) BBr3 (4) BI3
(1) BF3 (2) BCl3
(3) BBr3 (4) BI3 81. fdlds tyvi?kVu o ckn esa la?kuu }kjk ljy
js[kh; Ja[kyk flfydkWu cgqyd curs gS\
81. Straight chain silicone polymers are formed due to
hydrolysis, followed by condensation, of (1) (CH3)3SiCl (2) (CH3)2SiCl2

(1) (CH3)3SiCl (2) (CH3)2SiCl2 (3) CH3SiCl3 (4) SiCl4

(3) CH3SiCl3 (4) SiCl4 82. flfydsV dh ewy bdkbZ curk@gksrk gS


82. The basic unit of silicates is (1) SiO2 (2) SiO44 −

(1) SiO2 (2) SiO44 − (3) SiO22− (4) SiO32−

(3) SiO22− (4) SiO32− 83. fuEu esa ls fdldh lajpuk casUthu ds leku gksrh gS?
83. Which of the following has structure like benzene? (1) AlN (2) B3N3H6
(1) AlN (2) B3N3H6 (3) BN (4) Al4C3

(3) BN (4) Al4C3 84. 'kq"d cQZ gS


84. Dry ice is (1) Bksl CO2
(1) Solid CO2 (2) Bksl SO3
(2) Solid SO3 (3) Bksl CO
(3) Solid CO (4) Bksl N2O5
(4) Solid N2O5
85. CCl4 tyvi?kfVr ugha gks ldrk D;ksafd
85. CCl4 cannot be hydrolysed because
(1) dkcZu Dyksjhu dh vis{kk de fo|qr_.kh gksrk gS
(1) Carbon is less electronegative than chlorine
(2) dkcZu esa fjDr d–d{kd ugha gksrk
(2) Carbon has no vacant d–orbitals
(3) dkcZu dk vkdkj vR;Ur NksVk gksrk gS
(3) Carbon has extremely smaller size
(4) CCl4 dh vkd`fr prq"Qydh; gksrh gS
(4) CCl4 is tetrahedral in shape
86. Zeolites are the examples of
86. ft;ksykbV fdldk mnkgj.k gS\
(1) Orthosilicates (1) vkWFkksZflfydsV
(2) Pyrosilicates (2) ik;jksflfydsV
(3) Sheet silicates (3) 'khV flfydsV
(4) Three-dimensional silicates (4) f=foeh; flfydsV

(14)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-4 (Code-A)

87. Aluminium reacts with aqueous alkali to form A 87. ,yqfefu;e tyh; {kkj ds lkFk fØ;k djds A rFkk
and B, which are respectively B cukrs gS tks Øe'k% gS
(1) [Al(H2O)6] (OH)3 and NaH (1) [Al(H2O)6] (OH)3 rFkk NaH
(2) Na[Al(OH)4] and H2 (2) Na[Al(OH)4] rFkk H2
(3) [Al(H2O)6] (OH)3 and H2 (3) [Al(H2O)6] (OH)3 rFkk H2
(4) Na[Al(OH)4] and NaH (4) Na[Al(OH)4] rFkk NaH
88. Correct order of thermal stability of halides of
88. dkcZu ds gSykbMksa ds m"eh; LFkkf;Ro dk lgh Øe gS
carbon is
(1) CCl4 > CF4 > CBr4 > CI4
(1) CCl4 > CF4 > CBr4 > CI4
(2) CI4 > CBr4 > CCl4 > CF4
(2) CI4 > CBr4 > CCl4 > CF4
(3) CF4 > CCl4 > CBr4 > CI4
(3) CF4 > CCl4 > CBr4 > CI4
(4) CBr4 > CF4 > CCl4 > CI4
(4) CBr4 > CF4 > CCl4 > CI4
89. fuEu esa ls xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,
89. Select an incorrect statement among the following
(1) Si, Ge rFkk Sn dh fo|qr_.krk,a yxHkx leku
(1) Si, Ge and Sn have nearly equal
gksrh gS
electronegativities
(2) xzsQkbV dh ,UVªkWih ghjs ls vf/kd gksrh gS
(2) Entropy of graphite is more than diamond
(3) CO is called silent killer as it forms a complex (3) CO dks ewd gR;kjk dgk tkrk gS D;ksfa d ;g
with haemoglobin gheksXyksfcu ds lkFk ladqy cukrk gS
(4) SnO and PbO are basic in nature (4) SnO rFkk PbO {kkjh; çd`fr ds gksrs gSa
90. Hydrolysis product(s) of SiF4 is/are 90. SiF4 ds tyvi?kVu mRikn gS@gaS
(1) Si(OH)4 (2) H2SiF6 (1) Si(OH)4 (2) H2SiF6

(3) SiO2 (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) SiO2 (4) (1) o (2) nksuksa

91. A elements have been found to be essential for 91. A rRo ikni o`f) o mikip; ds fy, vko';d
plant growth and metabolism and out of them ik, x, rFkk buesa ls B o`griks"kdrRo gSA
B are macronutrients.
fjDr LFkku A o B ds fy, lgh fodYi dk p;u
Select the correct option to fill the blanks A and B. dhft,A
(1) A = 17, B = 12 (2) A = 11, B = 5 (1) A = 17, B = 12 (2) A = 11, B = 5
(3) A = 17, B = 9 (4) A = 11, B = 6
(3) A = 17, B = 9 (4) A = 11, B = 6
92. lw{eiks"kd rRo ds lanHkZ ds fo"ke in dk p;u
92. Find the odd one w.r.t. micronutrients
dhft,A
(1) Iron (1) vk;ju
(2) Manganese (2) eSXuht
(3) Magnesium (3) eSxuhf'k;e
(4) Zinc (4) ftad

(15)
Test-4 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET -2020

93. Which of the following is mismatched? 93. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dksulk vlqesfyr gS?
(1) Macronutrients – Concentration (1) o`griks"kdrRo – 10 m eksy kg–1
more than 10 m 'kq"d Hkkj ls
mole kg–1 of dry
vf/kd lkaærk
matter
(2) lw{eiks"kdrRo – 10 m eksy kg–1
(2) Micronutrient – Concentration
less than 10 m
'kq"d Hkkj ls de
mole kg–1 of dry lkaærk
matter (3) –
o`rgiks"kdrRo FkksM+k lk vf/kd
(3) Macronutrients – Toxic even in ek=k gksus ij Hkh
slight excess fo"kkDr gksrk gS
(4) Micronutrients – Generally (4) lw{eiks"kdrRo – ,atkbeksa dh
required in the fØ;k esa lkekU;
functioning of
:i ls vko';d
enzymes
94. DNA la'ysf"kr ,atkbe dh fØ;k fdldh vuqifLFkfr
94. Functioning of DNA synthesizing enzyme is
esa lanfer gksrh gS\
inhibited in the absence of
(1) Mg2+ (2) Zn2+
(1) Mg2+ (2) Zn2+
(3) Mn2+ (4) Fe2+
(3) Mn2+ (4) Fe2+ 95. ukbVªkt s u fdlds vfrfjDr fuEufyf[kr lHkh dk
95. Nitrogen is the component of all of the following, ?kVd gS?
except (1) vehuksa vEy (2) çksVhu
(1) Amino acids (2) Proteins (3) U;wfDyd vEy (4) lqØkst
(3) Nucleic acids (4) Sucrose 96. eè; iVfydk dk eq[; ?kVd gSa
96. Major components of middle lamella are (1) Mg rFkk Fe (2) Ca rFkk Zn
(1) Mg and Fe (2) Ca and Zn (3) Ca rFkk Mg (4) Zn rFkk Fe
(3) Ca and Mg (4) Zn and Fe 97. fdlds vfrfjDr fuEufyf[kr lHkh eSXuhf'k;e ds
97. All of the following are functions of magnesium, dk;Z gS?
except (1) ;g i.kZgfjr ds oy; lajpuk dk fuekZ.k djrk
(1) It forms the ring structure of chlorophyll gSa
(2) It activates the enzymes involved in (2) ;g 'olu esa lfEefyr ,atkbe dks lfØ; djrk
respiration gS
(3) It is involved in the synthesis of RNA (3) ;g RNA ds la'ys"k.k esa lfEefyr gksrk gS
(4) It activates the alcohol dehydrogenase (4) ;g ,sYdksgkWy fMgkbMªksftust dks lfØ; djrk gS
98. Read the following statements and choose the 98. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks if<+, rFkk buds fy, lgh
option which is true for them. fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
A. Sulphur is absorbed in the form of sulphate A. lYQj lYQsV vk;uksa ds :i esa vo'kksf"kr gksrk
ions. gS
B. Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of the B. iksVSf'k;e dksf'kdkvksa dh LQhrrk dks cuk, j[kus
cells. esa lgk;d gksrk gS
(1) Only A is correct (1) dsoy A lgh gS
(2) Only B is correct (2) dsoy B lgh gS
(3) Both A and B are correct (3) A rFkk B nksuksa lgh gS
(4) Both A and B are incorrect (4) A rFkk B nksuksa xyr gS

(16)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-4 (Code-A)

99. Conversion of NO3− → N2 is done by 99. NO3− → N2 dk :ikarj.k fdlds }kjk gksrk gS\
(1) Pseudomonas (2) Nitrobacter
(1) L;wMkseksukWl (2) ukbVªkcs SDVj
(3) Nitrococcus (4) Rhizobium
(3) ukbVªkds ksdl (4) jkbtksfc;e
100. ETS, during photosynthesis and respiration,
100. tc ___ vuqifLFkr gksrs gS rc çdk'kla'ys"k.k o
cannot function properly when ___ are absent. 'olu ds nkSjku ETS lgh rjhds ls dk;Z ugha dj
(1) Fe and Cu (2) Ca and B
ldrk gS\
(1) Fe rFkk Cu (2) Ca rFkk B
(3) B and Zn (4) Na and Ca
(3) B rFkk Zn (4) Na rFkk Ca
101. Ammonia formation from free N2 cannot be done
without the help of 101. eqDr N2 ls veksfu;k dk fuekZ.k fdldh lgk;rk ds
(1) K and Mn (2) Mo and Fe fcuk ugha gks ldrk gS\
(1) K rFkk Mn (2) Mo rFkk Fe
(3) Ca and Mg (4) B and Mn
(3) Ca rFkk Mg (4) B rFkk Mn
102. Azotobacter is
(1) Filamentous and autotrophic bacteria
102. ,tksVkscSDVj
(1)rarqe;h o Loiks"kh thok.kq gS
(2) Free living bacteria
(2) eqDr thoh thok.kq gS
(3) Symbiotic bacteria
(3) lgthoh thok.kq gS
(4) Filamentous and heterotrophic bacteria
(4) rarqe;h o fo"keiks"kh thok.kq gS
103. For the reduction of N2, microbes require
103. N2 ds vip;u gsrq lw{etho dks
(1) NADH and NH3
(1) NADH o NH3 dh vko';drk gksrh gS
(2) H+ and O2
(2) H+ o O2 dh vko';drk gksrh gS
(3) H+, e– and ATP (3) H+, e– o ATP dh vko';drk gksrh gS
(4) NADPH and O2 (4) NADPH o O2 dh vko';drk gksrh gS
104. During transamination, amino group donor in 104. ikj ,ehuu ds nkSjku A ikniksa esa vehuksa lewg dk
plants is A and amino group acceptor is B
nkrk gS rFkk B vehuksa lewg dk xzkgh gS
Here, A and B respectively are ;gk¡ A o B Øe'k% gS
(1) NH3 and NH+4 ions (1) NH3 o NH+4 vk;u
(2) Glutamic acid and oxaloacetic acid (2) XyqVkWfed vEy o vkWDlSyks,lhfVd vEy
(3) Aspartic acid and NH+4 ions (3) ,LikfVZd vEy o NH+4 vk;u

(4) Glutamic acid and NH+4 ions (4) XyqVkWfed vEy o NH+4 vk;u
105. ikniksa esa ik, tkus okyk vR;f/kd egRoiw.kZ ,ekbM~l
105. Most important amides in plants are
gSa
(1) Aspartic acid and glutamic acids
(1) ,LikfVZd vEy o XyqVkWfed vEy
(2) Asparagine and glutamine
(2) ,Lisjftu o XyqVkWfeu
(3) Ureides
(3) ;wfjM~l
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(4) (1) o (3) nksuksa
106. Steps of conversion of N2 into NH3 during N2
106. N2 fLFkjhdj.k ds nkSjku N2 dk NH3 esa gksus okys
fixation is shown below :
:ikarj.k dk p;u uhps n'kkZ;k x;k gS :
N2 → N2H2 → A → 2NH3
N2 → N2H2 → A → 2NH3
Here ‘A’ is
;gk¡ ‘A’ gS
(1) NH+4 (2) Hydrazine (1) NH+4 (2) gkbMªktkbu
(3) Amide (4) –NH2 (3) ,ekbM (4) –NH2

(17)
Test-4 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET -2020

107. In plants, minerals are 107. ikniksa esa [kfut


(1) Absorbed as ions usually by active process (1) lkekU;r% lfØ; çfØ;k }kjk vk;u ds :i esa
(2) Absorbed by leaves vo'kksf"kr gksrs gS
(3) Always absorbed passively (2) i.kksZ }kjk vo'kksf"kr gksrs gSa
(3) lnSo fuf"Ø; :i ls vo'kksf"kr gksrs gSa
(4) Not required
(4) dh vko';drk ugha gksrh gS
108. Find the incorrect match.
108. vlqesfyr dk p;u dhft,A
Symptoms Deficient element
y{k.k vi;kZIr rRo
(1) Chlorosis – N, K, Mg
(1) Dyksjksfll – N, K, Mg
(2) Necrosis – Ca, Mg, Cu
(2) usØksfll – Ca, Mg, Cu
(3) Inhibition of cell – N, K, S and Mo
division (3) dksf'kdk foHkktu – N, K, S o Mo
dk laneu
(4) Late flowering – Na and Si
(4) iq"i.k esa foyac – Na o Si
109. Leg-haemoglobin provides the favourable
condition for the activity of 109. ysx-gheksXyksfcu fdldh fØ;k'khyrk ds dkj.k

(1) Nitrogenase (2) RuBisCO


vuqdwy fLFkfr çnku djrk gS?
(1) ukbVªkfs tust (2) :fcLdks (RuBisCO)
(3) Nitrate reductase (4) Nitrite reductase
(3) ukbVªsV fjMDVst (4) ukbVªkbV fjMDVst
110. Both Cu and Fe is required for the function of
(1) Nitrite reductase 110. Cu rFkk Fe nksuksa fdlds dk;Z ds fy, vfuok;Z gksrk
gSa
(2) Nitrogenase
(3) Leg haemoglobin ukbVªkbV fjMDVst (2) ukbVªkfs tust
(1)
(3) ysx gheksXyksfcu (4) Vªkl
a ,feust
(4) Transaminase
111. ukbVªkl
s kseksukWl :ikarfjr djrk gS
111. Nitrosomonas convert
(1) NH3 → NO2− (2) NO2− → NO3−
(1) NH3 → NO2− (2) NO2− → NO3−
(3) N2 → NH3 (4) NH3 → N2
(3) N2 → NH3 (4) NH3 → N2 112. ukbVªkt
s u fLFkjhdj.k ds nkSjku NH3 ds pkj v.kqvksa
112. For the formation of four molecules of NH 3 during ds fuekZ.k ds fy, fdldh vko';drk gksxh?
nitrogen fixation, there will be requirement of (1) 16 ADP (2) 32 ATP
(1) 16 ADP (2) 32 ATP (3) 8 GTP (4) 24 NADH

(3) 8 GTP (4) 24 NADH


113. ikniksa esa fVªIVksQSu vehuksa vEy ds la'ys"k.k ds fy,
fdldh vko';drk gksrh gS
113. Tryptophan amino acid synthesis in plants
(1) Zn (2) Mn
requires
(3) Cl (4) Na
(1) Zn (2) Mn 114. Vh-MCyw baty
s eSu
(3) Cl (4) Na (1) us çekf.kr fd;k fd lw;Zçdk'k dh mifLFkfr esa
114. T.W. Engelmann demonstrated ikni O2 eqDr dj ldrk gS
(1) That in presence of sunlight plant could (2) us çekf.kr fd;k fd çdk'kla'ys"k.k ds fy, O2
release O2 dh vko';drk gksrh gS
(2) O2 is required for photosynthesis (3) us çdk'kla'ys"k.k dh çFke fØ;k LisDVªe dks
çekf.kr fd;k
(3) The first action spectrum of photosynthesis
(4) us çekf.kr fd;k fd O2 ds mRiknu ds fy,
(4) That H2O is required to produce O2
H2O dh vko';drk gksrh gS

(18)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-4 (Code-A)

115. Find the odd one w.r.t. Moll’s half leaf experiment. 115. ekWy ds v/kZi.kZ ç;ksx ds lanHkZ esa fo"ke in dk p;u
(1) It demonstrates the role of O2 for respiration dhft,A
(1) ;g 'olu ds fy, O2 dh Hkwfedk dks çekf.kr
(2) A part of leaf was enclosed in a test tube
containing KOH soaked cotton djrk gS
(2) i.kZ ds ,d Hkkx dks ij[kuyh esa j[kk x;k Fkk
(3) Exposed part of leaf tested positive for starch
ftlesa KOH vo'kksf"kr fd, x, dkWVu dk
(4) Covered part of leaf tested negative for starch VqdM+k Fkk
Light
116. 2H2 A + CO2 ⎯⎯⎯ → 2A + CH2O + H2O (3) ç;ksx fd;s x, i.kZ dk [kqyk gqvk Hkkx eaM ds
fy, ldkjkRed ik;k x;k
In this equation H2A is
(4) ç;ksx fd;s x, i.kZ dk <dk gqvk Hkkx eaM ds
(1) Oxidisable compound fy, udkjkRed ik;k x;k
çdk'k
(2) Reducible compound 116. 2H2 A + CO2 ⎯⎯⎯ → 2A + CH2O + H2O

(3) Electron acceptor bl lehdj.k esa H2A


(1) vkWDlhd`r gksus okyk ;kSfxd gS
(4) Always H2O
(2) vipf;r gksus okyk ;kSfxd gS
117. Mg is located in (3) bysDVªkWu xzkgh gS
(1) Phytol part of chlorophyll (4) lnSo H2O gksrk gS
(2) Porphyrin head of chlorophyll 117. Mg fdleas fLFkr gksrk gS
(3) Xanthophylls (1) i.kZgfjr ds QkbVkWy Hkkx esa
(2) i.kZgfjr ds iksjQk;fju 'kh"kZ esa
(4) Carotenes
(3) tSUFkksfQy esa
118. ‘Shield pigments’ during photosynthesis
(4) dSjksfVu esa
(1) Absorb the light to produce ATP 118. çdk'k la'ys"k.k ds nkSjku ‘<ky o.kZd’
(2) Protect the plant from excessive heat and also (1) ATP ds mRiknu ds fy, çdk'k dks vo'kksf"kr
function as primary pigments djrk gS
(3) Prevent photo-oxidation of chlorophyll (2) vR;f/kr m"ek ls ikni dh j{kk djrk gS rFkk
pigments çkFkfed o.kZd ds :i esa Hkh dk;Z djrk gS
(4) Produce ATP and NADPH directly by (3) i.kZgfjr o.kZd ds çdk'k vkWDlhdj.k dks jksdrk gS
absorbing light (4) vo'kksf"kr çdk'k }kjk ATP rFkk NADPH dks
119. Find the odd one w.r.t accessory pigments. çR;{k :i ls mRiUu djrk gS
119. lgk;d o.kZd ds lanHkZ esa fo"ke in dk p;u
(1) Chlorophyll b
dhft,A
(2) Xanthophyll (1) i.kZgfjr b
(3) Carotene (2) tSUFkksfQy
(4) Chlorophyll a (3) dSjksfVu
(4) i.kZgfjr a
120. Reaction center of PS-I
120. PS-I dk@ds vfHkfØ;k dsUæ
(1) Has chlorophyll c and absorb the light at 780
(1) esa i.kZgfjr c gksrk gS rFkk tks 780 nm ij
nm
çdk'k vo'kksf"kr djrk gS
(2) Has chlorophyll a and absorb the light at 680
(2) esa i.kZgfjr a gksrk gS rFkk tks 680 nm ij
nm
çdk'k vo'kksf"kr djrk gS
(3) Has chlorophyll a and absorb the light at 700 (3) esa i.kZgfjr a gksrk gS rFkk tks 700 nm ij çdk'k
nm
vo'kksf"kr djrk gS
(4) Does not contain chlorophyll a in it (4) esa i.kZgfjr a ugha gksrk gS

(19)
Test-4 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET -2020

121. Water splitting complex 121. ty foikfVr ladqy


(1) Is associated with PS-II (1) PS-II ls lacaf/kr gksrk gS
(2) Is associated with PS-I (2) PS-I ls lacaf/kr gksrk gS
(3) Contains Mg and Fe (3) esa Mg o Fe gksrk gS
(4) Produces CO2 during photosynthesis (4) çdk'k la'ys"k.k ds nkSjku CO2 mRiUu djrk gS

122. PS-I, during non-cyclic photophosphorylation 122. v&pØh; çdk'kQkWLQksfjyhdj.k ds nkSjku PS-I
accepts the electrons immediately from fdlls 'kh?kzrkiwoZd bysDVªkWu çkIr djrk gS\
(1) NADPH (2) NADH (1) NADPH (2) NADH

(3) Plastocyanin (4) Ferredoxin


(3)IykLVksfl;kfuu (4) QsjksMkWfDlu
123. pØh; çdk'kQkWLQksfjyhdj.k lkekU;r% rc gksrk gS
123. Cyclic photophosphorylation usually occurs when
tc
(1) Light intensity is very high
(1) çdk'k rhozrk vR;f/kd mPp gksrh gS
(2) O2 concentration is very poor
(2) O2 dh lkaærk vR;f/kd de gksrh gS
(3) CO2 availability is poor
(3) CO2 dh miyC/krk de gksrh gS
(4) CO2 concentration is very high (4) CO2 dh lkaærk vR;f/kd mPp gksrh gS
124. To make one molecule of sucrose ___ turns of 124. lqØkst ds ,d v.kq ds fuekZ.k ds fy, dsfYou pØ
Calvin cycle are required
ds ___ ?kqeko dh vko';drk gksrh gS
(1) Three (2) Six (1) rhu (2) N%
(3) Twelve (4) Nine (3) ckjg (4) ukS
125. Calvin cycle is present in 125. dsfYou pØ fdlesa mifLFkr gksrk gS\
(1) C3 plants only (1) dsoy C3 ikniksa esa
(2) C4 plants only (2) dsoy C4 ikniksa esa
(3) CAM plants only (3) dsoy CAM ikniksa esa
(4) C3, C4 and CAM plants (4) C3, C4 rFkk CAM ikniksa esa
126. First CO2 acceptor molecule during Hatch and 126. gSp o LySd iFkØe ds nkSjku çFke CO2 xzkgh v.kq
Slack pathway is gksrk gS
(1) PEP (1) PEP
(2) Pyruvic acid (2)ik:fod vEy
(3) jkbcwykst-1, 5-fclQkWLQsaV
(3) Ribulose-1, 5-bisphosphate
(4) :fcLdks
(4) RuBisCO
127. C3 ikniksa esa 6CO2 v.kq ds fLFkjhdj.k ds fy,
127. For the fixation of 6CO2 molecules in C3 plants,
there is requirement of fdldh vko';drk gksrh gS?
(1) 2 ATP and 3 NADPH (1) 2 ATP rFkk 3 NADPH
(2) 2 ATP rFkk 4 NADPH
(2) 2 ATP and 4 NADPH
(3) 3 ATP rFkk 6 NADPH
(3) 3 ATP and 6 NADPH
(4) 18 ATP rFkk 12 NADPH
(4) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH
128. :fcLdksa ,atkbe fdlds vfrfjDr lHkh esa mifLFkr
128. RuBisCO enzyme is present in all, except
gksrk gS\
(1) Mesophyll cells of C3 plants
(1) C3 ikniksa dh i.kZeè;ksrd dksf'kdkvksa esa
(2) Mesophyll cells of C4 plants
(2) C4 ikniksa dh i.kZeè;ksrd dksf'kdkvksa esa
(3) Bundle sheath cells of C4 plants (3) C4 ikniksa dh iwy vkPNn dksf'kdkvksa esa
(4) In CAM plants (4) CAM ikniksa esa

(20)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-4 (Code-A)

129. Photorespiration reaction occurs in 129. çdk'k'olu vfHkfØ;k fdlesa gksrh gS\
(1) All C4 plants
(1)lHkh C4 ikniksa esa
(2) Chloroplast and nucleus of some C3 plants (2) dqN C3 ikniksa ds gfjryod o dsUæd esa
(3) Majority of C4 plants and CAM plants (3) vf/kdka'k C4 o CAM ikniksa esa
(4) C3 plants (4) C3 ikniksa esa

130. Find the correctly matched pair. 130. lqesfyr ;qXe dk p;u dhft,
(1) çdk'k la'ys"k.k ds – C4 ikni
(1) During photosynthesis, – C4 plants
first stable product is 3C
nkSjku 3C ;kSfxd
compound çFke LFkk;h
mRikn gksrk gS
(2) Primary CO2 acceptor is – C3 plants
(2) 3C ;kSfxd – C3 ikni
3C compound
çkFkfed CO2 xzkgh
(3) Efficient process of CO2 – C3 plants gksrk gS
fixation (3) CO2 fLFkjhdj.k – C3 ikni

(4) Can tolerate saline – C4 plants dh dk;Zn{k çfØ;k


conditions due to (4) buesa mifLFkr – C4 ikni
abundant organic acids in
çpqj dkcZfud
them
vEyksa ds dkj.k
131. Double carboxylation usually occurs in yo.kh; fLFkfr dks
(1) Some C3 plants and all C4 plants lgu dj ldrs gS
(2) Some C4 plants and all C3 plants 131. f}dkcksZfDlyhdj.k lkekU;r% fdlesa gksrk gS?
(1) dqN C3 o lHkh C4 ikniksa esa
(3) Sugarcane and Amaranthus
(2) dqN C4 o lHkh C3 ikniksa esa
(4) Maize and tomato
(3) xUuk o vesjsUFkl esa
132. Plants which show Kranz anatomy have all the
following characteristics, except (4) eDdk o VekVj esa
132. Øst
a 'kkjhfjdh n'kkZus okys ikniksa esa fdlds vfrfjDr
(1) Adaptation to dry tropical regions
fuEufyf[kr lHkh vfHky{k.k gksrs gS?
(2) Production of glycolate in chloroplast
(1) 'kq"d m".kdfVca/kh; {ks=ksa ds fy, vuqdwyu
(3) Higher yield and greater productivity
(2) gfjryod esa XykbdksysV dk mRiknu
(4) More efficient in CO2 utilization
(3) mPp mit o vf/kd mRikndrk
133. Read the given statements and choose the option (4) CO2 ds mi;ksx esa vf/kd dk;Zn{krk
which is true for them.
133. fn, x, dFkuksa dks if<+, rFkk blds fy, lgh
Statement-A : NADP reductase located on the
fodYi dk p;u dhft,
stroma side of the thylakoid membrane.
dFku-A : NADP fjMDVst FkSysDokW;M f>Yyh ds
Statement B : Most of the photosynthesis by
plants takes place in blue and red regions of light
ihfBdk Hkkx ij fLFkr gksrk gS
spectrum. dFku B : ikni }kjk vf/kdka'k çdk'kla'ys"k.k çdk'k
(1) Both A and B are correct
LisDVªe ds uhys o yky Hkkx esa gksrk gSA
(1) A o B nksuksa lgh gSa
(2) Only A is correct
(2) dsoy A lgh gS
(3) Only B is correct
(3) dsoy B lgh gS
(4) Both A and B are incorrect (4) A o B nksuksa xyr gS

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Test-4 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET -2020

134. Photorespiration leads to the ___ loss of fixed 134. çdk'k 'olu ds dkj.k ___ fLFkj CO2 dh gkfu
CO2.
gksrh gS
(1) 25 percent (2) 50 percent
(1) 25 çfr'kr (2) 50 çfr'kr
(3) 1 percent (4) 90 percent
(3) 1 çfr'kr (4) 90 çfr'kr
135. OAA is first product of 135. OAA ____ dk çFke mRikn gS
(1) Calvin cycle (1) dsfYou pØ
(2) Hatch-Slack pathway (2) gSp-LySd iFkØe
(3) Photorespiration (3) çdk'k'olu
(4) C3 cycle in CAM plants (4) CAM ikniksa esa C3 pØ

136. Which of the following represent non-nucleated 136. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d jDr dk dsUnzd jfgr
formed elements of blood? laxfBr inkFkZ n”kkZrk gSa\
(1) Eosinophils (2) Basophils (1) bvksfluksfQYl (2) cslksfQYl

(3) Lymphocytes (4) Thrombocytes (3) ylhdk.kq (4) FkzkEs ckslkbV~l

137. A network of threads forming coagulum at the site 137. pksV ds LFky ij Ldanu dks fufeZr djus okys /kkxsa
of injury primarily consists of ds tky izkFkfed #i ls cus gksrs gS\
(1) Fibrin (2) Fibrinogen (1) Qkbfczu (2) Qkbfczukstu
(3) Thrombin (4) Prothrombin (3) Fkzkfs Ecu (4) izkFs kzksfEcu
138. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t lymphatic 138. ylhdkHk ra= ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk p;u
system dhft,A
(1) The fluid is drained into major arteries through (1) nzo yfldk okfgfu;ksa ds ekè;e ls eq[; /kefu;ksa
lymph vessels esa tkrk gS
(2) It consists of capillaries, vessels, nodes and (2) ;g dsf”kdkvksa] okfgfu;ksa] xzafFk;ksa rFkk okfgdkvksa
ducts ls cuk gksrk gS
(3) The walls of larger lymphatic vessels are (3) cM+h ylhdkHk okfgfu;ksa dh fHkfÙk f”kjkvksa ds
similar to veins leku gksrh gS
(4) Lymphoid organs comprise of thymus, tonsils, (4) yfldkHk vaxksa esa Fkkbel] VkWfUly] Iyhgk rFkk
spleen and bone marrow vfLFk eTtk lekfo’V gksrs gSa
139. A neonate with blood group A positive suffered 139. jDr lewg A +ve okyk ,d uotkr bfjFkzkCs ykLVksfll
erythroblastosis fetalis. Choose the option that QhVsfyl ls ihfM+r gSA ml fodYi dk p;u dhft,
represents the possible blood group of his
tks mlds ekrk&firk ds lEHko jDr lewg dks n”kkZrk
parents.
gS
Mother Father
ekrk firk
(1) A positive O negative (1) A ikstfs Vo O usxsfVo
(2) O negative A positive (2) O usxsfVo A ikstfs Vo

(3) A positive A positive (3) A ikstfs Vo A ikstfs Vo

(4) O negative A negative (4) O usxsfVo A usxsfVo

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-4 (Code-A)

140. The opening in thick fibrous tissue septum 140. euq’;ksa esa] ân; ds ck,¡ vksj ds dks’B dks vyx djus
separating chambers on left side of the heart in okys eksVs js”ksnkj Ård iV dk fNæ [kqyuk fdlds
humans, is guarded by }kjk fu;af=r gksrk gS\
(1) Two flaps (1) nks ¶ySi
(2) Half-moon shaped flaps (2) v/kZpUnzkdkj ¶ySi
(3) Three flaps (3) rhu ¶ySi
(4) No flaps (4) dksbZ ¶ySi ugha
141. Double circulation differs from incomplete double 141. f}&ifjlapj.k] viw.kZ f}&ifjlapj.k ls fHkUu gksrk gS
circulation as in latter D;ksfa d viw.kZ f}lapj.k esa
(1) Left atrium receives oxygenated blood (1) cka;k vkfyan vkWDlhtfur jDr çkIr djrk gS
(2) Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood (2) nk;ka vkfyan fovkWDlhtfur jDr çkIr djrk gS
(3) Heart pumps out mixed blood (3) ân; fefJr jDr iai djrk gS
(4) Heart pumps out mixed blood from different (4) ân; fofHkUu dks"B ls fefJr jDr iai djrk gS
chambers
142. f'kjk vkfyan ioZ ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk p;u
142. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. sino-atrial dhft,A
node
(1) ;g nk,¡ vkfyan ds Åijh nk,¡ dksus ij mifLFkr
(1) It is present in upper right corner of right gksrk gS
atrium
(2) ;g yxkrkj vkosxksa dk mRiknu djrk gS
(2) It produces impulses spontaneously
(3) ;g dsoy fuy;h ek;ksdkfMZ;e ds ladqpu dks
(3) It stimulates the contraction of only ventricular
mÙksftr djrk gS
myocardium
(4) blesa nksuksa vuqdaih rFkk ijkuqdEih raf=dkvksa dh
(4) It is innervated by both sympathetic and
parasympathetic nerves
vkiwfrZ gksrh gS
143. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk ?kVukØe fuy;h izdqapu
143. Which of the following events does not occur
during ventricular systole? ds nkSjku ugha gksrk gS\
(1) Closure of AV valves (1) AV dikVksa dk can gksuk

(2) Opening of semilunar valves (2) v/kZpUnzkdkj dikVksa dk [kqyuk

(3) Relaxation of atria (3) vfyUnksa dk vuqf”kfFkyu

(4) Second heart sound (4) f}rh; ân; èofu

144. Read the following statements. 144. fuEufyf[kr dFkukas dks if<+,A

Statement A : The cardiac output of an athlete


dFku A : ,d lkekU; O;fDr dh vis{kk ,d f[kykM+h
will be higher than that of an ordinary man. dh ân; fuxZr vf/kd gksrh gSA
Statement B : The endurance trained state in a dFku B : ,d f[kykM+h esa /khjt çf'kf{kr voLFkk
sportsperson is associated with greater stroke laof/kZr çhyksM ds dkj.k vf/kdre çokg vk;ru ds
volume because of augmented preload. lkFk lEcfU/kr gksrk gSA
Choose the correct option. lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Only statement A is correct (1) dsoy dFku A lgh gS
(2) Only statement B is correct (2) dsoy dFku B lgh gS
(3) Statement B explains statement A (3) dFku B dFku A dk o.kZu djrk gS
(4) Both statements are incorrect (4) nksuksa dFku xyr gS

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Test-4 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET -2020

145. While studying an ECG, the heart rate can be 145. tc ECG dk vè;;u fd;k tkrk gS rks izk;% fdldh
determined by usually counting the la[;k ls ân; nj dks fu/kkZfjr fd;k tk ldrk gS
(1) P-waves (1) P-rjaxs
(2) QRS complexes (2) QRS lfEeJ
(3) T waves (3) T rjaxs
(4) PR intervals (4) PR vUrjky
146. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. blood 146. ;d`r dh :f/kj okfgfu;ksa ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk
vessels of liver.
p;u dhft,A
(1) Hepatic artery brings oxygenated blood into
(1) ;d`r /kefu;k¡ ;d`r esa vkWDlhtfur #f/kj
the liver
igq¡pkrh gS
(2) Hepatic portal vein brings nutrient rich
(2) ;d`r fuokfgdk f”kjk] ;d`r esa iks’k.k izpqj
deoxygenated blood into the liver
fovkWDlhtfur #f/kj igq¡pkrh gS
(3) Hepatic vein carries urea rich blood out of the
liver (3) ;d`r f”kjk] ;d`r ls ;wfj;k ;qDr #f/kj dks ys
tkrh gS
(4) Hepatic portal vein and hepatic vein both carry
deoxygenated blood out of the liver (4) ;d`r fuokfgdk f”kjk rFkk ;d`r f”kjk nksuksa

147. The walls of blood vessels in human body are


;d`r ls fovkWDlhtfur #f/kj dks ys tkrh gS
internally lined by 147. ekuo “kjhj esa jDr okfgfu;ksa dh fHkfÙk vkarfjd #i
(1) More white fibres and less yellow fibres ls fdlls vLrfjr gksrh gS\
(2) More yellow fibres and less muscles fibres (1) vR;f/kd “osr rUrqvksa rFkk de ihys rUrqvksa ls

(3) White fibres, muscle fibres and endothelium (2) vR;f/kd ihys rUrqvksa rFkk fuEu is”kh; rUrqvksa ls

(4) Endothelium (3) “osr rUrqvksa] is”kh rUrqvksa rFkk ,.MksFkhfy;e ls

148. The part of brain responsible for maintenance of (4) ,.MksFkhfy;e ls


cardiac function through autonomic nervous 148. efLr’d dk og Hkkx tks Lok;Ùk raf=dk ra= ds
system is ekè;e ls ân; dk;ksZa dks cuk, j[kus ds fy,
(1) Midbrain mÙkjnk;h gksrk gS\
(2) Cerebrum (1) eè;efLr’d
(3) Pons (2) izefLr’d
(4) Medulla oblongata (3) iksal
149. ‘Complete stoppage of heart beat’ is referred to as (4) esM~;yw k vkscyksxa sVk
(1) Angina pectoris 149. ‘ân; Lianu dk iw.kZ #i ls #duk’ fdlls lEcfU/kr
(2) Heart failure gS
(3) Heart attack (1) ,sfUtuk isDVksfjl (2) gkVZ QsY;ksj

(4) Cardiac arrest (3) gkVZ vVSd (4) dkfMZ,d vjsLV

150. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. healthy adult 150. ,d LoLFk O;Ld euq’; ds lanHkZ esa xyr feyku dk
human p;u dhft,A
(1) Lymph = Blood − (RBCs + large proteins) (1) yfldk = jDr − (RBCs + cMs+ izkV s hu)
(2) Leucocytes = 6000 − 8000/mm3 (2) Y;wdkslkbV = 6000 − 8000/mm3
(3) Serum = Plasma + Clotting factors (3) lhje = IykTek + LdUnu dkjd
(4) Erythrocytes = 5 − 5.5 million/mm3 (4) bfjFkzkslkbV~l = 5 − 5.5 fefy;u/mm3

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-4 (Code-A)

151. In the given figure, the structure labelled ‘X’ is 151. fn, x, vkjs[k esa ukekafdr lajpuk ‘X’ vkarfjd #i
internally lined by ls fdlds }kjk vkLrfjr gS\

(1) Simple squamous epithelium (1)ljy “kYdh midyk


(2) Simple cuboidal brush bordered epithelium (2) ljy ?kukdkj cz”k ckMZj midyk
(3) Simple cuboidal ciliated epithelium (3) ljy ?kukdkj i{ekHkh midyk
(4) Pseudostratified epithelium (4) dwV Lrjhd`r midyk
152. In human kidney, the cortex extends between the 152. ekuo o`Dd esa] oYdqV eè;ka”k fijSfeM ds eè; LrEHk
medullary pyramids as columns called ds #i esa foLr`r gksrs gS] mUgsa dgrs gS
(1) Renal pelvis (1) o`Dd Jksf.k
(2) Columns of Bertini (2) cjfruh ds LrEHk
(3) Minor calyx (3) y?kq dSfyDl
(4) Major calyx (4) izeq[k dSfyDl
153. Choose the odd one w.r.t diuretics 153. ew=o/kZd ds lanHkZ esa ,d fo’ke dk p;u dhft,A
(1) ADH (2) Alcohol (1) ADH (2) ,Ydksgy
(3) ANF (4) Caffeine (3) ANF (4) dSQhu
154. Choose the correct match w.r.t. organism and its 154. tho rFkk blds eq[; mRlthZ mRiknksa ds lanHkZ esa
chief excretory product. lgh feyku dk p;u dhft,A
i. Bony fishes (a) Ammonia i. vfLFky eNyh (a) veksfu;k
ii. Terrestrial insects (b) Urea ii. LFkyh; dhV (b) ;wfj;k
iii. Marine fishes (c) Uric acid iii. leqnzh eNyh (c) ;wfjd vEy
(d) Guanine (d) Xokuhu
(1) i(b), ii(a), iii(d) (2) i(a), ii(c), iii(b) (1) i(b), ii(a), iii(d) (2) i(a), ii(c), iii(b)
(3) i(a), ii(c), iii(d) (4) i(a), ii(b), iii(c) (3) i(a), ii(c), iii(d) (4) i(a), ii(b), iii(c)
155. Which of the following is not a component of the 155. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d usÝksu dh fuL;anu
filtration membrane of nephron? f>Yyh dk vo;o ugha gS\
(1) Endothelium of glomerular blood vessels (1) Xykses#yj #f/kj okfgfu;ksa dh ,.MksFkhfy;e
(2) Epithelium of Bowman’s capsule (2) cksesu lEiqV dh ,ihfFkfy;e
(3) Basement membrane between these layers (3) bu lrgksa ds eè; vk/kkjh; f>Yyh
(4) Mesothelium of glomerular blood vessels (4) Xykses#yj #f/kj okfgfu;ksa dh ehtksFkhfy;e
156. Osmoregulatory structures in Planaria are 156. IySufs j;k esa ilklj.kfu;eu lajpuk gS
(1) Protonephridia (2) Mesonephridia (1) izkVs ksufs ÝfM;k (2) ehtksusfÝfM;k
(3) Metanephridia (4) Nephrons (3) esVkusfÝfM;k (4) usÝksu

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Test-4 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET -2020

157. The juxta glomerular apparatus is formed by the 157. tDLVk Xykses:yj midj.k fdlds #ikarj.k }kjk
modification of fufeZr gksrk gS\
(1) DCT only (1) dsoy DCT
(2) DCT and efferent arteriole (2) DCT rFkk viokgh /kefudkvksa
(3) DCT and afferent arteriole (3) DCT rFkk vfHkokgh /kefudkvksa
(4) DCT, afferent and efferent arteriole (4) DCT, vfHkokgh rFkk viokgh /kefudkvksa
158. Sympathetic stimulation of arteries of kidney leads 158. o`Dd dh /kefu;ksa ds vuqdEih mn~nhiu ds dkj.k
to their I and II in GFR. Choose the option budk I rFkk GFR esa II gksrh gSA ml fodYi
that fills I and II correctly. dk p;u dhft, tks fjDr LFkkuksa I rFkk II dh lgh
#i ls iwfrZ djrk gSA
I II
I II
(1) Dilation Increase (1) foLrkj.k o`f)
(2) Constriction Decrease (2) ladqpu deh
(3) Constriction Increase (3) ladqpu o`f}
(4) Dilation Decrease (4) foLrkj.k deh
159. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. regulation 159. o`Dd ds dk;Z ds fu;eu ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk
of kidney function. p;u dhft,A
(1) Angiotensin II signals PCT to reabsorb more (1) ,aft;ksVsfUlu II PCT dks vf/kd NaCl rFkk ty
NaCl and water ds iqujko”kks’k.k ds fy, ladsr nsrk gS
(2) Aldosterone induces distal parts of the tubule (2) ,YMksLVsjku ufydk ds nwjLFk Hkkx dks vR;f/kd
to reabsorb more Na+ and water Na+ rFkk ty ds iqujko”kks’k.k ds fy, izsfjr
(3) Renin converts Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II djrk gS
(4) RAAS is a multihormonal system that can (3) jsfuu ,fUt;ksVfs lu I dks ,fUt;ksVsflu II esa
regulate blood volume and blood pressure. ifjofrZr djrk gS
160. Release of ADH can be stimulated by all of the (4) RAAS ,d eYVhgkeksZuy ra= gS tks jDr vk;ru
following except rFkk jDr nkc dks fua;f=r djrk gS
(1) Loss of fluid from the body 160. fdlds vfrfjDr fuEufyf[kr lHkh }kjk ADH dk
(2) Increased ionic concentration in body
L=o.k çsfjr gks ldrk gS
(1) “kjhj ls nzo dh gkfu
(3) Reduction in blood pressure
(2) “kjhj esa vk;uh lkanzrk esa o`f)
(4) Increased blood volume
(3) jDrnkc esa deh
161. Diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed by the
(4) jDr vk;ru esa o`f)
presence of ___ in urine. Choose the option that
fills the blank correctly 161. ew= esa ___ dh mifLFkfr ls Mk;fcVht esyhVl dh
(1) Glucose (2) Fructose
igpku dh tk ldrh gSA ml fodYi dk p;u
dhft, tks lgh #i ls fjDr LFkku dh iwfrZ djrk gS
(3) Urea (4) Creatinine
(1) Xywdkst (2) ÝDVkst
162. Mammals have the ability to produce concentrated
(3) ;wfj;k (4) fØVsfuu
urine. This happens primarily because of all the
following except 162. Lru/kkfj;ksa esa lkafnzr ew= mRiUu djus dh {kerk
(1) Counter current mechanism
gksrh gSA fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlds vfrfjDr vU;
lHkh ds dkj.k izkFkfed #i ls ;g ?kfVr gksrk gS\
(2) Proximity between Henle’s loop and vasa
recta (1) izfr/kkjk fØ;kfof/k
(2) gsuys ywi rFkk oklk jsDVk ds eè; fudVrk
(3) Long loops of Henle in cortical nephrons
(3) oYdqVh; usÝksu esa gsuys dh yEch ywi
(4) Long loops of Henle in juxtamedullary
(4) tDLVk esMywjh usÝksu esa gsuys dh yEch ywi

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-4 (Code-A)

nephrons 163. o`Dd df.kdk esa vuqifLFkr gksrh gS


163. Renal corpuscle lacks (1) Xykses:yl
(1) Glomerulus (2) cksesu lEiqV
(2) Bowman's capsule (3) ink.kq

(3) Podocytes (4) ljy ?kukdkj midyk

(4) Simple cuboidal epithelium 164. lajpuk rFkk blls lEcfU/kr mRlthZ mRikn ds lanHkZ
esa lgh feyku dk p;u dhft,A
164. Choose the correct match w.r.t. structure and its
respective excretory product a. ;d`r (i) dkcZu MkbvkWDlkbM
b. Losn xzzafFk;k¡ (ii) fiÙk o.kZd
a. Liver (i) Carbon dioxide
c. rSy xzzafFk (iii) gkbMªksdkcZu
b. Sweat glands (ii) Bile pigments
d. QsQM+s (iv) NaCl
c. Sebaceous glands (iii) Hydrocarbons
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
d. Lungs (iv) NaCl
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) 165. o`Dd ds eè; fufeZr v?kqyu”khy fØLVfyr yo.kksa ds
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) fiaM dks dgrs gS
165. Insoluble masses of crystallised salts formed (1) Xykses#yksusfÝfVl (2) jhuy dsydqykbZ
within the kidney are referred to as (3) fiyiFkjh (4) dhVksU;wfj;k
(1) Glomerulonephritis (2) Renal calculi 166. diky dh ;qXeh vfLFk;ksa ds lanHkZ esa ,d fo’ke dk
(3) Cholelithiasis (4) Ketonuria p;u dhft,A
166. Choose the odd one w.r.t paired bones of skull (1) iSjkbVy (2) ,Fkeks;M
(3) tkbxksesfVd (4) eSfDlyk
(1) Parietal (2) Ethmoid
167. ,d O;Ld euq’; dh ilfy;ksa ds lanHkZ esa xyr
(3) Zygomatic (4) Maxilla
dFku dk p;u dhft,A
167. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t ribs of an (1) izR;sd ilyh ,d iryh piVh vfLFk gS rFkk
adult human.
lHkh ilfy;k¡ mjksfLFk ls i`’Bh; #i ls tqM+h
(1) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all ribs are gksrh gS
connected dorsally to the sternum (2) okLrfod ilfy;k¡ nks fljksa ls d”ks#d ls tqM+h
(2) True ribs are attached with vertebrae by two gksrh gS
heads (3) oVhZczkd s ksUMªy ilfy;ksa ds rhu tksfM+;k¡
(3) The three pairs of vertebrochondral ribs are oVhZczkLs Vjuy ilfy;ksa ls tqM+h gksrh gS
attached to vertebrosternal ribs (4) Iykoh ilfy;k¡ o`Ddksa dh lqj{kk çnku djrh gS
(4) Floating ribs protect the kidneys 168. og lfU/k tks euq’; ds vaxwBs dks eqDr #i ls xeu
168. Joint which allows free movement of human djus nsrh gS
thumb is (1) dUnqd [kfYydk laf/k (2) lSMy laf/k
(1) Ball and socket joint (2) Saddle joint (3) folihZ laf/k (4) /kqjkxz laf/k
(3) Gliding joint (4) Pivot joint 169. rarq folihZ fl)kar ds vuqlkj]

169. According to sliding filament theory, (1) xgjs rFkk gYds ek;ksfQykesV a vius okLrfod
LFkku ls xfr djrs gSa rFkk ,d nwljs dh vksj
(1) Dark and light myofilaments move from their ljdrs gSA
original position and slide towards each other
(2) xgjs ek;ksfQykesUV NksVs gksrs gSa rFkk gYds
(2) Dark myofilaments shorten and slide towards ek;ksfQykesUV dh vksj vk tkrs gS
light myofilaments
(3) is”kh ladqpu ds nkSjku u rks xgjs u gh gYds
(3) Neither dark nor light myofilaments shorten ek;ksfQykesV NksVs gksrs gS
during muscle contraction
(4) gYds ek;ksfQykesUV vius fljksa ds foLrkj }kjk
(4) Light myofilaments participate in it by ØkWl lsrw fuekZ.k esa Hkkx ysrs gS

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Test-4 (Code-A) Test Series for NEET -2020

extending their heads to form cross bridges 170. gkbiksdSfY”kfe;k ds dkj.k is”kh esa yxkrkj is'kh
170. A condition of sustained muscle contraction ladqpu dh voLFkk dks dgrs gS]
occurring due to hypocalcemia is called (1) Vksul (2) VsVul

(1) Tonus (2) Tetanus (3) fVVsuh (4) VªSIih


171. f}f”kjLd esa is”kh rUrq gksrs gS] tks
(3) Tetany (4) Treppe
(1) jsf[kr] “kkf[kr rFkk cgqdsUnzdh gksrs gS
171. Biceps contain muscle fibres that are
(2) jsf[kr] “kk[kkjfgr rFkk ,ddsUnzdh gksrh gS
(1) Striated, branched and syncytial
(3) rdqZ#ih] “kkf[kr rFkk cgqdsUnzdh gksrh gS
(2) Striated, unbranched and mononucleated (4) csyukdkj] “kk[kkjfgr rFkk jsf[kr gksrh gS
(3) Fusiform, branched and syncytial 172. F-,fDVu ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(4) Cylindrical, unbranched and striated (1) ;g js”kh; rFkk daqMfyr gksrs gS
172. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. F-actin. (2) ;g cgqyhd`r izkV s hu gksrs gS
(1) It is filamentous and helically wound (3) ;g ladqpu'khy LMM rFkk HMM ds cus gksrs gS
(2) It is a polymerised protein (4) ;g ladqpu”khy izkV s hu gksrs gS
(3) It is made up of contractile LMM and HMM 173. mikfLFk;qDr laf/k vfLFk;k¡ dgk¡ ij@ds eè; ns[kh tk
ldrh gS\
(4) It is a contractile protein
(1) dikyh; vfLFk;k¡ (2) t?ku la/kku
173. Cartilaginous joints bones can be seen at/between
(3) dkiZy (4) ,Vyl rFkk v{kh;
(1) Skull bones (2) Pubic symphysis 174. ,d vk;q lEcU/kh dadkyh fodkj tks vfLFk;ksa ls
(3) Carpals (4) Atlas and axis [kfutksa dh deh }kjk vfHkyk{kf.kr gksrh gS
174. An age related skeletal disorder which is (1) xkmV
characterised by loss of minerals from the bone is
(2) vfLFk lqf’kjrk
(1) Gout
(3) vksfLV;ksvkFkzkZbfVl
(2) Osteoporosis
(4) :esfV laf/k”kksFk
(3) Osteoarthritis
175. da/kk laf/k esa LdSiqyk o fdlds chp dk laf/k;kstu
(4) Rheumatoid arthritis
lfEefyr gksrk gS\
175. Shoulder joint involves articulation between
(1) Qhej (2) DySfody
scapula and
(3) â;wesjl (4) mjksfLFk
(1) Femur (2) Clavicle
176. ,dy ekuo ikn esa mifLFkr esVkdkiZy dh dqy
(3) Humerus (4) Sternum
la[;k gksrh gS
176. Total number of metacarpals present in a single
human limb is (1) 5 (2) 10
(3) 20 (4) 30
(1) 5 (2) 10
177. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks if<+,
(3) 20 (4) 30
(a) gkbvksbM mikaxh; dadky dk ,d v;qfXer
177. Read the following statements.
vfLFk gS
(a) Hyoid is an unpaired bone of appendicular
skeleton. (b) VsEiksjy vfLFk;k¡ lhou dh lgk;rk ls iSjkbVy

(b) Temporal bones are joined with parietal bones


vfLFk;ksa ds lkFk tqM+h gksrh gS
by sutures. (c) f}rh; xzhok d”ks:d dks ,Vyl dgrs gS
(c) The second cervical vertebra is called atlas. (d) iVSyk] lslkekWbM vfLFk dk ,d mnkgj.k gS
(d) Patella is an example of sesamoid bone. lgh dFkuksa okys fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
Choose the option with correct statements. (1) (a) rFkk (b) (2) (a) rFkk (c)
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (a) and (c) (3) (b) rFkk (c) (4) (b) rFkk (d)

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-4 (Code-A)

(3) (b) and (c) (4) (b) and (d) 178. Jksf.k es[kyk dh d{kkax vfLFk;ksa esa lekfo’V gksrh gS
178. Coxal bone of pelvic girdle comprises (a) bfy;e (b) bfLp;e
(a) Ilium (b) Ischium (c) {kqækar (d) I;wfcl
(c) Ileum (d) Pubis (1) dsoy (a) rFkk (b) (2) dsoy (b) rFkk (c)
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only (3) (b), (c) rFkk (d) (4) (a), (b) rFkk (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d) 179. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlds vfrfjDr vU; lHkh yky
179. Red muscle fibres contain all the following except is'kh rUrqvksa esa gksrs gSa
(1) Myoglobin (2) Mitochondria (1) ek;ksXyksfcu (2) ekbVksdkfMª;k

(3) Many nuclei (4) Gap junctions (3) vusd dsUnzd (4) vUrjkyh lfU/k

180. The connective tissue covering of a muscle is 180. ,d is”kh dk la;ksth Ård vkoj.k dgykrk gS\
called (1) ,ihekbfl;e (2) isjhekbfl;e
(1) Epimysium (2) Perimysium (3) ,UMksekbfl;e (4) lkdksZyEs ek
(3) Endomysium (4) Sarcolemma

❑ ❑ ❑

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31/03/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

1. (4) 37. (4) 73. (2) 109. (1) 145. (2)


2. (3) 38. (4) 74. (4) 110. (1) 146 (4)
3. (1) 39. (1) 75. (2) 111. (1) 147. (4)
4. (3) 40. (4) 76. (2) 112. (2) 148. (4)
5. (3) 41. (1) 77. (2) 113. (1) 149. (4)
6. (2) 42. (1) 78. (1) 114. (3) 150. (3)
7. (3) 43. (2) 79. (2) 115. (1) 151. (2)
8. (1) 44. (4) 80. (4) 116. (1) 152. (2)
9. (3) 45. (1) 81. (2) 117. (2) 153. (1)
10. (4) 46. (2) 82. (2) 118. (3) 154. (2)
11. (2) 47. (4) 83. (2) 119. (4) 155. (4)
12. (3) 48. (2) 84. (1) 120. (3) 156. (1)
13. (3) 49. (4) 85. (2) 121. (1) 157. (3)
14. (2) 50. (1) 86. (4) 122. (3) 158. (2)
15. (2) 51. (2) 87. (2) 123. (3) 159. (3)
16. (1) 52. (3) 88. (3) 124. (3) 160. (4)
17. (3) 53. (1) 89. (4) 125. (4) 161. (1)
18. (3) 54. (3) 90. (4) 126. (1) 162. (3)
19. (4) 55. (4) 91. (3) 127. (4) 163. (4)
20. (1) 56. (3) 92. (3) 128. (2) 164. (4)
21. (2) 57. (1) 93. (3) 129. (4) 165. (2)
22. (1) 58. (2) 94. (1) 130. (4) 166. (2)
23. (2) 59. (3) 95. (4) 131. (3) 167. (1)
24. (3) 60. (1) 96. (3) 132. (2) 168. (2)
25. (3) 61. (1) 97. (4) 133. (1) 169. (3)
26. (1) 62. (3) 98. (3) 134. (1) 170. (3)
27. (2) 63. (1) 99. (1) 135. (2) 171. (4)
28. (4) 64. (3) 100. (1) 136. (4) 172. (3)
29. (2) 65. (4) 101. (2) 137. (1) 173. (2)
30. (2) 66. (2) 102. (2) 138. (1) 174. (2)
31. (2) 67. (1) 103. (3) 139. (2) 175. (3)
32. (2) 68. (1) 104. (2) 140. (1) 176. (1)
33. (2) 69. (3) 105. (2) 141. (3) 177. (4)
34. (2) 70. (3) 106. (2) 142. (3) 178. (4)
35. (1) 71. (1) 107. (1) 143. (4) 179. (4)
36. (3) 72. (2) 108. (4) 144. (3) 180. (1)

(1)
Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

31/03/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Time : 3:00 Hrs.

1. Answer (4) 1. mÙkj (4)


P
= P
 V  =
 V   V 
   V 
 
 V   V 
 V  = t  V  = t
   
P P
= =
t t
P P
t = t =
 
2. Answer (3) 2. mÙkj (3)
Stress E=
çfrcy
E=
Strain fodf`r
Modulus of elasticity (E) is material’s property. It çR;kLFkrk xq.kkad (E) inkFkZ dk xq.k gSA ;g leku
will remain same. jgsxkA
3. Answer (1) 3. mÙkj (1)
1 YA 2 1 YA 2
x x
2 l 2 l
4. Answer (3) 4. mÙkj (3)
For elastomers stress-strain curve is not linear çR;kLFkyd ds fy, çfrcy-fod`fr çR;kLFk lhek esa
within elastic limit. js[kh; ugha gksrh gSA
5. Answer (3) 5. mÙkj (3)
Fl Fl
l = l =
YA YA
l A 80  3 l A 80  3
= = 4 :1 = = 4 :1
l B 30  2 l B 30  2

(2)
Test Series for NEET -2020 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

6. Answer (2) 6. mÙkj (2)


F l F l
l = l =
2YA 2YA
l  A  g  l l  A  g  l
l = l =
2Y  A 2Y  A
64  1600  10 64  1600  10
l = l =
2  4  108 2  4  108
= 64 × 2 × 10–5 = 64 × 2 × 10–5
= 128 × 10–5 = 128 × 10–5
= 1.28 × 10–3 = 1.28 mm = 1.28 ×10–3 = 1.28 mm
7. Answer (3) 7. mÙkj (3)
P P
= =
V V
V V

V P V P
= =
V  V 

= gh  40  10−11 = gh  40  10−11

= 103 × 10 × 2000 × 40 × 10–11 = 103 × 10 × 2000 × 40 × 10–11


= 8 × 10–3 = 8 × 10–3

8. Answer (1) 8. mÙkj (1)


Fl Fl
Y= Y=
lA lA

mgl 2mgl mgl 2mgl


= =
(l1 − l )A (l 2 − l )A (l1 − l )A (l 2 − l )A

(l2 − l )l = 2l (l1 − l ) (l2 − l )l = 2l (l1 − l )

l2 − l = 2l1 − 2l l2 − l = 2l1 − 2l

l = 2l1 − l2 l = 2l1 − l2

9. Answer (3) 9. mÙkj (3)


K = Yr0 K = Yr0

= 20 × 1010 × 4 × 10–10 = 20 × 1010 × 4 ×10–10

= 80 N/m = 80 N/m
= 80 × 10–10 N/Å
= 80 × 10–10 N/Å
= 8 × 10–9 N/Å
= 8 × 10–9 N/Å
10. Answer (4)
10. mÙkj (4)
Yield point (stress) remains same. ijkHko fcUnq (çfrcy) leku jgrk gSA

(3)
Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

11. Answer (2) 11. mÙkj (2)


F F
= gh = gh
A A
100 100
= 103  10h = 103  10h
500  10−4 500  10−4
1
1 =h
=h 5
5
h = 0.2 m
h = 0.2 m
12. mÙkj (3)
12. Answer (3)
rki esa o`f) ds lkFk æo dh ';kurk ?kVrh gS rFkk
With increase in temperature, viscosity of liquids
xSl dh ';kurk c<+rh gSA
decreases and that of gas increases.
13. mÙkj (3)
13. Answer (3)
2gr 2
2gr 2 VT = ( − )
VT = ( − ) 9
9
2  10(2  10−3 )2
−3 2 6.5  10−2 = (8.9  103 − )
2  10(2  10 ) 9  9.9  10−1
6.5  10−2 = (8.9  103 − )
9  9.9  10−1
 = 1.66  103 kg/ m3
3 3
 = 1.66  10 kg/ m
14. mÙkj (2)
14. Answer (2) tgk¡ vuqçLFk dkV dk {ks=Qy de gS] pky vf/kd gS
Where area of cross-section is small, speed is rFkk nkc de gSA
high and pressure is low. 15. mÙkj (2)
15. Answer (2) 4P = gh + P
4P = gh + P gh
P=
gh 3
P=
3 2
P + gh   = P1
3
2
P + gh   = P1
3  P1 = 3P

 P1 = 3P 16. mÙkj (1)


f=T;k r dh cwna ds fy,
16. Answer (1)
2T
For drop of radius r =p
r
2T 2  8  10−2
=p  r =  4  10−5 m
r
4  103
2  8  10−2 17. mÙkj (3)
 r =  4  10−5 m
4  103
IysV dks i`FkDd`r djus ds fy, vko';d cy
17. Answer (3) 2SA
F=
Force required to separate the plate t

2SA 2  70  10−3  10−1 2  70  10−3  10−1


F= = = 140 N = = 140 N
t 1 10−4 1 10−4

(4)
Test Series for NEET -2020 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

18. Answer (3) 18. mÙkj (3)


R = 2 h(30 − h) R = 2 h(30 − h)
19. Answer (4) 19. mÙkj (4)
Velocity profile of a viscous fluid is a parabola. ,d ';ku rjy dh osx :ijs[kk ,d ijoy; gSA
20. Answer (1) 20. mÙkj (1)
Since volume remains the same when a liquid
pwfa d vk;ru leku jgrk gS tc f=T;k R dh ,d
drop of radius R breaks up into N3 droplets, each
of radius r,
æo dh cwan f=T;k r dh N3 cwna ksa esa VwVrh gSA
4 3  4 3  R
4 3  4 3  R R = N3  r  ;k r =
R = N3  r  or r = 3  3  N
3  3  N
Change in internal energy,
vkarfjd ÅtkZ esa ifjorZu,
U = T  A = T [4R 2 − N 2 (4r 2 )]
U = T  A = T [4R 2 − N 2 (4r 2 )]
U
U pfawd U = mc T , T =
As U = mcT , T = mc
mc
4T (R 2 − N 2r 2 ) 3(N − 1)T
4T (R 2 − N 2r 2 ) 3(N − 1)T ;k T = =
or T = = (4 / 3)R 3c PCR
(4 / 3)R 3c PCR
21. mÙkj (2)
21. Answer (2)
RT
RT p = (n1 + n2 )
p = (n1 + n2 ) V
V
m (10 − m) 2  105  0.04
5
m (10 − m) 2  10  0.04  + =
 + = 2 4 8.3  293
2 4 8.3  293
2m + 10 − m
 = 3.29
2m + 10 − m 4
 = 3.29
4  m = 3.16 g
 m = 3.16 g (10 – m) = 6.84 g
(10 – m) = 6.84 g 22. mÙkj (1)
22. Answer (1) PV = nRT
PV = nRT  PV = nRT
 PV = nRT V T
 =
V T
V T
 = V 1
V T  =
V T T
V 1
 = 23. mÙkj (2)
V T T
nCV T
23. Answer (2)
R
nCV T = 3  20
5 

3 1
R 9  
= 3  20 =  20  R
5  2
 3 − 1 9
  =  20  R
2
9 25 9 25
=  20  = 750 J =  20  = 750 J
2 3 2 3

(5)
Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

24. Answer (3) 24. mÙkj (3)


PV = nRT
PV = nRT
Third graph is incorrect as PV would not remain
;g vkjs[k xyr gS D;ksafd PV fu;r ugha jgsxk ;fn
constant if T changes.
T ifjofrZr gksrk gSA
25. Answer (3)
25. mÙkj (3)
3RT
Vr .m.s. = 3RT
M Vr .m.s. =
M
3RT
V 3RT
= M
V M
V1 9RT =
M
V1 9RT
M
3
3
V 1
=  V1 = 3V V 1
V1 3 =  V1 = 3V
V1 3
26. Answer (1)
26. mÙkj (1)
W = 2P0 V0 = 4P0V0
W = 2P0 V0 = 4P0V0
3
nCV T = n  Rx 2T0 3
2 nCV T = n  Rx 2T0
2
= 3 nRT0 = 3 nRT0
5 5
nCP T = n  R 6T0 nCP T = n  R 6T0
2 2
= 15 nRT0 = 15 nRT0
Q+ = 18nRT0 = 18PV
0 0 Q+ = 18nRT0 = 18PV
0 0

w w
=  100 =  100
Qsupplied Q vkifwrZ

4P0V0 4P0V0
=  100 = 22.2% =  100 = 22.2%
18P0V0 18P0V0

27. Answer (2) 27. mÙkj (2)


W = nRT W = nRT
nR T nR T
Q= Q=
 

W W
Q= Q=
7   7 
 5 − 1  5 − 1
   

5W 5W
Q= Q=
2 2

28. Answer (4) 28. mÙkj (4)


Initially gas is being compressed and later it çkjEHk esa xSal laihfM+r gksrh gS rFkk ckn esa ;g
expands. çlkfjr gksrh gSA

(6)
Test Series for NEET -2020 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

29. Answer (2) 29. mÙkj (2)


1 3 1 3
(1 − ) = 1 − = (1 − ) = 1 − =
4 4 4 4
30. Answer (2) 30. mÙkj (2)
Amount of sweat evaporated ok"ihd`r ilhus dh ek=kA
15  103  80 kg 1500  80 15  103  80 kg 1500  80
= = g = = g
580  103  100 580 580  103  100 580
31. Answer (2) 31. mÙkj (2)
2/3
V = KT V = KT 2/3
2K −1/3 2K −1/3
dV = T dT dV = T dT
3 3
PV = nRT PV = nRT
nRT nRT
P= P=
V V
dW = PdV dW = PdV
nRT 2 nRT 2
dW = KT −1/3dT dW = KT −1/3dT
V 3 V 3
2 nRT 2 nRT
dW = KT −1/3dT dW = KT −1/3dT
3 KT 2/3 3 KT 2/3
2 2
 dW =  3 nRdT  dW =  3 nRdT
2 80 2 80
W=  40R = R = 26.6 R W=  40R = R = 26.6 R
3 3 3 3
32. Answer (2) 32. mÙkj (2)
Q = mS T Q = mS T

Q1 m1 Q1 m1
= =
Q2 m2 Q2 m2

4 3 4 3
 r r
3 1 3 1
= =
4
4
 (2r )3 8  (2r )3 8
3 3
33. Answer (2) 33. mÙkj (2)
mLf + mS (100 – 60) = 200 × 1 × (60 – 20) mLf + mS (100 – 60) = 200 × 1 × (60 – 20)
m(540 + 40) = 200 × 40 m(540 + 40) = 200 × 40
200  40 200  40
m= = 13.8 g m= = 13.8 g
580 580
34. Answer (2) 34. mÙkj (2)
At high altitudes pressure is low due to which the mPp Å¡pkbZ ij nkc de gS ftlds dkj.k DoFkukad
boiling point reduces. fcUnw de gksrk gSA

(7)
Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

35. Answer (1) 35. mÙkj (1)


m m
PV = nRT = RT PV = nRT = RT
M M
 P   P 

36. Answer (3) 36. mÙkj (3)

ml 2 I 2l ml 2 I 2l
I=  = I=  =
3 I l 3 I l
I
I  = 2T
 = 2T I
I
 I = 2IT
 I = 2IT
37. mÙkj (4)
37. Answer (4)
T1 − T2
T1 − T2 Q=
Q=  l 
 l   KA 
 KA   
 
leku rkikUrj ds fy, f}rh; NM+ ls m"eh; /kkjk
For same temperature difference, heat current
through second rod will be 2Q. So total heat 2Q gksxhA blfy, dqy m"ek /kkjk,
current, Q = Q + 2Q = 3Q. Q = Q + 2Q = 3Q.

38. Answer (4) 38. mÙkj (4)


mT = constant  mT = fu;r

39. Answer (1) 39. mÙkj (1)


t −0 x t −0 x
= =
100 − 0 l 100 − 0 l
100x 100x
t= t=
l l
40. Answer (4) 40. mÙkj (4)
Rate of cooling  (T – T0) 'khryu dh nj  (T – T0)
41. Answer (1) 41. mÙkj (1)
In radiation, the heat travels with speed of light. fofdj.k esa] m"ek çdk'k dh pky ls lapfjr gksrh gSA
42. Answer (1) 42. mÙkj (1)
Q2 − Q1  Q + Q2  Q2 − Q1  Q + Q2 
= k 1 − Qs  = k 1 − Qs 
t  2  t  2 
60 − 50  50 + 60  60 − 50  50 + 60 
=K − Qs  =K − Qs 
10  2  10  2 
1 = K(55 − Qs ) … (i) 1 = K(55 − Qs ) … (i)

(8)
Test Series for NEET -2020 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

50 − 42  50 + 42  50 − 42  50 + 42 
and =K − Qs  rFkk =K − Qs 
10  2  10  2 

4 4
= K ( 46 − Qs ) … (ii) = K ( 46 − Qs ) … (ii)
5 5
5 (55 − Qs ) 5 (55 − Qs )
= =
4 (46 − Qs ) 4 (46 − Qs )

5 × 46 – 5Qs = 55 × 4 – 4Qs 5 × 46 – 5Qs = 55 × 4 – 4Qs


Qs = 46 × 5 – 55 × 4 Qs = 46 × 5 – 55 × 4

Qs = 10 Qs = 10

Qs = 10°C Qs = 10°C

43. Answer (2) 43. mÙkj (2)


Q = AT 4 Q = AT 4
4 4 4 4
1 1 = A2T2
AT 1 1 = A2T2
AT
4 4
 T1  A2 4(9r )2  T1  A2 4(9r )2
  = =   = =
 T2  A1 4(r )2  T2  A1 4(r )2

4 4
 T1  81  T1  81
  =   =
 2
T 1  T2  1

T1 T1
= 3 :1 = 3 :1
T2 T2

44. Answer (4) 44. mÙkj (4)


CP − CV = R CP − CV = R

CP R CP R
−1= −1=
CV CV CV CV

CP 7 CP 7
= =
CV 5 CV 5

f +2 7 f +2 7
= =
f 5 f 5

5f + 10 = 7f 5f + 10 = 7f

f=5 f=5

45. Answer (1) 45. mÙkj (1)


T = constant T = fu;r
4 4
 T2 = T1  T2 = T1
3 3

Power  T 4 'kfDr  T 4

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Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

46. Answer (2) 46. mÙkj (2)


In H – C  N, oxidation state of N is –3. H – C  N esa N dh vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk–3 gSA
47. Answer (4) 47. mÙkj (4)
2HNO3 + 3H2S ⎯⎯→ 2NO + 3S + 4H2O 2HNO3 + 3H2S ⎯⎯→ 2NO + 3S + 4H2O
48. Answer (2) 48. mÙkj (2)
Oxidation state of oxygen may vary from vkWDlhtu dh vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk –2 ls +2 rd
–2 to +2. ifjofrZr gks ldrh gSA
49. Answer (4) 49. mÙkj (4)
Elements with intermediate oxidation state may eè;orhZ vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk okyk rRo vkWDlhd`r o
get oxidized or reduced.
vipf;r gks ldrk gSA
50. Answer (1)
50. mÙkj (1)
Eocell = 0.76 + 0.8 = 1.56 V
Eo = 0.76 + 0.8 = 1.56V
lsy
51. Answer (2)
51. mÙkj (2)
2+
4Zn + NO3− + 7H2O ⎯⎯→ 4Zn + NH+4 + 10OH −
4Zn + NO3− + 7H2O ⎯⎯→ 4Zn2+ + NH+4 + 10OH−
52. Answer (3)
52. mÙkj (3)
− +7 2+
5e + Mn → Mn 5e− + Mn+7 → Mn2+
53. Answer (1) 53. mÙkj (1)
NH4NO3 is composed of NH+4 and NO3− , N have NH4NO3 esa NH+4 rFkk NO3− gksrs gSa] N dh
–3 and +5 oxidation states respectively. vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk,a Øe'k%–3 rFkk +5 gksrh gSA
54. Answer (3) 54. mÙkj (3)
Permanent hardness is due to the presence of LFkk;h dBksjrk dSfYl;e rFkk eSXuhf'k;e ds lYQsV
sulphates and chlorides of calcium and
magnesium.
rFkk DyksjkbM dh mifLFkfr ds dkj.k gksrh gSA
55. Answer (4)
55. mÙkj (4)
boil
boil Ca(HCO3 )2 ⎯⎯⎯ → CaCO3 + H2O + CO2
Ca(HCO3 )2 ⎯⎯⎯ → CaCO3 + H2O + CO2
56. mÙkj (3)
56. Answer (3)
ft;ksykbV vk;u fofue; fof/k esa ç;qDr gksrk gSA
Zeolite is used in ion exchange method.
57. Answer (1) 57. mÙkj (1)
Dielectric constant of H2O is 78.39 C2/N.m2 and H2O dk ijkoS|qrkad 78.39 C2/N.m2 rFkk D2O dk
that of D2O is 78.06 C2/N.m2. ijkoS|qrkad 78.06 C2/N.m2 gksrk gSA
58. Answer (2) 58. mÙkj (2)
59. Answer (3) 59. mÙkj (3)
1 mL H2O2 liberates 25 mL at STP; volume 1 mL H2O2 STP ij 25 mL eqDr djrh gSA vk;ru
strength = 25. lkeF;Z = 25.

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Test Series for NEET -2020 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

60. Answer (1) 60. mÙkj (1)


61. Answer (1) 61. mÙkj (1)
PbS + 4H2O2 → PbSO4 +4H2O PbS + 4H2O2 ⎯→ PbSO4 +4H2O
62. Answer (3) 62. mÙkj (3)
Generally, group I metal oxides are more basic lkekU;r vius vkorZ esa oxZ I ds /kkrq vkWDlkbM oxZ
than group II metal oxides in their respective II ds /kkrq vkWDlkbM dh vis{kk vf/kd gksrs gSaA
period.
63. mÙkj (1)
63. Answer (1)
64. mÙkj (3)
64. Answer (3)
3 M ls mij lkaærk ij uhyk jax dkaL; jax esa
Above 3 M concentration blue colour changes to
ifjofrZr gks tkrk gSA
bronze.
65. mÙkj (4)
65. Answer (4)

 K 2CO3 ⎯⎯ → dkbsZ vi?kVu ugha
K 2CO3 ⎯⎯ → No Decomposition
66. mÙkj (2)
66. Answer (2)


2M(NO3 )2 ⎯⎯ → 2MO + 4NO2 + O2
2M(NO3 )2 ⎯⎯→ 2MO + 4NO2 + O2
67. mÙkj (1)
67. Answer (1)
( CO + H2 ) feJ.k Hkki vaxkj xSl dgykrk gSA
( CO + H2 ) mixture is called water gas.
68. mÙkj (1)
68. Answer (1)
/kuk;u (leku vkos'k okys) ds vkdkj esa o`f) ds lkFk
Hydration enthalpy decreases with increase in ty;kstu ,UFkSYih ?kVrh gSA
size of cations (with same charge).
69. mÙkj (3)
69. Answer (3)
70. mÙkj (3)
70. Answer (3)
oxZ esa uhps pyus ij K ds vfrfjDr ?kuRo c<+rk gS
Down the group density increases except K which
has lower density than Na, due to its large size. cM+s vkdkj ds dkj.k Na dh vis{kk bldk ?kuRo de
gksrk gSA
71. Answer (1) 71. mÙkj (1)
Be, Mg do not impart colour to flame. Be, Mg Tokyk dks jax çnku ugha djrs gSA
72. Answer (2) 72. mÙkj (2)
Be ⎯⎯→ Al shows diagonal relationship. Be ⎯⎯→ Al fod.kZ lEcU/k n'kkZrk gSA
73. Answer (2) 73. mÙkj (2)
74. Answer (4) 74. mÙkj (4)
CaO is quick lime CaO fcu cw>k pwuk gSA
75. Answer (2) 75. mÙkj (2)
76. Answer (2) 76. mÙkj (2)
Atomic radii; Ga < Al < In < Tl ijek.kq f=T;k; Ga < Al < In < Tl
77. Answer (2) 77. mÙkj (2)
78. Answer (1) 78. mÙkj (1)

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Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

79. Answer (2) 79. mÙkj (2)


CO2 is acidic, Na2O and BaO are basic, Al2O3 is CO2 vEyh; gS] Na2O o BaO {kkjh; gS] Al2O3
amphoteric mHk;/kehZ gSA
80. Answer (4) 80. mÙkj (4)
Order of Lewis acid nature ywbZl vEyh; çd`fr dk Øe
BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3, < BI3 BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3, < BI3
81. Answer (2) 81. mÙkj (2)

82. Answer (2) 82. mÙkj (2)


83. Answer (2) 83. mÙkj (2)
B3N3H6 has benzene like structure. B3N3H6 dh lajpuk csUthu ds leku gksrh gSA
84. Answer (1) 84. mÙkj (1)
Solid CO2 is called dry ice. Bksl CO2 'kq"d cQZ dgykrh gSA
85. Answer (2) 85. mÙkj (2)
86. Answer (4) 86. mÙkj (4)
Zeolites are 3D silicates ft;ksykbV 3D flfydsV gSA
87. Answer (2) 87. mÙkj (2)
2Al + 2NaOH + 6H2O → 2Na[Al(OH)4] + 3H2 2Al + 2NaOH + 6H2O → 2Na[Al(OH)4] + 3H2
88. Answer (3) 88. mÙkj (3)
89. Answer (4) 89. mÙkj (4)
SnO and PbO are amphoteric in nature SnO rFkk PbO mHk;/kehZ çd`fr ds gSaA
90. Answer (4) 90. mÙkj (4)
3SiF4 + 4H2O ⎯⎯→ Si(OH)4 +2H2SiF6 3SiF4 + 4H2O ⎯⎯→ Si(OH)4 +2H2SiF6

91. Answer (3) 91. mÙkj (3)


92. mÙkj (3)
92. Answer (3)
eSXuhf'k;e ,d o`griks"kd rRo gS
Magnesium is a macronutrient
93. mÙkj (3)
93. Answer (3) o`griks"kdrRo FkksM+k vf/kd gksus ij fo"kkDr ugha gksrs
Macronutrients are not toxic in slight excess, while gS] tcfd lw{eiks"kd rRo FkksMk+ vf/kd gksus ij
micronutrients are toxic in slight excess. fo"kkDr gksrs gSaA
94. Answer (1) 94. mÙkj (1)
Mg2+ is the activator of DNA synthesising Mg2+ DNA la'ysf"kr ,atkbe dk lfØ;dkjd gksrk
enzymes. gSA
95. Answer (4) 95. mÙkj (4)

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Test Series for NEET -2020 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

96. Answer (3) 96. mÙkj (3)


Ca and Mg forms the calcium and magnesium Ca rFkk Mg Øe'k% dSfYl;e o eSxuhf'k;e dk
pectate respectively. fuekZ.k djrk gSA
97. Answer (4) 97. mÙkj (4)
Alcohol dehydrogenase is activated by Zn2+. ,sYdksgkWy fMgkbMªksftust Zn2+ }kjk lfØ; gksrk gSA
98. Answer (3) 98. mÙkj (3)

99. Answer (1) 99. mÙkj (1)

Pseudomonas is a denitrifying bacteria. L;wMkseksukWl ,d foukbVªhdkjh thok.kq gS


100. Answer (1) 100. mÙkj (1)

Fe and Cu can be reversibly oxidised and reduced Fe o Cu O;qRØekuqikrh :i ls vkWDlhd`r gks ldrs
during electron transport chain. gS rFkk bysDVªkWu ifjogu Ük`a[kyk ds nkSjku vipf;r
101. Answer (2)
gksrk gSA
101. mÙkj (2)
Mo and Fe are the part of nitrogenase enzyme.
Mo o Fe ukbVªksftust ,atkbe ds Hkkx gksrs gSaA
102. Answer (2)
102. mÙkj (2)
Azotobacter is an unicellular free living bacteria
found in soil. ,tksVkscSDVj e`nk esa ik, tkus okyk ,ddksf'kdh;
eqDrthoh thok.kq gSA
103. Answer (3)
103. mÙkj (3)
Nitrogenase
N2 + 16ATP + 8H+ + 8e − ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → ukbVªkfstust
2NH3 + H2 + 16ADP + 16Pi N2 + 16ATP + 8H+ + 8e − ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
2NH3 + H2 + 16ADP + 16Pi
104. Answer (2)
104. mÙkj (2)
Enzyme involved in this reaction is
bl vfHkfØ;k esa lfEefyr gksus okyk ,atkbe
aminotransferase.
vehuksVªkl a fQjst gS
105. Answer (2)
105. mÙkj (2)
Asparagine and glutamine derived from aspartic
acid and glutamic acid respectively.
,Lisjftu o XyqVkWfeu Øe'k% ,LikfVZd o XyqVkWfed
vEy ls mRiUu gksrk gSA
106. Answer (2)
106. mÙkj (2)
Hydrazine = N2H4
gkbVªkWtkbu = N2H4
107. Answer (1)
107. mÙkj (1)
108. Answer (4) 108. mÙkj (4)
Late flowering – N, S and Mo iq"i.k es foyEc – N, S rFkk Mo
109. Answer (1) 109. mÙkj (1)
Leg-haemoglobin is an O2 scavenger. ysx-gheksXyksfcu ,d O2 viektZd gSA
110. Answer (1) 110. mÙkj (1)
Nitrogenase enzyme is activated by Mo and Fe. ukbVªkfs tust ,atkbe Mo o Fe }kjk lfØ; gksrk gSA
111. Answer (1) 111. mÙkj (1)
Nitrosomonas is nitrifying bacterium converts ukbVªkls kseksukWl ukbVªhdkjh thok.kq gS tks
NH3 → NO2− NH3 → NO2− esa :ikarfjr djrk gSA

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Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

112. Answer (2) 112. mÙkj (2)


Per N2 molecule reduction requires 16 ATP çfr N2 v.kq ds vip;u ds fy, 16 ATP dh
molecules. vko';drk gksrh gSA
113. Answer (1) 113. mÙkj (1)
114. Answer (3) 114. mÙkj (3)
115. Answer (1) 115. mÙkj (1)
116. mÙkj (1)
116. Answer (1)
vkWDlhd`r gksus okyk ;kSfxd H2O ;k H2S tSls gksrs
Oxidisable compound are like H2O or H2S. In
eubacteria it may be H2O or H2S.
gSaA ;wcSDVhfj;k esa ;g H2O ;k H2S gks ldrk gSA
117. mÙkj (2)
117. Answer (2)
118. mÙkj (3)
118. Answer (3)
dSjksfVukW;M~l <ky o.kZd gSa tks çdk'k }kjk çR;{k
Shield pigments are carotenoids which do not :i ls ATP o NADPH mRiUu ugha djrk gSaA
produce ATP and NADPH directly from light.
119. mÙkj (4)
119. Answer (4)
i.kZgfjr a ,d çkFkfed o.kZd gS
Chlorophyll a is a primary pigment. 120. mÙkj (3)
120. Answer (3) 121. mÙkj (1)
121. Answer (1) H2O foikfVr ladqy PS-II ls lEcfU/kr gksrk gS rFkk
H2O splitting complex is associated with PS-II and bldks bysDVªkWu çnku djrk gSA
provides electrons to it. 122. mÙkj (3)
122. Answer (3) IykLVksfl;kfuu Cyt b6 f ladqy ls PS-I esa bysDVªkWu
Plastocyanin transfer the electron from Cyt b6 f
dks LFkkukarfjr djrk gSA
complex to PS-I. 123. mÙkj (3)

123. Answer (3) pØh; çdk'kQkWLQksfjyhdj.k rc gksrk gS tc çdk'k


dh rhozrk fuEu rFkk CO2 dh miyC/krk de gksrh
Cyclic photophosphorylation occurs when light
intensity is low and CO2 availability is poor.
gSA
124. mÙkj (3)
124. Answer (3)
lqØkst v.kq nks Xyqdkst dk cuk gksrk gS rFkk çR;sd
Sucrose molecule is composed of 2 glucose and
Xywdkst dks blds fuekZ.k ds fy, N% dsfYou pØ dh
each glucose requires six Calvin cycles for its
formation. vko';drk gksrh gSA
125. mÙkj (4)
125. Answer (4)
126. mÙkj (1)
126. Answer (1)
C4 ikniksa esa isidst ,atkbe i.kZeè;ksrd dksf'kdkvksa
PEPCase enzyme in C4 plants fix the CO2 with esa PEP ds lkFk CO2 dks fLFkj djrk gSA
PEP in mesophyll cells.
127. mÙkj (4)
127. Answer (4)
dsfYou pØ ds nkSjku 18 ATP rFkk 12 NADPH dh
During Calvin cycle 18 ATP and 12 NADPH are vko'drk ,d 6C dkcZu 'kdZjk (Xywdkst) ds fuekZ.k
required to form one 6C carbon sugar (Glucose). ds fy, gksrh gSA
128. Answer (2) 128. mÙkj (2)
In mesophyll cells of C4 plants PEPCase enzyme C4 ikniksa ds i.kZeè;ksrd dksf'kdkvksa esa isidst
is present. ,atkbe mifLFkfr gksrk gSA
129. Answer (4) 129. mÙkj (4)

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Test Series for NEET -2020 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

130. Answer (4) 130. mÙkj (4)


C4 plants can tolerate saline conditions due to C4 ikni buesa mifLFkr çpqj dkcZfud vEyksa ds
abundant organic acids in them. dkj.k yo.kh; fLFkfr dks lgu dj ldrk gSA
131. Answer (3) 131. mÙkj (3)

Sugarcane and Amaranthus are C4 plants showing xUuk o vesjUs Fkl C4 ikni gSa tks f}-dkcksZfDlyhdj.k
double carboxylation. n'kkZrh gSA
132. Answer (2) 132. mÙkj (2)

Glycolate is produced during photorespiration, this


XykbdksyVs çdk'k'olu ds nkSjku mRiUu gksrh gS]
process is not shown by C4 plants. ;g çfØ;k C4 ikniksa }kjk ugha n'kkZ;k tkrk gSA
133. mÙkj (1)
133. Answer (1)
134. mÙkj (1)
134. Answer (1)
135. mÙkj (2)
135. Answer (2)
OAA ,d 4-C okyk ;kSfxd gS tks C4 ikniksa esa
OAA is a 4-C compound produced in C4 plants. mRiUu gksrk gSA

136. Answer (4) 136. mÙkj (4)


Thrombocytes or platelets are colourless, rounded FkzkEs ckslkbV~l ;k IysVysV~l dksf”kdkvksa ds jaxghu]
or oval, non nucleated fragments of cells. xksykdkj ;k vaMkdkj vdsna zd [kaM gksrs gSA
137. mÙkj (1)
137. Answer (1)
Fkzkfs Ecu IykTek dh ?kqyu”khy Qkbfczukstu dks
Thrombin converts soluble fibrinogen of plasma
into insoluble fibrin. The clot or coagulum mainly
v?kqyu”khy Qkbfczu esa ifjofrZr djrk gSA FkDdk ;k
consists of fibrin. Ldan eq[; #i ls Qkbfczu ds cus gksrs gSA
138. mÙkj (1)
138. Answer (1)
eq[; ylhdk okfgfu;k¡ vFkkZr~ o{kh; okfguh rFkk
The principle lymphatic vessels i.e. thoracic duct
nk;ha ylhdk okfguh ylhdk dks Øe”k% ck;sa rFkk
and right lymphatic duct drain the lymph into left
and right subclavian veins respectively.
nk;sa v/kkst=qd f”kjkvksa esa Mkyrh gSA
139. mÙkj (2)
139. Answer (2)
bfjFkzksCykLVksfll fQVSfyl rc gksrk gS tc D
Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs when a child with izfrtu jfgr ek¡ ls D izfrtu ;qDr f”k”kq dk tUe
D antigen is born to a mother who lacks D antigen.
gksrk gSA
140. Answer (1) 140. mÙkj (1)
The AV valve between the left atrium and left ck;sa vfyan rFkk ck;sa fuy; ds chp AV dikV esa nks
ventricle has 2 flaps or cusps and is called iYys ;k oyu ¼¶ySIl ;k dIl½ gksrs gSa ftUgsa
bicuspid or mitral valve. f}oyuh ;k feVªy dikV dgk tkrk gSA
141. Answer (3) 141. mÙkj (3)
Incomplete double circulation is present in viw.kZ nksgjk ifjlapj.k ra= mHk;pj rFkk ljhl`iksa esa
amphibians and reptiles where both oxygenated mifLFkr gksrk gS ftuesa nksuksa vkWDlhd`r rFkk
and deoxygenated blood get mixed up in the fovkWDlhd`r jDr ,dy fuy; esa fefJr gks tkrs gSa
single ventricle and the heart pumps out mixed rFkk ân; fefJr jDr dks ckgj dh vksj iai djrk
blood. gSA

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Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

142. Answer (3) 142. mÙkj (3)


The SA node is called the pacemaker of the heart SA ioZ dks ân; dk xfr izsjd dgk tkrk gS rFkk
and spontaneously produces impulse for the vfyan ek;ksdkfMZ;e ds ladqpu ds fy, ;s yxkrkj
contraction of atrial myocardium, depolarises AVN vkosxksa dk mRiknu] AVN dks fo/kzqfor djus o caMy
and sends impulses through bundle fibres to rarqvksa ds ekè;e ls fuy;h ek;ksdkfMZ;e dks vkosx
ventricular myocardium.
Hkstrs gSaA
143. Answer (4)
143. mÙkj (4)
Second heart sound is produced by closure of f}rh; ân; èofu fuy;h vuqf”kfFkyu ds vkjaHk ij
semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular
v/kZpanzkdkj dikV ds can gksus ls mRiUu gksrh gSA
diastole.
144. mÙkj (3)
144. Answer (3)
vPNh rjg ls izf”kf{kr f[kykfM+;ksa esa izokg vk;ru esa
In well trained athletes, stroke volume can also
vf/kd o`f) gks ldrh gS ftlls buds foJke ewY;ksa
increase significantly allowing these individuals to
achieve cardiac outputs during strenuous exercise
dh rqyuk Ng&lkr xquk vf/kd rd dBksj vH;kl
upto six-seven times greater than their resting ds nkSjku ân; fudkl izkIr djus dh vuqefr feyrh
values. gSA
145. Answer (2) 145. mÙkj (2)

QRS wave complex represents depolarisation of QRS rjax lfEeJ] fuy;ksa ds fo/kzqohdj.k dks iznf”kZr
ventricles which initiates ventricular contraction. djrk gS tks fuy;h ladqpu dks izkjEHk djrk gSA ,d
Thus, by counting the number of QRS complexes fuf”pr le; esa QRS lfEeJ dh la[;k fxuus ij
that occur in a given time period, the heart beat ânj Lianu nj fudkyh tk ldrh gSA
rate can be determined. 146 mÙkj (4)
146 Answer (4) ;d`r fuokfgdk f”kjk ikpu iFk ls ;d`r rd jDr
Hepatic portal vein carries blood to the liver from dk ogu djrh gS tcfd ;d`r f”kjk jDr dk ogu
digestive tract whereas hepatic vein carries blood ;d`r ls ckgj dh vksj djrh gSA
out of liver.
147. mÙkj (4)
147. Answer (4) lcls NksVh jDr okfgfu;k¡] dsf”kdk,¡ gksrh gSa rFkk
Smallest blood vessels are capillaries and are ,aMksFkhfy;e uked ljy “kYdh midyk }kjk
lined by simple squamous epithelium called vkLrfjr gksrh gSaA
endothelium.
148. mÙkj (4)
148. Answer (4)
esMy w k vkscyksaxsVk esa mifLFkr ,d fof”k’V raf=dh;
A special neural centre present in medulla dsna z ANS ds ekè;e ls ân; ds dk;ksZa dks ifjofrZr
oblongata moderates cardiac functions through djrk gSA
ANS.
149. mÙkj (4)
149. Answer (4)
gkVZ QsY;ksj rc gksrk gS tc “kjhj dh
Heart failure occurs when heart is not able to vko”;drkuqlkj i;kZIr jDr ân; iai ugha dj ikrk
pump enough blood to met the needs of the body. gSA
150. Answer (3) 150. mÙkj (3)
Serum lacks clotting factors. lhje esa Ldand dkjd ugha gksrs gSA
151. Answer (2) 151. mÙkj (2)
PCT is internally lined by simple cuboidal brush PCT, vkarfjd #i ls ljy ?kukdkj cz”k ckMZj
bordered epithelium which increases surface area midyk }kjk vkLrfjr gksrs gSa tks iqu% vo”kks’k.k ds
for reabsorption. fy, lrgh {ks= esa o`f) djrs gSaA

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Test Series for NEET -2020 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

152. Answer (2) 152. mÙkj (2)


The renal pelvis where major calyces open is o`Dd isfYol tgk¡ estj p’kd [kqyrs gSa] ;s gkbye ds
placed inner to hilum. vanj gksrs gSaA
153. Answer (1) 153. mÙkj (1)
ADH is antidiuretic hormone. ADH, izfrew=y gkWeksZu gSA
154. Answer (2) 154. mÙkj (2)
Reptiles, birds, land snails and insects excrete ljhl`i] i{kh] LFkyh; ?kksa?kk rFkk dhV ;wfjd vEy ds
nitrogenous wastes as uric acid. #i esa ukbVªkstuh vif”k’V dks mRlftZr djrs gSaA
155. Answer (4) 155. mÙkj (4)
The epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule called iksMkslkbV uked cksesu laiqV dh midyk dksf”kdk,¡
podocytes are arranged in an intricate manner so fo”ks’k izdkj ls foU;kflr gksrh gSa ftlls dqN
as to leave minute spaces called filtration slits. NksV& s NksVs vodk”k chp esa jg tkrs gSa bUgsa fuL;anu
156. Answer (1) [kkap dgrs gSaA
Protonephridia or flame cells are excretory and 156. mÙkj (1)
osmoregulatory structures in platyhelminthes. vf/ko`Ddd ;k Tokyk dksf”kdk,¡ IysfVgsfYeaFkht esa
157. Answer (3) mRlthZ rFkk ijklj.kfu;eu lajpukvksa ds :Ik esa ik,
JGA is formed by cellular modifications in DCT tkrs gSA
and afferent arteriole at the location of their 157. mÙkj (3)
contact. JGA, vfHkokgh /kefudkvksa rFkk DCT ds laidZ LFky
158. Answer (2) ij dksf”kdkvksa ds :ikarj.k ls curk gSA
Constriction of renal arteries causes decrease in 158. mÙkj (2)
renal blood flow as well as GFR. o`Dd /kefu;ksa ds ladqpu ds dkj.k o`Dd jDr izokg
159. Answer (3) ds lkFk GFR ?kVrk gSA
Renin converts Angiotensinogen to 159. mÙkj (3)
Angiotensin I jsfuu] ,aft;ksVsfUlukstsu dks ,aft;ksVasflu I esa
160. Answer (4) ifjofrZr djrk gSA
Increase in blood volume triggers the release of 160. mÙkj (4)
ANF. jDr vk;ru esa o`f) ANF ds L=o.k dks lfØ; djrk
161. Answer (1) gSA
Glucosuria and ketonuria are indicative of 161. mÙkj (1)
diabetes mellitus. Xyqdkslwfj;k rFkk dhVksu;wfj;k e/kqesg ds lwpd gSaA
162. Answer (3) 162. mÙkj (3)
Juxtamedullary nephrons have long loops of lfUuè; eè;ka”k o`Ddk.kq esa gsuys dh yach ywi gksrh gS
Henle which cortical nephrons have short loops of tcfd oYdqVh; o`Ddk.kq esa gsuys dh NksVh ywi gksrh
Henle. gSA
163. Answer (4) 163. mÙkj (4)
Glomerular capillaries, parietal and visceral layers Cksesu laiqV dh xqPNh; dsf”kdk,¡] ifj/kh; rFkk
of Bowman’s capsule contain simple squamous foljy ijrsa ljy “kYdh midyk }kjk cuh gksrh gSa
epithelium that allows filtration. tks fuL;anu dh vuqefr nsrh gSA
164. Answer (4) 164. mÙkj (4)
Our lungs remove approximately 200 ml/min of gekjk Qq¶Qql yxHkx 200 feyh/feuV CO2 dk
CO2. fu’dklu djrk gSA

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Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

165. Answer (2) 165. mÙkj (2)


Glomerulonephritis is the inflammation of Xykses:yksuÝs kbfVl] xqPN “kksFk dh iznkgdrk gSA
glomeruli. Cholelithiasis is the presence of calculi dksyys hfFk,fll] fiÙkk”k; esa dsydqykbZ dh mifLFkfr
in gall bladder. Ketonuria is the presence of gksrh gSA dhVksu;wfj;k] ew= esa dhVksu dk; dh
ketone bodies in urine. mifLFkfr gksrh gSA
166. Answer (2) 166. mÙkj (2)
Ethmoid is an unpaired bone. ,Fkeks;M ,d v;qfXer vfLFk gSA
167. Answer (1) 167. mÙkj (1)
All ribs are connected dorsally to vertebrae. lHkh ilfy;k¡ i`’B Hkkx ij d”ks:d ls tqM+h gksrh gSaA
168. Answer (2) 168. mÙkj (2)
Saddle joint is a type of synovial joint between lSMy laf/k] lkbuksfo;y laf/k dk ,d izdkj gS tks
carpal and metacarpal of thumb in humans. ekuo vaxwBs ds dkiZy rFkk esVkdkiZy ds chp
169. Answer (3) mifLFkr gksrk gSA
According to sliding filament theory, actin and 169. mÙkj (3)
myosin filaments do not shorten but slide past rarq foliZ.k fl)kar ds vuqlkj ,fDVu rFkk ek;ksflu
each other. rarq NksVs ugha gksrs gSa ijarq ,d nwljs ds Åij foliZ.k
170. Answer (3) djrs gSaA
Tonus is the normal tone of a resting muscle. 170. mÙkj (3)
Treppe is increase in tension of muscle with each Vksul] foJke is”kh dk lkekU; Vksu gSA VªsIis] çR;sd
successive stimulus which is delivered shortly Øfed mÙkstuk ds lkFk is'kh ds ruko esa o`f) gS tks
after the completion of relaxation phase of the igys okys ,sBa u ds f”kfFkyu izkoLFkk ds iw.kZ gksus ds
preceding twitch. i”pkr~ “kh?kz izkIr gksrk gSA
171. Answer (4) 171. mÙkj (4)
Biceps contain skeletal muscle fibres. f}f”kjLd esa dadkyh is”kh rarq,¡ gksrh gSaA
172. Answer (3) 172. mÙkj (3)
LMM and HMM are components of myosin. LMM rFkk HMM ek;ksflu ds la?kVd gSA
173. Answer (2) 173. Answer (2)
The joint between atlas and axis is pivot joint. ,Vyl rFkk v{k ds chp /kqjkxz laf/k gksrh gSA
174. Answer (2) 174. mÙkj (2)
Osteoporosis can occur due to hormonal vfLFk lqf’kjrk gkeksZuy vlarqyu ds dkj.k gks ldrk
imbalance. Decreased bone mass is seen. gSA ?kVk gqvk vfLFk Hkkj ns[kk tkrk gSA
175. Answer (3) 175. Answer (3)
Glenoid cavity is a shallow articular surface fXyukW;M xqgk ,d mFkyh laf/kdkjh lrg gS tks
present in scapula. It articulates with the head of LdSiqyk esa mifLFkr gksrh gSA da/kk laf/k ds fuekZ.k gsrq
humerus to form shoulder joint. ;g â;wesjl ds “kh’kZ ds lkFk laf/k;kstu djrh gSA
176. Answer (1) 176. mÙkj (1)
Each human limb contains 5 metacarpals which izR;sd ekuo ikn esa 5 esVkdkiZYl gksrs gSa tks
articulate with phalanges. QSyUs tst ds lkFk laf/k;kstu djrs gSaA
177. Answer (4) 177. mÙkj (4)
Hyoid is a bone of axial skeleton. Second cervical gk;M] v{kh; dadky dh ,d vfLFk gSA f}rh; xzhok
vertebra is called axis. d”ks:d dks v{k dgk tkrk gSA

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Test Series for NEET -2020 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

178. Answer (4) 178. mÙkj (4)


Ileum is a part of small intestine. {kqnzkar NksVh vkar dk Hkkx gSA
179. Answer (4) 179. mÙkj (4)
Presence of gap junctions is a characteristic varjkyh laf/k;ksa dh mifLFkfr ,dy bdkbZ fpduh
feature of single unit smooth muscle fibres and is”kh rarq rFkk ân; is”kh rarqvksa dk ,d vfHkyk{kf.kr
cardiac muscle fibres. y{k.k gSA
180. Answer (1) 180. mÙkj (1)
Inside epimysium, a muscle has many muscle ,fiekbfl;e ds vanj ,d is”kh esa iqfydk uked dbZ
fibres arranged in bundles called fasciculi which is”kh rarq,¡ gksrh gS tks caMyksa esa O;ofLFkr gksrh gS tks
are covered by perimysium. isjhekbfl;e }kjk <dh gqbZ gksrh gSaA

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