Pharmaceutical Biochemistry

1. Isoelectric or pI is the pH midway between pKa values on either side of isoelectric species where amino
acids exits as neutral species. Lysine has three pK values. pK1=2.2, pK2 = 9.2 and pK3 =10.8. What is the pI
of lysine?
A. 5.7
B. 6.5
C. 10
D. 11.4
E. 9.2

2. Most amino acids do not absorb visible light and thus are colorless. However, there are some that can
absorb light. Which of the following groupings of amino acids contribute to the ability of most proteins to
absorb high wavelength (250-290nm) ultraviolet light?
A. Alanine, valine, leucine
B. Tryptophan, tyrosine and phenylalanine
C. Serine, cysteine, and thereonine
D. Arginine, lysine and arginine
E. Glutamate and aspartate

3. In protein nomenclature, if the name of the peptide is phenyllalanyl-aspartyl-lysyl-aspargine, which residue

has its α-carboxyl group not involved in the peptide bond formation?
A. Phe
B. Asp
C. Lys
D. Asn
E. None
4. Which of the following pairs of amino acids with the indicated side-chain is CORRECT?
A. Cyteine-sulfhydryl group
B. Valine-methyl group
C. Tryptopan-phenol group
D. Serine-guanido group
E. Methionine-hydroxymethyl
5. Which of the following statement/s is/are TRUE about glutamine and asparagine?
I. Their amide chains can be protonated
II. They are uncharged at physiologic pH.
III. They are easily differentiated from aspartate and glutamate by chemical procedures since amides
closely resemble acids in the chemical properties.
IV. They are structural analogs of aspartate and glutamate with their carboxylic side-chain groups
aminated
A. I, II, III
B. I & III
C. II & IV
D. I, II, III & IV
6. _________ configuration of the peptide bond is more stable than the ________ configuration.
A. Syn; anti
B. Trans; cis
C. R; S
D. D; L
E. Erythro; threo
7. Evaluate the following statements.
1. The alpha carbonyl to nitrogen portion of the peptide bond can rotate at physiologic temperatures.
2. The double bond character of the peptide bond makes the peptide bond planar.

A. only the first statement is correct.

B. only the second statement is correct.
C.Both the first statements is correct.
D.Both the first statements is incorrect.

8. Glutamic acid has 3pK values: . pK1=2.2, pK2 = 4.3 and pK3 =9.7. Which of the following ionic forms of
glutamic acid will predominate at a pH below its isoelectric point of 3.25?
A. COOHCOOH
B. COO COOH
C. COO COO
D. COO COO
E. COO COOH
9. Most _____ amino acids are buried away from water solvent that interacts with the surface of a soluble
protein while most ______ side chains are on the surface of soluble globular proteins.
A. Charged; hydrophobic
B. Hydrophobic; charged
C. Hydrophobic; apolar
 D. Charged; polar
E. None of these
10. Which amino acids is antagonized by drugs of abuse such as ketamine and phencyclidine and is implicated
in schizophrenia/
A. Glycine
B. Aspartate
C. Tryptophan
D. Glutamate
E. Tyrosine
11. Which amino acid is a major neurotransmitter in the brain?
A. Tyrosine
B. Glutamate
C. Aspartate
D. Serine
E. Tryprophan
12. A 57 year old man with a long history of alcohol abuse comes to the emergency room with symptoms of
confusion and hepatomegaly on examination. The patient also has a flapping tremor at the wrist (asterixis).
He is diagnosed with hepatic encephalopathy, which can be partially treated with a diet of branched-chain
amino acids. Which of the following sets of amino acids would you suggest?
A. Tryptophan, phenylalanine, tyrosine
B. Aspartate, glutamine, asparagines
C. Valine, leucine, isoleucine
D. Methionine, proline, cystein
E. Alanine, glycine
13. Which of the following amino acids is inhibitory & antagonized by the rodenticide strychnine, leading to
muscle twitching and spasm?
A. Glycine
B. Asparagines
C. Lysine
D. Tyrosine
E. Tryptophan
14. A man diagnosed of hartnup disease wherein his urinalysis results showed significant increase in the neutral
amino acids. Whichof the following amino acidswould have been found in his urine sample?
A. Histidine
B. Arginine
C. Phenylalanine
D. Glutamate
E. Lysine
15. The presence of which characteristic distinguishes a eukaryote from prokaryote
A. DNA
B. Well-defined nucleus
C. Cytoplasm
D. Cell membrane
E. Ribosome
16. Anorganelle is the portion of the cell enclosed by a membrane. Based on this, which of the following is not
strictly an organelle?
A. Mitochondrion
B. Lysosome
C. Ribosome
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
E. None of these
17. Hydrogen bonding plays s role in the behavior of water as a solvent. It is also a key to the specificity f
transfer of genetic formation. Which does not properly illustrate hydrogen bonding?
A. O H ---O

H
B. C H-----O H

C. N----- H N

D. N H----- N

E. None of the above

18. Which of the fllowing vitamins may cause CNS disturbances, liver and skin damage when taken in excess?
A. A
B. B3
C. B6
D. D
 E. E
19. Which of the vitamins may cause extensive vasoconstriction and elevated blood pressure and calcinosis of
soft tissueswhen taken in excess?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B3
C. Vitamin B6
D. Vitamin D
E. Vitamin E
20. The organelle-free cell sap where many reactions and metabolic pathways such as glycolysis, glycogenesis
and fatty acid synthesis occur is known as the _______.
A. Mithochondrion
B. Cystosol
C. Nucleus
D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E. Cell membrane
21. Part of the cell that contains the organelles that carry out functions essential t cell metabolism.
A. Cell membrane
B. Cytoplasm
C. Nucleus
D. Cytskeletn
E. Nucleolus
22. Site of lipid synthesis in cells
A. Smooth endopasmic reticulum
B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Mitochondrion
E. Lysosomes
23. Primary reserve carbohydrate in plants
A. Chitin
B. Glycogen
C. Starch
D. Chondroitin
E. Heparin
24. Water has high ______ hence it is good in minimizing temperature fluctuations.
A. Polarity specific heat
B. H-bond potential
C. Acidity
D. Nucleophilicity
25. Molecules that are part hydrophilic and par hydrophobic.
A. Amphipathic
B. Protophilic
C. Nucleophilic
D. Amphiphilic
E. Protogenic
26. When c1 of monosaccharides becomes chiral, it is now known as a(an):
A. Epimeric carbon
B. Enantiomeric carbon
C. Assymetric carbon
D. Anomeric carbon
E. Acetalic carbon
27. Twosugars that differ only in the configuration of ne carbon atom other than the terminal carbon atom the
penultimatecarbonatom are called____.
A. Anomers
B. Epimers
C. Enantiomers
D. Erythroismers
E. Threo isomers
28. The glycosidic linkage that binds glucose and glucose to form maltose.
A. Beta-(1 2)
B. Beta-(1 4)
C. Alpha-(1 4)
D. Alpha-(1 2)
E. Alpha-(4 1)
29. The glycosidic linkage that binds glucose and galactose to form lactose.
A. Beta- (1 2)
B. Beta- (1 4)
C. Alpha-(1 4)
D. Alpha-(1 2)
E. Alpha-(4 1)
30. The component of starch that reacts with iodine to form a deep-blue colored complex
A. Glycogen
 B. Achroodextrin
C. Maltotriose
D. Amylose
E. Amylopectin
31. A sulfated polysaccharide found in Gelidiumcartilageniumwhich can be used as culture media for growing
microorganisms.
A. Chitin
B. Agar
C. Pectin
D. Hyaluronic acid
E. Dextran
32. Amino sugar found in chondroitin
A. N-acetylfructosamine
B. N-acetylglucosamine
C. N-acetylgalactsamine
D. N-acetylmuramic acid
E. N-acetylmannosamine
33. Dextran is primarily used as a(an):
A. Suspending agent
B. Culture medium
C. Glomerular filtration evaluation
D. Plasma expander
E. Sweetener
34. An enzyme considered to be a “spreading” factor to increase the absorption of solutions administered by
clysis.
A. Sucrase
B. Amylase
C. Hyaluronidase
D. Amylopectase
35. Heparin, a mucopolysaccharide is used as an anticoagulant because:
A. It inhibit platelet aggregation
B. It dissolves blood clots
C. It dissolves fibrin
D. It activates antithrombin
E. It hydrolyzesprothrombin
36. Branching frequency of glycgen’sstucture:
A. Every 4-6 glucose units
B. Every 6-10 glucose units
C. Every 12-14 glucose units
D. Every 2-6 glucose units
E. Every 25-30 glucose units
37. The principal component of exoskeletons of arthropods, lobster & crabs
A. Peptidoglycan
B. Cellulose
C. Chondroitin
D. Chitin
E. Cell wall
38. It is the dietary precursor for arachidnic acid.
A. Oleic acid
B. Timnodonic acid
C. Linoleic acid
D. Linolenic acid
E. Cervonic acid
39. Glucose and galactose are epimers at carbon number:
A. 6
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 2
40. Which carbohydrate would not rotate palne polarized light?
A. Erythrose
B. Lycerose
C. Dihydroxyacetone
D. Fructose
E. Glucose
41. Glucose mannose are epimers at carbn number:
A. 6
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 2
42. Bonds that link fatty acids with glycerol in triglycerides.
A. Ester bonds
B. Amide bonds
C. Ether bonds
D. Aldehydic bonds
E. H-bonds
43. Amylose differs from amylopectin in that amylose contains alpha-1,4 linkages while amylpectin contains
______ linkage/s:
I. Alpha-(1 2)
II. Alpha-(1 4)
III. Alpha-(1 6)

A. I, II & III
F. I & II
G. II & III
H. II only
I. III only
44. The alcohol contained by glycosphingolipids
A. Glycerol phingosine
B. Glycol
C. Fatty alcohols
D. Sterols
45. Phosphatidylcholine is also known as:
A. Lecithin
B. Cephalin
C. Plasmalogen
D. Cardiolipin
E. Sphingomyelin
46. Phosphatidyletnolamine is also known as:
A. Lecithin
B. Cephalin
C. Plasmalogen
D. Cardiolipin
E. Sphingomyelin
47. It is a formula used to describe the behavior of weak acids and buffers in solution:
A. Henderson-Haselbalch Equation
B. Vant Hoff Equation
C. Van’t Hoff Equation
D. Hendersn-Hasselbalch Equation
E. Henderson-Hasselbach Equation
48. Fructose intolerance can lead to:
A. Diarrhea
B. Flatulence
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Constipation
E. GIT spasm
49. Failure to metabolize galactose cause galactosemia and further:
A. Renal failure
B. Liver failure
C. Cataracts
D. Neuropathy
E. Arthropathy
50. Eicosapentaenic acid (EPA) found in fish preparations such as Omacor® is commonly known as?
A. Palmitoleic acid
B. Timnodonic acid
C. Lenoleic acid
D. Cervonic acid
51. Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) found in fish oil preparations such as Omacor® is commonly known as?
A. Palmitoleic acid
B. Timnodonic acid
C. Linoleic acid
D. Linoleic acid
E. Cervonic acid
52. EPAand DHA belongs to what mega superfamily f fatty acids?
A. Omega-9
B. Omega-6
C. Omega-3
D. Omega-5
E. Omega-7
53. Which of the following monosaccharide is found in wod gums and in vivo, in several glycoproteins?
A. Arabinose
 B. Xylulose
C. Xylose
D. Lyxose
E. Erythrose
54. A deoxy sugar found in the DNA molecule
A. Fucose
B. Deoxygalactose
C. Deoxyribose
D. Dexyglucose
E. Idose
55. DNA differs from RNA in that the OH in C2 of the monsaccharide found in the RNA is replaced by:
A. Amino group
B. Nitrogenous base
C. Carboxyl carbon
D. Hydrogen atom
E. Carbonyl carbon
56. Monosaccharide found in cases of pentosuriawhich is usually due to a genetic defiency of the reductase that
reduce the monosaccharide to a non-reducing sugar alcohol:
A. Arabinose
B. Lyxose
C. Xylulose
D. Xylose
E. Ribulose
57. Molisch test is also known as:
A. Alpha-naphthol reaction
B. Aminoguanidine reaction
C. Anthrone reaction
D. Salkowski test
E. Liberman-buchard test
58. Taubers test for ketoses is also known as:
A. Alpha-naphthol reaction
B. Aminoguanidine reaction
C. Anthrone reaction
D. Salkowski test
E. Liberman-buchard test
59. What is the central nucleus to all sterls?
A. Cyclopentanephenantrene
B. Cycloperhydrophenanthrene
C. Cyclopentanophenanthrene
D. Cyclopentanoperhydrophenantrene
E. Steroid Ring
60. The acetic acid-sulfuric acid test for sterls is also known as:
A. Alpha- naphthol reaction
B. Aminoguanidine reaction
C. Anthrone reaction
D. Salkowski test
E. Liberman-buchard test
61. The sulfuric acid test for sterols is also known as:
A. Alpha-naphthol reaction
B. Aminoguanidine reaction
C. Anthrone reaction
D. Salkowski test
E. Liberman-buchard test
62. Eicosanoid that is the major mediator of pain, inflammation.
A. Prostaglandin
B. Arachidonic acid
C. Prostacyclin
D. Thromboxane
E. Leukotriene
63. The enzyme that coverts arachidnic acid to leucotriene.
A. Prostagalndin
B. Arachidonic acid
C. Prostacyclin
D. Thromboxane
E. Leukotriene
64. It is the major surfactant found in the lungs of newborn babies and neonates that prevent the adherence of
inner lung surfaces together.
A. Lecithin
B. Dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine
C. Dipalmitoylphosphatidylethanlamine
D. Cephalin
 E. Phosphatidylinositol
65. These are the major liids of the mitochondria.
A. Cardiolipin
B. Cephalin
C. Lecithin
D. Inositrol
E. Phosphatidylserine
66. Secondary messenger that are biosynthesized by action of phospolipase C include diacylglycerol and:
A. Inositol 4,5 biphospate
B. Inositol -1,4,5 triphospate
C. Inositol 5-phospate
D. Inositol 1,4,5,6 tetraphospate
E. Inositol monophospate
67. These are molecules that resemblecephalin, and are found in the brain and muscles the nly differences is
that instead of an ester goup on sn-1, an ether groupis present and the alkyl group unsaturated.
A. Sphingomyelin
B. Palsmalogen
C. Lysophospolipid
D. Ceramide
E. Sphingosine
68. It is the basic unit of glycolipids.
A. Glycerol
B. Sphingosine
C. Ceramide
D. Fatty acids
E. Phosphatidate
69. It isa the glycolipid found in neutral tissues.
A. Neutamide
B. Neurosylceramide
C. Glucosylceramide
D. Gluboside
70. A sample drug that inhibits cyclooxygenase
A. Zilueton
B. Montelukast
C. Zafirlukast
D. Aspirin
E. Salicylic acid
71. Pro-vitamin D2
A. Ergosterol
B. 7-dehydrocholesterol
C. Sitosterol
D. Coprosterol
E. 5-dehydrocholesterol
72. Pro-vitamin D3
A. Ergsterol
B. 7-dehydrocholesterol
C. Sitosterol
D. Coprosterol
E. 5-dehydrocholesterol
73. Which of the fllowing completely inhibits choleterl absorption?
A. Ergosterol
B. 7-dehydrocholesterol
C. Sitosterol
D. Coprosterol
E. 5-dehydrocholesterol
74. 5,8,11,1420:4 corresponds to what fatty acids?
A. Palmitoleic acid
B. Linoleic acid
C. Leic
D. Linoleic acid
E. Arachidonic acid
75. C11H23COOHcorrespnds to what fatty acid?
A. Myristic acid
B. Stearic acid
C. Lauric acid
D. Lauric acid
E. Palmitic acid
76. CH3(CH2)4CH=CHCH2=CH(CH2)7COOH correspnds to what fatty acid?
A. Palmitoleic acid
B. Linolenic acid
C. Arachidonic acid
 D. Oleic acid
E. Linoleic acid
9
77. 16:1 correspond to what fatty acid?
A. Palmitoleic acid
B. Linolenic acid
C. Arachidonic acid
D. Oleic acid
E. Linoleic acid
78. What is the positive result for Molisch Test?
A. Green color
B. Violet ring at the junction two liquids
C. Black pecipitate
D. Sandy crystals
E. Brick red precipitate
79. Which of the following is used for determination or testing for the presence of ketoses?
I. Nynlander’s test
II. Tauber’s test
III. Barfoed’s test
IV. Seliwanoff’s test
A. I, II & III
B. I & III
C. II & IV
D. II & III
E. II, III & IV
80. What is the positive result for the aminoguanidine reaction?
A. Red color
B. Violet color
C. Black precipitate
D. Bright red purple color
E. Purple color
81. To which of the following test(s) will sucrose give a negative result?
I. Fehling’s test
II. Barfoed’s test
III. Molisch test
A. I, II & III
B. I & II
C. II & III
D. I & III
E. I only
82. Which of the following is a drug used for hypercholesterolemia, owing to its ability of inhibiting HMG-COA
reductase, the first committed step in the biosynthesis of cholesterol?
A. Rosuvastin
B. Cilastatin
C. Nystatin
D. Clindamycin
E. Chloramphenicol
83. These are lipids with glucose or galactose combined with ceramide
A. Cerebrosides
B. Gangliosides
C. Globosides
D. Cytolipins
E. Cardiolipins
84. What monosaccharide readily forms osazones?
A. Galactose
B. Fructose
C. Glucose
D. Mannose
E. Ribose
85. Which of the following is considered to be the good cholesterol?
A. VLDL-C
B. LDL-C
C. ISL-C
D. HDL-C
E. TAGs
86. Amino acids that cannot be synthesized in the organism are called_____.
A. Nutrionally non-essential amino acids
B. Nutrionally essential amino acids
C. Alpha amino acids
D. Standar amino acids
E. Nutrional amino acids
87. When trysinogen is converted into trypsin, the enzyme is called?
 A. Pepsin
B. Zymogen
C. Amylase
D. Enterokinase
E. Gastrin
88. A malnutritionstate that arises from chronic defieciency of calories even in the presence if adequate protein
intake.
A. Marasmus
B. Hemochromatosis
C. Obesity
D. Kwashiorkor
E. Anorexia
89. Complementary base pairs in the DNA double helix are bonded by
A. H-bond
B. Ester bond
C. Dipole-dipole forces
D. Vander waals forces
E. Glycosidic bond
90. Which nitrogen base is not found in the DNA?
A. Adenine
B. Guanine
C. Cytosine
D. Uracil
E. Tymine
91. Pepsinogen is an example of:
A. Co-factor
B. Co-substrate
C. Zymogen
D. Holoenzyme
E. Apoenzyme
92. Type of RNA which serves as template for the amino acid sequence being synthesized:
A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. dRNA
E. None of the above
93. Which of the following is true about uricase?
I. Converts uric acid to water-soluble allantoin
II. It is found only in higher primates
III. rDNA derived uricase ate now being employed for the managementof gouty arthritis.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II
D. I, II & III
E. III only
94. Which of the following is/are rDNA-derived uricase?
I. Pegloticase
II. Febuxosat
III. Rasburicase
A. I & II
B. II & III
C. I & III
D. I, II & III
E. I only
95. The amino acid groups from amino acids obtained by protein metabolism are removed in the form of:
A. Urate
B. Urea
C. Creatinine
D. Ornithine
E. Ammonia
96. Glutamine is represented by what letter in the amino acids “alphabet”?
A. K
B. Q
C. D
D. E
E. Y
97. Which of the following amino acids are uncharged and polar?
I. H
II. N
III. S
IV. D
 A. I & II
B. I & III
C. I & I V
D. II & III
E. II & IV
98. Which of the following amino acids possese an indole-ring?
A. D
B. Q
C. F
D. K
E. W
99. Which acid that gives a positive result for Sakaguchi reaction
A. Gelatin
B. Arginine
C. Alanine
D. Tyrosine
E. Tryptophan
100. Which of the following amino acids is an important component of the activated co-enzyme involved
in the methylatingcatecholamines for termination of their biological activity and in other biochemical reaction
that require methyl transfer?
A. Alalnine
B. Cysteine
C. Cystine
D. Methionine
E. Leucine
101. Which of the following is a purine analogue that inhibits xanthine oxidase, and is thereby useful in
the management of gouty artritis?
A. Colchicine
B. Naproxen
C. Febuxostat
D. Allopurinol
E. Probenecid
102. Which of the following is not a purine analogue, bur is capable of inhibiting xanthine oxidase?
A. Colchicine
B. Naproxen
C. Febuxostat
D. Allopurinol
E. Probenecid
103. The amino acid that is an important precursor of hemoglobin is
A. Alanine
B. Proline
C. Leucine
D. Glycine
E. Cysteine
104. This test specifically detects the presence of indole ring:
A. Molisch test
B. Xanthroproteic test
C. Hopkins-cole test
D. Buret test
E. Na Nitroprusside test
105. In the secondary structure of RNA
A. Adenine will always pair with thymine
B. Cytosine will always pair with thymine
C. Cytosine will always pair with uracil
D. Adenosine will always pair with uracil
E. Guanine will always pair with uracil
106. The type of RNA molecule crings amino acid to the site of protein synthesis is:
A. mRNA
B. rRNA
C. tRNA
D. dRNA
E. hnRNA
107. A nucleic acid is made up of:
A. sugar, nucleoside and base
B. proteins, sugar and amino acid
C. nitrogenous base, amino acid and sugar
D. nitrogenous base, phosphate and sugar
E. phosphate, proteins and nitrogenous base
108. Serotonin, a neurotransmitter is derived from the amino acid:
A. Histidine
B. Serine
 C. Tryptophan
D. Phenylalanine
E. Tyrosine
109. In the pineal gland, serotonin is converted to melatonin by:
I. N-acetylation
II. N-methylation
III. Oxidation
IV. O-methylation
A. I & II
B. III & IV
C. I & III
D. II & IV
E. I & IV
110. A type of antibody that plays an important role in allergic response which cause anaphylactic shock,
hay fever and asthma.
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
111. Which of the followingantibodies is capable of opsonization?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
112. This antibody is capable if crossing the placenta:
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
E. IgM
113. Lactose: galactose + glucose; Lactulose galactose + _______.
A. Galactose
B. Mannose
C. Ribose
D. Ribulose
E. Fructose
114. Which of the following homotrisaccharide?
A. Raffinose
B. Melitose]
C. Melitriose
D. Gentianose
E. Maltotriose
115. Which of the following is a nucleoside?
A. Asenine
B. Cytosine
C. Uridine
D. Thymine
E. Guanine
116. Which of the following base pairs is bonded by double bond?
A. Adenine & Thymine
B. Cytosine & Guanine
C. Adenine & Guanine
D. Cytosine & Thymine
E. Cytosine & Uracil
117. Which of the following statement is/are true regarding the secondary structure of nucleic acids?
I. Guanine forms base pairs with cytosine via hydrogen bonds
II. The B form of the DNA is the most common in biological systems
III. The breaking of H-bonds caused by high temperature is called melting
A. I, II & III
B. I & II
C. II & III
D. I & III
E. II only
118. Which of the following statement/s is/are true?
I. Cysteine residues are reduce to form disulfide bonds
II. Disulfide bonds can stabilize tertiary atructure of proteins.
III. Cysteine is a polar, sulfur containingamino acid
A. I, II & III
B. II & III
 C. I & III
D. I only
E. III only
119. Which of the following amino acids contain/s basic side chains?
I. Histidine
II. Leucine
III. Argine
A. I, II & III
B. II & III
C. I & III
D. I only
E. III only
120. Which of the following amino acids posess a hydroxyl droup which render/s it/them polar?
I. Serine
II. Threonine
III. Tyrosine
A. I, II & III
B. II & III
C. I & III
D. I only
E. III only
121. Which of the following amino acids are condidered to be the smallest and is found in sharp protein
folds?
A. Leucine
B. Isoleucine
C. Valine
D. Alanine
E. Glycine
122. Which of the following amino acids contained ny the peptide, GSH?
I. Glycine
II. Cysteine
III. Glutamine
A. I, II & III
B. II & III
C. I & III
D. I only
E. III only
123. What stabilizes the primary structure of proteins?
A. Salt bridges
B. Hydrophobic bonds
C. Disulfide bonds
D. Peptide bonds
E. Hydrophobic interactions
124. Which of the following amino acids contain a phenolic hydroxyl group?
A. Ser
B. Thr
C. Trp
D. Tyr
E. Phe
125. In twi dimensional electrophoresis, proteins are purified by what methologies?
I. Isoelectric focusing
II. SDS-PSGE
III. HPLC
A. I, II & III
B. I & II
C. I & III
D. II & III
E. III only
126. In order to isolate an enzyme or a proteinnaceous ligand, the most suitable chromatographic
procedure to be employed is:
A. Partition chromatography
B. Absorption chromatography
C. Ion-exchange chromatography
D. Hydrophobic interaction chromatography
E. Affinity chromatography
127. This method of protein purification is based on proteins’ Stokes Radius, if the diameter of sphere in
space that they occupy when tumble in the solution:
A. Column chromatography
B. Size exclusion chromatography
C. HPLC
D. SDS-PAGE
 E. Isoelectric focusing
128. Which of the following gives an accurate estimate of pl?
A. pl= pK1=pk2
B. pl= (pK1+pk2)/2
C. pl= (pK1=pk2)x2
D. pl= pK1>pk2
E. pl= pk2>pK1
129. What process is involve in the formation of the peptide bonds?
A. Oxidation
B. Reduction
C. Hydrolysis
D. Dehydration
130. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
I. The C-N bond in the peptide linkage has a partial double bond characteristic
II. Neither C-O or N-H in the peptide bond can dissociate
III. Each amino acid in the peptide bonds is called a residue.
A. I only
B. I & II
C. III only
D. II & III
E. I, II & III
131. This refers to partial arrangements of amino acids close to one another nin the linear sequence of
polypeptide chains
A. Primary structure
B. Secondary structure
C. Supersecondary structure
D. Tertiary structure
E. Quarternary structure
132. α-helix and β—pleated sheets belong to what structure?
A. Primary structure
B. Secondary structure
C. Supersecondary structure
D. Tertiary structure
E. Quarternary structure
133. Fibrous & globular proteins belong to what protein structures?
A. Primary structure
B. Secondary structure
C. Supersecondary structure
D. Tertiary structure
E. Quarternary structure
134. This id heneral form for naturally occurring proteins that yield only alpha amino acids or their
derivatives on hydrolysis
A. Simple proteins
B. Conjugated proteins
C. Primary-derived protein
D. Secondary-derived proteins
E. Peptides
135. Keratin in hair belongs to what type of simple proteins?
A. Glutelins
B. Glutenins
C. Histones
D. Protamines
E. Albuminoids
136. Zein in corn is an example of:
A. Prolamine
B. Protamine
C. Histone
D. Albuminoid
E. Globuline
137. Casein in milk and ovovitellin in egg yolk are example of what type of conjugated proteins?
A. Phosphoproteins
B. Nucleoproteins
C. Lipoproteins
D. Chromoproteins
E. Glycoproteins
138. Nucleoproteins, lipoproteins & glycoproteins belong to what class of protein?
A. Simple
B. Conjugated
C. Primary derived
D. Secondary derived
E. Peptides
139. Arrange the following secondary derived proteins from highest to lowest number of molecular weight
I. Peptides
II. Peptones
III. Proteoses
A. I, II, III
B. III, I, II
C. II, I, III
D. III, II, I
E. II, III, I
140. PaulyDiazo test indicates the presence of:
I. Tryptophan
II. Histidine
III. Tyrosine
A. I, II & III
B. I & II
C. II & III
D. I & III
E. III only
141. Which of the following is not true about protein structure determination?
A. NMR is the primary means if determining protein structure
B. Proteins are difficult to crystallize, a disadvantage of X-ray crystallography
C. An advantage to the use of NMR is that proteins analyzed are in their natural state
D. Large & very complex proteins can only be analyze by x-ray crystallography
E. None of the above
142. Which of the following is not true regarding the four enzyme complexes if the electron transports
chain?
A. Complex I is known as NADH-CoQOxidoreductase
B. Complex II is known as Succinate-CoQOxidoreductase
C. Complex III is known as cytochrome Oxidase
D. Complex IV is known as cytochrome Oxidase
E. None of the above
143. One important endogenous molecule for synthetic biotransformation of xenobiotics is glucoronic
acid. It is actually the most dominant conjugative biotransformation pathway due to the readily available
source of glucose. It is produced from glucose via:
A. Oxidation at C1
B. Oxidation at C2
C. Oxidation at C5
D. Oxidation at C6
E. Oxidation at C1 and C6
144. In an uncompetitive inhibition of enzymatic action:
A. The inhibitor binds to either the free enzyme or the enzyme-substrate complex
B. Lineweaver-Burk Plots of the enzyme alone (control) & the enzyme + inhibitor are parallel to each other
C. The apparent Km is raised
D. The Vmax is unaffected
E. The Vmax is raised
145. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. Adenine is a nucleoside
B. Adenosine is a nucleotide
C. Nucleotides are nucleoside phosphates
D. Nucleosides are basic units of nucleic acids
E. All of the above
146. Which of the following is a nucleotide?
A. Guanine
B. Guanosine
C. Guanosine monophosphate
D. Any of the above
E. None of the above
147. The sugars that occur in the two major forms of nucleic acid differ in the substituents at carbon ____.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
148. The ribose in RNA is converted to deoxyribose in replacing the ____in RNA with ____.
A. OH, H
B. H, OH
C. O2, H
D. OH, O2
E. H, O
149. Which of the following is true regarding nucleic acids?
A. DNA has thymine while RNA has uracil
 B. Adenine & guanine are pyrimidines
C. Uracil is a purine
D. Cytosine & thymine are non-standards purines
E. All of the above
150. What is responsible for the acidic character of nucleic acids?
A. Phosphate group
B. Nucleotides
C. Purines
D. Pyrimidines
E. This is a misnopmer. Nucleic acids are not actually acidic
151. Which of the following are purine bases?
A. Adenine & Thymine
B. Guanine & cytosine
C. Cytosine & uracil
D. Adenine & guanine
E. Cytosine & thymine
152. Ninhydrin gives a blue coloration with
I. Tyrosine
II. Phenylalanine
III. Hydroxyproline
IV. Histidine
A. I & IV
B. I,II & III
C. I,II & IV
D. I & II
E. III & IV
153. The DNA structure is a double helix containing chains which are complementary. Which of the
following describes complementarily of the two strands of the DNA molecule?
A. In the chains, each end of the helix contains the 5’ end of one strand and the 3’ end of the other
B. Adenine binds to thymine & cytosine binds to guanine
C. Several codons may code for the same amino acid
D. The primary structure is right-handed double helix
E. All of the above
154. Which of the following statements provide the most accurate description of the antiparallel nature of
the DNA’s two strands?
A. In the chains, each end of the helix contains the 5’ end of one strand and the 3’ end of the other
B. Adenine binds to thymine & cytosine binds to guanine
C. Several codons may code for the same amino acid
D. The primary structure is right-handed double helix
E. All of the above
155. Which of the following provide the most accurate description of genetic code degeneracy?
A. In the chains, each end of the helix contains the 5’ end of one strand and the 3’ end of the other
B. Adenine binds to thymine & cytosine binds to guanine
C. Several codons may code for the same amino acid
D. The primary structure is right-handed double helix
E. All of the above
156. This is the chemical bond that binds to carbon 1 of the pentose sugar to the nitrogenous base in
nucleic acids:
A. H-bond
B. Covalent bond
C. Phosphodiester bond
D. Glycosidic bond
E. Ether bond
157. The most common form of DNA
A. A-DNA
B. B-DNA
C. Z-DNA
D. C-DNA
E. D-DNA
158. Which of the following can bind microtubules & therefore interfere with their assembly or
disassembly?
I. Colchicine
II. Vinorelbine
III. Streptomycin
A. I,II & III
B. I & II
C. II & III
D. I &III
E. III only
159. When serum urate levels exceed solubility limit, crystals of sodium urate accumulate in soft tissues &
joints causing an inflammatory reaction known as:
 A. Osteomalacia
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Gouty arthritis
D. Osteoarthritis
E. Idiophatic arthritis
160. Which of the ff. is derived from tyrosine?
I. Thyroid hormones
II. Melanin
III. Cathecolamines
A. I,II & III
B. I & II
C. I & III
D. II & III
E. III only
161. What is the positive result for Xanthoproteic test for Aromatic Amino Acids?
A. Yellow color deeping into orange
B. Violet color
C. Bluish green
D. Blue violet
E. Old rose
162. Which of the ff. are purine & pyrimidine analogs that are capable of inhibiting enzymes of nucleic
acid synthesis via counterfeit incorporation mechanisms?
I. 5-fluorouracil
II. Zidovudine
III. 6-mercaptopurine
A. I,II & III
B. I & II
C. I & III
D. II & III
E. II only
163. Which of the ff. is considered to be simplest monosaccharide?
A. Glucose
B. Glycerose
C. Fructose
D. Ribose
E. Erythrose
164. The inactive proproteins of enzymes are termed as:
A. Zymogens
B. Apoenzymes
C. Co-factor
D. Holoenzymes
E. Enzymes
165. Which of the ff. occurs in the mitochondria?
I. Electron transport chain
II. B- oxidation of fatty acids
III. Hexose of monophosphate shunt
A. I,II & III
B. I & II
C. I & III
D. II & III
E. I only
166. Fatty acid oxidation is increased in which of the ff. scenarios?
I. Poorly managed diabetes mellitus
II. Starvation
III. Lipid rich diet
A. I,II & III
B. I & II
C. I & III
D. II & III
E. I only
167. Glucose is stored in the liver as:
A. Galactose
B. Starch
C. Lactose
D. Glycogen
E. Inulin
168. Which of the ff. may cause pellagra, despite of adequate intake of tryphtopan?
I. Pheochromocytoma
II. Hartnup disease
III. Carcinoid syndrome
IV. Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome
 A. I & II
B. I & III
C. I & IV
D. II & III
E. II & IV
169. The pentose phosphate pathway & glutathione peroxidase protects erythrocytes from hemolysis.
The former provides NADPH as reducing equivalents to convert oxidized glutathione back to its reduced
form while the latter converts toxic hydrogen peroxide to non- toxic water with the aid of reduced glutathione.
What amino acid is found in the active site of glutathione peroxidases?
A. Cysteine
B. Methionine
C. Glutamate
D. Selenocysteine
E. Pyrrolysine
170. An example of globular protein:
A. collagen
B. fibrin
C. keratin
D. myoglobin
E. silk
171. which of the ff is a stop codon?
A. AUG
B. UAG
C. UGG
D. UUA
E. AGU
172. The ff. are phospholipids?
A. Phosphatidylinositol
B. Lecithin
C. Cephalin
D. Choline
E. Phophatidylserine
173. Ascorbic acid, glucuronides and some drugs act as reducing agents. How would these substances
affect benedicts test result?
A. They may give false negative results
B. They may give false positive results
C. They have no effect on the results
D. They would enhance the sensitivity of the test
E. NOTA
174. What is wobble?
A. The ability of certain anticodons that differ at the third base
B. An error in translation induced by streptomycin
C. A mechanism that allows for a peptide extension in the 50s subunit of the ribosome
D. Thermal motions leading to local denaturation of the DNA double helix
E. NOTA
175. Glutathione is an antioxidant w/c gives a disulfide bond (GSSG) on oxidation by oxidant chemicals
and drugs. It is reduced back to 2GSH in the presence of NADPH. What clinical disorder causes decreased
NADPH thereby causing impairement in reduction to GSSG to 2GSH and further causing hemolytic anemia?
A. Aldolase deficiency
B. Transketolase deficiency
C. Alkaline phosphatase deficiency
D. Phosphofructokinase deficiency
E. G6PD deficiency
176. Lipids containing ceramide, glucose or galactose with one or more molecules of sialic acid specially
neuraminic acid.
A. Cephalin
B. Ganglioside
C. Cytolipins
D. Globosides
E. Lecithin
177. Fatty acids are oxidized to which can enter the citric acid cycle.
A. Pyruvate
B. Acetoacetate
C. Acetyl coa
D. Lactate
E. Fatty acetyl-CoA
178. This substance accumulates in the muscle as a result of vigorous exercise
A. Glycogen
B. Amino acid
C. Lactic acid
D. Glucose
 E. pyruvic acid
179. this hormone elevates blood sugar concentration by repressing glucokinase& inhibiting glycogen
synthase
A. insulin
B. progesterone
C. estrogen
D. glucagon
E. glucocorticoids
180. fruity odor of urine is indicative of acetone bodies a diagnostic value in case of acidosis in:
A. diabetes insipidus
B. porphyria
C. cretinism
D. diabetes mellitus
E. galactosemia
181. discontinuos stretches in which the lagging strand is initially synthesized during DNA replication
A. enhancer
B. operon
C. primer
D. okazaki fragments
E. nick
182. increase in optical absorbance of purine & pyrimidine bases during DNA denaturation is known as:
A. hypercoloration effect
B. hyperconjugation effect
C. hyperillumination effect
D. hyperabsorbance effect
E. heperchromicity effect
183. mutations that result from insertion or deletion of nucleosides in DNA that generates altered mRNAs
A. frameshift
B. silent
C. nonsense
D. missense
E. transitional
184. which vitamin can be used to treat hyperlipidemia?
A. Thiamine
B. Niacin
C. Riboflavin
D. Pantothenic acid
E. Pyridoxine
185. This 3 carbon fatty acid derivatives arises from the catabolism of odd chained fatty acids:
A. Acetyl CoA
B. Acyl coA
C. Propionyl CoA
D. Propyl coA
E. Butyryl CoA
186. Whch of the ff. is an abnormal protein, found to be elevated in alzheimers diseases? This protein is
prone to aggregation due to conversion from its original soluble double helix rich state to beta sheet rich
state.
A. Alpha amyloid
B. Beta amyloid
C. Amyloid precursor protein
D. Amyloid related protein
E. Prion related protein
187. Which of the ff. are ketone bodies generated during extensive fatty acid oxidation?
I. Acetone
II. Gamma amino butyric acid
III. Acetoacetic acid
IV. Beta hydroxyl butyric acid
A. I,II & III
B. I,II,III & IV
C. I & II
D. III & IV
E. I, III & IV
188. A common intermediate of metabolism of carbohydrates fatty acids amino acids
A. Glycerol
B. Acetyl coA
C. Acetoacetate
D. Oxaloacetate
E. Acetylcholine
189. A patient with anti-A and Anti-B
A. Can accept any blood type
B. Can donate to any blood type
 C. Has antigin a and antigen B in his serum
D. Has antigin A and antigen B in his RBC
E. Universal recipient
190. Which of the ff. amino acids is responsible for disrupting the alpha helix because of its imino group
which is not geometrically compatible with the right handed spiral of the alpha helix?
A. Pro
B. Val
C. Lle
D. Leu
E. Gly
191. Which of the ff. regarding carbohydrates?
A. In fischer projections the sugar structure is written vertically with the lowest carbon being designated as
carbon 1
B. If an OH projects to the right on the fischer structure , it will project upward in the Haworth projection
C. The Haworth projection is applicable to all monosaccharides
D. D or L designations describes the positions of the penultimate hydroxyl groups in monosaccharides
E. AOTA
192. The enzymes for glycolysis are located at the:
A. Cytoplasm
B. Nucleolus
C. Nucleus
D. Mitochondrion

193. Fibrin from fibrinogen & myosin are examples of what type of primary derived proteins?
A. Proteans
B. Metaproteins
C. Coagulated proteins
D. Peptones
E. Peptides
194. Some serum enzymes are used in clinical diagnosis.which of the ff,.enzymes may be used to
diagnose myocardial infarction?
I.Gammaglutamyltranspeptidase
II.AST or SGOT
III.Creatinine phosphokinase
IV.Lactate dehydrogenase
A. I, II, III & IV
B. I,II & III
C. II,III,& IV
D. I,II & IV
E. II & III
195. Cheilosisglossitis seborrhea & photophobia are manifestations of what deficiency state?
A. Thiamine
B. Riboflavin
C. Niacin
D. Pantothenate
E. Pyridoxine
196. Racemase and mutase are examples of what type of enzymes?
A. Lyases
B. Isomerases
C. Oxidases
D. Reductases
E. Ligases
197. A reddish solution results after the addition of iodine ts to an unknown solution .subsequent addition
of ammoniacal basic lead acetate to a portion of the unknown solution results to the formation of precipitate.
The results of the tests confirm the presence of:
A. Glucose
B. Fructose
C. Raffinose
D. Glycogen
E. Starch
198. Which of the ff. are ATP consuming stage in glycolysis?
I. Irreversible phosphorylation og glucose to glucose 6 phosphate
II. Irreversible phosphorylation of fructose 6 phosphate to fructose 1-6 biphosphate
III. Phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I only
E. II nly
199. This enzyme catalyses the conversion of fructose 6 phosphate 1,6- biphosphate
A. Glucokinase
 B. Hexokinase
C. Pyruvate kinase
D. Phosphofructokinase
E. Glyceraldehyde phosphate dehygrogenase
200. Which of the ff. enzymes catalyze irreversible steps in glycolysis?
I. Phosphotrioseisomerase
II. Hexokinase
III. Pyruvate kinase
IV. Enolase
A. I,II
B. I,III
C. II,III
D. II,IV
E. I,IV
201. Which of the ff. is/are ATP generating stages of glycolysis?
I. 1,3-biphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate
II. 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate
III. Phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate
A. I,II
B. I,III
C. II,III
D. II,IV
E. I,IV
202. Which of the ff. is the central hub in the metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids & amino acids?
A. Glycolysis
B. Pentose phosphate pathway
C. Beta-oxidation
D. Cori cycle
E. Krebs cycle
203. Which of the ff. is/are the control points in the TCA cycle?
I. Citrate synthase reaction
II. Isocitratedehydrogenasereaction
III. a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase reaction
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. III only
204. Which of the ff. is an allosteric inhibitor of citrate synthase?
A. ADP
B. ATP
C. Acetyl coA
D. NADH
E. Phosphatase
205. Which of the ff. is/are an allosteric inhibitor(s) of a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex?
I. SuccinylcoA
II. NADH
III. ADP-induced kinase
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. III only
206. Which of the ff. is/are NADH generating steps of the krebs cycle?
I. Succinate dehydrogenase
II. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
III. Malate dehydrogenase
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. III only
207. Which of the ff. is an allosteric inhibitor of isocitrate dehydrogenase?
I. NADH
II. Acetyl coA
III. ATP
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. III only
208. Which of the ff. is/are FADH2 generating steps of the krebs cycle?
I. Succinate dehydrogenase
II. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
III. Malate dehydrogenase
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. III only
209. Which of the ff. is the only substrate level phosphorylation reaction of the krebs cycle?
A. Citrate synthase
B. Aconithase
C. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
D. Succinate thiokinase
E. Fumarase
210. The electron transport chain (ETC) is the final common pathway by which electron derived from the
different fuels of the body floew to oxygen. Where does ETC occurs?
A. Outer mitochondrial membrane
B. Cytosol
C. Ribosome
D. Golgi complex
E. Inner mitochondrial membrane
211. Which of the ff. is an important inorganic co-factor in all phosphorylation reactions of the glycolytic
pqathway?
A. Mg
B. Ca
C. Na
D. K
E. Fe
212. Aside from converting stored energy in glucose into ATP, which of the ff. are other key roles of
glycolysis?
I. Produce intermediates for triglyceride synthesis
II. Produce intermediates for glycogenesis
III. Produce pyruvates which can be oxidized further to lactate to produce more ATPs via Krebs cycle
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. III only
213. In which of the ff. metabolic pathways is G6P an intermediate?
I. Glycogenolysis
II. Gluconeogenesis
III. Pentose phosphate pathway
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. I only
214. Which of the ff. is the most potent activator of the phosphofructokinase step in glycolysis?
A. Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
B. Glucose-6-phosphate
C. Glucose-1-phosphate
D. 1,2-bisphosphoglycerate
E. Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate
215. Which of the ff. statements regarding pyruvate is/are true?
I. In the presence of oxygen, pyruvate is further oxidized to acetyl coA
II. In the absence of oxygen, pyruvate is reduced to lactase
III. It may also be a precursor to oxaloacetate which can be further converted back to glucose via krebs
cycle
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. I only
216. Glycolysis in erythrocytes always ends in lactate formation both in aerobic & anaerobic conditions.
The primary reason behind this is:
A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase is not found in erythrocytes
B. Erythrocytes lack mitochondria and hence are incapable of further oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl coA
C. Erythrocytes predominantly express the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase instead of pyruvate
dehydrogenase
D. Erythrocytes don’t utilize oxygen for oxidative metabolism. They only transport it
 E. Pyruvate is easily transported out of the erythrocytes
217. Which of the ff. is a feed-forward activator of pyruvate kinase?
A. 2-phosphoglycerate
B. 3-phosphoglycerate
C. 1,3-biphosphoglycerate
D. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
E. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate
218. Which of the ff. inhibits hexokinase thereby slowing down glycolysis?
A. Fructose-6-phosphate
B. Glucose-6-phosphate
C. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate
D. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
E. 1,3-biphosphoglycerate
219. Which of the ff. statements is/are true regarding glucagon?
I. Glucagon includes cGMP formation which in turn activates cGMP dependent-kinase that may inhibit
pyruvate kinase, slowing down glycolysis
II. Glucagon inhibits phosphofructokinase-2 thereby inhibiting fructose-2,6-biphosphate synthesis, a
potent activator of phosphorfructokinase-1
III. Glucagon is release from the pancreas in response to hypoglycemia, which in return activates
gluconeogenesis &glycogenolysis
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. I only
220. Which of the ff. genetic disorder may cause hemolytic anemia owing to a decrease production of
ATP’s in erythrocytes since these cells are largely dependent on glycolysis for their ATP source to maintain
integrity of cellular structure & function?
I. Aldolase deficiency
II. Pyruvate kinase deficiency
III. Phosphofructokinase deficiency
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. III only
221. Which of the ff. enzymes is/are found to be genetically deficient in the skeletal muscles of patients
who experience a decrease exercise tolerance specially after a carbohydrate rich diet?
I. Aldolase
II. Pyruvate kinase
III. Phosphofructokinase
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. III only
222. The ATP producing phosphoglycerate kinase step of glycolysis converts 1,3-biphosphoglycerate to
3-phosphoglycerate. This may be bypassed by what non-ATP generqating steps?
I. Biphosphoglyceratemutase
II. 1,3-Biphosphoglyceratemutase
III. 2,3-Biphosphoglyceratemutase
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. III only
223. What is the significance of phosphoglycerate kinase by-pass by biphosphoglycerate phosphatase?
A. The by-pass produces 3-phosphoglycerate allowing glycolysis to proceed
B. The by-pass produces 2-3,biphosphoglycerate which can bind to hemoglobin promoting oxygen release
to cells and tissues during hypoxic states
C. The by-pass producews 2-phosphoglycerate an essential intermediate to produce phosphoenolpyruvate
D. The by-pass directly produces pyruvate
E. The by-pass directly produces Acetyl coA
224. What two enzymes are used to bypass thre pyruvate kinase reaction of glycolysis for
gluconeogenesis?
I. Pyruvate carboxylase
II. PEP carbokinase
III. Fructose biphosphate
IV. Glucose 6 phosphatase
A. I,II,III
B. I,III
 C. I,IV
D. I,II
E. III,IV
225. Which of the ff. statements regarding the kreb cycle are true?
I. Pyruvate carboxylase is the major anaplerotic replenishing reaction for the kreb cycle and it
produces catalytic oxaloacetate by carboxylation of pyruvate
II. Acetyl CoA is an allosteric activator of pyruvate carboxylase and an inhibitor of pyruvate
dehydrogenase
III. Lactate can enter the cycle by oxidation to pyruvate by lactate dehydrogenase which can be further
carboxylated to catalytic oxaloacetate
A. I,II,III
B. I,III
C. I,IV
D. I,II
E. III,IV
226. Which of the ff. includes the main goals of pentose phosphate pathway?
I. Produce ribose 5 phosphate for nucleoside synthesis
II. Produce NADPH and NADP for oxidoreductive biochemical synthesis
III. To interconvert pentoses and hexoses
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. I,III
D. II,III
E. III only
227. Which f the ff. is possible precursor for glucose via gluconeogenesis?
I. Leucine
II. Pyruvate
III. Glycerol
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. I,III
D. II,III
E. III only
228. The state of high serum & urinary levels of aceto acetic acid and B- hydroxybutyric acid is called:
A. Ketonemia
B. Ketonuria
C. Ketosis
D. Ketoacidosis
E. C&D
229. The salkowski test for cholesterol utilizes what strong acid?
A. Nitric acid
B. Sulfuric acid
C. Hydrochloric acid
D. Perchloric acid
E. Acetic acid
230. These are small circular duplex DNA molecules whose natural function is to confer antibiotic
resistance to the host cell
A. Cosmids
B. Bacteriophages
C. Nucleolus
D. Genes
E. Plasmids
231. Which of the ff. amino acids is considered to be the smallest?
A. L
B. A
C. V
D. I
E. P
232. Aspartame an artificial sweetener is contraindicated in phnylketonurics because?
A. It contains phenylalanine
B. It contains tyrosine
C. It Lacks tyrosine
D. It Lacks phenylalanine
E. B & D
233. Which of the ff. amino acid has the tendency to elevate in the blood and urine of patients with
maples syrup urine diseases?
A. P
B. W
C. Y
D. R
E. L
234. The oxidative stage of the pentose phosphate pathway generates
A. FADH2
B. NADPH
C. ATP
D. ATP
E. NADH
235. What is the major enzymes that carry out the non oxidative phase of the pentose phosphate
pathway?
I. Transaminase
II. Transketolase
III. Transaldolase
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. I,II
D. II,III
E. III only
236. Which of the ff. intermediates seldomly accumulates in urea cycle?
A. Citruline
B. Ornithine
C. argininosuccinate
D. arginine
E. carbamoyl phosphate
237. which of the ff. phospholipases can convert or degrade phospholipids to their basic unit
phosphatidic acid?
A. PLA2
B. PLA1
C. PLC
D. PLD
E. PLE
238. Which of the ff. is capable of providing a valuable information for diabetes management since it
gives the mean blood glucose for the past 6-8 week of a particular patient?
A. HbA1a
B. HbA2a
C. HbA1c
D. HbA2c
E. Hbs
239. Which of the ff. is not an endopeptidase?
A. Pepsin
B. Aminopeptidase
C. Trypsin
D. Chymotrypsin
E. Elastase
240. Which of the ff. is secreted by intestinal mucosal cells?
A. Carboxypeptidase
B. Elastase
C. Chymotrypsin
D. Trypsin
E. Aminopeptidase
241. What are the components of endogenous thymidine?
A. Methylated deoxyribose and uracil
B. Ribose and thymine
C. Deoxyribose and thymine
D. Ribose thymine & phosphate
E. Deoxyribose thymine phosphate
242. Which of the ff. is a nucleotide?
A. Adenylate
B. Adenosine
C. Adenine
D. Cytidine
E. Uridine
243. Which of the ff. is not found in the DNA?
A. Deoxyadenylate
B. Deoxyguanylate
C. Deoxycytidylate
D. Deoxyuridylate
E. Thymidylate
244. The heterocyclic nitrogenous base is connected to the pentose sugar in nucleotides via what
covalent bond?
A. Beta glycosidic bond
B. Alpha glycosidic bond
C. Ether bond
 D. Beta N-glycosidic bond
E. Alph N-glycosidic bond
245. Uracil differs from thymine in that the latter possesses a group at position of the pyrimidine nuclueus
A. Hydroxyl 5
B. Amino 5
C. Methyl 5
D. Amino
E. Methyl 3
246. Among the major forms of purines found in the DNA which does not possess an oxo/ carbonyl
group on the ring?
A. Adenine
B. Cytosine
C. Guanine
D. Uracil
E. Thymine
247. The phosphate group that makes nucleotides acidic generally located at the position of the pentose
sugar when forming nucleic acids?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
248. Additional phosphate group are attached to monophosphorylated nucleotides by what covalent
bond?
A. Phosphoester bond
B. Phosphodiester bond
C. Acid anhydride bond
D. Glycosidic bond
E. Ether nond
249. There are several biochemical catalyst found inside and outside the cell. Biomolecules with catalytic
activity include:
A. Enzymes only
B. Enzymes and amides acids
C. Enzymes and RNA
D. Enzymes and DNA
E. AOTA
250. The DNA strands is read from the 5 end and to the 3 end. The 5 end possesses while the 3 end
possesses
A. Free hydroxyl group , free hydroxyl group
B. Free phosphate group, free phosphate group
C. Free hydroxyl group, free phosphate group
D. Free phosphate group, free hydroxyl group
E. 7-methylguanosine triphosphate cap and polyadenylate tail
251. In the double stranded DNa the genetic information resides on the strands which the transcribed
during nucleic acid synthesis and the strand is known as:
A. Template strand
B. Replicating strand
C. Coding strand
D. Transcribing strand
E. Synthetic strand
252. The opposing complementary DNA strand to the template DNA strand is known as the?
A. Template strand
B. Replicating strand
C. Coding strand
D. Transcribing strand
E. Synthetic strand
253. Which of the ff. is not a form of DNA within cells?
A. A-DNA
B. B-DNA
C. D-DNA
D. C-DNA
E. F-DNA
254. The phosphodiester bonds in nucleotides ran in the direction to form nucleic acids?
A. 5 to 3
B. 1 to 3
C. 3 to 4
D. 3 to 5
E. 3 to 1
255. The DNA strand is always read from the direction?
A. 5 to 3
B. 1 to 3
 C. 3 to 4
D. 3 to 5
E. 3 to 1
256. Which of the ff. statements regarding the central dogma of molecular biology are true?
I. DNA replication occurs in a semi conservative manner
II. The amino acid sequence of proteins is directly dependent on the nucleotides sequence of the DNA
III. Reverse transcription is impossible
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. I only
257. It refers to the ability of the DNA to increase its absorbance of visible light when denatured.
A. Hyperabsorbance effect
B. Hyperchromicity effect
C. Denaturing effect
D. TmDNA
E. Color enhancing effect
258. Which of the ff. statements regarding DNA denaturation are not true?
I. The DNA double helix unwinds because H- bonds between base pairs and base kicking interactions
are interrupted
II. A-T base pairs are more resistant to denaturation
III. The nitrogenous bases remains bound to the sugar phosphate backbone but the sugar backbone is
hydrolyzed owing to the hydrolysis of the phosphodiester bonds.
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. I only
259. DNA mutations are non- enzymatic transformations within the DNA molecules that causes
permanent changes in the genetic information to expressed and one mechanism of mutation is deamination
of nitrogenous bases. Which of the ff. is therefore subject to deamination ?
I. Adenine
II. Guanine
III. Thymine
IV. Cytosine
A. I,II
B. III,IV
C. I,II,III
D. I,II,IV
E. I,III
260. Which of the ff. regarding DNA mutations are true?
I. Deamination will automatically remove the bases from the sugar phosphate backbone
II. Hydrolysis of glycosidic bonds will cause destruction of phosphodiester bonds
III. Glycosidic bond hydrolysis will cause interruption in H-bonding of base pairs
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. I,II
E. II,III
261. Which types of RNA is considered to be the most abundant?
A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. tRNA& mRNA
E. rRNA& mRNA
262. in mRNA processing the 5 end is attached with what nucleotide that serves as a “cap” to render it
stable against 5 exonucleases and for it to be recognized by the translation machinery of the cell?
A. 7-metyladenosine triphosphate
B. 7-methylguanosine triphosphate
C. 7-methylinosine triphosphate
D. 1-methylguanosine triphosphate
E. 3-methylguanosine triphosphate
263. The mRNA is not actually directly senthesized from the DNA. The precursor that is being processed
to form mRNA for export to cytoplasm is known as:
A. hnRNA
B. pRNA
C. preRNA
D. hRNA
E. nRNA
264. which of the ff. is oxidatively catabolized to uric acid?
 A. Cytosine
B. Inosine
C. Uracil
D. Guanine
E. Thymine
265. Vitamins are essential and are therefore required to be provided by the diet.which of the ff. is not
strictly vitamins since the body can synthesize this vitamins.
I. Niacin
II. Cholecalcifol
III. Pantothenate
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. I only
266. Which of the ff. statements is true regarding co0factors?
I. They are required by apoenzymes for them to be converted to active holoenzymes
II. They can be essentials ions and co- enzymes
III. Co-enzymes can be co- substrates & prosthetic groups
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. I only
267. Which of the ff. is a metabolite
co-enzymes that functions in methyltransfer?
A. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate
B. Adenosine triphosphate
C. S-adenosylmethionine
D. Uridinediphosphoglucuronic acid
E. Phosphoadenosinephosphosulfate
268. Wernicke-korsakoff syndrome is a deficiency state of:
A. Pantothenate
B. Folate
C. Riboflavin
D. Thiamine
E. Biotin
269. Which of the ff. is a functional part of CoA and acyl carrier protein?
A. Thiamine
B. Riboflavin
C. Niacin
D. Pantothenate
E. Pyridoxine
270. Which of the ff. is also known as vitamin H?
A. Biotin
B. Cyanocobalamin
C. Pyridoxine
D. Folic acid
E. Niacin
271. Which of the ff. is a more stable derivative of tetrahydrofolate making it suitable for pharmaceuticals
and is found in the agent folinic acid?
A. 5,10-methylene THF
B. 5,10- methyl THF
C. 5-formimino THF
D. 5-formyl THF
E. 10-formyl THF
272. Vitamin k acts as co-factor for the gamma carboxylation dependent activation of clotting factors
causing a pro- coagulant effect. What amino acid residue in clotting factors is gamma carboxylated in the
presence of vitamin k?
A. Asp
B. Lys
C. glu
D. leu
E. met
273. toxicity due to which of the ff. vitamins are possible?
I. Pyridoxine
II. Niacin
III. Retinol
IV. Cholecalciferol
A. I,II,III,IV
B. I,II
 C. III,IV
D. I,III
E. II,IV
274. It is the step in a reaction mechanism with the highest energy transition state and is usually subject
to regulation and inhibition
A. Intermediate step
B. Rate- limiting step
C. Pre-transition state
D. Regulatory state
E. Key step
275. Which of the ff. statements regarding enzymes is/are true?
I. Enzymes are catalytic proteins that lower the activation energy
II. Enzymes are capable of raising reactants energy by bringing them close together
III. Enzyme can also stabilized the transition states thereby facilitating the ease of product formation
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. I only
276. Proteases are examples of what general classifications of enzyme?
A. Oxidoreductases
B. Lyases
C. Ligases
D. Hydrolases
E. Transferasase
277. DOPA decarboxylase is a key enzyme in cathecolamine biosynthesis and in the activation of
levodopa to dopamine for parkinsons disease. This enzyme is an example of what general classification of
enzyme?
A. Isomerases
B. Lyases
C. Ligases
D. Hydrolases
E. Oxidases
278. Nomenclature of enzyme are based on the ff. except:
A. Nature of the general substrate
B. Name of the specific substrate
C. Type of reaction
D. Biosynthetic or catabolic nature
E. All of the above
279. In the Michaelis-Menten equation , Vo=Vmax[S]/Km+[S] the term Km is essentially becomes equal
to [S] if the [S] is much more greater than the Km. hence:
A. Velocity becomes equal to [S]
B. Velocity becomes equal to Km
C. Velocity becomes equal to Vmax x [S]
D. Velocity becomes equal to Km+[S]
E. Velocity becomes equal to V max
280. In the Michaelis-Meten Equation Vo=Vmax[S]/Km+[S] if the [S] is equal to Km, the term Km +[S]
becomes 2[S] hence;
A. Vo becomes equal to half of V max
B. Vo becomes equal to half of Km
C. Vo becomes equal to half of V max x [S]
D. Vo becomes equal to km
E. Vo becomes equal to v max
281. For the statement of the drugs ability to bind and inhibit a particular enzyme. The MichaelisMenten
Equation can be rearranged to:1/Vo=(Km/Vmax)1/[S]+1/Vmax Which of the ff. statement regarding this
is/are true?
I. The equation is known as lineweaver-burk Equation
II. The equation is simply derived by getting the reciprocals of MichaelisMenten
III. The equation allows the mathehatical determination of substrate concentration at a given velocity
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. I only
282. Which of the ff.statements regarding competitive inhibitors of enzymatic activity is/are true?
I. Such inhibitors are commonly uses as drugs
II. The effect of inhibiton is irreversible regardless if the substrate concentration is increased
III. Such inhibitors decreased the number of free enzyme that can bind the substrate
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
 D. I,III
E. I only
283. In an enzyme kinetics experiment for determining a drug’s mechanism of inhibition of a particular
enzyme, the lineweaver-burk plot was created. Based on this plot which of the ff. statement is/are true?
I. The drug is a competitive inhibitor of an enzyme & its action is therefore reversible by increasing
substrate concentration
II. The Vmax is unaffected. Further supporting that the inhibition is competitive in nature
III. The Km is decreased. Further supporting that the inhibition is competitive in nature
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. I only
284. Given the Lineweaver-burk plot, it can be concluded that:
A. The mechanism of inhibition is uncompetitive
B. The Km is lowered and the Vmax is unchanged
C. The inhibitor can either bind the free enzymeor when the enzyme-substrate complex has been formed
D. The inhibitor can bind the enzyme after the enzyme-substrate complex has been formed since the
inhibitor binds to a site of the enzyme other than the active site
285. Given the Lineweaver-Burk plot below , it can be concluded that;
A. Km is lowered &Vmax is increased. The inhibition is uncompetitive
B. Vmax is lowered & Km is increased. The inhibition is uncompetitive
C. Both Vmax& Km is increased, the inhibition is uncompetitive
D. Both Vmax& Km is lowered, the inhibition is uncompetitive
E. The inhibitor can only bind & inhibit the enzyme if it is free of the substrate. The inhibition is
uncompetitive
286. Which of the ff. serum enzymes for clinical diagnosis is increased in the case of liver disease?
A. LDH1
B. LDH2
C. LDH3
D. LDH4
E. LDH5
287. Which of the ff. serum enzymes for clinical diagnosis is increased in the cases of bone disorder &
obstructive liver disease?
A. Creatinine kinase
B. Lactate dehydrogenase
C. Acid phosphatase
D. Alkaline phosphatase
E. Amylase
288. Which of the ff. serum enzymes for clinical diagnosis is more specific indicator for liver disease when
elevated in the serum?
A. LDH4
B. LDH5
C. ASAT
D. SGOT
E. SGPT
289. Synthesis of ATP within the cell is primarily by:
I. Reductive phosphorylation
II. Substrate level phosphorylation
III. Oxidative phosphorylation
IV. Hydrolytic phosphorylation
A. I,II
B. I,III
C. I,IV
D. II,III
E. II,IV
290. Which of the ff. enzymes for gluconeogenesis bypass irreversible stepsof glycolysis?
I. Pyruvate carboxylase
II. Fructose-1,6-biphosphate
III. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,III
E. I only
291. The biochemical cycle is essentially an interaction of fatty acid oxidation , gluconeogenesis &
glycolysis.
A. Cori cycle
B. Urea cycle
C. Krebs cycle
D. Citric acid cycle
 E. Ketogenesis
292. Glycogen phosphorylase is a key enzyme in which of the ff. biochemical pathways?
A. Glycogenolysis
B. Glycogenesis
C. Glycolysis
D. Gluconeogenesis
E. Pentose phosphate pathway
293. Which of the ff. statement regarding Beta-oxidation of fatty acids is/are true?
I. Fatty acids are activated first to fatty acyl coA via ATP &coA
II. Fatty acid coA is transported via L-carnitine into the cytosol for the degradation ia beta-oxidation
III. The L-carnitine shuttle aids fatty acids oxidation by transporting fatty acyl coA to its destination in the
cell for degradation which explains why L-carnitine can increase fatty acids utilation
A. I,II,III
B. I,II
C. I,III
D. II,III
E. III only
294. How many ATP’s are generated by one molecule of FADH2 via oxidative phosphorylation?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
295. How many ATP’s are generated by one molecule of NADH via oxidative phosphorylation?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
296. How many ATP’s can one molecule of palmitic acid generate via beta-oxidation?
A. 133
B. 132
C. 130
D. 129
E. 128
297. A given fatty acids is given 27 carbon atoms. How many ATP’s can be produced from this molecules
via beta-oxidation alone?
A. 196
B. 197
C. 198
D. 199
E. 200
298. Which of the ff. amino acids are both ketogenic&glucogenic?
I. Phe
II. Lie
III. Thr
IV. Tyr
A. I,II,III,IV
B. I,II,III
C. III,IV
D. II,III,IV
E. I,II,IV
299. Which of the ff. codons is not translation stop signal during translation of mRNA into proteins?
A. UAG
B. UAA
C. UGA
D. UGG
E. NOTA
300. In the termination of protein synthesis or mRNA translation which of the releasing factor does not
recognize the codons for translation stop signal and rather enhance the activity of other releasing factors
with the aid of GTP?
I. RF-1
II. RF-2
III. RF-3
A. I,II
B. I,III
C. II,III
D. III only
E. I only