Pharmaceutical Dosage Forms and Drug Delivery System B. Diluents E.

Surfactants
C. Lubricants
1. The purpose of Phase 3 clinical trial is;
I. Safety 10. Characteristics of Stevia powder include;
II. Effectiveness I. A natural, non-toxic sweetener
III. Dosage II. Contraindicated to phenylketonurics
A. I, II and III III. About 30 times sweeter than sucrose
B. I and III A. Only 1 D. II and III
C. II and III B. I and II E. III only
D. I and II C. I and III
E. I only
11. A hermetic container which permits withdrawal of successive
2. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding portions of the contents without changing the strength of the
TDDS? remaining portion
A. Ortho Evra is a testosterone transdermal A. Multiple dose vial
system. B. Single dose ampule
B. Skin lotion may be used at the application site C. Blister package
of transdermal patches to avoid irritation. D. Large plastic bottle for capsule
C. Physical exercise and extreme ambient E. Tamper-evident package
temperatures (e.g. sauna) may increase the
absorption of drug from Nitroglycerin patch. 12. Photodegradation can be prevented by packaging drugs in a
D. Absorption of drug from TDDS is greater if the light resistant container. Which of the following containers is
patch is applied to a site with a thick horny NOT light resistant?
layer. A. Colorless bottle covered with aluminum foil
E. TDDS should be removed when showering, B. Bottle covered with carbon paper
bathing or swimming. C. Transparent plastic container
D. Amber colored bottle
3. Which of the following phrases describe the elixir dosage E. Opaque plastic container
form?
I. Sweetened and flavored 13. This plastic material is rigid and has good clarity thus, is used
II. The product contains alcohol as preservative in blister packaging of capsules and tablets is;
III. Medicated or nonmedicated A. PET
A. I only D. I and II B. PVC
B. II and III E. I, II and III C. PETG
C. I and III D. APET
E. APETG
4. Which of the following preparations is for external use only?
A. Lugol’s solution 14. Simple syrup can be prepared by;
B. Iodine tincture I. Percolation
C. Magnesium citrate solution II. Solution with heat
D. Belladonna tincture III. Agitation without heat
E. Diphenhydramine elixir A. I, II and III are correct
B. I and II are correct
5. A preparation applied to the skin with a fine camel’s hair C. II and III are correct
brush or glass applicator is known as: D. Only II is correct
A. Glycerite D. Cataplasm E. I and III are correct
B. Liniment E. Glycerogelatin
C. Collodion 15. Features of ophthalmic ointments and gels include;
I. Must be packaged in collapsible ointment
6. For orally administered drug, the dosage form used as tubes having elongated narrow tip
clinical trial material for Phase 1 is; II. Non-sterile preparation
A. Capsule with excipients III. Ointment bases should have a softening point
B. Capsule containing active ingredient alone close to body temperature, both for comfort
C. Tablet without excipient and for drug release
D. Tablet with excipient A. Only I is correct
E. Solution form B. I and III are correct
C. II and III are correct
7. If a drug product requires an antioxidant, which of the D. I and II are correct
following would be used? E. I, II and III are correct

A. Fumed silica 16. Ointment base classified as hydrocarbon base include;

B. Titanium dioxide I. Petrolatum
C. Benzalkonium chloride II. White ointment
D. Butylhydroxyanisole III. PEG ointment
E. Phenylmercuric nitrate A. Only I is correct
B. I and III are correct
8. The following are physicochemical properties to be C. II and III are correct
considered in dosage form design except; D. I and II are correct
A. Physical state E. I, II and III are correct
B. Nature of the illness
C. Polymorphism 17. How many percent of glycerin is contained in glycerogelatin?
D. Solubility A. 15% D. 5%
E. Dissociation constant B. 35% E. 10%
C. 40%
9. Which of the following excipients are added to tablet
formulations to provide enough bulk for compression? 18. Papers, Moleskin, linen are types of what component of
A. Glidants D. Disintegrants plasters?
 A. Adhesives D. Corticosporin Otic Solution
B. Backing material E. Maxitrol Drops
C. Absorbents
D. Medicaments 28. Aromatic Spirit of Ammonia is a reflex stimulant
E. Container administered;
A. Orally
19. Creams ointments may be medicated or nonmedicated. B. Topically into the abdomen
Which of the following preparations contain a depigmenting C. By rubbing into the affected area
medicament? D. By inhalation
A. Crotamiton cream E. By subcutaneous injection
B. Tolnaftate cream
C. Hydroquinone cream 29. A pharmaceutical solvent water intended for the preparation
D. Mupirocin ointment of aqueous dosage forms except those intended for
E. Tretinoin cream parenteral administration is officially known as;
A. Water, USP
20. Type of ointment that must meet sterility test and B. Purified Water, USP
requirements for metal particles. C. Water for Injection, USP
A. Dermatologic ointment D. Sterile Water for Injection, USP
B. Ophthalmic ointment E. Bacteriostatic Water for Injection, USP
C. Rectal ointment
D. Nasal ointment 30. A topical solution employed as astringent was or wet
E. Vaginal ointment dressing is;
A. Aluminum Subacetate Topical Solution
21. An enema used for the diagnostic visualization of the GIT is; B. Povidone-Iodine Solution
A. Starch enema C. Coal Tar Topical Solution
B. Barium sulfate enema D. Hydrogen Peroxide Solution
C. Aminophylline enema E. Chlorhexidine Topical Solution
D. Nutritive enema
E. Hydrocortisone enema 31. Pharmaceutical solutions are of different characteristics,
uses and methods of preparation. Which of the following
22. Nasal preparations are employed; statements correctly describe a specific solution?
I. As nasal decongestant for prevention and A. Magnesium citrate solution is prepared by simple
treatment of allergic rhinitis solution method
II. To restore moisture and relieve dry, congested B. Liniments are ethereal solutions
and inflamed nasal membranes C. Embrocations are used externally and are applied
III. In the form of nose drops or sprays with rubbing
A. I, II and III D. Bactidol® is a collyrium
B. I and II E. Douches are rectal injections
C. II and III
D. I and III 32. An aqueous solution used for irrigative cleansing of the
E. I only vagina is termed as;
A. Enema D. Douche
23. Flexible collodion,USP, is rendered waterproof by the B. Lavatio ori E. Collunarium
addition of; C. Embrocation
A. Menthol D. Camphor
B. Castor oil E. Alcohol 33. Characteristics of large volume parenterals include all of the
C. Ether following EXCEPT;
A. Sterile
24. Which of the following statements is correct? B. Isotonic
A. Diapid nasal spray is used for the prevention and C. Package in containers not exceeding 1 liter
treatment of perennial allergic rhinitis D. Meet standards for particulate matter
B. Lugol’s solution contains sodium iodide as co- E. Colored
solute
C. Simple syrup can be prepared by percolation 34. The method of sterilization employed for heat-labile enzyme
D. Calcium hydroxide Topical Solution is also known preparations, catheters, needles and plastic disposable
as Liquor Carbonis Detergens syringes is;
E. Magnesium citrate solution is used as antidiarrheal A. Sterilization by ionizing radiation
B. Gas sterilization
25. This tincture is a topical protectant. C. Autoclaving
A. Belladonna tincture D. Steam sterilization
B. Compound benzoin tincture E. Dry heat sterilization
C. Tolu balsam tincture
D. Sweet orange peel tincture 35. Parenteral preparations are of different types. Which of the
E. Iodine tincture following is a dry Solid for Injection?
A. Propofol, USP
26. Which method is used in the preparation of Ipecac Syrup? B. Imipenem and Cilastatin for Injectable Suspension,
A. Solution with the aid of heat USP
B. Solution by agitation without the aid of heat C. Methylprednisolone Acetate Suspension, USP
C. Solution by chemical reaction D. Insulin Injection, USP
D. Percolation E. Cefuroxime for Injection, USP
E. Any of these methods
36. Pastes are semi-solid preparations that generally contain a
27. All of the following otic preparations are indicated for larger proportion of solid materials so are;
bacterial infections of the ear EXCEPT; I. Less greasy and stiffer than ointments
A. Auralgan otic Solution II. More macerating and more penetrating
B. Cerumenex Eardrops than ointments
C. Chloromycetin Otic Solution
 III. Are effectively employed to absorb serous 45. Characteristic of drug substance best suited for incorporation
secretions into an extended release product include;
A. I and II D. III only I. Uniformly absorbed form the GIT
B. II and III E. I, II and III II. Possess a good margin of safety
C. I and III III. Used in the treatment of acute rather than
chronic conditions
37. Considerations in the use of TDDS include; A. Only I is correct
I. Rotating locations within the recommended B. I and III are correct
site should be avoided in the application of C. I and II are correct
replacement patches D. I, II and III are correct
II. TDDS should be removed when showering, E. Only I is correct
bathing or swimming
III. Use of the skin lotions should be avoided at 46. Camphor is usually comminuted by which of the following
the application site because they affect skin techniques?
hydration and can also alter the partition A. Trituration
coefficient between the drug in the TDDS and B. Levigation
the skin C. Sieving
A. I, II and III D. II and III D. Pulverization by intervention
B. I and II E. III only E. Micronization
C. I and III
47. The vehicle of Effervescent granulated salts usually contain;
38. All of the following statements are true regarding biologics, I. Citric acid
EXCEPT; II. Tartaric acid
A. Biologic products must pass control requirements III. Sodium bicarbonate
such as potency, sterility, pyrogens and constituent A. I, II and III
materials. B. I and III
B. Freezing is required in the storage of biologics. C. II and III
C. Most biologics have an expiration date of a year or D. Only II is correct
longer after the date of manufacture. E. I and II
D. Biologics are generally administered by injection
E. Toxoids and Vaccines are biologics for active 48. Pharmaceutics is concerned with the following areas of
immunity pharmaceutical dosage form design EXCEPT;
A. Formulation
39. Which of the following biologics is available in oral form as B. Manufacture
enteric coated capsules? C. Stability
A. Typhoid vaccines D. Sales and marketing
B. Hepatitis B vaccine E. Effectiveness
C. Diphtheria and Tetanus Toxoids
D. Measles Virus Vaccine 49. Drug substance can be protected from the destructive
E. Hepatitis Vaccine influences of atmospheric oxygen or humidity through;
I. Coated tablets
40. Methylcellulose is used in ophthalmic solutions as; II. Enteric coated tablets
A. Buffer D. Thickener III. Sealed ampoules
B. Preservative E. Isotonic agent A. I, II and III D. I and III
C. Sterilizing agent B. I and II E. III only
C. II and III
41. Which of the following preparations is NOT sterile?
A. Eye drop 50. Preformulation considerations include all of the following
B. Implant EXCEPT;
C. Suppository A. Polymorphism
D. Solution for Injection B. Stability in the presence of expected excipients
E. Dialysis Solution C. Membrane permeability
D. Particle size
42. A novel drug delivery system Cyanocobalamine (Nascobal E. Dissolution
Gel) used in the treatment of vitamin B12 deficiency is
available as; 51. Liquid drugs such as Vit A, D and E are formulated as;
A. A controlled release sublingual application A. Sublingual tablet
B. Microspheres for injection B. Soft gelatin capsule
C. A nasal gel C. Nasal inhaler
D. Automatic injector D. Compressed tablets
E. Chewable dispersible tablet E. Hard gelatin capsule

43. Products of biotechnology include all of the following 52. The original appearance, palatability, uniformity, dissolution
EXCEPT; and suspendability are retained. The type of stability
A. Estring described is;
B. Interferon A. Physical
C. Human Growth Factor B. Chemical
D. Rituximab C. Toxicologic
E. Epoeitin alfa D. Microbiologic
E. Therapeutic
44. Advair diskus is a novel preparation for;
A. Oral inhalation 53. Approaches in the stabilization of drug products against
B. Parenteral administration hydrolytic decomposition include all of the following
C. Subgingival application EXCEPT;
D. Vaginal insert A. Replacement of atmospheric oxygen present in
E. Topical delivery container with an inert gas such as nitrogen
B. Supply drug in a dry form for reconstitution
 C. Refrigeration D. Punch method
D. Use of buffering agents E. Both B and C
E. Suspending the drug in non-aqueous vehicle rather
than dissolving them in an aqueous medium 62. A tablet excipient that causes adhesion of powder particles in
tablet granulation
54. Based on USP guidelines for extemporaneously prepared A. Lubricant D. Diluent
drug products, the stability of water containing formulation B. Disintegrant E. Antiadherents
prepared from ingredients in solid form is; C. Binder
A. Not later than 25% of the time remaining until the
products expiration date or 6 months whichever is 63. An excipient used in sugar free-chewable tablet
earlier. A. Mannitol D. Lactose
B. A beyond use date of 6 months B. Sorbitol E. Crystalline maltose
C. A beyond use date not later 14 days on storage at C. Xylitol
cold temperature
D. A beyond use date of the intended duration of 64. In preparing vaginal inserts, the following excipients are used
therapy or 30 days whichever is earlier EXCEPT;
E. None of these A. Lubricant
B. Disintegrating agent
55. TRUE statements regarding flavoring of pharmaceuticals C. Filter
include all of the following EXCEPT; D. Coating agent
A. Fruit or citrus flavors combat acid or sour taste of E. Dispersing agent
drugs
B. Children prefer less sweet with tart rather than a 65. Wecobee bases used in suppositories are triglycerides
fruit flavor pharmaceutical derived from;
C. Organic esters, alcohols and aldehydes are A. Mineral oil
pleasant to taste B. Coconut oil
D. Chewable tablets and lozenges are usually flavored C. Almond oil
and sweetened D. Olive oil
E. In selecting a flavorant, the age of the intended E. Theobroma oil
patient must be considered
66. In preparing suppositories by molding from a melt, lubricating
56. The following products require the addition of preservatives the mold is required if the suppository is;
EXCEPT; A. PEG-based
A. Syrups B. Cocoa butter-based
B. Emulsions C. Glycerinated gelatin based
C. Semisolid preparations D. Both B and C
D. Ophthalmic products E. All of these
E. Large volume parenterals
67. Suppositories using this base should be moistened first with
57. Strip packs, blister packs, tape seals and bubble packs are water to avoid irritation to the tissue upon insertion;
examples of; A. Cocoa-butter
A. Light-resistant packaging B. Glycerinated gelatin
B. Compliance packaging C. Wecobee base
C. Child-resistant packaging D. Glyceryl monopalmitate
D. Tamper-resistant packaging E. Witepsol base
E. Adult-senior use packaging
68. TRUE statement about PEG-based suppositories include;
58. Characteristics of APET and PETG plastic materials include; I. Stored at room temperature
I. Transparent II. Leaks from the orifice
II. Unsuitable for gamma radiation III. It dissolves in the body fluid to release the
III. Has excellent luster active drug
A. I, II and III D. I and III A. I, II and III
B. I and II E. III only B. I and III
C. II and III C. II and III
D. I and II
59. Problems encountered with plastic containers include all of E. I only
the following EXCEPT;
A. Permeability 69. Tablets may differ in terms of release mechanism. Which of
B. Alkalinity these tablets has delayed-release feature?
C. Leaching A. Sugar-coated tablets
D. Deformation upon storage B. Film-coated tablets
E. Sorption C. Chewable tablets
D. Enteric coated tablets
60. The following drug products require colorants EXCEPT; E. Instant dissolving/disintegrating tablet
A. Capsules
B. Compressed tablets 70. Reasons for suspension include;
C. Sugar-coated tablets I. Sustaining effect
D. Suppositories II. Taste
E. Suspension III. Stability
A. I, II and III
61. Two plasticized gelatin ribbons are continuously and B. II and III
simultaneously fed with liquid or paste fill between the rollers C. I and II
of the rotary die mechanism. What method of preparing SGC D. III only
is described? E. I and III
A. Plate process
B. Rotary die process 71. Characteristics of particles of suspension in ideal situation
C. Reciprocating die process include;
 I. Perfectly spherical in dilute suspension A. I and III
II. No collision of particles B. II and III
III. Settling of particles obey Stokes’ Law C. I and II
A. I, II and III D. III only
B. II and III E. I, II and III
C. I and II
D. III only 80. Aluminum hydroxide gel is;
E. I and III I. Prepared by chemical reaction method
II. An antacid
72. A technique of reducing particle size producing 10-50um III. Applied externally
particle diameter is; A. I and II
A. Dry milling B. II and III
B. Micropulverization C. I and II
C. Micronization D. III only
D. Spray drying E. I, II and III
E. Fluid energy grinding
81. The first step in the continental method of preparing emulsion
73. Bentonite, a suspending agent is classified as; is the combination of;
A. Clay A. Gum and water
B. Plant colloid B. Gum and oil
C. Synthetic C. Oil and water
D. Cellulose D. Gum and active ingredient
E. Protein substance E. Gum, water and oil are mixed all together

74. Caking of particles in suspension can be prevented by 82. Surfactants of HLB value 3 to 6 are employed as;
inducing flocculation. Which of the following can be A. O/W emulsifier
employed as flocculating agent? B. W/O emulsifier
I. Diluted bentonite magma C. Antifoaming agents
II. Surface active agent D. Wetting agents
III. Electrolytes E. Solubilizing agents
A. I, II and III
B. II and III 83. This theory of emulsification assumes monomolecular layers
C. I and II of emulsifying agent curved around a droplet of the internal
D. I and III phase.
E. III only A. Surface tension theory
B. Plastic-film theory
75. These substances increase the viscosity of the dispersion C. Oriented-wedge theory
medium. D. Interfacial film theory
A. Wetting agents E. Molecular layer theory
B. Flocculating agents
C. Suspending agents 84. Creaming of emulsion, though reversible, is not esthetically
D. Solubilizing agents acceptable. This problem can be remedied by increasing the
E. All of these viscosity of the external phase. Which of the following can
promote the desired condition?
76. TRUE statements regarding packaging, labeling and storage A. Agitation
of suspensions include; B. Reformulation
I. Packaged in an oversized container to C. Addition of suspending agents
facilitate thorough mixing D. Addition of preservatives
II. A “shake well” label must be affixed E. Addition of thickeners
III. Must be protected from freezing
A. I, II and III 85. The separation of internal phase from the emulsion is called;
B. II and III A. Aggregation D. Flocculation
C. I and III B. Creaming E. Sedimentation
D. I and II C. Breaking
E. III only
86. Microemulsions are;
77. The following are oral suspensions EXCEPT; I. Thermodynamically stable system
A. Maalox suspension II. Optically transparent
B. Combantrin suspension III. O/W system stabilized by surfactant
C. Mesalamine suspension A. I, II and III
D. Amoxicillin suspension B. II and III
E. Gaviscon Liquid suspension C. I and II
D. I and III
78. Which of the following properties is undesirable in E. only I
pharmaceutical suspension?
A. Thixotropy 87. Inhalation aerosols are commonly employed;
B. Caking A. As anti-infective
C. Cracking B. As contraceptives
D. Bleeding C. In anorectal conditions
E. Flocculation D. In asthma therapy
E. As local anesthetic
79. Single phase gels;
I. Are made up of small inorganic particles 88. In mixing powder, the diluent is added in portions to the
II. Exhibit thixotropy potent drug, with trituration after each addition. What
III. Are those in which no apparent boundaries principle is described?
exist between the dispersed phase and the A. Levigation technique
dispersion medium B. Geometric dilution
 C. Pulverization with intervention 97. A chemical compound that has a fundamental desired
D. Comminution biologic or pharmacologic activity is referred to as;
E. Spatulation A. Prodrug
B. Lead compound
89. Powders containing deliquescent and hygroscopic materials C. Goal drug
should be wrapped in what kind of paper? D. All of these
I. Vegetable parchment E. None of these
II. Glassine paper
III. Waxed paper 98. These are solid dosage forms which are designed to be
A. I only inserted under the skin by special injectors or by surgical
B. III only incision.
C. I and II A. Pellets
D. II and III B. Inserts
E. I, II and III C. Plasters
D. Pills
90. In dry or fusion method of preparing effervescent granulated E. Troches
salt, the binding agent used is;
A. Alcohol-water mixture 99. Cocoa butter, NF is also known as;
B. Water of crystallization of citric acid A. Yellow wax D. Spermaceti
C. Alcohol, 95% B. Paraffin E. Lanolin
D. Lanolin C. Theobroma oil
E. Acacia mucilage
100. One of the following is NOT used in the preparation of oral
91. A tablet which is 50% larger and heavier than the original solutions, syrups and elixirs.
uncoated one is; A. Ethylene glycol
A. Sugar-coated tablet B. Alcohol, USP
B. Film-coated tablet C. Propylene glycol
C. Enteric-coated tablet D. Purified water, USP
D. Chocolate coated tablet E. Glycerin, USP
E. Gelatin coated tablet
101. Salicylic acid collodion contains how many percent of
92. Solid dosage administered by oral route include; salicylic acid in Flexible Collodion, USP?
I. Hypodermic tablets A. 5% D. 15%
II. Troches B. 3% E. 1%
III. Lollipops C. 10%
A. Only I is correct
B. II and III are correct 102. Compared with syrups, elixirs are;
C. I and II are correct I. Less sweet
D. I, II and III are correct II. Less effective in masking the taste of medicinal
E. I and III are correct substances
III. More viscous
93. Amount administered to a patient after exposure or A. I, II and III D. II only
contraction of the illness B. II and III E. I only
A. Prophylactic dose C. I and II
B. Therapeutic dose
C. Priming dose 103. TRUE statements concerning bulk powders;
D. Maintenance dose I. Oral powders are mixed with water or other
E. Minimum effective concentration beverages before swallowing
II. Douche powders are dissolve in warm water
94. Factors considered in determining a drug’s dose during for vaginal use
clinical trial include all of the following EXCEPT; III. Dusting powders include topical anti-infective,
A. Age antifungal and antiperspirant
B. Body weight A. I, II and III are correct
C. Appearance and taste B. I and III are correct
D. Pathologic state C. II and III are correct
E. Tolerance D. Only II is correct
E. I and II are correct
95. The copies of the NDA submitted by the applicant include;
I. Field copy 104. Blending of powders may be accomplished by;
II. Pre-approval copy I. Spatulation
III. Archival copy II. Sifting
A. I, II and III III. Levigation
B. II and III A. I, II and III D. I and II
C. I and II B. I and III E. III only
D. I and III C. II and III
E. III only
105. Different technologies are employed in preparing modified
96. Clinical trial materials include; release products. Glucotrol XL, Procardia XL and Covera HS
I. The proposed new drug are examples of;
II. Placebos A. Coated beads/granules
III. Comparator drug B. Microencapsulation
A. I only C. Matrix tablet
B. I and III D. Osmotic tablet
C. II and III E. Hydrocolloid system
D. I and III
E. I, II and III 106. F, D and C lakes are used to color;
I. Sugar coated tablets
 II. Pharmaceutical suspension
III. Syrups
A. III only D. I and III
B. II and III E. I, II and III
C. I and II
107. Advantages of film-coating over sugar-coating include;
I. More durable
II. Less bulky
III. Less time consuming to apply
A. I, II and III are correct
B. I and III are correct
C. II and III are correct
D. Only I is correct
E. Only III is correct
108. Characteristic of added substances to capsule formulation;
I. Harmless in quantities used
II. Do not interfere with requisite compendial
assays and tests
III. Do not impair product’s bioavailability,
therapeutic efficacy or safety
A. I, II and III are correct
B. I and III are correct
C. II and III are correct
D. Only I is correct
E. I and II are correct
109. TRUE statements about the function of excipients used in
tablet formulation EXCEPT;
A. Binders promote granulation
B. Glidants promote the flow of the tablet granulation
C. Lubricants help the patient to swallow the tablet
D. Diluents make up the desired bulk of the tablet
formulation
E. Disintegrants promote the breakup of tablets after
administration
110. The vehicle used in Calamine Lotion is;
A. Aluminum acetate solution
B. Lead acetate solution
C. Calcium hydroxide solution
D. Magnesium hydroxide solution
E. Purified water, USP
111. Propofol, USP is a/an;
A. Solution for injection
B. Dry solid for injection
C. Injectable emulsion
D. Injectable suspension
E. Not an injectable product
E. I, II and III
115. A sugar-based lozenge on a stick (lollipop) used in
controlling breakthrough pain in cancer patients is;
A. Fentanyl Actiq
B. Dormicum
C. Dequadin
D. Difflam
E. Alaxan-FR
116. Spansule capsule is;
I. An example of extended release product
prepared by embedding drug in a slowly
eroding hydrophilic matrix system
II. A capsule containing beads of different coating
thickness
III. A half-colored, half-transparent hard gelatin
capsule containing colored beads or granules
A. Only III is correct
B. I and III are correct
C. II and III are correct
D. I and II are correct
E. I, II and III are correct
117. The transdermal patch used in travel-related nausea and
vomiting that is to be worn in a hairless area behind the ear
is;
A. Transdermal Nicotine
B. Transdermal Clonidine
C. Transdermal Testosterone
D. Transdermal Nitroglycerin
E. Transdermal Scopolamine
118. A part of a monolithic transdermal system that functions to
store and release the drug at the skin-site is the;
A. Occlusive backing layer
B. Liquid drug reservoir
C. Semi permeable membrane
D. Matrix system
E. Adhesive layer
119. TRUE statement about vanishing cream include;
I. A W/O type of cream
II. Also known as Petrolatum Rose Water
Ointment
III. Contains large amount of water that
evaporates after application leaving a thin film
of stearic acid
A. I, II and III D. I and III
B. II and III E. III only
C. I and II

112. All of the following are used as vehicle in various dosage 120. Fleet enema is an example of;
forms EXCEPT; A. Diagnostic enema
A. Syrup, USP B. Nutritive enema
B. Peanut oil C. Evacuation enema
C. Anise oil D. Non medicated enema
D. Bacteriostatic water for injection E. Hydrocortisone enema
E. White petrolatum
121. Which of the following phrases describe the elixir dosage
113. TRUE statement regarding tartrazine include; form?
I. An FD&C color additive I. A Colloidal dispersion
II. Can cause hypersensitivity reactions in some II. Alcohol and water are its primary solvents
individuals III. The product is self-preserving due to high
III. Imparts red color to the preparation alcohol content
A. I only D. II and III A. II only
B. II only E. I, II and III B. II and III
C. I and II C. I and III
D. I and II
114. Type II glass container is; E. I, II and III
I. Highly resistant borosilicate
II. Can be used as container for parenterals 122. A colorless to slightly yellow, clear, effervescent liquid having
III. Treated soda-lime glass a sweet, acidulous taste and a lemon flavor;
A. I and III A. Citric acid syrup
B. II and III B. Magnesium citrate Solution
C. I only C. Simple syrup
D. I and II D. Calcium hydroxide solution
 E. Aluminum acetate solution C. II and III are correct
D. I and II are correct
123. Magnesium aluminum silicate is also known as; E. I, II and III are correct
A. Kaolin D. Bentonite
B. Acacia E. Tragacanth 133. Method used to achieve controlled release from solid dosage
C. Veegum form
I. Coated beads and granules
124. Several processes affect the stability and pharmaceutical II. Complex formation
elegance of dispersions. Reversible process include; III. Ion-exchange resin
I. Caking A. I, II and III are correct
II. Creaming B. I and III are correct
III. Breaking C. I and II are correct
A. I, II and III D. II and III D. II and III are correct
B. I and II E. II only E. Only I is correct
C. I and III
134. Components of glycerogelatin EXCEPT:
125. The delivery of fluoride to the teeth may be accomplish A. Gelatin
through; B. Petrolatum
A. Sonophoresis D. Ultrasound C. Medicinal agent
B. Phonophoresis E. All of these D. Glycerin
C. Iontophoresis E. Water

126. The drug antidote for radiation exposure is; 135. Drug dosage form/s that is/are protected from the destructive
A. Cs D. Prussian blue influence of atmospheric oxygen or humidity.
B. Acetazolamide E. Gallium A. Coated tablets D. Both A and B
C. Captopril B. Sealed ampules E. Both A and C
C. Enteric coated
127. A radiopharmaceutical used diagnostically to evaluate thyroid
fraction and morphology. 136. Drug dosage form that are protected from the destructive
A. Samarium-153 influence of gastric acid after oral administration.
B. Sodium Iodide-123 A. Enteric coated tablets
C. Holmium-166 B. Coated tablets
D. D. Cobalt-57 C. Sealed ampoules
E. Stronium-89 Chloride D. Flavored syrups
E. Suspension
128. This nonradioactive drug is used as an alternative to a
treadmill stress test prior to cardiac imaging. 137. The amount of heat absorbed when 1 g of a liquid vaporizes
A. Dipyridamole (Persantine) is known as the heat of vaporization of that liquid and is
B. Cimetidine (Tagamet) measured in _______.
C. Captopril (Capoten) A. Celsius
D. Furosemide (Lasix) B. Calories
E. Acetazolamide (Diamox) C. Grams
D. Liter
129. Inorganic hydrogels; E. Atmosphere
I. Single Phase System
II. Bentonite Magma 138. Use to promote and maintain dispersion of finely subdivided
III. Containing ingredients dispersible in water particles of liquid in a vehicle in which it is immiscible.
A. I and II A. Emulsifying agent
B. II and III B. Levigating agent
C. I, II and III C. Plasticizer
D. I and III D. Solvent
E. I only E. Humectant

130. Upward creaming takes place in unstable emulsions in which 139. Used as a filtering aid for its adsorbent qualities.
the internal phase has a _____ density than the external A. Emulsifying agent
phase. B. Humectants
A. Lesser C. Levigating agent
B. Greater D. Solvent
C. Equal E. Clarifying agent
D. Minimal
E. Exceedingly high 140. Used to prevent drying or preparations, particularly ointments
and creams.
131. Which of the following can exhibit a reversible sol-to-gel or A. Levigating agents D. Humectant
gel-to-sol transformation? B. Plasticizer E. Solvent
A. Gels C. Ointment base
B. Magmas
C. Lotions 141. Liquid used as an intervening agent to reduce the particle
D. Mixture size of a powder by grinding, usually in a mortar.
E. Both A and B A. Plasticizer
B. Emulsifying agent
132. Membrane-controlled transdermal system contains the C. Solvent
following layers; D. Levigating agent
I. An occlusive backing layer E. Chelating agent
II. Drug matrix system
III. Microporous rate-limiting membrane 142. Used to impart color to liquid and solid preparations.
A. Only III is correct A. Flavorant
B. I and III are correct B. Colorant
 C. Clarifying agent 152. Characteristics of dosage forms that influence the
D. Solvent bioavailability of oral drugs.
E. Humectant A. Disintegration rate D. Storage condition
B. Dissolution rate E. All of the above
143. Used in tablet and capsule formulations to improve flow C. Product age
properties of the powder mixture.
A. Tablet lubricant 153. Physiologic factors that influence the bioavailability of oral
B. Tablet glidant drugs.
C. Tablet disintegrant A. Gastric emptying time
D. Tablet opaquant B. Intestinal transit time
E. Tablet polishing agent C. Gastrointestinal abnormality
D. Pathologic condition
144. Used in tablet formulations to reduce friction during tablet E. All of the above
compression.
A. Tablet lubricant 154. Site of sublingual route of administration
B. Tablet glidant A. Rectal D. Under the tongue
C. Tablet disintegrant B. Heart E. Spine
D. Tablet opaquant C. Bone
E. Tablet polishing agent
155. A coronary vasodilator used in the prophylaxis and treatment
145. Which of the following given is consider as example of a of angina pectoris, which dissolve under the tongue.
tonicity agent? A. Aspirin D. Phenytoin
A. Sodium chloride B. Aspilet E. Warfarin
B. Mineral oil C. Nitroglycerin
C. Sodium glycolate
D. Liquid glucose 156. Which statement is not true for rectal route of administration?
E. Hydroxyl cellulose A. Used for local effect
B. Used for systemic effect
146. It describes the passage of (drug) molecule through a C. Preferred for drugs that are destroyed or inactivated by
membrane that does not actively participate in the process. the environments of the stomach and intestines.
A. Drug absorption D. 100% of drug absorbed bypass the liver
B. Transport mechanism E. Inconvenient
C. Passive diffusion
D. Osmosis 157. Which statement is not true in parental route of drug
E. Dissociation administration?
A. Rapid absorption
147. The rate and extent to which an active drug ingredient or B. Little is lost
therapeutic moiety is absorbed from a drug product and C. For uncooperative unconscious patients
becomes available at the site of action. D. Once injected, withdrawal of drug is easy
A. Drug’s solubility E. Sterile
B. Adsorption
C. Peak concentration 158. Semisolid that has greater aesthetic appeal for their non
D. Bioavailability greasy character, ability to vanish into the skin upon rubbing and
E. Serum concentration time ability to absorb serous discharges from the skin lesions.
A. Pastes D. Powder
148. Drug products that contain the identical therapeutic moiety or B. Lotions E. Ointment
its precursor but not necessarily in the same amount or C. Creams
dosage form as the same salt or ester.
A. Pharmaceutical alternatives 159. Semisolid that contain more solid materials, stiffer and less
B. Pharmaceutical equivalents penetrating, preferred when protective action is desired.
C. Bioequivalence drug product A. Ointment D. Suspension
D. Therapeutic equivalent B. Pastes E. Lotion
E. Bioavailability C. Creams

149. Drug products that contain identical amounts of the identical 160. Dosage form of choice if increased spreadability over large
active drug ingredients, that is, the same salt or ester of the areas of skin is desired.
same therapeutic moiety, in identical dosage forms but not A. Cream D. Pastes
necessarily containing the same inactive ingredients. B. Ointment E. Powder
A. Pharmaceutical alternatives C. Lotion
B. Pharmaceutical equivalents
C. Bioequivalent drug product 161. Characteristics of ophthalmic preparations, EXCEPT
D. Therapeutic equivalents A. Sterile
E. Bioequivalence B. Free of grit
C. Usually absorbed in great extent
150. Drug substance physiochemical properties that influence D. Solution, ointment and suspension form may be
bioavailability of oral drugs. employed
A. Particle size D. Liquid solubility E. None of the above
B. Salt form E. All of the above
C. Hydration 162. Site of excretion of volatile drugs
A. Kidney D. Saliva
151. Pharmaceutical ingredients that influence bioavailability of B. Sweat glands E. Lacrymal fluids
oral drugs. C. Lungs
A. Fillers D. Lubricants
B. Binders E. All of the above 163. Example of drug that enter breast milk and may be passed
C. Coatings on to nursing infants EXCEPT
A. Theophylline D. Diltiazem
B. Reserpine E. None of the above
 C. Barbiturates B. Extended release E. Targeted release
C. Delayed release
164. Method for the determination of particle size
A. Sieving D. Light scattering 176. Dosage form designed to release the drug at a time other
B. Microscopy E. All of the above than promptly after administration
C. Sedimentation rate A. Modified release D. Repeat action
B. Extended release E. Targeted release
165. Solid dosage forms in which medicinal agents and/or inert C. Delayed release
substances are enclosed in a small shell of gelatin.
A. Capsules D. Suppositories 177. Drug release directed toward isolating or concentrating a
B. Tablets E. Coated tablet drug in a body region, tissue, or site of absorption or for drug
C. Pills action.
A. Modified release D. Targeted release
166. It is obtained by the partial hydrolysis of collagen obtained B. Extended release E. Repeat action
from the skin, white connective tissue, and bones of animals. C. Delayed release
A. Agar D. Albumin
B. Gelatin E. Dye 178. Absorption bases obtained from the wool of sheep, is a
C. Talc purified waxlike substance that has been cleaned, deodorize, and
decolorized.
167. Capsule sizes available for human use A. Petrolatum D. Yellow ointment
A. 00 D. 3 B. Lanolin E. None of the above
B. 1 E. All of the above C. White ointment
C. 2
179. Package for ointments and other semisolid preparations.
168. Temperatures that thermally bond the capsules’ cap and A. Large mouth jars
body. B. Metal tubes
A. 15°C-20°C D. 30°C-35°C C. Plastic tubes
B. 20°C-25°C E. 40°C-45°C D. Well closed container
C. 25°C-30°C E. All of the above

169. Preservative used for soft gelatin capsules 180. Plastic masses containing gelatin (15%), glycerin (40%),
A. Glycerin D. 80% ethyl alcohol water (35%) and medical substance (10%).
B. Sorbitol E. 95% ethyl alcohol A. Gels D. Glycerogelatins
C. Methylparaben B. Pastes E. Gelatins
C. Plasters
170. Compressed tablets coated with a thin layer of a polymer
capable of forming a skin like film. 181. The ideal molecular weight of a drug for transdermal drug
A. Sugar coated D. Enteric coated delivery is
B. Film coated E. Buccal tablet A. 1000 and below D. 400 and below
C. Gelatin coated B. 800 and below E. None of the above
C. 600 and below
171. Tablet which has a smooth rapid disintegration when chewed
or allowed to dissolved in the mouth has a creamy base, usually 182. Advantages of transdermal drug delivery systems EXCEPT
of specially flavored and colored mannitol. A. It can avoid gastrointestinal drug absorption difficulties
A. Sugar coated tablet B. It avoid first pass effect
B. Enteric coated tablet C. They are noninvasive
C. Buccal tablet D. Only potent drugs are suitable candidates for
D. Chewable tablet transdermal delivery
E. Sublingual tablet E. They are easily and rapidly identified in emergencies

172. Prepared by compressing granular effervescent salts that 183. The first transdermal system for hypertension
release gas when in contact with water. A. Nicotine D. Estradiol
A. Molded tablet D. Effervescent tablet B. Clonidine E. Nifedipine
B. Tablet triturates E. Dispensing tablet C. Nitroglycerin
C. Hypodermic tablet
184. General guidelines for TDDS’s EXCEPT
173. Used to determine the tablet’s durability A. It should be apply to clean, dry skin
A. Hardness tester B. Udr og skin lotion should be avoided at the application
B. Friability site
C. Disintegration testing apparatus C. It can be physically altered by cutting
D. Microprocessor D. It may be left on when showering, bathing, or swimming
E. Tablet dissolution E. It should be applied with thoroughly clean hands

174. Described dosage forms having drug release features based 185. Suppositories that are shaped like a bullet, or torpedo or the
on time, course and/or location that are designed to accomplish little finger
therapeutic or convenience objectives not offered conventional or A. Rectal
immediate release form. B. Vaginal
A. Extended release C. Urethral
B. Modified release D. Nasal
C. Delayed release E. Aural
D. Repeat action
E. Targeted release 186. Suppositories that are usually globular, oviform, or cone-
shaped and weigh about 5g when cocoa butter is the base.
175. Dosage forms that allows a reduction in dosing frequency A. Rectal D. Nasal
from that necessitated by a conventional dosage form, such as B. Vaginal E. Aural
solution or an immediate release dosage form. C. Urethral
A. Modified release D. Repeat action
187. Solid dosage forms intended for insertion into the body
orifices where they melt, soften or dissolve and exert local or 198. Clear, sweetened hydroalcoholic solutions intended for oral
systemic effects. use and are usually flavored to enhance their palatability.
A. Suppositories D. Emulsion A. Syrups
B. Tablets E. Lozenges B. Elixir
C. Pills C. Solutions
D. Juice
188. The most frequently employed suppository bases. E. Magma
A. Water miscible bases
B. Polyethylene glycols 199. Self preserving elixir and do not require the addition of an
C. Fatty bases antimicrobial agent.
D. Glycerin A. 2%-4% alcohol
E. Polyoxyl 40 stearate B. 4%-6% alcohol
C. 6%-8% alcohol
189. Type of suppositories that is thinner and tapered, often about D. 8%-10% alcohol
5mm in diameter. E. 10%-12% alcohol
A. Rectal
B. Urethral 200. Alcoholic or hydroalcoholic solutions prepared from
C. Vaginal vegetable materials or from chemical substances.
D. Nasal A. Elixir D. Solution
E. Aural B. Syrup E. Juice
C. Tinctures
190. Example of rectal suppositories
A. Clindamycin phosphate 201. Water-soluble organic mercurial antibacterial agent used
B. Clotrimazole topically for its bacteriostatic and mild fungistatic properties.
C. Miconazole nitrate A. Hydrogen peroxide topical solution
D. Nonoxynol-9 B. Povidone iodine topical solution
E. Bisacodyl C. Chlorhexidine gluconate
D. Thimerosal topical solution
191. Example of vaginal suppositories E. None of the above
A. Bisacodyl D. Hydromorphone
B. Chlorpromazine E. Clotrimazole 202. Component/s of douche powders EXCEPT
C. Hydrocortisone A. Boric acid
B. Zinc sulfate
192. A viscous liquid, miscible with water and alcohol, frequently C. Detergents
substituted for glycerin in modern pharmaceutical formulations. D. Sodium citrate
A. Isopropyl alcohol D. Glycerol E. None of the above
B. Purified water E. Tap water
C. Propylene glycol
203. Component/s of douche powder
193. Purified water, USP, is obtained by the following EXCEPT A. Boric acid D. Sodium chloride
A. Distillation B. Alum E. All of the above
B. Ion exchange treatment C. Menthol
C. Reverse osmosis
D. All of the above 204. Medicinal substances employed topically in the mouth
E. None of the above EXCEPT
A. Benzocaine eugenol
194. Processes referred to in the industry as cross-flow B. Sodium fluoride
membrane filtration. C. Carbamide peroxide
A. Ion exchange method D. Parachlorophenol
B. Reverse osmosis E. None of the above
C. Cation exchange
D. Anion exchange 205. Medical substances employed topically in the mouth.
E. Distillation method A. Benzocaine
B. Camphorated parachlorophenol
195. Methods of expressing the strengths of pharmaceutical C. Carbamide peroxide
preparations EXCEPT D. Lidocaine
A. %w/v E. All of the above
B. %w/w
C. %w/w 206. The withdrawal of desired constituents from crude drugs
D. Ratio strength through the use of selected solvents in which the desired
E. Ratio strength constituents are soluble.
A. Distillation D. Mixing
196. A normal physiologic body response to rid itself of a noxious B. Extraction E. Trituration
or toxic substance, such as rotavirus or Escherichia coli. C. Osmosis
A. Diarrhea
B. Vomiting 207. Concentrated preparations of vegetable or animal drugs
C. Acidosis obtained by removal of the active constituents of the respective
D. Hypovolemic shock drug with suitable menstrua
E. Fever A. Percolates D. Fluidextracts
B. Macerates E. Solvents
197. Concentrated aqueous preparations of a sugar or sugar C. Extracts
substitute with or without flavoring agents and medicinal
substances. 208. Process in which a comminuted drug is extracted of its
A. Syrups D. Magma soluble constituents by the slow passage of a suitable solvent
B. Elixir E. Juice through the column of a drug.
C. Solutions A. Extraction D. Percolation
 B. Digestion E. Infusion E. Wet gum method
C. Maceration
219. Semisolid systems consisting of dispersion made up of either
209. It is a process in which the properly comminuted drug is small inorganic particles or large organic molecules enclosing and
permitted to soak in the menstruum until the cellular structure is interpenetrated by a liquid.
softened and penetrated by the menstruum and the soluble A. Suspension D. Collodion
constituents are dissolved. B. Gels E. Ointment
A. Infusion D. Percolation C. Emulsion
B. Maceration E. Extraction
C. Decoction 220. The taking up a certain amount of liquid without a
measurable increase in volume.
210. Preparations containing finely divided drug particles A. Imbibition D. Thixotropy
distributed uniformly throughout a vehicle in which the drug B. Swelling E. Xerogel
exhibits a minimum degree of solubility. C. Syneresis
A. Magma D. Suspension
B. Tinctures E. Gel 221. Taking up a liquid by a gel with an increase in volume
C. Emulsions A. Imbibition D. Thixotropy
B. Swelling E. Xerogel
211. Reason/s for preparing suspensions EXCEPT C. Syneresis
A. Drugs are chemically unstable in solution
B. Ease of swallowing 222. It occurs when the interaction between particles of the
C. Used to prepare a palatable liquid dosage form dispersed phase becomes so great that on standing, the
D. Flexible in administration of a range of doses dispersing medium is squeezed out in droplets and the gel
E. None of the above shrinks.
A. Imbibition D. Thixotropy
212. The study of flow which addresses the viscosity B. Swelling E. Xerogel
characteristics of powders, fluids and semisolids. C. Syneresis
A. Stokes
B. Colligative properties 223. A reversible gel sol with no change in volume or
C. Embryology temperature.
D. Rheology A. Imbibition D. Thixotropy
E. Embryology B. Swelling E. Xerogel
C. Syneresis
213. Guidelines in packaging and storage of suspensions
EXCEPT 224. It is formed when the liquid is removed from a gel and only
A. Use wide mouth container the framework remains
B. Adequate airspace above the liquid A. Imbibition
C. Tight container B. Swelling
D. Clear bottle C. Syneresis
E. Protected from freezing D. Thixotropy
E. Xerogel
214. A dispersion in which the dispersed phase is composed of
small globules of a liquid distributed throughout a vehicle in which 225. Example/s of gelling agent
it is immiscible. A. Acacia D. Ethylcellulose
A. Suspension D. Emulsion B. Alginic acid E. All of the above
B. Magma E. Tincture C. Bentonite
C. Gel
226. Pressurized dosage forms that upon actuation emit a fine
215. In emulsion terminology, the dispersed phase is the dispersion of liquid and/or solid materials containing one or more
A. External phase active ingredients in a gaseous medium.
B. Internal phase A. Magma D. Aerosol
C. Continuous phase B. Gel E. Inhalant
D. All of the above C. Inhalation
E. None of the above
227. Components of an aerosol formulation
216. Phases of emulsion EXCEPT A. Product concentrate
A. Dispersed phase B. Propellant
B. Dispersion medium C. Active ingredient
C. Emulsifying agent D. All of the above
D. External phase E. None of the above
E. None of the above
228. Liquefied gas propellants used in aerosol products which are
217. Continental method of emulsion preparation is also referred being phased out
as A. Dichlorodifluoromethane
A. Dry gum method B. Difluoroethane
B. 4:2:1 method C. Chlorofluorocarbon
C. English method D. Chlorofluorocarbon
D. All of the above E. Dichlorotetrafluoroethane
E. A & B only
229. Part of the usual aerosol valve assembly that supports the
218. Method which is useful for the extemporaneous preparation actuator and delivers the formulation in the proper from to the
of emulsions from volatile oils or oleaginous substances of low chamber of the actuator.
viscosities. A. Stem D. Mounting cup
A. Forbes bottle method B. Gasket E. Housing
B. English method C. Spring
C. Dry gum method
D. Auxiliary method
230. Part of the usual aerosol valve assembly that holds the 240. Tablets that are prepared by compressing granular
gasket in place and is the mechanism by which the actuator effervescent salts or other materials having the capacity to
retracts when pressure is released, returning the valve to the release gas (CO2) when in contact with water.
closed position. A. Effervescent tablet
A. Stem D. Mounting cup B. Press coated tablet
B. Gasket E. Housing C. Layered tablets
C. Spring D. Enteric coated tablets
E. Multiple compressed tablets
231. Part of the usual aerosol valve assembly that is attached to
the aerosol can or container and holds the valve in place. 241. Tablets prepared by compressing tablets to a special tablet
A. Actuator D. Mounting cup machine and compressing another layer around the performed
B. Stem E. Spring tablet.
C. Gasket A. Press coated tablet
B. Layered tablets
232. Part of the usual aerosol valve assembly which extends from C. Melt-in-your mouth tablets
the housing down into the product and brings the formulation from D. Multiple compressed tablets
the container to the valve. E. Enteric coated tablets
A. Stem D. Spring
B. Dip tube E. Actuator 242. Defined as solid dosage forms in which one or more
C. Gasket medication and/or inert substances are enclosed within a small
shell or container of suitable forms of gelatin.
233. Part of the usual aerosol valve assembly which are made of A. Capsule
plastic EXCEPT B. Tablet
A. Actuator C. Powder
B. Housing D. Caplet
C. Stem E. Both A and B
D. Mounting cup
E. Dip tube 243. Disc-shaped, solid dosage form containing a medicinal agent
and flavoring agent, intended to be slowly dissolved in the oral
234. Temperature necessary to liquefy the propellant gas in cavity or mouth for local effect.
aerosol A. Lozenges D. Caplet
A. 0°C and below B. Troches E. Both A and B
B. -10°C to -15°C C. Pills
C. -34.5°C to -40°C
D. -15°C to -20°C 244. Sterile solutions that are compounded and package for
E. -20°C to -25°C instillation into the eyes.
A. Ophthalmic solutions
235. Sterile, pyrogen limited preparations intended to be B. Ear preparations
administered parentally C. Eye drops
A. Aerosols D. Nasal preparations
B. Injections E. Ophthalmic ointments
C. Ophthalmic solution
D. All of the above 245. Preservative mixture which is effective against some strains
E. None of the above of Pseudomonas aeruginosa, an organism that can invade an
abraded cornea and cause ulceration and blindness.
236. Small amount of powder may be blended by the movement A. Polymixin B, Benzethonium chloride
of a pharmaceutical spatula thru the powders on a sheet of paper B. Benzalkonium chloride, Thimerosal
or pill tile C. Benzalkonium chloride, Polyxmyxin B
A. Spatulation D. Tumbling D. Phenyl mercuric nitrate, Chlorobutanol
B. Trituration E. all of the above E. Polymixin B and sodium benzoate
C. Sifting
246. Ophthalmic preparation which is used to increase the
237. Very fine powders intended for the different body cavity such corneal contact time of a drug substance and thus provide a more
as ears, nose, throats, teeth and vagina. sustained action.
A. Douche powder A. Ophthalmic suspension
B. Dusting powder B. Ophthalmic ointment
C. Insufflations C. Ophthalmic drops
D. Teas D. Ophthalmic solution
E. Inhalations E. Otic suspension

238. Study of particles 247. Chloromycetin 1% ophthalmic ointment

A. Micromeritics A. Silver nitrate ophthalmic solution
B. Micromerics B. Pilocarpine HCl Ophthalmic solution
C. Micrometics C. Chloramphenicol Ophthalmic ointment
D. Micromintics D. Naphazoline Ophthalmic solution
E. None of the above E. Polymixin B Ophthalmic solution

239. A thin semi-opaque paper having limited moisture resistant 248. Preparations usually placed in the ear canal by drops or in
qualities. small amounts to remove excessive cerumen, treat ear infection,
A. Simple white bond paper pain and inflammation.
B. Vegetable parchment A. Aural preparation
C. Glassine B. Ear preparation
D. Waxed C. Nasal preparation
E. Colored bond paper D. Ophthalmic preparation
E. Both A and B

249. Most common preservative used in ophthalmic preparations.

 A. Benzalkonium chloride 259. This is a method of preparing tablets in which the powder
B. Thimerosal mixture is compacted in large pieces and subsequently broken
C. Chlorobutanol down or sized into granules.
D. Both A and C A. Wet granulation
E. All of the above B. Dry granulation
C. Direct compression
250. Tinactin solution D. Slugging
A. Tolnaftate E. Compactness
B. Povidone Iodine
C. Carbol-fuschin 260. For some granular chemicals like potassium chloride, this
D. Calcium hydroxide method of preparation of tablet is an advantage to use.
E. Thimerosal A. Wet granulation
B. Dry granulation
251. Liquid preparations composed of pyroxylin dissolve in a C. Direct compression
solvent mixture equally composed of alcohol and ether with or D. Geometric dilution
without added medicinal substances. E. Slugging
A. Glycerogelatin D. Plaster
B. Sponge E. Paste 261. This substance provides water solubility or permeability to
C. Collodion the film to ensure penetration by body fluids and therapeutic
availability of the drug.
252. Plastic masses intended for topical application containing A. Alloying substance
gelatin, glycerin, water and added medicinal materials. B. Plasticizer
A. Glycerogelatin C. Film former
B. Gelatin D. Glossant
C. TDDS E. None of the above
D. Plasters
E. None of the above 262. Problem often encountered in film coating process
characterized by roughness of the tablet surface due to failure of
253. Common topical dusting powder to prevent irritation and spray droplets to coalesce.
chafing. A. Peeling
A. Tolnaftate powder B. Picking
B. Chloride powder C. Orange peel effect
C. Plain talcum powder D. Bridging
D. Nystatin powder E. None of the above
E. All of the above
263. Corresponds to the filling-in of the score line or intended logo
254. Fabrics and/or film even coated on one side with a pressure on the tablet by the film.
sensitive adhesive mixture. A. Peeling
A. Petrolatum gauze B. Picking
B. Absorbent gauze C. Bridging
C. Adhesive tapes D. Mottling
D. Adhesive bandage E. None of the above
E. Gauze
264. Most common wall forming material used in
255. Contains 1% of liquefied phenol in calamine lotion microencapsulation.
A. Phenolated calamine lotion A. Lactose D. Dextrose
B. White lotion B. Gelatin E. None of the above
C. Sulfur lotion C. Sorbitol
D. Calamine lotion
E. All of the above 265. The following ointment base/s is/are classified as
hydrocarbon base/s:
256. It is a process of comminution in which a paste is formed by A. Petrolatum USP
combining the powder material and a small amount of liquid in B. White ointment
which the powder is insoluble. C. Polyethylene glycol ointment
A. Levigation D. Both A and B
B. Trituration E. Both A and C
C. Spatulation
D. Sifting 266. Polyethylene glycol is an example of
E. All of the above A. Hydrocarbon base
B. Water removable base
257. Powders containing deliquescent and hygroscopic materials C. Absorption base
should be wrapped in what kind of paper? D. Water soluble base
A. Vegetable parchment E. All of these
B. Glassine paper
C. Bond paper 267. Petrolatum USP is:
D. Waxed paper A. A purified mixture of semi-solid hydrocarbons from
E. Colored paper petroleum that has been wholly or nearly decolorized
B. Also known as Yellow ointment
258. This type of coating imparts the same general characteristics C. Also known as White ointment
as sugar coating with the added advantage of a greatly reduced D. Water soluble
time period required for the coating preparation. E. None of the above
A. Enteric coating
B. Film coating 268. Hydrophilic petrolatum USP is classified as:
C. Multiple layer coating A. Hydrocarbon base
D. Single layer coating B. Oleaginous base
E. None of the above C. Absorption base
D. Water removable base
 E. All of the above 279. Flexible collodion is prepared by adding castor oil and
camphor to collodion. How many % of castor oil is required in this
269. Semi-solid preparations containing one or more medicinal preparation?
agents dissolved or dispersed in either an oil-in-water emulsion or A. 3% D. 0.5%
in another type of water washable base. B. 5% E. 0.005%
A. Creams D. Ointments C. 2%
B. Gel E. All of the above
C. Paste 280. Salicylic acid contains how many percentage of salicylic acid
in Flexible collodion?
270. How many percent of glycerin is contained in a A. 3% D. 15%
glycerogelatin preparation? B. 5% E. 20%
A. 15% D. 5% C. 10%
B. 35% E. 10%
C. 40% 281. Glycerin or glycerites contain ____ of glycerin
A. 50% D. 1%
271. This type of suppository base includes mixtures of fatty and B. 25% E. 0.5%
water soluble bases. Example is Polyoxyl 40 stearate. C. 10%
A. Fatty base
B. Water miscible base 282. These are concentrated preparations of vegetable or animal
C. Water soluble base drugs obtained by the removal of the active constituents of the
D. Miscellaneous base respective drugs with suitable menstrual and evaporation of all or
E. None of the above nearly all the solvent.
A. Fluidextract
272. Glyceryl monopalmitate is an example of this type of B. Distillate
suppository base C. Extractive
A. Fatty base D. Extraction
B. Water miscible base E. None of these
C. Water soluble base
D. Absorption base 283. This method of extraction is a process in which the soluble
E. Greaseless constituents of a comminuted drug are extracted by the slow
passage of a suitable solvent through a column of the drug.
273. The most frequently employed method in the preparation of A. Percolation
suppositories both on small scale and on industrial scale is: B. Infusion
A. Molding C. Decoction
B. compression D. Maceration
C. Hand rolling E. Steam distillation
D. Hand shaping
E. None of the above 284. These preparations are made so that each mL contains the
therapeutic constituents of 1 g of the standard drug that it
274. Water impurities like calcium and magnesium can be presents.
removed by: A. Fluid extract
A. Ion exchange B. Macerate
B. Absorption C. Extractive
C. Filtration D. Infusate
D. Distillation E. Extract
E. All of the above
285. Coarse dispersion includes:
275. The amount of preservative required to protect against A. Emulsion
microbial growth varies with the proportion of water available for B. Gel
growth. What is the usual effective concentration of benzoic acid C. Magma
as preservative? D. All of the above
A. 1% D. 0.01-0.02% E. None of the above
B. 1-2% E. 0.001-0.002%
C. 0.1-0.2% 286. In emulsion terminology, the dispersed phase is referred to
as:
276. Relative sweetness of aspartame when compared to sucrose A. Internal phase
is B. External phase
A. 1:1 D. 300:1 C. Continuous phase
B. 30:1 E. 500:1 D. Dispersion medium
C.180:1 E. Both B and C

277. Tinctures of potent drugs for which no proportion of active 287. If the oleaginous phase is the internal phase, then the
principles has been fixed, shall have the strength of: emulsion is referred to as:
A. 10% by weight A. o/w emulsion
B. 20% by weight B. o/w/o emulsion
C. 40% by weight C. w/o emulsion
D. 50% by weight D. w/o/w emulsion
E. 60% by weight E. None of the above

278. Peppermint spirit USP is prepared by: 288. This emulsifying agent has a disadvantage of producing
A. Solution with maceration emulsions that are too fluid and which becomes more fluid upon
B. Chemical reaction standing.
C. Distillation A. Gelatin
D. Fermentation B. Casein
E. None of the above C. Egg yolk
D. Bentonite
E. None of the above
289. In a small scale extemporaneous preparation of emulsion, 299. It has been employed to study cerebral physiology and a
these/this method/s may be applied: rapidly growing non invasive modality for the diagnosis and
A. Dry gum method management of cancer.
B. Wet gum method A. Positron emission tomography
C. Forbes method B. Hydroxyl ethylene diphosphonate
D. All of the above C. Radiopharmacy
E. None of the above D. Radiation
E. None of the above
290. These are thermodynamically stable, optically transparent,
isotropic mixtures of a biphasic oil-water system stabilized with 300. Radiopharmaceutical drugs that are used for the treatment of
surfactants. non Hodgkin lymphoma
A. Microemulsion A. Bexxar
B. Auxiliary emulsion B. Ceretec
C. w/o/w emulsion C. Choletec
D. o/w emulsion D. Prosta scint
E. w/o emulsion E. Myoview

291. Mineral Oil emulsion is a/an:

A. o/w emulsion
B. o/w/o emulsion
C. w/o emulsion
D. w/o/w emulsion
E. None of the above

292. This is used for preparing fluidextracts with boiling water as

the menstruum, alcohol being added as a preservative to the
concentrated percolate.
A. Process A
B. Process B
C. Process D
D. Process E
E. Process M

293. This is a percolation method that can be modified for

fluidextracts that must be assayed.
A. Process A
B. Process B
C. Process C
D. Process E
E. Process M

294. Magnesium aluminum silicate, also known as veegum, in

concentrations of _____, forms firm, thixotropic gels.
A. 10% D. 1%
B. 5% E. 0.5%
C. 2%

295. Bentonite magma is a preparation of ___ bentonite a native

colloidal hydrates aluminum silicate in purified water.
A. 10% D. 1%
B. 2% E. 0.5%
C. 5%

296. In moist heat sterilization, spores of which microorganisms

are most commonly employed?
A. Bacillus stearothermophilus
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Bacillus pumilus
D. Clostridium botulinum
E. None of the above

297. A rectal preparation for therapeutic, diagnostic, or nutritive

purposes.
A. Enema
B. Elixir
C. Collodion
D. Suppositories
E. Foam

298. A solid or semisolid mass supplied on a backing material and

intended to provide prolonged contact with the skin.
A. Patch
B. Plaster
C. Film
D. Foam
E. Gum