Language Link Academic - But Pha 8+ Mon Tieng Anh Ky Thi THPT - Mau de PDF

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ĐỀ SỐ 1
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the
following questions.
Question 1: A. final B.writer C. ivory D. Widow
Question 2: A. produced B. believed C. stopped D. laughed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that
differs from the other three in the posi tion of primary stress in each of the
Question 3: A. president B. physicist C. inventor D. Property
Question 4: A. Atmosphere B. Oxygen C. release D. Fertilize
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
underlined part that needs correction in each of thefollowing questions
Question 5: Sirius, the Dog Star, is the most brightest star in the sky with
A
an absolute magriitude about twenty-three times that of the sun.
B C D
Question 6: Some language students have difficulty to express exactly what they
A B C
want to say.
D
Question 7: Mrs. Barnes, who was so proud of her new car, drove to work when
A B
the accident happened and damaged her car.
C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of thefollowing questions.
Question 8: They thought the man was drunk because he behaved
A. affluently B. abnormally
C. phenomenally D. All are correct
Question 9: Two thousand people are________as having cancer of the
mouth every year; and 60 per cent of them will die within five years.
A. Regarded B. diagnosed C. checked D. Killed
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Question 10: Cong Phuong,________2 goals for Vietnam in the match
against Malaysia, is the star of the 28th SEA Games.
A. score B. who scored C. scores D. scored
Question 11: Eating, together with chatting, listening to music______among
the most popular activities at recess at schools in Vietnam.
A. are B. have been C. were D. is
Question 12: When I last saw him, he in London.
A. is living B. has lived C. was living D. has been living
Question 13: He finds physics_____other science subjects.
A. far more difficult than B. many more difficult than
C. too much more difficult than D. more much difficult than
Question 14: My teacher said that I could speak English in six
months if I tried my best.
A. fluent B. Fluently C. Unfluent D. unfluently
Question 15: Do you think he is of doing the job?
A. suitable B. able C. competent D. Capable
Question 16: The manager did not offer her the job because of her untidy
A. sight B. view C. presence D. Appearance

Question 17: He is disappointed at not being offered the job, but I think he
will___it.
A. tum off B. fill in C. get over D. take after
Question 18: Anthony Burgess,__________as a novelist, was originally a
student of music.
A. because of being famous B. who has achieved fame
C. who because he was famous D. he achieved fame
Question 19: The United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural
Organization (UNESCO) is a specialized of the United Nations
established on November 16, 1945.
A. office B. Agency C. company D. enterprise
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most
suitable responsJ: to complete each of thefollowing exchanges.
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Question 20: - "Your kids are very cute."
" "
A. Idon 't think so, either. B. Aren't they?
C. No problems. D. Do you think so?
Thanks.
Question 21:- "I had a really good time. Thank you for the lovely evening."
" "
A. Yes, it's really good B. No, it's very kind of you
C. I'm glad you enjoyed it D. Oh, that's right
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of thefo llowing
questions.
Question 22: The World Health Organization was established on April 7th
1948.
A. made up B. built up C. set up D. put up
Question 23: His physical conditions was no impediment to his career
as a violinist.
A. help B. impatience C. impossibility D. hindrance
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of thefo llowing
questions.
Question 24: Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to
court.
A. failed to pay B. paid in full
C. had a bad personality D. was paid much money
Question 25: I clearlyremember talking to him in a chance meeting last
summer.
A. unplanned B. deliberate C. accidental D.
unintentional
Mark the letter A, B, C, ox. D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence
that is closest in meaning to each of thefollowing questions.
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Question 26: He was driving sofast that he could have had an accident.
A. An accident happened, and it was caused by his very fast driving.
B. He didn't have an accident although he was driving very fast.
C. If he had been driving very fast, he would have had an accident.
D. He wasn't driving slow enough to avoid the accident.
Question 27: Were it not for the money, this job wouldn't be worthwhile.
A. This job is not rewarding at all.
B. This job offers a poor salary.
C. Although the salary is poor, the job is worthwhile.
D. The only thing that makes this job worthwhile is the money.
Question 28: Impressed as we were by the new cinema, we found it
rather expensive.
A. The new cinema was more expensive than we expected.
B. We were very impressed by the new cinema, but we found it rather
expensive.
C. We were not impressed by the new cinema at all because it looked
rather expensive.
D. The new cinema impressed us because it was rather expensive.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence
that best combines each pair of sentences in thefollowing questions.
Question 29: My father is living with me. My younger sister is living with me,
too.
A. Either my father or my younger sister is living with me.
B. Neither my father nor my younger sister is living with me.
C. I live with my father and my younger sister, too.
D. Not only my father but also my younger sister is living with me.
Question 30: We chose to find a place for the night. Wefound the bad
weather very inconvenient.
A. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.
B. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further.
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C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere
to spend the night.
D. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we'd
do at night.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the
numbered blanksfrom 31 to 35.
At NatWest we know how hard it is to get your business up and running.
Understanding your difficulties - and then helping you through them - has
made us the number one bank for small business for each of the last 10 years,
with more people turning to us for_____(31) than any other bank.
Our Start-Up service gives you the support you need to ____(32) up on
your own. There are over 4000 Small Business Advisers (at least. one in every
high street branch) who provide help, information and a wide____(33)
of services specifically designed to help things go that bit more smoothly.
Since last year, we've offered 12 months' free banking_____(34) you go
overdrawn or stay in credit. We have also introduced another special
scheme to help you keep your costs down for even longer. Provide us with
a certificate from a NatWest recognized start-up training_____(35) that you
have completed and there will be no account charges for the first 18
months.
Question 31: A. employment B. performance
C. improvement D. guidance
Question 32: A. make B. turn C. set D. bring
Question 33: A. range B. stock C. forecast D. rate
Question 34: A. whether B. whatever C. however D. although
Question 35: A. course B. lesson C. subject D. chapter
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questionsfrom
36 to 42.
American Online is one of the big name on the Internet and unlikely many
other digital companies, it actually makes a profit. But the company which
its rivals call the "Cyber-cockroach" was launched only in 1992. Before that it
was a small firm called control Video Corporation; and it made video games.
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Then Steven Case, a former Pizza Hut marketing executive arrived and took
the company online; innovative, fast moving, and user-friendly; American
Online appeals to people who want to surf the Internet, but who do not have
a lot of experience. For the same reason "teachies", people who think they
are more expert with computers, look down on American Online and its
users. Recently, American Online (or AOL, as it calls itself) joined with Time
Warner - a multi-million-dollar movie and magazine company - to create a
multimedia giant.
Now, AOL has begun to expand abroad. In many European countries,
including the United Kingdom, it is hard to buy a computer magazine that
does not have a free AOL introductory offer. The company also puts
advertisements onto the television, and employs people to hand out its free
introductory disks at places like train stations. As the Internet gets faster
AOL is changing. With many homes getting high-speed connections through
fiber optic cables or the new ADSL technology, the "Cyber- cockroach" will
have to show that, like real cockroaches, it can survive in almost any
environment.
Question 36: What is the passage about?
A. A computer company
B. A software company
C. An Internet Company
D. A video company
Question 37: The word "it" in line 4 refers to_____
A. American Online B. Cyber-cockroach
C. Control Video Corporation D. Digital company
Question 38: Who does Steve Case work for?
A. AOL B. Pizza Hut
C. Control Video Corporation D. None of these
Question 39: How do "teachies" feel about American Online?
A. They think it is a Cyber-cockroach
B. They think it is for experts
C. They think it is a movie and magazine company
D. They feel superior to its users.
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Question 40: America Online is an unusual digital company because
A. it used to make video games

B. it is innovative
C. it makes money
D. it has joined with another company
Question 41: Which marketing idea is NOT mentioned?
A. Advertisements on the Internet B. Advertisements on TV
C. Free disks in journals D. People giving disks away.
Question 42: What does the article say about AOL's future?
A. It will do well B. It will do badly
C. It will face challenges D. The article doesn't say
answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questionsfrom
43 to 50.
Tulips are Old World, rather than New World, plants, with the origins of the
species lying in Central Asia. They became an integral part of the gardens of
the Ottoman Empire from the sixteenth century onward, and, soon after,
part of European life as well. Holland, in particular, became famous for its
cultivation of the flower.
A tenuous line marked the advance of the tulip to the New World, where it
was unknown in the wild. The first Dutch colonies in North America has
been established in New Netherlands by the Dutch West India Company in
1624, and one individual who settled in New Amsterdam (today's
Manhattan section of New York City) in 1642 described the flowers that
bravely colonized the settlers' gardens. They were the same flowers seen
in Dutch still-life paintings of the time: crown imperials, roses, carnations,
and of course tulips. They flourished in Pennsylvania too, where in 1698
William Penn received a report of John Tateham's "Great and Stately
Palace," its garden full of tulips.
By 1760, Boston newspapers were advertising 50 different kinds of mixed
tulip "roots." But the length of the journey between Europe and North
America created many difficulties. Thomas Hancock, an English settler,
wrote thanking his plant supplier for a gift of some tulip bulbs from England,
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but his letter the following year grumbled that they were all dead.
Tulips arrived in Holland, Michigan, with a later wave of early nineteenth-
century Dutch immigrants who quickly colonized the plains of Michigan.
Together with many other Dutch settlements, such as the one at Pella. Iowa,
they established a regular demand for European plants. The demand was
bravely met by a new kind of tulip entrepreneur, the traveling salesperson.
One Dutchman, Hendrick van der Schoot, spent six months in 1849 traveling
through the United States taking orders for tulip bulbs. While tulip bulbs
were traveling from Europe to the United States to satisfy the nostalgic
longings of homesick English and Dutch settlers, North American plants
were traveling in the opposite direction. In England, the enthusiasm for
American plants was one reason why tulips dropped out of fashion in the
gardens of the rich and famous.
Question 43: Which of the following questions does the passage mainly
answer?
A.What is the difference between an Old World and a New World plant?
B. Why are tulips grown in many different parts of the world?
C. How did tulips become popular in North America?
D. Where were the first Dutch colonies in North America located?
Question 44: The word "integral" in the passage is closest in meaning
to_______
A. interesting B. fundamental C. ornamental D. overlooked
Question 45: The passage mentions that tulips were first found in which of
the following regions?
A. Central Asia B. Westem Europe
C. India D. North America
Question 46: The word " flourished" in the passage is closest in
meaning to
A. were discovered B. were marketed
C. combined D. thrived
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Question 47: The author mentions tulip growing1n New Netherland.
Pennsylvania and Michigan in order to illustrate how
A. imported tulips were considered more valuable than locally grown tulips
B. tulips were commonly passed as gifts from one family to another
C. tulips grew progressively more popular in North America
D. attitudes toward tulips varied from one location to another
Question 48: The word "grumbled" in the passage is closest in meaning
to
A. denied B.warned C. complained D. explained
Question 49: The word "they" in the passage refers to
A. tulips B.plains C. immigrants D. plants
Question 50: According to the passage, which of the following changes
occurred in English gardens during the European settlement of North
America?
A. They grew in size in order to provide enough plants to export to the New
World.
B. They contained a wider variety of tulips than ever before.
C. They contained many new types of North American plants.
D. They decreased in size on the estates of wealthy people.
ĐÁP ÁN
1.D 2.B 3.C 4.C 5.A 6.C 7.B 8.B 9.B 10.B
11.D 12.C 13.A 14.B 15.D 16.D 17.C 18.B 19.B 20.D
21.C 22.C 23.D 24.B 25.B 26.C 27.D 28.B 29.D 30.C
31.D 32.C 33.A 34.A 35.A 36.B 37.C 38.D 39.A 40.D
41.B 42.D 43.C 44.B 45.A 46.D 47.C 48.C 49.C 50.C
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ĐỀ SỐ 2
Question 1: A. Passed B. managed C. cleared D. threatened
Question 2: A. canoeing B. penalty C. rival D. Tsunami
differs from the other three in the posi tion of primary stress in each of the
Question 3: A. abnormal B. initial C. innocent
D. impatient
Question 4: A. conference B. Lecturer C. researcher D. reference
underlined part that needs correction in each of thefollowing questions.
Question 5: I don’t believe there is any one best suited for the job
A B C
than Mrs.Marellis
D
Question 6: People are surprising that Saudi Arabia has such a small population
A B
in comparison to its land and size.
C D
Question 7: As a result of the Women’s Movement, women now holds
A B
positions that were once restricted to men.
C D
answer to each of thefollowing questions.
Question 8: He failed in the election just because he his opponent.
A. overestimated B. underestimated C. understated D. undercharged
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Question 9: He is not very of his son’s passion for loud music.
A. tolerated B. tolerable C. tolerant D. tolerantly
Question 10: Their efforts were much when they won 2
gold, medals in bodybuilding and billiards.
A. considered B. required C. expended D. appreciated
Question 11: "What would you do in my position?" - "Were
like that, I would complain to the manager."

A. I be treated B. I treated C. I to be treated D. to treat
Question 12: I’m sorry, teacher. I’ve my homeworli on the
bus.
A. left B. let C. forgotten D. missed
Question 13: of all of us who are here tonight, I would like
to thanlc Mr. Jones for his talk.
A. In person B. Instead C. On account D. On behalf
Question 14: Police are warning the public to be on the
for suspicious packages.
A. care B. alert C. guard D. alarm
Question 15: Two thousand people are as having cancer of
the mouth every year; and 60 per cent of them will die within five years.
A. regarded B. diagnosed C. checked B. lcilled
Question 16: Where’s that dress that your grandma gave you?
A. long pink sills lovely B. pink long lovely sills
C. lovely long pink silk D. lovely pink long sills
Question 17: If you say you are using a word , you mean you
are choosing it after thinking about it very carefully.
A. advisor B. advisedly C. advisory D. advice
Question 18: Many young people have objected to
marriage
, which is decided by the parents of the bride and groom.
A. agreed B. compulsory C. contractual D. Sacrificed
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Question 19: Cotton shirts feel than polyester ones.
A. much softer B. more softly C. far more softly D. far more softer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most
suitable response to complete each of thefollowing exchanges.
Question 20: Tuan and Peter are talking at Tuan's birthday party.
- Tuan: "Thank you so much for your lovely present."
- Peter: "________________"
A. Well done.
B. It's nothing. It's cheap.
C. You are welcome.
D. You are very kind to me.
Question 21: Giang has just had his hair cut.
- Lan: "Your hair style is terrific!"
- Giang: "_________________"
A. Yes, that’s alright.
B. Thanks, I had it done this morning.
C. Thanks for the curl.
D. Never mention it.
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of thefo llowing
questions.
Question 22: We can use either verbal or noir-verbal forms of
communication.
A. using facial expressions B. using speech
C. using gesture D. using verbs
Question 23: Adverse reviews in the New York press may greatly change
the prospects of a new Broadway production.
A. Subversive B. Unfavorable C. Encouraging D. Additional
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of thefo llowing
questions.
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Question 24: There are several different hinds of faults in reading which are
usually more exaggerated with foreign learners.
A. overestimated B. overemphasized
C. understated D. undertaken
Question 25: One of the good things about teaching young children is their
enthusiasm.
A. eagerness B. wealmess C. indifference D. softness
Mark the letter A, B, C, ox. D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence
that is closest in meaning to each of thefollowing questions.
Question 26: Are. Maria may not have a good heaJth but she still manages to
enjoy her life.
A. Mrs. Maria’s poor health is a big problem which prevents her from
enjoying her life.
B. Although Mrs. Maria may not have a good health but she still manages to
enjoy her life.
C. Mrs. Maria’s poor health does not prevent her from enjoying her life.
D. What prevented Mrs. Maria from enjoying her life is her bad health condition.
Question 27: “When I met my long-lost brother, I was at a loss for words.''
A. When the speaker met his brother, he refused to say anything.
B. When the speaker met his brother, he had nothing pleasant to say.
C. When the speaker met his brother, he was puzzled about what to say.
D. When the speaker met his brother, he had much tosay.
Question 28: He was driving so fast that he could have had an accident.
A. An accident happened, atid it was caused by his very fast driving.
B. He didn't have an accident although he was driving very fast.
C. If he had been driving very fast, he would have had an accident.
D. He wasn't driving slow enough to avoid the accident.
that best combines each pair of sentences in thefollowing questions.
Question 29: “Cigarette?“, he said. “No, thanks.”, I said.
A. He asked for a cigarette, and I immediately refused.
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B. He mentioned a cigarette, so I thanked him.
C. He offered me a cigarette, but I promptly declined.
D. He asked if I was smoking, and I denied at once.
Question 30: No one but the experts was able to realize that the painting was
an imitation. It greatly resembled the original.
A. It was obvious that only a person with great talent could fake a painting
so successfully.
B. It was almost impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was
not authentic, though the experts could judge it quite easily.
C. The painting looked so much like the authentic one that only the experts
could tell it wasn't genuine.
D. It was hard for ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and
the real one, but not for the experts.
numbered blanksfrom 31 to 35.
The ideal breakfast, say scientists, is a glass of orange juice, a cup of coffee
and a bowl of cereal. People who (31) the day with a drink of vitamin C, a
dose of caffeine and a helping of their favorite cereal are happier and
perform better throughout the morning, Andy Smith, of the university of
Bristol said. A study of 600 people who were (32) to record their breakfast
habits found that (33) who regularly ate cereal first thing in the morning
had a more positive mood compared with those who ate other foods or had
no brealcfast. Earlier research had (34) that people whose mental
performance was measured immediately after eating breakfast of any kind
performed 10% better on tests of remembering, speed of response and
ability to concentrate, compared with those given only a cup of
decaffeinated coffee. In further research, Professor Smith said that people
who drank four cups of coffee a day performed more (35) all day than
those who dranlc less. He suggested that sensible employers should give out
free coffee or tea.
Question 31: A. open B. initiate C. Start D.begins
Question 32: A. said B. told C. ordered D. asked
Question 33: A. whole B. all C. these D. those
Question 34: A. reveal B. exposed C. shown D. indicated
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Question 35. A. profitable B. deficiently C. beneficially D. Efficiently
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Since the world has become industrialized, there has been an increase in the
number of animal species that have either become extinct or have neared
extinction. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the jungles in
vast numbers, now number only about 2,300, and by the year 2025 their
population is estimated to be down to zero. What is alarming about the case
of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost
entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not interested in
material gain but in personal gratification. This is an example of the
callousness that is part of what is causing the problem of extinction. Animals
litre the Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are a valuable
part of the world's ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals
must be enacted to ensure their survival, and the survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various
ways. Some countries, in order to circumvent the problem, have allocated
large amounts of land to animal reserves. They then charge admission to
help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also
depend on world organizations for support. With the money they get, they
can invest in equipment and patrols to protect the animals. Another solution
that is an attempt to stem the tide of animal extinction is an international
boycott of products made from endangered species. This seems fairly
effective, but it will not, by itself, prevent animals from being hunted and
lcilled.
Question 36. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. the Bengal tiger B. lnternational boycotts
C. endangered species D. problems with industrialization
Question 37: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word
"alarming" in line 5?
A. dangerous B. serious C. gripping D. distressing
Question 38: The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order
to contrast _____
A. a problem and a solution
B. a statement and an illustration
C. a comparison and a contrast
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D. specific and general information
Question 39: What does the word "this" in line 8 refer to?
A. Bengal tiger
B. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population
C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction
D. Interest in material gain
Question 40: Where in the passage does the author discuss a cause of
extinction?
A. Since the world . . . down to zero.
B. What is alarming . . . personal gratification.
C. Country around . . . for support.
D. With the money . . . dangered species.
Question 41: The word "defray" in line 17 is closest in meaning to?
A. lower B. raise
C. make a payment on D. make an investment toward
Question 42: Which of the following best describes the author's attitude?
A. forgiving B. concerned C. vindictive D.
surprised
answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from
43 to 50.
MODERN FASHION TRENDS
Fashion today is changing faster than ever, influenced by a variety of
forces. Clearly, many of these changes are dictated by music-related
cultural
movements like hip-hop, boy bands, or grunge. The stars of- these music
genres are idolized, and their clothing choices directly influe e the fashion
of their fans who wish to imitate them. Another undeniable" influence on
what fashion is ‘cool’ is technology. Technology that can be wom is now and
will become an ever more important part of the ‘look’ of fashionable young
people. There are many other trends, among them retro or vintage fashion,
and so-called disposable fashion.
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The hip-hop revolution of the 1970s and ‘80s brought a whole new loolr to
our attention, a look for an American city culture that made a statement.
Modem hip-hop clothes, however, are often produced by successful, big-
name fashion designers, and are quite expensive. In fact, many hip-hop
artists such as Emiem, Kanye West, and others have their own lines of hip-
hop clothing. The essentials of the modern hip-hop loolc are gold chains,
boots or lcicks (slang for sneakers), a bandana tied around the dead, often
with a cap on top, and large T-shirts. The baggy loolc of decades gone by has
been replaced by a look that includes polo shirts and tighter denim jeans.
Another trendy, cutting-edge movement in the world of fashion is
technology you wear, and the blending of technology with clothing. More
and more, people are afraid to be without a cell phone, a computer or
internet access at any time of the day or night. Wearable technology helps
people lceep those crucial connections to the world open, while at the same
time giving them a distinctive look. Clip-on MP3 players with headphones,
‘hands-free’ phones and earpieces, and personal digital assistants (PDAs) are
just a few of the ever more visible portable technology components that are
part of the look. The ultimate in technology-friendly clothing, the solar-
powered jaclcet can now provide the electricity needed to keep all these
gadgets running.
The retro or vintage style of clothing brings trends from past decades back
into style. Grunge was a style of music born in the Seattle area in the 1990s.
Grunge fans stayed away from synthetic fabrics, preferring flannel shirts,
stone-washed jeans and rock T- shirts. They preferred dark colors like green,
darlc purples, or browns. For footwear, grunge fans wore Dr. Martens-style
shoes and boots or high-top sneakers. Although the grunge music craze also
ended in the 1990s, a modem retro fashion trend is talking its cue from
grunge-era clothing. Modem grunge fashion is similar in many ways, but it’s
much less baggy and sloppy than it was in the ‘90s.
H&M, a chain of Swedish clothing stores, is the name most often connected
with the new trend in youth fashion known as disposable fashion. It’s
clothing so cheap that you don’t mind buying it and wearing it only several
times, perhaps, before discarding it. Disposable fashion is often brightly
colored and stylish, but low in price. The trend, which reportedly started in
Japan, grew popular in Europe, and is taking root in America, shows no signs
of slowing down.
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What will the future of fashion look like? Well, technology is sure to remain
a growing part of fashion, with ever smaller cell phones, computers, PDAs,
and other wearable gadgets. All around the world, more people are wearing
hip-hop fashions than ever before. No longer exclusive to urban youth or
even the United States, hip-hop will remain a popular global fashion for
years to come. Retro fashions from the ‘80s and ‘90s, including the grunge
look, seem to be growing in popularity, and disposable fashion is a big hit
that won’t end soon. And, I’m sure that we will see new fashion surprises as
music, fashion, and technology move forward together into the future.
Question 43: What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. to explain why certain fashions are popular internationally
B. to show the best fashions to wear in order to look ‘cool’
C. to inform us about current and future fashion trends
D. to explain the history of certain fashion trends
Question 44: What does the pronoun "them" in line 5 refer to?
A. fans B. choices C. genres D. stars
Question 45: Which fashion trend is NOT mentioned in the article?
A. grunge B. hip-hop C. retro D. business casual
Question 46: According to the second paragraph, how has hip-hop
changed?
A. Hip-hop clothes are now sold by big-name designers alid are less baggy.
B. Boots used to be popular, but now kicks are wom.
C. Hip-hop moved from other countries to the United States.
D. The baggy hip-hop look has replaced tighter jeans and polo shirts.
Question 47: What trend has been brought back by the retro style?
A. hip-hop B. wearable
technology
C. grunge D. disposable fashion
Question 48: Which fashion trend would most likely be most popular with
someone who didn’t have much money to spend?
A. hip-hop B. wearable
technology
C. grunge D. disposable fashion
19
Question 49: Why might disposable fashion clothes not go well with the
grunge look?
A. Because disposable fashion is cheap.
B. Because grunge is from Seattle.
C. Because disposable fashion is often brightly colored.
D. Because the grunge music craze ended in the ‘90s.
Question 50: According to sixth paragraph, which of the following is a
likely future trend?
A. Wearable technology will involve smaller devices.
B. Hip-hop will become exclusive to the United States.
C. Retro fashion will go out of style.
D. Disposable fashion will increase in price.
ĐÁP ÁN
1.A 2.D 3.C 4.C 5.C 6.A 7.B 8.B 9.C 10.D
11.C 12.A 13.D 14.B 15.B 16.C 17.B 18.C 19.A 20.C
21.B 22.B 23.B 24.C 25.C 26.C 27.C 28.C 29.C 30.C
31.C 32.D 33.D 34.C 35.D 36.C 37.D 38.A 39.C 40.B
41.C 42.B 43.C 44.D 45.D 46.A 47.C 48.D 49.C 50.A
20
ĐỀ SỐ 3
Question 1: A. pagoda B. integral C. against D. aquatic
Question 2: A. alien B. alloy C. alley D. anthem
differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of
the following questions.
Question 3: A. interview B. inheritance C. comfortable D.
dynamism
Question 4: A. minister B. dependent C. encourage D. agreement
underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Televisions are now an everyday feature of most households in the
A B
United States, and television viewing is the number one activlty leisure.
C D
Question 6: Because not food is as nutritious for a baby as its mother’s mills,
A B C
many women are returning to the practice of breast feeding.
D
Question 7: Clients still do not avail themselves of up-to-date
A B
investment informations, despite every effort to provide them with it.
C D
answer to each efthe following questions.
Question 8: We today and I got into trouble because I hadn't done it.
A. were checked our homework B. had our homeworlc chec-ked
C. have our homework checking D. had checked our homework
21
Question 9: They thought the man was drunk because he behaved -
___________
A. affluently B. abnormally
C. phenomenally D. All are correct
Question 10: , she would have been able to pass the exam.
A. If she were studying more B. If she had studied more
C. If she studied more D. Studying more
Question 11: he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.
A. No longer has B. No sooner had C. Not until had D.
Hardly had
Question 12: It’s essential that every student the exam
before attending the course.
A. passes B. would pass C. passed D. pass
Question 13: Marine reptiles are among the few creatures that are known
to have a possible life span greater than
A. man B. the man
C. the one of the man’s D. that of man
Question 14: Only when you grow up the truth.
A. you will know B. you know C. do you know D. will you know
Question 15: disappear from the public eye shortly
after the games are over.
A. Many Olympic athletes
B. Many Olympic athletes who
C. That many Olympic athletes
D. Many Olympic athletes to
Question 16: Jane law for four years now at Harvard.
A. is studying
C. studies
B. has been studying
D. studied
Question 17: "Buy me a newspaper on your way back, ?"
22
A. will you B. don’t you C. can’t you D. do you
Question 18: Fire safety in family houses, most fire
deaths occur, is difficult.
A. how B. when C. why D. where
Question 19: We intend to with the old system as soon
as we have developed a better one.
A. do up B. do in C. do away D. do down
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on yeur answer sheet to indicate the most
suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Alice and Pete are tallying about the weather in the place they
are in.
- Alice: "It seems to me that the summer is nice here."
- Pete: "___________. It’s really lovely."
A. You’re exactly right B. You’re dead wrong
C. I couldn’t agree less D. You could be right
Question 21:
- Lora: "Your new blouse looks gorgeous, Helen!”
- Helen: " ."
A. Thanks, I bought it at Macy’s B. It’s up to you
C. I’d rather not D. You can say that again
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 22: The shop assistant was totally bewildered by the customer’s
behavior.
A. disgusted B. puzzled C. angry D. upset
Question 23: I could see the finish line and thought I was home and dry.
A. hopeless B. hopeful C. successful D. unsuccessful
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
Question 24: In remote communities, it’s important to replenish stocks
before the winter sets in.
23
A. remalce B. empty
C. refill D. repeat
Question 25: There has been no discernible improvement in the noise levels
since lorries were banned.
A. clear B. obvious
C. thin D. insignificant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet ta indicate the sentence
that is closest in meaning to each of the fallo›ning questions.
Question 26: Impressed as we were by the new cinema, we found it rather
expensive.
A. The new cinema was more expensive than we expected.
B. We were very impressed by the new cinerria, but we found it rather
expensive.
C. We were not impressed by the new cinema at all because it looked
rather expensive.
D. The new cinema impressed us because it was rather expensive.
Question 27: I just can’t understand why so few people attended the meeting
today.
A. I find it surprising that there aren’t fewer people attending the meeting
today.
B. Hardly anyone wants to attend the meeting today, which I find strange.
C. It’s hardly surprising that so few people attend the meeting today.
D. To my surprise almost no one attended the meeting today.
Question 28: Twenty years ago, this region produced twice as much coal as it
does now.
A. Coal production in this region has doubled in the last twenty years.
B. Coal production in this region has been halved in the last twenty years.
C. More coal is produced now in this region than twenty years ago.
D. This region has produced more coal than twenty years ago.
that best combines each gair ofsentences in the following questions.
24
Question 29: We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.
Question 30: You don’t try to world hard. You will fail in the exam.
A. Unless you don’t try to work hard, you will fail in the exam.
B. Unless you try to work hard, you won’t fail in the exam.
C. Unless you try to world hard, you will fail in the exam.
D. Unless do you try to work hard, you will fail in the exam.
numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
The warming of the Pacific Ocean has created weather patterns that
strongly affect the world. When the water is warm, the (31) of
rainfall in Indonesia and the surrounding regions decreases. Australia could
(32)__________________ experience a drought in many parts. On (33) -
________________hand, Chile (which borders the Pacific Ocean) is
preparing for (34)
rainstorms. In Pakistan and northwestern India, the weather pattern makes

the rainy season weaker and makes the area much drier. This happening is
called El Nino and is used by weather forecasters to make long-range
weather predictions. They also know that El Nino will (35)
unusually heavy rains to the southwestern part of the United States and
make the central part of the country drier at the same time.
Question 31: A. Deal B. figure C. number D. amount
Question 32: A. however B. even - C. ever D. nevertheless
Question 33: A. the other B. another C. other D. others
Question 34: A. angry B. strict C. severe D. cruel
25
Although speech is generally accepted as the most advanced form of
communication, there are many ways of communicating without using
words. In every known culture, signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are
commonly utilized as instruments of communication. There is a great deal of
agreement among communication scientists as to what each of these
methods is and how each differs from the others. For instance, the basic
function of any signal is to impinge upon the environment in such a way that
it attracts attention, as, for example, the dots and dashes that can be applied
in a telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to speech, the potential for
communication through these dots and dashes-short and long intervals as
the circuit is brolcen-is very great. Less adaptable to the codification of
words, signs also contain agreed upon meaning; that is, they convey
information in and of themselves. Two examples are the hexagonal red sign
that conveys the meaning of stop, and the red and white swirled pole
outside a shop that communicates the meaning of barber.
Symbols are more difficult to describe than either signals or signs because
of their intricate relationship with the receiver’s culture perceptions. In
some cultures, applauding in a theater provides performers with an auditory
symbol of approval. In other cultures, if done in unison, applauding can be a
symbol of the audience’s discontent with the performance. Gestures such as
weaving and handshalcing also communicate certain culture messages.
Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they also
have a major disadvantage in communication. They usually do not allow
ideas to be shared without the sender being directly adjacent to the receiver.
Without an exchange of ideas, interaction comes to a halt. As a result, means
of communication intended to be used across long distances and extended
periods must be based upon speech. To radio, television, and the telephone,
one must add fax, paging systems, electronic mail, and the internet, and no
one doubts but that there are more means of communication on the horizon.
Question 36: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
A. Communication B. Signs and Signals
C. Speech B. Gestures
Question 37: What does the author say about speech?
A. It is the only true form of communication.
B. It is necessary for communication to occur.
C. It is the most advanced form of communication.
D. It is dependent upon the advances made by inventors.
26
Question 38: The word "it" in the first paragraph refers to
A. signal B. function C. environment D. way
Question 39: The word "potential” in the first paragraph could best be
replaced by
A. organization B. possibility C. range D. advantage
Question 40: The word themselves in the first paragraph refers to
A. information B. intervals C. words D. signs

Question 41: Applauding was cited as an example of
A. a gesture B. a signal C. a symbol D. a sign
Question 42: Why were the telephone, radio, and TV invented?
A. People wanted new forms of entertainment.
B. People were unable to understand signs, symbols, and signals.
C. People wanted to communicate across long distance.
D. People believed that signs, signals, and symbols were obsolete.
Read the following passage and marlc the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
Experiments have shown that in selecting personnel for a job, interviewing
is at best a hindrance, and may even cause harm. These studies have
disclosed that the judgments of interviewers differ markedly and bear little
or no relationship to the adequacy of job applicants. Of the many reasons
why this should be the case, three in particular stand out. The first reason is
related to an error of judgment lmown as the halo effect. If a person has one
noticeable good trait, their other characteristics will be judged as better
than they really are. Thus, an individual who dresses smartly and shows self-
confidence is likely to be judged capable of doing a job well regardless of his
or her real ability.
Interviewers are also prejudiced by an effect called the primacy effect. This
error occurs when interpretation of later information is distorted by earlier
connected information. Hence, in an interview situation, the interviewer
spends most of the interview trying to confirm the impression given by the
candidate in the first few moments. Studies have repeatedly demonstrated
that such an impression is unrelated to the aptitude of the applicant.
The phenomenon known as the contrast effect also skews the judgment of
interviewers. A suitable candidate may be underestimated because he or she
27
contrasts with a previous one who appears exceptionally intelligent
Likewise, an average candidate who is preceded by one who gives a weals
showing may be judged as more suitable than he or she really is.
Since interviews as a form of personnel selection have been shown to be
inadequate, other selection procedures have been devised which more
accurately predict candidate suitability. Of the various tests devised, the
predictor which appears to do this most successfully is cognitive ability
measured by a variety of verbal and spatial tests.
Question 43: This passage mainly discusses the
A. effects of interviewing on job applicants
B. adequacy of interviewing job applicants
C. judgments of interviewers concerning job applicants
D. techniques that interviewers use for judging job applicants
Question 44: The word "hindrance" in the first paragraph is closest in
meaning to _____________
A. encouragement B. assistance C. obstacle D. Light
Question 45: The word "they" in the first paragraph refers to
A. judgments B. applicants C. interviewers D. characteristics
Question 46: According to the passage, the halo effect
A. stands out as the worst judgmental error
B. takes effect only when a candidate is well dressed
C. exemplifies how one good characteristic colors perceptions
D. helps the interviewer’s capability to judge real ability
Question 47: The word "confirm" in the second paragraph is closest in
meaning to ____________
A. verify B. conclude C. recollect D. misrepresent
Question 48: According to the passage, the first impression
A. can easily be altered
B. is the one that stays with the interviewer
C. is unrelated to the interviewer’s prejudices
D. has been repeatedly demonstrated unrelated to the applicant’s ability
28
Question 49: The word "skews" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning
to_____
A. biases B. opposes C. Improves D. distinguishes
Question 50: The word "this" in the last paragraph refers to
A. devise personnel selection B. measure cognitive ability
C. predict candidate suitability D. devise accurate tests
ĐÁP ÁN
1.D 2.A 3.B 4.A 5.D 6.A 7.C 8.B 9.B 10.B
11.D 12.D 13.D 14.D 15.A 16.B 17.A 18.D 19.C 20.A
21.A 22.B 23.C 24.B 25.D 26.B 27.B 28.B 29.A 30.C
31.D 32.B 33.A 34.C 35.A 36.A 37.C 38.A 39.B 40.D
41.C 42.C 43.C 44.C 45.D 46.B 47.A 48.D 49.A 50.C
29
ĐỀ SỐ 4
Question 1: A. produced B. believed C. stopped D. Laughed
Question 2: A. sugar B. solar C. super D. subside
Question 3: A. necessarily B. originally C. mysteriously D. elaborately
Question 4: A. apply B. happen C. decide D. combine
Question 5: Although men may know more about diapering babies and
A B
vacuuming floors than his father did, but women are still doing most of
C
housework and child rearing.
D
Question 6: Proofreading a technical article is difficulty for most
A B
editors, unless they are very familiar with the subject.
C D
Question 7: One of the students who are being considered for the
A B C
scholarship are from this university.
D
answer to each efthe following questions.
Question 8: This time tomorrow_________ on the beach sunbathing and
drinking freshly squeezed fruit juice!
A. I’ll have been lying B. I will lie
30
C. I will be lying D. I’l1 have lain
Question 9: She for hours. That’s why her eyes are red now.
A. cried B. has been crying C. was crying D. has cried
Question 10: What does a like that cost?
A. clothing B. clothes C. garment D. clothe
Question 11: My new glasses cost me the pair that I
bought last month.
A. more than three times B. three times as much as
C. as much three times as D. more three times than.
Question 12: The decimal numeral system is one of the__________ways
of expressing numbers.
A. world’s most useful B. useful most world’s
C. useful world’s most D. most world’s useful
Question 13: Next month, I Dereclc for 20 years.
A. have lmown
C. will know
B. will have been knowing
D. will have lmown
Question 14: Unexpectedly the lights and we were left in
darlcness.
A. turned down B. went out C. put off D. gave away
Question 15: Nguyen Thi Anh Vien is a Vietnamese Olympian
and______record-holder for swimming.
A. nation B. intemation C. nationality D. national
Question 16: We couldn't help laughing when he took his
teacher so well.
A. up B. over C. off D. out
Question 16: We couldn't help laughing when he took his
teacher so well.
A. up B. over C. off D. out
Question 17: I have no idea how to this hind of business.
A. make B. turn C. take D. run.
80
31
Question 18: At present, we are an anti-drug campaign.
A. setting up for B. taking part C. joining with D.
carrying out
Question 19: Scientists believe that beaver’s instinct to build dams is more
complex than other animal instinct.
A. most B. all C. any D. these
Question 20: Alice and Pete are tallying about how to protect the
environment.
- Alice: "I think we should recycle these bags. It will help protect the
environment."
- Pete: " "
A. You can say that again B. I can’t agree with you more
C. It’s rubbish. We shouldn’t use it D. Never mind
Question 21: — "I had a really good time. Thank you for the lovely evening."
A. Yes, it’s really good B. No, it’s very kind of you
C. I’m glad you enjoyed it D. Oh, that’s right
questions.
Question 22: The prime minister denied that the new visa requirements
were part of a hidden agenda to reduce immigration.
A. exposes B. unrelated C. invisible D. phenomenal
Question 23: Whenever problems come up, we discuss them frankly and
find solutions quickly.
A. arrive B. clean C. encounter D. happen
questions.
Question 24: The government is not prepared to tolerate this situation any
longer.
A. look down on B. put up with
C. take away from D. give on to
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32
Question 25: He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.
A. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding
Question 26: “Tom, please don’t tell anyone my new telephone number,”said
Jane.
A. Jane told Tom please don’t tell anyone my new telephone number.
B. Jane aslced Tom not to tell anyone her new telephone number.
C. Jane said to Tom not to tell anyone her new telephone number, please.
D. Jane wanted Tom didn’t tell anyone my new telephone number.
Question 27: It was very impolite of him to leave without saying a word.
A. He was very impolite to leave without saying a word.
B. He didn’t say nothing when he left.
C. He didn’t say anything as he left, which was impolite.
D. Both A and C are correct.
Question 28: No matter how hard Fred tried to start the car, he didn’t
succeed.
A. Fred tried very hard to start the car, and succeeded.
B. However hard Fred tried, he couldn’t start the car.
C. It’s hard for Fred to start the car because he never succeeded.
D. Fred tried hard to start the car, and with success.
that best combines each gair ofsentences in the following questions.
QueeIion 29: The coffee was not strong. It didn’t lceep us awake.
A. The coffee was very strong, but it couldn’t keep us awalce.
B. The coffee was so strong that we couldn’t sleep.
C. The coffee was not strong enough to keep us awake.
D. We were lcept awalce because the coffee was strong.
Question 30: Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising. They want
to increase their sales.
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33
A. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising, but they want to
increase their sales.
B. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising so that they want to
increase their sales.
C. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising with the aim of
increasing their sales.
D. In order that they want to increase their sales, companies spend millions
of dollars on advertising.
numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
There is considerably less research on comprehension processes in
beginning readers, compared to studies on word processing. One of the
consistent (31) in comprehension research is that compared to more slcilled
comprehenders, unskilled comprehenders are also less skilled in decoding.
In fact, during the early stages of beginning reading, text comprehension is
limited to children's skill in decoding. Until decoding processes are (32)
and efficient, high-level comprehension processes are severely limited.
There is now converging evidence that for both children and adults,
difficulties in comprehension are related to difficulties in decoding (33) to
problems with worlcing memory. (34) being better at decoding, skilled
comprehenders also have better global language slcills than less slcilled
comprehenders. Studies have shown a causal relationship between
vocabulary and comprehension. There is evidence showing that vocabulary
instruction (35) to gains in comprehension and improvement on semantic
tasks. It is also clear that both direct and indirect instruction in vocabulary
lead to comprehension gains.
Question 31: A. findings B. studies C. programs D. conclusions

Question 32: A. early B. rapid C. urgent D. right
Question 33: A. as well as B. as long as C. as far as D. as much as
Question 34: A. Furthermore B. However
C. Therefore D. Besides
Question 35: A. jumps B. faces C. leads D. comes
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34
Ever since humans have inhabited the earth, they have made use of various
forms of communication. Generally, this expression of thoughts and
feelings has been in the form of oral speech. When there is a language
barrier, communication is accomplished through sign language in which
motions stand for letters, words, and ideas. Tourists, the deaf, and the mute
have had to resort to this form of expression. Many of these symbols of
whole words are very picturesque and exact and can be used internationally;
spelling, however, cannot.
Body language transmits ideas or thoughts by certain actions, either
intentionally or unintentionally. A wink can be a way of flirting or indicating
that the party is only joking. A nod signifies approval, while shaking the head
indicates a negative reaction.
Other forms of nonlinguistic language can be found in Braille (a system of
raised dots read with the fingertips), signal flags, Morse code, and smoke
signals. Road maps and picture signs also guide, warn, and instruct people.
While verbalization is the most common form of language, other systems
and techniques also express human thoughts and feelings.
Quesdon 36: Which of the following best summarizes this passage?
A. When language is a barrier, people will find other forms of
communication.
B. Everyone uses only one form of communication.
C. Nonlinguistic language is invaluable to foreigners.
D. Although other forms of communication exist, verbalization is the
fastest.
Question 37: The word "these" in the first paragraph refers to
A. tourists B. the deaf and the mute

C. thoughts and feelings D. sign language motions
Question 38: Which form other than oral speech would be most commonly
used among blind people?
A. Picture signs B. Braille
C. Body language D. Signal flags
Question 39: How many different forms of communication are mentioned
here?
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35
A. 5 B. 7 C. 9 D. 11
Question 40: The word "wink" in the second paragraph means most nearly
the same as
A. close one eye briefly B. close two eyes briefly
C. bob the head up and down D. shake the head from side to side
Question 41: What is the best title for the passage?
A. The Importance of Sign Language
B. The Many Forms of Communication
C. Ways of Expressing Feelings
D. Plcturesque Symbols of Communications
Question 42: Who would be MOST lilcely to use Morse code?
A. A scientist B. A spy
C. An airline pilot D. A telegrapher
Canada is a democracy organized as a constitutional monarchy with a
parliamentary system of government modeled after that of Great Britain. The
official head of state in Canada is Queen Elizabeth II of Britain, who is also
Queen of Canada. The governor-general is the queen’s personal
representative in Canada and the official head of the Canadian parliament,
although with very limited powers.
The federal parliament in Canada consists of the House of Commons and the
Senate. The actual head of government is the prime minister, who is
responsible for choosing a cabinet. The cabinet consists of a group of
ministers of varied expertise who serve with the support of the House of
Commons. They are responsible for most legislation, and have the
expenditure of public funds or taxation. The system is referred to as
responsible government, which means that cabinet members sit in the
parliament and directly responsible to it, holding power only as long as a
majority of the House of Commons shows confidence by voting with them.
If a cabinet is defeated in the House of Commons on a motion of censure or
a vote of no confidence, the cabinet must either resign, in which case the
governor-general will ask the leader of the opposition to form a new
cabinet, or a new election may be called.
The Canadian Senate has 105 members, appointed by the governor-general
on the advice of the prime minister. Their actual function is advisory,
118
36
although they may make minor changes in bills and no bill may become a law
without being passed by the Senate. Senators hold office until age seventy-
five unless they are absent from two consecutive sessions of parliament. The
real power, however, resides in the House of Commons, the members of
which are elected directly by the voters. The seats are allocated on the basis
of population, and there are about 300 constituencies. By custom, almost all
members of the cabinet must be members of the House of Commons or, if
not akeady members, must win seats within a reasonable time.
General elections must be held at the end of every five years, but they may
be conducted whenever issues require it, and most parliaments are
dissolved before the end of the five-year term. When a government loses its
majority support in a general election, a change of government occurs.
Although major and minor political parties were not created by law, they are
recognized by law in Canada. The party that wins the largest number of seats
in a general election forms the government, and its leader becomes the
prime minister. The second largest party becomes the official opposition,
and its leader is recognized as the leader of the opposition. In this way, the
people are assured of an effective alternative government should they
become displeased with the one in power.
Question 43: What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Political parties in Canada
B. The Canadian election process
C. The Canadian system of government
D. The powers of parliament in Canada
Question 44: When does a change of government occur in Canada?
A. When the governor-general decides to appoint a new government.
B. When the voters do not return majority support for the government in a
general election.
C. When the prime minister advises the governor-general to appoint a new
government.
D. When the House of Commons votes for a new government.
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37
Question 45: The word "dissolved" could best be replaced by
A. approved B. evaluated C. reorganized D. dismissed

Question 46: The word "varied“ is closest in meaning to
A. little B. different C. good D. steady
Question 47: What does the author mean by the statement in Italic letters?
A. Whereas Canada has a constitutional form of government‘Great Britain
has a parliament system.
B. Canada and Great Britain both have model systems of government.
C. Great Britain and Canada have very similar systems of government.
D. Canada’s parliament has adopted Great Britain’s constitution.
Question 48: What is the role of political parties in Canada?
A. Until they become powerful, they are not legally recognized.
B. Although they serve unofficial functions, they are not very important.
C. If they win a majority of seats, their leader becomes prime minister.
D. Because they are not elected, they offer the government opposing
views.
Question 49: The governor-general is described as all of the following
EXCEPT_________
A. the official head of parliament
B. the head of government
C. the queen’s representative in Canada
D. the official who appoints the Senate
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that the voters in
Canada____
A. choose the prime minister and the cabinet
B. do not usually vote in general elections
C. allow their representatives to vote on their behalf
D. determine when a change of government should occur
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38
ĐÁP ÁN
1.B 2.A 3.A 4.B 5.C 6.B 7.D 8.C 9.B 10.C
11.B 12.A 13.D 14.B 15.D 16.C 17.D 18.D 19.C 20.B
21.C 22.C 23.D 24.A 25.C 26.B 27.D 28.B 29.C 30.D
31.A 32.B 33.A 34.D 35.C 36.A 37.D 38.B 39.C 40.A
41.D 42.D 43.C 44.B 45.D 46.B 47.C 48.C 49.B 50.D
39
ĐỀ SỐ 5
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word
whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in
each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. loved B. appeared C. agreed D. coughed
Question 2: A. chaotic B. Chemist C. brochure D. Anchor

Question 3: A. environment B. publication C. equality D. pneumonia
Question 4: A. influential B. punctuality C. representative D. character
Question 5: In the 1920's cinema became an important art form and one of the
A B C
ten largest industry in the United States.
D
Question 6: Never in the history of humanity has there been more people
A B
living on this relatively small planet.
C D
Question 7: Among many other program, UNICEF also supports the
A B C D
international Child Rights Information Network.

answer to each of the following questions.
Question 8: When I last saw him, he in London.
A. is living B. has lived C. was living D. has been living
40
Question 9: The United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural
Organization (UNESCO) is a specialized of the
United Nations established on November 16, 1945.
A. office B. agency C. company D. enterprise
Question 10: The police have begun an into the accident which
happened this afternoon.
A. investigation B. investigating C. investigatory D. investigate
Question 11: I'm sorry, but I've got much work to do to
come to the beach today.
A. too B. such C. enough D. so
Question 12: Considering how little they’ve got in common, it’s surprising
how well they together.
A. get through B. get on C. get down D. get up
Question 13: Tony would have forgotten the appointment if I hadn’t him.
A. remembered B. regarded C. reminded D. recommended
Question 14: She went a bad cold just before Christmas.
A. through B. over C. in for D. down with
Question 15: He was when I had those problems and said
whatever I did he would stand by me.
A. exciting B. supportive C. busy D. Dull
Question 16: At the universities of Oxford and Cambridge the
of teachers to students is very high.

A. proportion B. ratio C. percentage D. number
Question 17: He to the doctor after the accident, but he
continued to play instead.
A. must have gone B. should have gone
C. couldn’t go D. didn’t have to go
Question 18: There was nothing they could do leave the
car at the roadside where it had broken down.
A. but B. instead of C. than D. unless
41
Question 19: I am not able to go anywhere this weekend because I am up to
my in world.
A. neck B. nose C. head D. eyes
Question 20: Maria wants to borrow Stephen's phone.
- Maria: "Can I use your phone?".
- Stephen: "
A. I'm afraid so.
C. Be my guest.
B. Might as well.
D. Serves you right.
Question 21: — "Could I borrow your calculator?"
A. Yes, you could B. Yes, you can C. Yes, you do D. Yes, you will
questions.
Question 22: The shop assistant was totally bewildered by the customer’s
behavior.
A. disgusted B. puzzled C. angry D. upset
Question 23: Around 150 B.C, the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed
a system to classify stars according to brightness.
A. record B. shine C. categorize D. diversity
questions.
Question 24: This work is woefully inadequate - you'll have to do it again.
A. nonexistent B. sufficient C. rich D. useful
Question 25: That international organization is going to be in a temporary
way in the country.
A. permanent B. guess C. complicated D. Soak
42
that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: She usually spends one hour driving to work every day.
A. She usually works one hour every day.
B. It usually talces her one hour to drive to world every day.
C. She does not usually drive to world.
D. It usually takes her one hour to world on her car every day
Question 27: The boy who was waiting in the hall expected a phone call.
A. The boy someone was waiting in the hall expected a phone call.
B. The boy waiting in the hall expected a phone call.
C. The boy waited in the hall and expecting a phone call.
D. The boy was waiting in the hall and expected a phone call.
Question 28: “What you have cooked is the best in the world!“ John said to
his girlfriend.
A. John asked his girlfriend what she had cooked.
B. John told his girlfriend what she had cooked is the best in the world.
C. John congratulated his girlfriend on her cooking.
D. John said to his girlfriend about her cooking.
that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened
the window.
A. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened
the window.
B. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room.
C. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the
window.
D. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air.
Question 30: He was suspected to have stolen credit cards. The poJice have
investigated him for days.
A. He has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen credit cards.
B. Suspecting to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
43
C. Having suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated
for days.
D. Suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of
the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Education is more important today than ever before. It helps people acquire
the skills they need for such everyday (31) as reading a
newspaper or managing their money. It also gives them the specialized
training they may need to prepare for a job or career. For example, a person
must meet certain educational requirements and obtain a (32) or
certificatelbefore he can practice law or medicine. Many fields, such as
computer operation or police world, require satisfactory completion of
special training courses.
Education is also important (33) it helps people get more
out of life. It increases their knowledge and understanding of the world. It
helps them acquire the skills that make life more interesting and enjoyable,
such as the slcills (34) to participate in a sport, paint a picture, or play
a musical instrument. Such education becomes increasingly important as
people gain more and more leisure time.
Education also helps people adjust to change. This habit has become
necessary because social changes today take place with increasing speed
and affect the lives of more and more people. Education can help a person
understand these changes and provide him (35) the
skills for adjusting to them.
Question 31: A. actions B. jobs C. works D. activities
Question 32: A. license B. paper C. diploma D. card

Question 33: A. Therefore B. despite C. although D. because
Question 34: A. able B. capable C. needed D. ordered
Question 35: A. with B. for C. on D. in
Most forms of property are concrete and taRglble, such as houses, cars,
furniture or anything else that is included in one’s possessions. Other forms
44
of property can be intangible and copyright deals with intangible forms of
property. Copyright is a legal protection extended to authors of creative
works, for example, books, magazine articles, maps, films, plays, television
shows, software, paintings, photographs, music, choreography in dance and
all other forms of intellectual or artistic property.
Although the purpose of artistic property is usually public use and
enjoyment, copyright establishes the ownership of the creator. When a
person buys a copyrighted magazine, it belongs to this individual as a
tangible object. However, the authors of the magazine articles own the
research and the writing that went into creating the articles. The right to
make and sell or give away copies of books or articles belongs to the
authors, publishers, or other individuals or organizations that hold the
copyright. To copy an entire book or a part of it, permission must be received
from the copyright owner, who will most lilcely expect to be paid.
Copyright law distinguishes between different types of intellectual
property. Music may be played by anyone after it is published. However, if it
is performed for profit, the performers need to pay a fee, called a royalty. A
similar principle applies to performances of songs and plays. On the other
hand, names, ideas, and book titles are excepted. Ideas do not become
copyrighted property until they are published in a boolc, a painting or a
musical work. Almost all artistic work created before the 20th century is not
copyrighted because it was created before the copyright law was passed.
Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Legal rights of property owners
B. Legal ownership of creative world
C. Examples of copyright piracy
D. Copying creating work for profit
Question 37: The word "extended” in the first paragraph is closest in
meaning to____________
A. explicated B. exposed C. guaranteed D. granted
Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that copyright law is
intended to protect
A. the user’s ability to enjoy an artistic world
B. the creator’s ability to profit from the work
C. paintings and photographs from theft
45
D. computer software and videos from being copied
Question 39: Which of the following properties is NOT mentioned as
protected by copyright?
A. music and plays B. paintings and maps
C. printed medium D. scientific discoveries
Question 40: It can be inferred from the passage that it is legal if
A. two songs, written by two different composers, have the same melody
B. two books, written by two different authors, have the same titles
C. two drawings, created by two different artists, have the same images
D. two plays, created by two different playwrights, have the same plot and
characters
Question 41: With which of the following statements is the author most
likely to agree?
A. Teachers are not allowed to make copies of published materials for use
by their students.
B. Plays written in the 16th century cannot be performed in theaters
without
permission.
C. Singers can publicly sing only the songs for which they wrote the music
and the lyrics.
D. It is illegal to malce photographs when sightseeing or traveling.
Question 42: The purpose of copyright law is most comparable with the
purpose of which of the following?
A. A law against theft B. A law against smoliing
C. A school policy D. A household rule
43 to 50.
Diseases are a natural part of life on Earth. If there were no diseases, the
population would grow quiclcly, and there would not be enough food or
other resources, so in a way, diseases are natural ways of lceeping the Earth
in balance. But sometimes they spread very quiclcly and kill large numbers
of people. For example, in 1918, as outbreak of the flu spread across the
46
world, killing over 25 million people in only six months. Such terrible
outbreaks of a disease are called pandemics.
Pandemics happen when a disease changes in a way that our bodies are not
prepared to fight. In 1918, a new type of flu virus appeared. Our bodies had
no way to fight this new flu virus, and so it spread very quickly and killed
large numbers of people. While there have been many different pandemic
diseases throughout history, all of them have a new thing in common.
First, all pandemic diseases spread from one person to another very easily.
Second, while they may kill many people, they generally do not kill the
people very quickly. A good example of this would be the Marburg virus.
The Marburg virus is ari extremely infectious disease. In addition, it is
deadly. About 70-80% of all people who get the Marburg virus died from the
disease. However, the Marburg virus has not become a pandemic because
most people die within three days of getting the disease. This means that
the vims does not have enough time to spread a large number of people. The
flu virus of 1918, on the other hand, generally took about a week to ten days
to hill its victims, so it had more time to spread. While we may never be able
to completely stop pandemics, we can make them less common. Doctors
carefully monitor new diseases that they fear could become pandemics. For
example, in 2002, and 2003, doctors carefully watched SARS. Their health
warnings may have prevented SARS from becoming a pandemic.
Question 43: This passage is mainly about
A. how to prevent pandemic diseases B. pandemic diseases
C. pandemic diseases throughout history D. why pandemics happen
Question 44: According to the first paragraph, how are diseases a natural
part of life on Earth?
A. They prevent pandemics.
B. They help control the population
C. They led the world grow quiclcly
D. They hill too many people.
Question 45: According to the passage, what causes pandemics?
A. Changes in a disease that body cannot fight.
B. Careless doctors who do not watch the spread of disease.
C. Population growth that the world cannot support.
D. The failure to make new medicines.
47
Question 46: According to the passage, all of the following are true of the
1918 flu pandemic EXCEPT that
A. it involved a new hind of flu virus
B. it lrilled over 25 million people
C. it was the last pandemic in history
D. it tools a little over a weelc to hill its victimsQuestion
47: The word "it" in the passage refers to
A. disease B. flu virus C. pandemics D. bodies
Question 48: Which of the following is mentioned as a common feature of
all pandemic disease?
A. They spread from people to people very quiclcly.
B. It hills many people very quiclcly.
C. They do not kill people very quiclcly.
D. They kill all the victims
Question 49: The word "monitor" in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. prevent B. fight C. watch D. avoid
Question 50. The author mentions SARS in order to
A. give an example of a highly dangerous disease
B. suggest that SARS will never become a pandemic
C. give an example of the successful prevention of a pandemic
D. suggest that there may be a new pandemic soon
ĐÁP ÁN
1.D 2.C 3.B 4.D 5.D 6.B 7.B 8.C 9.B 10.A
11.A 12.B 13.C 14.D 15.B 16.B 17.B 18.A 19.A 20.C
21.B 22.B 23.C 24.B 25.A 26.B 27.B 28.C 29.B 30.D
31.D 32.A 33.D 34.C 35.A 36.B 37.D 38.B 39.D 40.B
41.A 42.A 43.B 44.B 45.A 46.C 47.B 48.C 49.A 50
48
ĐỀ SỐ 6
Question 1: A. Imagines B. Motorbikes C. Cultures D. Involves
Question 2: A. synchronized B. psychology C. chemistry D. activity
Question 3: A. defend B. swallow C. social D. wildlife
Question 4: A. intentional B. optimistic C. environment D. participant
Question 5: Several people have apparent tried to change the man's mid, but he
A B C
refuses to listen.
D
Question 6: Bacteria are one of the most abundant life forms on earth, growing
A B
on and inside another living things, in every type of environment.
C D
Question 7: Do you ever feel that life is not being fair to you because you
A B C
cannot seem to get the job where you want or that really suits you?
D
Question 8: Eating, together with chatting, listening to music
among the most popular activities at recess at schools in Vietnam.

A. are B. have been C. were D. is
49
Question 9: many times I tell him, he always never passes on phone
message.
A. However B. No matter C. Whenever D. Whatever
Question 10: She must in the garage when we came that's
why she didn't hear the bell.
A. have been working
C. have worlced
B. be working
D. work
Question 19: My hat has just behind the sofa although I
thought I had lost it.
A. turned up B. gone away C. run into D. come across
Question 20: - "Your kids are very cute."
- “__________________”
A. I don’t think so, either. B. Aren’t they?
C. No problems. D. Do you think so? Thanks.
Question 21: Maria is in a shoes shop, loolcing for new shoes.
- Shop assistant: "Can I help you, madam?"
- Maria: " "
A. It's very cheap. B. No, thanks. I'm just looking.
C. Right. It loolrs a bit small. D. Yes, it's in our summer sale.
questions.
Question 22: Tourists today floclr to see the two falls that actually
constitute Niagara falls.
A. come without luiowing what they will see
B. come in large numbers
C. come out of boredom
D. come by plane
50
Question 23: He didn’t bat an eyelid when he realized he failed the exam
again.
A. wasn’t happy B. didn’t want to see
C. didn’t show surprise D. didn’t care
questions.
Question 24: The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary
way in the country.
A. soak B. permanent C. complicated D. Guess
Question 25: During the five-decade history the Asian Games have
been advancing in all aspects.
A. holding to B. holding back C. holding at D. holding by
Question 26: ”It can’t be Mike who leaked the document, it might be Tom.”
said our manager.
A. Our manager suspected Tom of having leaked the document, not Mike.
B. Our manager blamed Tom for having leaked the document instead of
Mike.
C.. Our manager showed his uncertainty about who leaked the document:
Mike or Tom.
D. Our manager made it clear that Tom was the one who leaked the
document, not Mike.
Question 27: At no time did the two sides look lilcely to reach an agreement.
A. The two sides had no time to reach an agreement.
B. The two sides never looked lilcely to reach an agreement.
C. If the two sides had had time, they would have reached an agreement.
D. The two sides never look like each other.
Question 28: You are in this mess right now because you didn’t listen to me in
the first place.
A. If you listen to my advice in the first place, you will not be in this mess
right now.
51
B. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this
mess right now.
C. If you listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this
mess right now.
D. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t have
been in this mess right now.
Question 29: John is studying hard. He doesn’t want to fail the next exam.
A. John is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam.
B. John is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam.
C. John is studying hard so as to fail the next exam.
D. John is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam.
Question 30: He wanted to give the ball a powe ul kick. He used the top ofhis
foot.
A. He gave the ball a powerful kick to use the top of his foot.
B. Using the top of his foot, he kicked a powerful ball.
C. What he wants to do is give the ball a powerful kick and use the top of
his foot.
D. He used the top of his foot to give the ball a powerful kick.
We are using up the world’s petroleum. We use (31) in our cars and
to heat our building in winter.Farmers use petrochemicals to make the soil
rich. They use them to kill insects which eat plants. These chemicals go into
rivers and lakes and hill the fish there. Thousands of pollutants also go into
the air and pollute it. Winds carry this (32) air to other countries and
other continents.
Poor farmers use the same land over and (33) . The laird needs a rest so
it will be better next year. However, the farmers must have food this year.
Poor people cut down forests for firewood. In some areas when the trees
are gone, the land (34) desert. Poor people can’t
save the environment for the future.
52
This is not a problem for one country or one area of the world. lt is a problem
for all- humans. The people and the nations of the world must world
together to (35) the world’s resources.
Question 31: A. it B. them C. that D. those
Question 32: A. pollute B. polluting C. polluted B. pollution
Question 33: A. over B. again C. repeatedly D. repeating

Question 34: A. gets B. changes C. tums D. becomes
Question 35: A. recycle B. preserve C. lceep D. reuse
36 to 42.
Archaeological records - paintings, drawings, and carvings of humans
engaged in activities involving the use of hands - indicate that humans have
been predominantly right-handed for more than 5,000 years. In ancient
Egyptian artwork, for example, the right-hand is depicted as the dominant
one in about 90 percent of the examples. Fracture or wear patterns on tools
also indicate that a majority of ancient people were right-handed.
Cro-Magnon cave paintings some 27,000years old commonly show outlines
of human hands made by placing one haiid against the cave wall and
applying paint with the other. Children today make similar outlines of their
hands with crayons on paper. With few exceptions, left hands of Cro-
Magnons are displayed on cave walls, indicating that the paintings were
usually done by right-handers.
Anthropological evidence pushes the record of handedness in early human
ancestors back to at least 1.4 million years ago. One important line of
evidence comes from flaking patterns of stone cores used in tool making:
implements flaked with a clockwise motion (indicating a right-handed
toolmaker) can be distinguished from those flaked with a counter-clockwise
rotation (indicating a left-handed toolmalcer).
Even scratches found on fossil human teeth offer clues. Ancient humans are
thought to have cut meat into strips by holding it between their teeth and
slicing it with stone hives, as do the present-day Inuit. Occasionally the
1‹nives slip and leave scratches on the users’ teeth. Scratches made with a
left-to-right stroke direction (by right-handers) are more common than
scratches in the opposite direction (made by left-handers).
53
Still other evidence comes from cranial morphology: scientists think that
physical differences between the right and left sides of the interior of the
skull indicate subtle physical differences between the two sides of the brain.
The variation between the hemispheres corresponds to which side of the
body is used to perform specific activities. Such studies, as well as studies of
tool use, indicate that right- or left-sided dominance is not exclusive to
modern HolnO sapiens. Populations of Neanderthals, such as Homo erectiis
and Homo habilis, seem to have been predominantly right-handed, as we
are.
Question 36: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Human ancestors became predominantly right-handed when they began
to use tools.
B. It is difficult to interpret the significance of anthropological evidence
concerning tool use.
C. Humans and their ancestors have been predominantly right-handed for
over a million years.
D. Human ancestors were more skilled at using both hands than modem
humans.
Question 37. What does the author say about Cro-Magnon paintings of
hands?
A. Some are not very old.
B. It is unusual to see such paintings.
C. Many were made by children.
D. The artists were mostly right-handed.
Question 38: The word "depicted" in the first paragraph refers to
A. written B. portrayed C. referred D. mentioned
Question 39: The word "cranial morphology" in the first paragraph is
closest in meaning to
A. the form of crane B. the form of the body
C. the study of physical body D. the stiidy of the skull
Question 40: The fact that the Inuit cut meat by holding it between their
teeth is significant because
A. the relationship between handedness and scratches on fossil human
teeth can be verified
54
B. it emphasizes the differences between contemporary humans and their
ancestors
C. the scratch patterns produced by stone knives vary significantly ñoñ
patterns produced by modem knives
D. it demonstrates that ancient humans were not slcilled at using tools
Question 41: The word "hemispheres" in the last paragraph is closest in
meanlng to
A. differences B. sides C. activities D. studies
Question 42: All of the following are mentioned as types of evidence
concerning handedness EXCEPT
A. ancient artwork B. asymmetrical skulls
C. studies of tool use D. fossilized hand bones
43 to 50.
William Sydney Porter (1862-1910), who wrote under the pseudonym of
0. Henry, was born in North Carolina. His only formal education was to
attend his Aunt Lina’s school until the age of fifteen, where he developed his
lifelong love of boolcs. By 1881 he was a licensed pharmacist. However,
within a year, on the recommendation of a medlcal colleague of his
Father‘’s, Porter moved to La Salle County in Texas for two years herding
sheep. During this time, Webster’s Unabridged DiCtionary was hls Constant
companion, and Porter gained lmowledge of ranch life that he later
incorporated into many of his short stories. He then moved to Austin for
three years, and during this time the first recorded use of his pseudonym
appeared, allegedly derived from his habit of calling "Oh, Henry" to a family
cat. In 1887, Porter married Athol Estes. He worlced as a draftsman, then as
a bank teller for the First National Banff.
In 1894 Porter founded his own humor weelcly, the "Rolling Stone”, a
venture that failed within a year, and later wrote a column for the Houston
Daily Post. In the meantime, the First National Bank was examined, and the
subsequent indictment of 1886 stated that Porter had embezzled funds.
Porter then fled to New Orleans, and later to Honduras, leaving his wife and
child in Austin. He returned in 1897 because of his wife’s continued ill- health;
however she died six months later. Then, in 1898 Porter was found guilty and
sentenced to five years imprisonment in Ohio. At the age of thirty five, he
55
entered prison as a defeated man; he had lost his job, his home, his wife, and
finally his freedom. He emerged from prison three years later, reborn as 0.
Henry, the pseudonym he now used to hide his true identity. He wrote at
least twelve stories in jail, and after re-gaining his freedom, went to New
York City, where he published more than 300 stories and gained fame as
America’s favorite short Story writer. Porter married again in 1907, but after
months of poor health, he died in New Yorlc City at the age of forty- eight in
1910. O. Henry’s stories have been translated all over the world.
Question 43: Why did the author write the passage?
A. Because it is a tragic story of a gifted writer.
B. To outline the career of a famous American.
C. Because of his fame as America’s favorite short story writer.
D. To outline the influences on O. Henry’s writing.
Question 44: According to the passage, Porter’s Father was
A. responsible for his move to La Salle County in Texas
B. the person who gave him a life-long love of books
C. a medical doctor
D. a licensed pharmacist
Question 45: The word "allegedly" in line 11 is closest in meaning to _______
A. supposedly B. reportedly C. wrongly D. mistakenly
Question 46: Which of the following is tme, according to the passage?
A. Both of Porter’s wives died before he died.
B. Porter left school at 15 to become a pharmacist.
C. Porter wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post called "Rolling Stone".
D. The first recorded use of his pseudonym was in Austin.
Question 47: The word "subsequent" in line 17 is closest in meaning to
A. resulting B. police C. alleged D. official

Question 48: Porter lost all of the following when he went to prison
EXCEPT his____________
A. home B. wife C. job D. books
56
Question 49: According to the author, how many stories did Porter write
while in prison for three years?
A. more than 300 B. 35 C. at least 12 D. over 20
Question 50: The author implies which of the following is true?
A. Porter would probably have written less stories if he had not been in
prison for three years.
B. Porter was in poor health throughout his life.
C. Henry is as popular in many other countries as he is in America.
D. Porter’s wife might have lived longer if he had not left her in Austin
when he fled.
ĐÁP ÁN
1.B 2.B 3.A 4.B 5.B 6.C 7.D 8.D 9.A 10.A
11.D 12.B 13.C 14.A 15.D 16.B 17.B 18.B 19.A 20.D
21.B 22.B 23.C 24.B 25.B 26.A 27.B 28.B 29.A 30.D
31.A 32.C 33.A 34.D 35.B 36.C 37.D 38.B 39.D 40.A
41.B 42.D 43.B 44.C 45.A 46.D 47.A 48.D 49.C 50.C
57
ĐỀ SỐ 7
Question 1: A. finished B. cooked C. attended D. Laughed
Question 2: A. number B. future C. furious D. Amuse
Question 3: A. hospital B. inflation C. policy D. constantly
Question 4: A. garment B. comment C. cement D. even
Question 5: My father asked me where had I gone the night before.
A B C D
Question 6: All nations may have to make fundamental changes in their
A B
economic, political, and the technological institutions if they are to
preserve
C D
environment.
Question 7: At least three-quarters of that book on famous Americans are
A B C
about people who lived in the nineteenth century.
D
Question 8: The train to the center of the city was
by a heavy snowfall.
A. held up B. took back C. put off D. given out
Question 9: The film "Descendent of the Sun" attracts viewers
worldwide.
A. a large number of B. considerable number of
15
58
C. amount of D. a great deal of
Question 10: The United States consists of fifty states,____________has its
own government.
A. each of which B. hence each C. they each D. each of that
Question 11: He finds physics other science subjects.
A. far more difficult than B. many more difficult than
C. too much more difficult than D. more much difficult than
Question 12: I don’t know If in my essay.
A. is there a mistake B. there a mistalce is
C. a mistake is there D. there is a mistake
Question 13: The forecast has revealed that the world’s reserves of fossil
fuel will have by 2015.
A. taken over B. caught up C. used off D. run out
Question 14: Ancient Egyptians mummified the dead bodies through the
use of chemicals, ancient Peruvians did through natural
processes.
A. because B. whereas
C. whether or not D. even though
Question 15: general, our students are very intelligent and
really active.
A. In B. With C. By D. on
Question 16: "I’m going out now." — " you happen to pass
a chemist’s, would you get me some aspirins?"
A. Had B. Should C. Did D. Were
Question 17: Nobody could have predicted that the show would arouse so
much interest and that over two hundred people away.
A. would have turned B. would turn
C. had been turned D. would have to be turned
Question 18: Farmers collect household and garden waste to malce
A. floor coverings B. glassware C. compost B. Pipes

Question 19: flowers are usually made of plastic or sills.
A. Unreal B. False C. Artificial D. Untrue
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Question 20: Jane has just finished up a cup of coffee and some sweets
John offered.
— John: " "
— Jane: "No, thanlc you. That’ll be all."
A. What would you like?
B. It’s very hind of you to help me.
C. What hind of food do you like?
D. Would you like anything else?
Question 21: Alfonso and Maria are discussing about the Jeffersons.
— Alfonso: "What do you think of the Jeffersons?"
— Maria: " "
A. Oh, I don’t think of him
B. Oh, they are not having the choice
C. Although they appeared reserved at first, they are very sociable
D. No, it’s very hind of them to have an outgoing personality
questions.
Question 22: I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic.
A. reasonable B. acceptable C. pretty high D. wonderful
Question 23: Though many scientific brealrthroughs have resulted from
mishaps
it has taken brilliant thinkers to recognize their potential.
A. accidents B. misunderstandings
C. incidentals D. misfortunes
questions.
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Question 24: If you are at a loose end this weekend, I will show you round
the city.
A. free B. confident C. occupied D. reluctant
Question 25: The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in
the
Far East.
A. expensive B. complicated
C. simple and easy to use D. difficult to operate
Question 26: If you need my advice, I would forget about buying a new
house.
A. If I were you, I did not buy a new house.
B. If I were you, I would not bought a new house.
C. If I were you, I hadn’t bought a new house.
D. If I were you, I would not buy a new house.
Question 27: Few people realized the importance ofhis role in the company.
A. He was realized as an important role in the company by a few people.
B. Not many people realized that he played an important part in the
company.
C. Quite a few people realized the importaiice of his role in the company.
D. Many people realized his important role in the company.
Question 28: His mother is the most warm-hearted person I’ve known.
A. I know a more warm-hearted person than his mother.
B. I don’t know his warm-hearted mother.
C. I’ve never known a more warm-hearted person than his mother.
D. I didn’t know a more warm-hearted person than his mother.
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Question 29: I did not read his book. I did not understand what the lecturer
was saying.
A. I would have understood what the lecturer was saying if I had read his
book.
B. The lecturer’s b.ook which I had riot read was difficult to understand.
C. I found it very difficult to understand what the lecturer said in his book.
D. What the lecturer wrote and said was too difficult for me to understand.
Question 30: Lan is reading an interesting storyboolc. You lent it to her last
week.
A. Lan is reading an interesting storyboolc which you lent it to her last week.
B. Lan is readiiig an interesting storybook which you lent to her last weelc.
C. Lan is reading an interesting storybook who you lent it to her last weelc.
D. Lan is reading an interesting storyboolc whom you lent it to her last week.
From the seeds themselves to the machinery, fertilizers and pesticides - The
Green Revolution regimen depend heavily on technology. One (31)
, however, depends much less on technology - organic
farming. Many organic farmers use machinery, but (32) chemical
fertilizers or pesticides. Instead of chemical soil enrichers, they use animal
manure and plant parts not used as food -natural, organic fertilizers that are
clearly a renewable (33) .Organic farmers also use alternatives
to pesticides; for example they may rely on natural predators of certain
insect pests. (34) the need arises, they can buy the eggs and larvae of
thesenatural predators and introduce them into their crop fields. They use
other techniques to control -pests as well, like planting- certain crops
to‘gether because one crop repels the other's pests. Organic farmers do not
need a lot of land; in fact organic farming is perfectly (35) to small farms
and is relatively inexpensive. Finally, many organic farmers' average yields
compare favorably with other farmers' yields.
Quesdon 31: A. Alteration B. alternate C. alternative D. alternation
Question 32: A. also B. for C. not D. all
Question 33: A. Resource B. source C. matter D. substance
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Question 34: A. Then B. If C. Because D. Though
Quesbon 35: A. Suitable B. open C. lilcely D. suited

A pilot cannot fly a plane by sight alone. In many conditions, such as flying at
night and landing in dense fog, a pilot must use radar, an alternative way of
navigating. Since human eyes are not very good at determining speeds of
approaching objects, radar can show a pilot how fast nearby planes are
moving.
The basic principle of radar is exemplified by what happens when one shouts
in a cave. The echo of the sounds against the walls helps a person determine
the size of the cave. With radar, however, the waves are radio waves instead
of sound waves. Radio waves travel at the speed of light, about 300,000
lcilometers in one second. A radar set sends out a short burst of radiation
waves. Then it receives the echoes produced when the waves bounce off
objects. By determining the time it takes for the echoes to return to the
radar set, a trained technician can determine the distance between the radar
set and other objects. The word "radar", in fact, gets its name from the term
"radio detection and ranging". "Ranging" is the term for detection of the
distance between an object and the radar set. Besides being of critical
importance to pilots, radar is essential for air traffic control, tracking ships
at sea, and for tracking weather systems and storms.
Question 36: What is the main topic of this passage?
A. the nature of radar B. types of ranging
C. alternatives to radar D. history of radar
Question 37: According to the passage, what can radar detect besides
location of objects?
A. size B. weight C. speed D. shape
Question 38: Which of the following words best describes the tone of this
passage?
A. argumentative B. imaginative C. explanatory D. humorous
Question 39: The phrase "a burst” in the second paragraph is closest in
meaning in which of the following?
A. an attachment B. a discharge C. a stream D. a ray
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Question 40: The word "it" in the second paragraph refers to which of the
following?
A. a radar set B. a short burst
C. a radiation wave D. light
Question 41: Which type of waves does radar use?
A. sound B. heat C. radio D. light
Question 42: Which of the following would most likely be the topic of the
next paragraph?
A. other uses of radar
C. other technology
B. uses of sonar technology
D. a history of flying
43 to 50.
William Sydney Porter (1862-1910), who wrote under the pseudonym of 0.
Henry, was born in North Carolina. His only formal education was to attend
his Aunt Lina’s school until the age of fifteen, where he developed his
lifelong love of boolcs. By 1881 he was a licensed pharmacist. However,
within a year, on the recommendation of a medlcal colleague of his
Father‘’s, Porter moved to La Salle County in Texas for two years herding
sheep. During this time, Webster’s Unabridged DiCtionary was hls Constant
companion, and Porter gained lmowledge of ranch life that he later
incorporated into many of his short stories. He then moved to Austin for
three years, and during this time the first recorded use of his pseudonym
appeared, allegedly derived from his habit of calling "Oh, Henry" to a family
cat. In 1887, Porter married Athol Estes. He worlced as a draftsman, then as
a bank teller for the First National Banff.
In 1894 Porter founded his own humor weelcly, the "Rolling Stone”, a
venture that failed within a year, and later wrote a column for the Houston
Daily Post. In the meantime, the First National Bank was examined, and the
subsequent indictment of 1886 stated that Porter had embezzled funds.
Porter then fled to New Orleans, and later to Honduras, leaving his wife and
child in Austin. He returned in 1897 because of his wife’s continued ill- health;
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64
however she died six months later. Then, in 1898 Porter was found guilty and
sentenced to five years imprisonment in Ohio. At the age of thirty five, he
entered prison as a defeated man; he had lost his job, his home, his wife, and
finally his freedom. He emerged from prison three years later, reborn as 0.
Henry, the pseudonym he now used to hide his true identity. He wrote at
least twelve stories in jail, and after re-gaining his freedom, went to New
York City, where he published more than 300 stories and gained fame as
America’s favorite short Story writer. Porter married again in 1907, but after
months of poor health, he died in New Yorlc City at the age of forty- eight in
1910. O. Henry’s stories have been translated all over the world.
Question 43: Why did the author write the passage?

A. Because it is a tragic story of a gifted writer.
B. To outline the career of a famous American.
C. Because of his fame as America’s favorite short story writer.
D. To outline the influences on O. Henry’s writing.
Question 44: According to the passage, Porter’s Father was
A. responsible for his move to La Salle County in Texas
B. the person who gave him a life-long love of books
C. a medical doctor
D. a licensed pharmacist
Question 45: The word "allegedly" in line 11 is closest in meaning to
A. supposedly B. reportedly C. wrongly D. mistakenly

Question 46: Which of the following is tme, according to the passage?
A. Both of Porter’s wives died before he died.
B. Porter left school at 15 to become a pharmacist.
C. Porter wrote a column for the Houston Daily Post called "Rolling Stone".
D. The first recorded use of his pseudonym was in Austin.
Question 47: The word "subsequent" in line 17 is closest in meaning to
A. resulting B. police C. alleged D. official 15
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Question 48: Porter lost all of the following when he went to prison
EXCEPT his _________________
A. home B. wife C. job D. books
Question 49: According to the author, how many stories did Porter write
while in prison for three years?
A. more than 300 B. 35 C. at least 12 D. over 20
Question 50: The author implies which of the following is true?
A. Porter would probably have written less stories if he had not been in
prison for three years.
B. Porter was in poor health throughout his life.
C. Henry is as popular in many other countries as he is in America.
D. Porter’s wife might have lived longer if he had not left her in Austin
when he fled.
ĐÁP ÁN
1.C 2.A 3.B 4.C 5.B 6.C 7.C 8.A 9.A 10.A
11.A 12.D 13.D 14.B 15.A 16.B 17.D 18.C 19.C 20.D
21.C 22.D 23.A 24.C 25.C 26.D 27.B 28.C 29.A 30.B
31.C 32.C 33.B 34.B 35.D 36.A 37.C 38.C 39.B 40.A
41.C 42.A 43.B 44.C 45.A 46.D 47.A 48.D 49.C 50.C
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ĐỀ SỐ 8
Question 1: A. imagines B. motorbikes C. cultures D. Involves
Question 2: A. thereupon B. thrill C. threesome D. throne

Question 3: A. represent B. intensive C. domestic D.
employment
Question 4: A. involvement B. applicant C. installing D. disaster
Question 5: Several people have apparent tried to change the man's mid, but he
A B C
refuses to listen.
D
Question 6: We are talking about our librarian from who we borrowed that
A B C D
book yesterday.
Question 7: Do you ever feel that life is not being fair to you because you
A B C
cannot seem to get the job where you want or that really suits you?
D
Question 8: The train to the center of the city was by a heavy snowfall.
A. held up B. took back C. put off D. given out
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Question 9: You can go to the party tonight you are sober
when you come home.
A. as long as B. as far as C. as soon as D. as well as
Question 10: There are ten pieces of fruit in my basket. One is an orange,
one is a grape and is an apple.
A. others B. the other C. the others D. another
Question 11: The firemen did well their preparation for
catastrophic gas explosions.
A. although B. because C. despite D. because of
Question 12: I don’t know If in my essay.
A. is there a mistake B. there a mistalce is
C. a mistake is there D. there is a mistake
Question 13: The forecast has revealed that the world’s reserves of fossil
fuel will have by 2015.
A. taken over B. caught up C. used off D. run out
Question 14: Ancient Egyptians mummified the dead bodies through the
use of chemicals, ancient Peruvians did through natural
processes.
A. because B. whereas
C. whether or not D. even though
Question 15: general, our students are very intelligent and
really active.
A. In B. With C. By D. on
Question 16: Under the of the press, bloggers, and Vietnam’s
technology community, Dong decided to take the game "Flappy Bird"
down.
A. order B. force C. pressure D. command
Question 17: Their discussion quickly developed into a_________argument
over who should receive the money.
A. burning B. heated C. hot D. scorching
Question 18: There was nothing they could do leave the
car at the roadside where it had broken down.
A. but B. instead of C. than D. unless
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Question 19: Half of the children were away from school last weelr because
of of influenza.
A. a breakthroughB. an outbreak C. a break-out D. an outburst
Question 20: — "Mum, I’ve got 600 on the TOEFL test."
A. Good way! B. You are right. C. Oh, hard luck! D. Good job!
Question 21: — "Could I borrow your calculator?"
A. Yes, you could B. Yes, you can C. Yes, you do D. Yes, you will
questions.
Question 22: Books are a primary means for dissemination of lmowledge
and information.
A. attempt B. distribution C. invention D. variety
Question 23: Around 150 B.C, the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed
a system to cl ssif stars according to brightness.
A. record B. shine C. categorize D. diversity
questions.
Question 24: If you are at a loose end this weekend, I will show you round
the city.
A. free B. confident C. occupied D.
reluctant
Question 25: I clearly remember talking to him in a chance meeting last
summer.
A. unplanned B. deliberate C. accidental D. unintentional
Question 26: Everyone in our class is doing a research on the environment,
but Mary alone is staying away.
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69
A. Mary is the only one in our class who isn’t talñng part in a research on
the environment.
B. No one in our class but Mary is taking part in a research on the
environment.
C. Everyone in Mary’s class hopes to do something in a research on the
environment.
D. The class wants Mary to do a research on the environment, but she
won’t.
Question 27: Their holiday plans fell through because there was a strike at
the airport.
A. They couldn’t go on holiday as planned as a result of a strike at the
airport.
B. They failed to go on the holiday like they had planned because a strike
tools place at the airport.
C. A strike at the airport almost put a stop to their holiday plans.
D. Disappointingly, a strike at the airport forced their holiday plans to
nothing.
Question 28: Many countries share the view that drastic measures must be
taken to stop the pollution of the seas.
A. The pollution of the seas can only be prevented providing that many
countries follow the same policy.
B. A lot of countries agree that it is essential to take strong action to put an
end to the pollution of the seas.
C. By putting into practice a series of precautions, it is generally believed
that the pollution of the seas will be prevented.
D. The seas will, it seems, continue to be polluted unless this agreement is
accepted by a majority of the countries.
Question 29: I'd suggest that we avoid tef/ing any scary stories with Janet
around. She’s a bit unstabJe and could get hysterical.
A. Janet has trouble keeping her emotions under control, especially when
she is told frightening stories.
B. Since Janet is somewhat unbalanced, the only way to make her laugh is
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70
by telling stories, but we should avoid scary ones as they might cause her
to panic.
C. It is no fun to tell frightening stories to Janet, who is not very stable
mentally, because she only laughs instead of getting scared.
D. Janet is somewhat mentally unbalanced and might easily become
uncontrollably emotional, so let’s not tell frightening stories in her
presence.
Question 30: He was suspected to have stolen credit cards. The poJice have
investigated him for days.
A. He has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen credit cards.
B. Suspecting to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
C. Having suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated
for days.
D. Suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
Many parents believe that they should begin to teach their children to read
when they are scarcely more than toddlers. This is fine if the child shows a
real interest but (31) a child could be counter-
productive if she isn’t ready. Wise parents will have a (32)
attitude and take the lead
from their child. What they should provide is a selection of stimulating
books and other activities. Nowadays, there is plenty of good material
available for young children, and of course, seeing plenty of books in use
about the house will also (33) them to read. Of
course, books are no longer the only source of stories and information.
There is also a huge range of videos, which can (34) and extend the
pleasure a child finds in books and are equally valuable in helping to increase
vocabulary and concentration. Television gets a bad result as far as children
are concerned, mainly because too many spend too much time watching
programs not intended for their age group Too many television programs
(35) an incurious, uncritical
attitude that is going to malce learning much more difficult; however,
approved viewing of programs designed for young children can be useful.
Question 31: A. insisting B. forcing C. malting D. starting
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71
Question 32: A. cheerful B. contented C. hopeful D. relaxed
Question 33: A. provoke B. encourage C. provide D. attract

Question 34: A. uphold B. found C. reinforce D. assist
Question 35: A. induce B. imply C. suggest D. attract
Most forms of property are concrete and taRglble, such as houses, cars,
furniture or anything else that is included in one’s possessions. Other forms
of property can be intangible and copyright deals with intangible forms of
property. Copyright is a legal protection extended to authors of creative
works, for example, books, magazine articles, maps, films, plays, television
shows, software, paintings, photographs, music, choreography in dance and
all other forms of intellectual or artistic property.
Although the purpose of artistic property is usually public use and
enjoyment, copyright establishes the ownership of the creator. When a
person buys a copyrighted magazine, it belongs to this individual as a
tangible object. However, the authors of the magazine articles own the
research and the writing that went into creating the articles. The right to
make and sell or give away copies of books or articles belongs to the
authors, publishers, or other individuals or organizations that hold the
copyright. To copy an entire book or a part of it, permission must be received
from the copyright owner, who will most lilcely expect to be paid.
Copyright law distinguishes between different types of intellectual
property. Music may be played by anyone after it is published. However, if it
is performed for profit, the performers need to pay a fee, called a royalty. A
similar principle applies to performances of songs and plays. On the other
hand, names, ideas, and book titles are excepted. Ideas do not become
copyrighted property until they are published in a boolc, a painting or a
musical work. Almost all artistic work created before the 20th century is no
copyrighted because it was created before the copyright law was passed.

A. Legal rights of property owners
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72
B. Legal ownership of creative world
C. Examples of copyright piracy
D. Copying creating work for profit
Question 37: The word "extended” in the first paragraph is closest in
meaning to____________
A. explicated B. exposed C. guaranteed B. granted
Question 38: It can be inferred from the passage that copyright law is
intended to protect
A. the user’s ability to enjoy an artistic world
B. the creator’s ability to profit from the work
C. paintings and photographs from theft
D. computer software and videos from being copied
Question 39: Which of the following properties is NOT mentioned as
protected by copyright?
A. music and plays B. paintings and maps
C. printed medium D. scientific discoveries
Question 40: It can be inferred from the passage that it is legal if
A. two songs, written by two different composers, have the same melody
B. two books, written by two different authors, have the same titles
C. two drawings, created by two different artists, have the same images
D. two plays, created by two different playwrights, have the same plot and
characters
Question 41: With which of the following statements is the author most
likely to agree?
A. Teachers are not allowed to make copies of published materials for use
by their students.
B. Plays written in the 16th century cannot be performed in theaters
without
permission.
C. Singers can publicly sing only the songs for which they wrote the music
and the lyrics.
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73
D. It is illegal to malce photographs when sightseeing or traveling.
Question 42: The purpose of copyright law is most comparable with the
purpose of which of the following?
A. A law against theft B. A law against smoliing
C. A school policy D. A household rule
43 to 50.
Simply being bilingual doesn’t qualify someone to interpret. Interpreting is
not only a mechanical process of converting one sentence in language A into
the same sentence in language B. Rather, it is a complex art in which
thoughts and idioms that have no obvious counterparts from tongue to
tongue - or words that have several meanings must be quiclcly transformed
in such a way that the message is clearly and accurately expressed to the
listener.
At one international conference, an American speaker said, "You can’t make
a sills purse out of a sow’s ear", which means nothing to the Spanish
audience. The interpretation was, "A monkey in a silk dress is still a monkey"
- an idiom the Spanish understood and that expressed the same idea.
There are two kinds of interpreters, simultaneous and consecutive. The
former, sitting in a separated booth, usually at a large multilingual
conference, spealrs to listeners wearing headphones, interpreting what a
foreign language spealcer says-actually a sentence behind. Consecutive
interpretation also requires two-person teams. A foreign speaker says his
piece while the interpreter, using a special shorthand, talies notes and
during a pause, tells the client what was said.
Question 43: What is the purpose of the passage?
A. To differentiate between simultaneous and consecutive interpreters.
B. To state the qualifications of an interpreter.
C. To point out the importance of an interpreter.
D. To explain the scope of interpreting.
Question 44: What is a difference mentioned between a simultaneous
interpreter and a consecutive interpreter?
A. The size of group with whom they work.
B. Their proficiency in the language.
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C. The type of dictionary they use.
D. The money they are paid.
Question 45: A precondition of being a translator is
A. being able to use high-tech equipment.
B. being a linguist.
C. being bilingual.
D. working well with people.
Question 46: The word "converting" in the first paragraph is closest in
meaning
to
A. changing B. concluding
C. understanding D. reading
Question 47: The author implies that most people have the opinion that the
skill of interpreting is
A. very complex and demaiiding B. based or principles of business
C. simpler than it really is D. highly valued and admired
Question 48: The word "rather" in the first paragraph is closest in
meaning to__________
A. in brief B. on the contrary C. in general D. as a result
Question 49: Which of the following would a consecutive interpreter be
used for?
A. An interpretation of a major literary world.
B. A business transaction between two foreign spealrers.
C. A large meeting of many nations.
D. A transaction of a foreign book.
Question 50: The phrase "the former" in the last paragraph refers to
A. simultaneous interpreters B. the conference

C. consecutive interpreters D. the both
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ĐÁP ÁN
1.B 2.A 3.A 4.B 5.B 6.C 7.D 8.A 9.A 10.D
11.D 12.D 13.D 14.B 15.A 16.C 17.B 18.A 19.B 20.D
21.B 22.B 23.C 24.C 25.B 26.A 27.A 28.B 29.D 30.D
31.B 32.D 33.B 34.C 35.A 36.B 37.D 38.B 39.D 40.B
41.A 42.A 43.D 44.A 45.C 46.A 47.A 48.B 49.B 50.A
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ĐỀ SỐ 9
Question 1: A. concemed B. candied C. travelled D. dried
Question 2: A. massage B. garage C. collage D. message
Question 3: A. equip B. spacious C. office D. Service
Question 4: A. eradicate B. alternative C. minority D. secondary
Question 5: In some countries in Europe, teachers are allowed giving
A B C
children some homework only at weekends.
D
Question 6: Experts in climatology and other scientists are becoming extreme
A B
concerned about the changes to our climate which are talking place.
C D
Question 7: In 2006, 87.9 per cent of men said they shared housework from
A B C
their wives, up from 84.4 per cent in 1996.
D
Question 8: The Red List - a global list of endangered and vulnerable animal
species - has been introduced to people’s awareness of conservation needs.
A. rise B. raise C. draw D. arise
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Question 9: At first he didn’t agree, but in the end we managed to bring
him to our point of view.
A. over B. up C. back D. Round
Question 10: Roger Federer couldn’t the possibility of
withdrawing from the championship because of injury.
A. rule out B. pass over C. come off D. do without
Question 11: The ASEAN Vision 2020 is aimed forging
closer economic integration within the region.
A. to B. for C. of D. at
Question 12: John paid $2 for his meal, he had thought it
would cost.
A. not as much B. not so much as C. less as D. not so many as
Question 13: In order to avoid boredom, the most important thing is to
keep oneself
A. occupied B. occupation C. occupant D. occupational
Question 14: She kindly offered to me the way to the post
office.
A. show B. describe C. direct D.
explain
Question 15: We for three hours and are very tired.
A. waited B. have been waiting
C. wait D. had waited
Question 16: Under no circumstances in areas where poisonous
snalces are lmown to live.
A. one should not climb rocks B. one should be climbing roclcs
C. should one climb rocks D. should be climbing rocks
Question 17: He to the doctor after the accident, but he
continued to play instead.
A. must have gone B. should have gone
C. couldn’t go D. didn’t have to go
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Question 18: Some friends of mine are really fashion-conscious, while
are quite simple.
A. some other B. some others C. another &. the other
Question 19: We can’t even walk in the storm. Let’s wait in the hallway
where we’ll be the strong winds until things quiet down.
A. protecting from B. protected from C. protected by D.
protecting by
Question 20: James is asking for the way.
-Stranger: "Yeah, down this street, on the left."
A. Would you lilce to go by train B. Is this a train station
C. Is there a station near here? D. How often does the train
come
Question 21: Maria is in a shoes shop, looking for new shoes.
- Shop assistant: "Can I help you, madam?"
- Maria: " "
A. It's very cheap. B. No, thanks. I'm just looking.
C. Right. It loolrs a bit small. D. Yes, it's in our summer sale.
questions.
Question 22: You will need a sound understanding of basic teaching skills if
you want to enter the classroom with great confidence.
A. sufficient B. defective C. inadequate D. thorough
Question 23: He was one of the most outstanding performers at the live
show last night.
A. easy- looking B. important C. well-known D.
impressive
questions.
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Question 24: This work is woefully inadequate - you'll have to do it again.
A. nonexistent B. sufficient C. rich D. useful
Question 25: That international organization is going to be in a temporary
way in the country.
A. permanent B. guess C. complicated D. soak
Question 26: If you need my advice, I would forget about buying a new
house.
A. If I were you, I did not buy a new house.
B. If I were you, I would not bought a new house.
C. If I were you, I hadn’t bought a new house.
D. If I were you, I would not buy a new house.
Question 27: At no time did the two sides look lilcely to reach an agreement.
A. The two sides had no time to reach an agreement.
B. The two sides never looked lilcely to reach an agreement.
C. If the two sides had had time, they would have reached an agreement.
D. The two sides never look like each other.
Question 28: It was only because I owed Bill a favour that I agree to help him.
A. I agree to help Bill only as a favour.
B. I agree to do Bill a favour, by helping him.
C. I only agreed to help Bill because I owed him some money.
D. If I hadn’t owed Bill a favour, I wouldn’t have agreed to help him.
Question 29: The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened
the window.
A. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened
the window.
B. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room.
C. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the
window.
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D. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air.
Question 30: He wanted to give the ball a powerful kick. He used the top of
his foot.
A. He gave the ball a powerful kick to use the top of his foot.
B. Using the top of his foot, he kicked a powerful ball.
C. What he wants to do is give the ball a powerful kick and use the top of
his foot.
D. He used the top of his foot to give the ball a powerful kick.
It is relatively easy for computers to speak. A computer that says ‘please’ and
‘thank you’ in the right places is (31) miracle of science, but recognizing the
words that make up normal, continuous human speech is another (32)
Not until now have computer been programmed to (33) to a range of spoken
commands. Until recently it was thought that computers would have to be
programmed to the accent and speech habits of each user, and only then
would be able to respond (34) to their master’s or mistress’s voice. Now
rapid progress is being made (35) systems
programmed to adapt easily to each new spealcer.
(From ’Heinle & Heinle TOEFL Test Assistant.
Grammar’ by Milada Brouka)
Question 31: A. no B. not C. nothing D. none

Question 32: A. problem B. topic C. matter D. theme
Question 33: A. tally B. answer C. communicate D. react

Question 34: A. truly B. completely C. accurately B. right
Question 35: A. with B. for C. within D. as
The handling and delivery of mail has always been a serious business,
underpinned by the trust of the public in requiring timeliness, safety, and
confidentiality. After early beginnings using horseback and stagecoach, and
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8
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although cars and truclcs later replaced stagecoaches and wagons, the
Railway Mail Service still stands as one of America’s most resourceful and
exciting postal innovations. This service began in 1832, but grew slowly until
the Civil War. Then from 1862, by sorting the mail on board moving trains,
the Post Office Department was able to decentralize its operations as
railroads began to crisscross the nation on a regular basis, and speed up mail
delivery. This service lasted until 1974. During peak decades of service,
railway mail clerks handled 93% of all non-local mail and by 1905 the service
had over 12,000 employees.
Railway Post Office trains used a system of mail cranes to exchange mail at
stations without stopping. As a train approached the crane, a clerk prepared
the catcher arm which would then snatch the incoming mailbag in the blink
of an eye. The clerk then booted out the outgoing ’mailbag. Experienced
clerks were considered the elite of the Postal Service’s employees, and
spoke with pride of making the switch at night with nothing but the curves
and feel of the track to warn them of an upcoming catch. They also worked
under the greatest pressure and their jobs were considered to be exhausting
and dangerous. In addition to regular demands of their jobs they could find
themselves the victims of train wrecks and robberies.
As successful as it was, "mail-on-the-fly" still had its share of glitches. If they
hoisted the train’s catcher arm too soon, they rislced hittlng switch targets,
telegraph poles or semaphores, which would rip the catcher arm off the
train. Too late, and they would miss an exchange.
A. How Post Office Trains handled the mail without stopping.
B. The slcills of experienced clerks.
C. How the mail cranes exchanged the mail.
D. Improvements in mail handling and delivery.
Question 37: The public expects the following three services in handling
and delivery of mail except
A. confidentiality B. timeliness C. safety D. accuracy
Question 38: According to the passage, the Railway Mail Service
commenced in
A. 1832 B. 1842 C. 1874 D. 1905
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9
82
Question 39: Which of the following can be inferred from the first
paragraph?
A. Mail was often lost or damaged as it was exchanged on the mail crane.
B. There was a high turnover of railway mail clerlcs.
C. The development of the mailroads during the second half of the 19th
century enabled Post Office Department to focus on tinieliness.
D. The Post Office Department was more concerned about speeding up
mail delivery than the safety of its clerlcs.
Question 40: The wold "elite" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning
to_____
A. superior B. majority C. more capable D. leader
Question 41: The word "glitches" in the third paragraph can be replaced
by_________
A. accidents B. blames C. advantages D. problems
Question 42: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The clerk booted out the outgoing mailbag before snatching the
incoming bag.
B. Clerics couldn’t often see what they were doing.
C. The Railway Mail clerlc’s job was considered elite because it was safe
and exciting.
D. Despite their success railway mail clerks only handled a small proportion
of all non-local mail.

43 to 50.
Baseball evolved from a number of different ball-and-stick games (paddle
ball, trap ball, one-old-cat, rounders, and town ball) originating in England.
As early as the American Revolution, it was noted that troops played "base
ball" in their free time. In 1845 Alexander Cartwright formalized the New
York Kniclcerbockers’ version of the game: a diamond shaped infield, with
bases ninety feet apart, three strikes-you’re-out, batter out on a caught ball,
three outs per inning, a nine man team. The "New Yorlc Game" spread
rapidly, replacing earlier localized forms. From its beginnings, baseball was
seen as a way of satisfying the recreational needs of an increasingly urban-
industrial society. At its inception it was played by and for wealthy
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83
gentlemen. A club might consist of 40 members. The president would
appoint two captains who would choose teams from among the members.
Games were played on Monday and Thursday afternoons, with the losers
often providing a lavish evening’s entertainment for the winners.
During the 1850-70 period the game was changing, however, with increasing
commercialism (charging admission), under-the-table payments to
exceptional players, and gambling on the outcome of games. By 1868 it was
said that a club would have their regular professional ten, an amateur first-
nine, and their "muffms" (the gentlemanly duffers who once ran the game).
Beginning with the first openly all-salaried team (Cincinnati’s Red Stoclcing
Club) in 1869, the 1870-1890 period saw the complete professionalization of
baseball, including formation of the National Association of Professional
Baseball Players in 1871. The National League of Professional Base Ball Clubs
was formed in 1876, run by business- minded investors in joint-stock
company clubs. The 1880s has been called Major League Baseball’s "Golden
Age". Profits soared, player’s salaries rose somewhat, a season of 84 games
became one of 132, a weekly periodical "The Sporting News" came into
being, wooden stadiums with double-declr stands replaced open fields, and
the standard refreshment became hot dogs, soda pop and peanuts. In 1900
the Western League based in the growing cities of the Midwest proclaimed
itself the American League.
Question 43: What is the passage mainly about?

A. the origins of baseball
B. the influence of the "New Yor1c Game" on baseball
C. the commercialization of baseball
D. the development of baseball in the nineteenth century
Question 44: The word "inception" in line 10 is closest in meaning to
A. requirements B. beginning C. insistence B. rules
Question 45: Which of the following is true of the way the game was played
by wealthy gentlemen at its inception?
A. A team might consist of 40 members.
B. The president would choose teams from among the members.
C. They d1dn’t play on weelcends.
D. They might be called "duffers" if they didn’t malce the first nine.
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Question 46. According to the second paragraph, all of the following are
true EXCEPT
A. commercialism became more prosperous
B. the clubs are smaller
C. outstanding players got extra income
D. people gamed on the outcome of games
Question 47: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a feature of the
1880s "Golden Age"?
A. wooden stadiums replaced open fields
B. a weekly periodical commenced
C. the National Association of Professional Baseball Players was formed
D. profits soared
Question 48: The word "somewhat" in the last paragraph is closest in
meaning to___________
A. to a significant extent B. to a minor extent
C. to not the same extent D. to some extent
Question 49: The word "itself" in the last paragraph refers to
A. the Western League B. growing cities

C. the Midwest D. the American League
Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The wealthy gentlemen who first played baseball, later needed to find
another recreational opportunity if they did not want to mix with others
or become a "muffin".
B. Hot dogs would not have become as popular as they did, without the
professionalism and commercialism that developed in baseball.
C. The “New York Game“ spread rapidly because it was better formalized.
D. Business-minded investors were only interested in profits.
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85
ĐÁP ÁN
1.B 2.D 3.A 4.D 5.C 6.B 7.C 8.B 9.A 10.A
11.D 12.B 13.A 14.A 15.B 16.C 17.B 18.B 19.B 20.B
21.B 22.D 23.D 24.B 25.A 26.D 27.B 28.D 29.B 30.D
31.A 32.B 33.B 34.B 35.D 36.D 37.D 38.A 39.C 40.A
41.D 42.B 43.D 44.B 45.C 46.C 47.C 48.D 49.A 50.C
11
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86
ĐỀ SỐ 10
Question 1: A. exactly B. example C. exhibition D. exhibit
Question 2: A. synchronized B. psychology C. chemistry D. activity
Question 3: A. defend B. swallow C. social D. wildlife
Question 4: A. garment B. comment C. cement D. even
Question 5: In the end of the day, the job becomes so tiring that the
cleaner
A B C
sometimes leaves it unfinished.
D
Question 6: Even though the extremely bad weather in the mountains, the
A B
climbers decided not to cancel their climb.
C D
Question 7: I can’t stand him. He always disagrees with me of everything I
A B C
suggest.
D
Question 8: Please, will you just tidy your room, and stop excuses!
A. having B. making C. doing D. taking
Question 9: It was proposed that the president for a
period of five years. .-
A. could be selected B. should elect C. be elected D. were elected
87
Question 10: Hardly the captain of the team when he had
to face the problems.
A. had he been appointed B. did he appoint
C. was he being appointed D. was he appointing
Question 11: The greater the demand, the price.
A. higher B. high C. the higher D. the high
Question 12: Facebook's terms of use state that members must be
least 13 years old with valid email ID’s.
A. without B. of C. at D. on
Question 13: If you want a good flat in London, you have to pay through the
for it.
A. mouth B. ear C. nose D. teeth
Question 14: A giraffe is a animal. It has quite a long neclc.
A. long-neck B. neck long
C. long-necked D. lengthened-neck
Question 15: The closest friend his little boy visits us
every Sunday.
A. on account of B. in regard to
C. in connection with B. in company with
Question 16: Mai is a . She seldom feels sad or disappointed with
her life.
A. pessimist B. pessimistic C. optimistic D. optimist
Question 17: Nobody could have predicted that the show would arouse so
much interest and that over two hundred people away.
A. would have turned B. would turn
C. had been turned D. would have to be turned
Question 18: Such relaxing days were few and far in her hectic life.
A. between B. off C. beyond D.
out
88
Question 19: She had never been in good health, but she
her husband by twenty years.
A. overlived B. outlived C. lived longer D. underlived
Question 20: Two friends Jane and Tony are working when Jane’s laptop
collapes.
- Jane: "Would you mind if I use you computer for an hour?"
- Tony:" "
A. Not at all. I’ve finished my job. B. Yes, you can use it.
C. Of course OK. I still need it now. D. Yes, It’s all right.
Question 21: Brian was late for school.
— Brian: "Sory, I was late again this morning".
— Pete: " "
A. Yes, I know B. Well, don't let it happen a gain
C. It's OK B. No proplem
questions.
Question 22: Tourists today flock to see the two falls that actually
constitute Niagara falls.
A. come without luiowing what they will see
B. come in large numbers
C. come out of boredom
D. come by plane
Question 23: In 1952, Alcihito was officially proclaimed heir to the Japanese
throne.
A. installed B. declared C. denounced D. advised
questions.
89
Question 24: In most countries, compulsory military service doesn’t apply
to women.
A. mandatory B. essential C. optional D. required
Question 25: Susan lost her head when she suddenly woke up and saw the
house on fire.
A. kicked herself B. changed her tune
C. kept her head D. took her breath away
Question 26: Were it not for the money, this job wouldn’t be worthwhile.
A. This job is not rewarding at all.
B. This job offers a poor salary.
C. Although the salary is poor, the job lS worthwhile.
D. The only thing that makes this job worthwhile is the money.
Question 27: We’d better leave right away as the traffic will be heavy at this
hour.
A. We mustn’t leave it too late as the roads are likely to be busy for the
next hour.
B. The roads are busy at this time of day, so we ought to set off at once.
C. Let’s wait an hour so as to avoid some of the heavy traffic.
D. If we set off now, we won’t avoid most of the heavy traffic.
Question 28: ”Don’t forget to go to the supermarket after work!”, he said.
A. He told me that I shouldn’t forget to go to the supermarket after work.
B. He requested me not to forget to go to the supermarket after work.
C. He reminded me to go to the supermarket after work.
D. He asked me not to forget to go to the supermarket after work.
Question 29: John is studying hard. He doesn’t want to fail the next exam.
A. John is studying hard in order not to fail the next exam.
90
B. John is studying hard in order that he not fail the next exam.
C. John is studying hard so as to fail the next exam.
D. John is studying hard in order to not to fail the next exam.
Question 30: She gave in her notice. She planned to start her new job in
January.
A. She gave in her notice, plan to start her new job in January.
B. Her notice was given in with an aim to start her new job in January.
C. Her notice was given in in order to for her to start her new job in
January.
D. She gave in her notice with a view to starting her new job in January.
TEENAGERS AND SPORT

It’s quite rare to meet teenagers who don’t like sports. When you are young,
you know how important (31) to do physical exercise if you want to be
healthy and strong, and for that reason you often concentrate on just one
sport with so (32) enthusiasm that in the end you can’t
live without it. The problem is, though, that as you grow up you have less
and less spare time. At your age you have to study harder if you want to get
good marks to go to university, with perhaps only one afternoon a week to
do any sport. This happens just when you are at the best (33) for
many sports, such as gymnastics and swimming. By the time you finish all
your studies you will probably be too old to be really good at sports like
those, but if you spend enough time on (34) while you are young, then
one day you will find that you are very good at your sport but too old to
study, and you will find it (35) to get a good job. Somehow, it doesn’t
seem fair.
Question 31: A. this is B. you are C. it is D. things are
Question 32: A. lceen B. many C. great B. Much
Question 33: A. stage B. age C. period D. Time
Question 34: A. training B. practice C. exercise D. Sporting
Question 35: A. impractical B. Unlikely C. improbable D. impossible
91
Archaeological records - paintings, drawings, and carvings of humans
engaged in activities involving the use of hands - indicate that humans have
been predominantly right-handed for more than 5,000 years. In ancient
Egyptian artwork, for example, the right-hand is depicted as the dominant
one in about 90 percent of the examples. Fracture or wear patterns on tools
also indicate that a majority of ancient people were right-handed.
Cro-Magnon cave paintings some 27,000years old commonly show outlines
of human hands made by placing one haiid against the cave wall and
applying paint with the other. Children today make similar outlines of their
hands with crayons on paper. With few exceptions, left hands of Cro-
Magnons are displayed on cave walls, indicating that the paintings were
usually done by right-handers.
Anthropological evidence pushes the record of handedness in early human
ancestors back to at least 1.4 million years ago. One important line of
evidence comes from flaking patterns of stone cores used in tool making:
implements flaked with a clockwise motion (indicating a right-handed
toolmaker) can be distinguished from those flaked with a counter-clockwise
rotation (indicating a left-handed toolmalcer).
Even scratches found on fossil human teeth offer clues. Ancient humans are
thought to have cut meat into strips by holding it between their teeth and
slicing it with stone hives, as do the present-day Inuit. Occasionally the
1‹nives slip and leave scratches on the users’ teeth. Scratches made with a
left-to-right stroke direction (by right-handers) are more common than
scratches in the opposite direction (made by left-handers).
Still other evidence comes from cranial morphology: scientists think that
physical differences between the right and left sides of the interior of the
skull indicate subtle physical differences between the two sides of the brain.
The variation between the hemispheres corresponds to which side of the
body is used to perform specific activities. Such studies, as well as studies of
tool use, indicate that right- or left-sided dominance is not exclusive to
modern HolnO sapiens. Populations of Neanderthals, such as Homo erectiis
and Homo habilis, seem to have been predominantly right-handed, as we
are.
92
Question 36: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Human ancestors became predominantly right-handed when they began
to use tools.
B. It is difficult to interpret the significance of anthropological evidence
concerning tool use.
C. Humans and their ancestors have been predominantly right-handed for
over a million years.
D. Human ancestors were more skilled at using both hands than modem
humans.
Question 37. What does the author say about Cro-Magnon paintings of
hands?
A. Some are not very old.
B. It is unusual to see such paintings.
C. Many were made by children.
D. The artists were mostly right-handed.
Question 38: The word "depicted" in the first paragraph refers to
A. written B. portrayed C. referred D. mentioned
Question 39: The word "cranial morphology" in the first paragraph is
closest in meaning to
A. the form of crane B. the form of the body
C. the study of physical body D. the stiidy of the skull
Question 40: The fact that the Inuit cut meat by holding it between their
teeth is significant because
A. the relationship between handedness and scratches on fossil human
teeth can be verified
B. it emphasizes the differences between contemporary humans and their
ancestors
C. the scratch patterns produced by stone knives vary significantly ñoñ
patterns produced by modem knives
D. it demonstrates that ancient humans were not slcilled at using tools
Question 41: The word "hemispheres" in the last paragraph is closest in
meanlng to
A. differences B. sides C. activities D. studies
93
Question 42: All of the following are mentioned as types of evidence
concerning handedness EXCEPT
A. ancient artwork B. asymmetrical skulls
C. studies of tool use D. fossilized hand bones
43 to 50.
Diseases are a natural part of life on Earth. If there were no diseases, the
population would grow quiclcly, and there would not be enough food or
other resources, so in a way, diseases are natural ways of lceeping the Earth
in balance. But sometimes they spread very quiclcly and kill large numbers
of people. For example, in 1918, as outbreak of the flu spread across the
world, killing over 25 million people in only six months. Such terrible
outbreaks of a disease are called pandemics.
Pandemics happen when a disease changes in a way that our bodies are not
prepared to fight. In 1918, a new type of flu virus appeared. Our bodies had
no way to fight this new flu virus, and so it spread very quickly and killed
large numbers of people. While there have been many different pandemic
diseases throughout history, all of them have a new thing in common.
First, all pandemic diseases spread from one person to another very easily.
Second, while they may kill many people, they generally do not kill the
people very quickly. A good example of this would be the Marburg virus.
The Marburg virus is ari extremely infectious disease. In addition, it is
deadly. About 70-80% of all people who get the Marburg virus died from the
disease. However, the Marburg virus has not become a pandemic because
most people die within three days of getting the disease. This means that
the vims does not have enough time to spread a large number of people. The
flu virus of 1918, on the other hand, generally took about a week to ten days
to hill its victims, so it had more time to spread.
While we may never be able to completely stop pandemics, we can make
them less common. Doctors carefully monitor new diseases that they fear
could become pandemics. For example, in 2002, and 2003, doctors carefully
watched SARS. Their health warnings may have prevented SARS from
becoming a pandemic.
Question 43: This passage is mainly about
A. how to prevent pandemic diseases B. pandemic diseases
C. pandemic diseases throughout history D. why pandemics happen
94
Question 44: According to the first paragraph, how are diseases a natural
part of life on Earth?
A. They prevent pandemics. B.They help control the population
C. They led the world grow quiclcly D. They hill too many people.
Question 45: According to the passage, what causes pandemics?
A. Changes in a disease that body cannot fight.
B. Careless doctors who do not watch the spread of disease.
C. Population growth that the world cannot support.
D. The failure to make new medicines.
Question 46: According to the passage, all of the following are true of the
1918 flu pandemic EXCEPT that
A. it involved a new hind of flu virus
B. it lrilled over 25 million people
C. it was the last pandemic in history
D. it tools a little over a weelc to hill its victims
Question 47: The word "it" in the passage refers to
A. disease B. flu virus C. pandemics D. bodies
Question 48: Which of the following is mentioned as a common feature of
all pandemic disease?
A. They spread from people to people very quiclcly.
B. It hills many people very quiclcly.
C. They do not kill people very quiclcly.
D. They kill all the victims.
Question 49: The word "monitor" in the passage is closest in meaning to
_______
A. prevent B. fight C. watch D. avoid
Question 50. The author mentions SARS in order to
A. give an example of a highly dangerous disease
B. suggest that SARS will never become a pandemic
C. give an example of the successful prevention of a pandemic
D. suggest that there may be a new pandemic soon
95
ĐÁP ÁN
1.C 2.B 3.A 4.C 5.C 6.A 7.C 8.B 9.C 10.A
11.C 12.C 13.C 14.C 15.D 16.D 17.D 18.A 19.B 20.A
21.B 22.B 23.B 24.C 25.C 26.D 27.B 28.C 29.A 30.D
31.C 32.D 33.B 34.A 35.D 36.C 37.D 38.B 39.D 40.A
41.B 42.D 43.B 44.B 45.A 46.C 47.B 48.C 49.A 50.
96

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Môn Tiếng Anh

A. sight B. view C. presence D. Appearance

A. it used to make video games

like that, I would complain to the manager."

rainstorms. In Pakistan and northwestern India, the weather pattern makes

A. information B. intervals C. words D. signs

Question 31: A. findings B. studies C. programs D. conclusions

A. tourists B. the deaf and the mute

A. approved B. evaluated C. reorganized D. dismissed

Question 2: A. chaotic B. Chemist C. brochure D. Anchor

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct

of teachers to students is very high.

Question 32: A. license B. paper C. diploma D. card

among the most popular activities at recess at schools in Vietnam.

Question 33: A. over B. again C. repeatedly D. repeating

A. resulting B. police C. alleged D. official

A. floor coverings B. glassware C. compost B. Pipes

Quesbon 35: A. Suitable B. open C. lilcely D. suited

Question 43: Why did the author write the passage?

A. supposedly B. reportedly C. wrongly D. mistakenly

A. resulting B. police C. alleged D. official 15

Question 2: A. thereupon B. thrill C. threesome D. throne

Question 31: A. insisting B. forcing C. malting D. starting

Question 33: A. provoke B. encourage C. provide D. attract

Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss?

A. simultaneous interpreters B. the conference

Question 31: A. no B. not C. nothing D. none

Question 33: A. tally B. answer C. communicate D. react

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your

Question 43: What is the passage mainly about?

A. the Western League B. growing cities

TEENAGERS AND SPORT

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