Test 7 S Upsc

Online Prelims TEST - 7 (SUBJECT WISE)
( InsightsIAS Mock Test Series for UPSC Preliminary Exam 2020 )
1 Consider the following statements regarding Charter Act, 1833

1. It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely
administrative body.
2. It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers.
3. It introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 only
D. None
Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Features of Charter Act of 1833:
It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a
purely administrative body. It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in
trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor
General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India. Hence
Statement 2 is correct.
It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil
and military powers.
Charter Act of 1853 introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil
servants. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
2 Consider the following statements

1. Government of India Act of 1858 known as the Act for the Good Government of India.
2. British Government was given the supreme control over Company’s affairs and its administration in
India through Pitt’s India Act of 1784.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
1
Both the statements are correct.
Government of India Act of 1858 was enacted in the wake of the Revolt of 1857—also known as the
First War of Independence or the ‘sepoy mutiny’.
The act known as the Act for the Good Government of India, abolished the East India
Company, and transferred the powers of government, territories and revenues to the British Crown.
Pitt’s India Act of 1784 is significant for two reasons: first, the Company’s territories in India
were for the first time called the ‘British possessions in India’; and second, the British
Government was given the supreme control over Company’s affairs and its administration
in India.
3 Consider the following statements regarding Indian Councils Act, 1861

1. It initiated the process of decentralization by restoring the legislative powers to the Bombay and
Madras Presidencies.
2. It provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-Western Frontier
Province (NWFP) and Mysore.
3. It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances, without the concurrence of the legislative council
during an emergency.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : A
It initiated the process of decentralisation by restoring the legislative powers to the

Bombay and Madras Presidencies. It thus reversed the centralising tendency that started from
the Regulating Act of 1773 and reached its climax under the Charter Act of 1833. Hence
It also provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-Western Frontier
Province (NWFP) and Punjab, which were established in 1862, 1866 and 1897 respectively. Hence
Statement 2 is incorrect.
It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances, without the concurrence of the legislative
council, during an emergency. The life of such an ordinance was six months. Hence Statement 3
is correct.
2
1. Fundamental rights are negative as they prohibit the state from doing certain things whereas
directive principles are positive as they require the State to do certain things
2. Fundamental rights do not require any legislation for their implementation whereas directive
principles require legislation for their implementation.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
5 Consider the following statements regarding Government of India Act of 1919

1. It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country.
2. It relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and
provincial subjects.
3. It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorised the
provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3
3
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : A
All the statements are correct.
Features of Government of India Act of 1919
It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country.
Thus, the Indian Legislative Council was replaced by a bicameral legislature consisting of an
Upper House (Council of State) and a Lower House (Legislative Assembly).
It relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the
central and provincial subjects.
It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and
authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.
6 Which of the following was/were the recommendations of Simon Commission?

1. Abolition of communal electorate
2. Continuation of dyarchy
3. Establishment of a federation of British India

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Simon Commission In November 1927 itself (i.e., 2 years before the schedule), the British
Government announced the appointment a seven-member statutory commission under the
chairmanship of Sir John Simon to report on the condition of India under its new Constitution.
All the members of the commission were British and hence, all the parties boycotted the
commission.
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The commission submitted its report in 1930 and recommended
The abolition of dyarchy, Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
extension of responsible government in the provinces,
Establishment of a federation of British India. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Princely states, continuation of communal electorate and so on. Hence Statement 1 is

incorrect.
To consider the proposals of the commission, the British Government convened three round table
conferences of the representatives of the British
Government, British India and Indian princely states.
7 The notion of ‘Freedom’, in a society, implies

1. Absence of external constraints
2. All decisions are made collectively
3. Conditions in which people can develop their abilities
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Both these aspects of freedom — the absence of external constraints as well as the existence of
conditions in which people can develop their talents — are important. A free society would be one
which enables all its members to develop their potential with the minimum of social constraints.
No individual living in society can hope to enjoy total absence of any kind of constraints or
restrictions. It becomes necessary then to determine which social constraints are justified and
which are not, which are acceptable and which should be removed.
It implies that freedom can be a component of only democratic societies, but it is not true. Even
autocratic societies have some sense of freedom.
Moreover, in order to be free, an individual should be able to make decisions individually, with a
support of collective decision-making in which no one individual dominates the others. So, it is
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wrong to say that ALL decisions should be made collectively to enjoy freedom.
Hence Statement 2 is incorrect and all other statements are correct.
8 Which of these constitutional provision(s) aim at protecting the linguistic interests of minorities in the
states?
1. President can direct the government to provide compulsory financial grants and reservation in
public jobs to such minorities.
2. President can direct the official recognition of a minority language in the state.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : B
There is no such provision for reservation in constitution. Endeavour of every State and of every
local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at
the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.
The President may issue such directions to any State as he considers necessary or proper for
securing the provision of such facilities. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
When the President (on a demand being made) is satisfied that a substantial proportion of the
population of a state desire the use of any language spoken by them to be recognised by that state,
then he may direct that such language shall also be officially recognised in that state. Hence

1. Communal award restricted separate electorates for the Muslims, Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo
Indians and Europeans only
2. White Paper on Consitutional Reforms was prepared by Jawaharlal Nehru.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
6
Both the statements are incorrect.
In August 1932, Ramsay MacDonald, the British Prime Minister, announced a scheme of
representation of the minorities, which came to be known as the Communal Award.
Communal award not only continued separate electorates for the Muslims, Sikhs, Indian
Christians, AngloIndians and Europeans but also extended it to the depressed classes
(scheduled castes).
On the basis of round table discussions, a ‘White Paper on Constitutional Reforms’ was
prepared and submitted for the consideration of the Joint Select Committee of the British
Parliament.
10 Consider the following statements regarding Government of India Act of 1935.

1. It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its place.
2. It abolished the Council of India, established by the Government of India Act of 1919.
3. It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely
states as units.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : D
It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its place. The
provinces were allowed to act as autonomous units of administration in their defined spheres.
Hence Statement 1 is correct.
It abolished the Council of India, established by the Government of India Act of 1858. The
secretary of state for India was provided with a team of advisors. Hence Statement 2 is
incorrect.
It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and

princely states as units. However, the federation never came into being as the princely states did
not join it. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

1. Constitution contains permanent and elaborate provisions regarding citizenship.
2. Constitution does not deal with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship.
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3. A person who migrated to Pakistan from India after March 1, 1947, but later returned to India for
resettlement could become an Indian citizen.

A. 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. None
Correct Answer : B
The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under Part II. However, it contains
neither any permanent nor any elaborate provisions in this regard. Hence Statement 1 is
incorrect.
It only identifies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement (i.e., on January 26,
1950). It does not deal with the
problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement. It empowers the
Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship
A person who migrated to Pakistan from India after March 1, 1947, but later returned to India for
resettlement could become an Indian citizen. For this, he had to be resident in India for six months
preceding the date of his application for registration2 (Article 7). Hence Statement 3 is correct.
12 Consider the following statements regarding Indian Independence Act of 1947.

1. It empowered the Constituent Assemblies of the two dominions to frame and adopt any constitution
for their respective nations.
2. It granted freedom to the Indian princely states either to join the Dominion of India or Dominion of
Pakistan or to remain independent.
3. It provided for the partition of India and creation of two independent dominions of India and
Pakistan.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
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All the statements given above are correct.
Features of Indian Independence Act of 1947
It ended the British rule in India and declared India as an independent and sovereign
state from August 15,1947.
It provided for the partition of India and creation of two independent dominions of
India and Pakistan with the right to secede from the British Commonwealth.
It empowered the Constituent Assemblies of the two dominions to frame and adopt
any constitution for their respective nations and to repeal any act of the British Parliament,
including the Independence act itself.
It granted freedom to the Indian princely states either to join the Dominion of India
or Dominion of Pakistan or to remain independent.

1. Liaquat Ali Khan was the minister of Finance in Interim government (1946).
2. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the minister of External affairs and Commonwealth Relations in Interim
government (1946).

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
9

1. The idea of a constituent assembly for India was first put forward by Jawaharlal Nehru
2. British principally accepted the idea of constituent assembly for the first time through Cripps
Proposal.
3. Muslim league accepted the idea of Cripps Proposals.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. None
Correct Answer : D
All the statements given above are INCORRECT.
10
The idea of a constituent assembly for India was first put forward by M.N. Roy in 1934.
The demand for constituent assembly was finally accepted in principle by the British
Government in what is known as the ‘August Offer’ of 1940.
In 1942, Sir Stafford Cripps, a member of the cabinet, came to India with a
draft proposal of the British Government on the framing of an independent Constitution to be
adopted after the World War II.
The Cripps Proposals were rejected by the Muslim League which wanted
India to be divided into two autonomous states with two separate Constituent Assemblies.
Finally, a Cabinet Mission was sent to India. While it rejected the idea of two Constituent
Assemblies, it put forth a scheme for the Constituent Assembly which more or less satisfied the
Muslim League
15 Consider the following statements regarding the composition of Constituent assembly.

1. The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the
August offer.
2. Constituent Assembly was a partly elected and partly nominated body.
3. Seats were allotted on the basis of population at that time.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : D
The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the
Cabinet Mission Plan. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
The representatives of princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely
states.
Constituent Assembly was to be a partly elected and partly nominated body. Moreover, the
members were to be indirectly elected by the members of the provincial assemblies, who
themselves were elected on a limited franchise. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Seats were allotted on the basis of population at that time. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
16 Which of the following functions was/were performed by constituent assembly other than making
Indian Constitution?
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1. It adopted the national flag on July 22, 1947

2. It elected Dr Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950
3. It ratified the India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Other Functions Performed
In addition to the making of the Constitution and enacting of ordinary laws, the Constituent
Assembly also performed the following functions:
1. It ratified the India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949.

2. It adopted the national flag on July 22, 1947.
3. It adopted the national anthem on January 24, 1950.
4. It adopted the national song on January 24, 1950.
5. It elected Dr Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950
17 Consider the following pairs

Committee Headed by
1.
Provincial Constitution Committee Jawaharlal Nehru
2.
Committee for Negotiating with States Sardar Patel
3.
Steering Committee Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Which of the pairs given above are matched correctly in the context of committees constituted in
Constituent assembly?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 3 only
Correct Answer : D
12
The Constituent Assembly appointed a number of committees to deal with different tasks of
constitution-making
Major Committees
1. Union Powers Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Union Constitution Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Provincial Constitution Committee – Sardar Patel
4. Drafting Committee – Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
5. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas – Sardar
Patel. This committee had the following sub-committes:
(a) Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee – J.B. Kripalani
(b) Minorities Sub-Committee – H.C. Mukherjee
(c) North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas SubCommittee
– Gopinath Bardoloi
(d) Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (Other than those in Assam) Sub-Committee – A.V.
Thakkar
6. Rules of Procedure Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad
7. States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States) – Jawaharlal Nehru
8. Steering Committee – Dr. Rajendra Prasad

1. Article 1 deals about formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of
existing states.
2. Article 123 deals about the power of president to promulgate ordinances during recess of
Parliament.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Article 1 deals with Name and territory of the Union. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
Article 3 deals with formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of
existing states.
Article 123 deals with Power of president to promulgate ordinances during recess of
Parliament.
13

1. Mysore province had sent highest number of members to constituent assembly amongst Princely
states.
2. The Provisional Parliament ceased to exist on April 17, 1952

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Mysore province had sent 7 members to Constiutent assembly which is highest among princely
states.
The Provisional Parliament ceased to exist on April 17, 1952. The first elected Parliament
with the two Houses came into being in May 1952.

1. All the provisions of constitution were enforced on January, 26, 1950.
2. Indian Independence Act of 1947 was repealed after the commencement of constitution.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Some provisions of the Constitution pertaining to citizenship, elections, provisional parliament,

temporary and transitional provisions, and short title contained in Articles 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 60, 324, 366,
367, 379, 380, 388, 391, 392 and 393 came into force on November 26, 1949 itself. Hence
The remaining provisions (the major part) of the Constitution came into force on January 26, 1950.
With the commencement of the Constitution, the Indian Independence Act of 1947 and the
Government of India Act of 1935, with all enactments amending or supplementing the
14
latter Act, were repealed. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act (1949) was however continued
21 Which of the following is/are some of the criticisms regarding Constituent assembly?
1. Dominated by Congress
2. Lawyer–Politician Domination
3. Dominated by Hindus

A. 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Criticism of the Constituent Assembly
Dominated by Congress: The critics charged that the Constituent Assembly was dominated by the
Congress party. Granville Austin, a British Constitutional expert, remarked: ‘The Constituent
Assembly was a one-party body in an essentially one-party country. The Assembly was the Congress
and the Congress was India’9.
Lawyer–Politician Domination: It is also maintained by the critics that the Constituent Assembly was
dominated by lawyers and politicians. They pointed out that other sections of the society were not
sufficiently represented. This, to them, is the main reason for the bulkiness and complicated
language of the Constitution.
Dominated by Hindus: According to some critics, the Constituent Assembly was a Hindu dominated
body. Lord Viscount Simon called it ‘a body of Hindus’. Similarly, Winston Churchill commented
that the Constituent Assembly represented ‘only one major community in India’.
22 Which of the following were the major points of the Objectives Resolution introduced in the
Constituent Assembly?
1. Territories forming the Union shall be autonomous units and exercise all powers and functions of
the Government except those assigned to the Union
2. All powers and authority of sovereign and independent India shall flow from its Constitution
3. All people of India shall be guaranteed and secured equality of status and opportunities along with
equality before law
15
A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 only
Correct Answer : C
Territories forming the Union shall be autonomous units and exercise all powers and functions of
the Government except those assigned to the Union. The states thus derive power directly from the
constitution. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
It shall flow from its people based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty. Hence
As per the resolution, all people of India shall be guaranteed and secured social, economic and
political justice; equality of status and opportunities and equality before law; and fundamental
freedoms - of speech, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association and action - subject to
law and public morality. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
23 Which one of the following Fundamental rights was described by Dr. B. R.

Ambedkar as ‘the heart and soul of the Constitution’?
A. Right to freedom of Religion

B. Right to free speech and expression
C. Right to equality
D. Right to Constitutional remedies
Correct Answer : D
A mere declaration of fundamental rights in the Constitution is meaningless,

useless and worthless without providing an effective machinery for their
enforcement, if and when they are violated.
Hence, Article 32 confers the

right to remedies for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an
aggrieved citizen. In other words, the right to get the Fundamental Rights
protected is in itself a fundamental right. This makes the fundamental rights
real.
That is why Dr Ambedkar called Article 32 as the most important

article of the Constitution—‘an Article without which this constitution
would be a nullity. It is the very soul of the Constitution and the very
16
heart of it’. The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature
of the Constitution. Hence, it cannot be abridged or taken away even by way of
an amendment to the Constitution.
24 Which of the following actions of the government form(s) the part of

implementation of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)?
1. Abolition of intermediaries like Zamindars, Jagirdars, inamdars etc
2. Nationalisation of Commercial Banks
3. Bonded Labour System Abolition Act
4. Maternity Benefit Act
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : D
The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the

Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.
The framers of the Constitution borrowed this idea from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had
copied it from the Spanish Constitution. Dr B R Ambedkar described these principles as ‘novel
features’ of the Indian Constitution. The Directive Principles along with the Fundamental Rights
contain the philosophy of the Constitution and is the soul of the Constitution.
All the four legislations given above in the options are part of implementation of DPSPs in
letter and spirit.
25 Which one of the following pairs of Schedules in the Constitution of India

and its content is not correctly matched?
Schedule Content
A. Second Schedule : Emoluments of important Constitutional posts

B. Eleventh Schedule : Subjects devolved to Panchayat Raj Institutions
C. Fifth Schedule : Federal Structure
D. Eighth Schedule : Languages
Correct Answer : C
17
The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and
control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the
four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

1. 42nd Amendment Act restricted the powers of Judicial Review
2. 52nd Amendment Act introduced the anti-defection provisions in the Constitution.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
The 42nd Amendment is regarded as the most controversial constitutional amendment in

Indian history. It attempted to reduce the power of the Supreme Court and High Courts to
pronounce upon the constitutional validity of laws. It laid down the Fundamental Duties of
Indian citizens to the nation.
The 52nd amendment to the Constitution added the Tenth Schedule which laid down the
process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection. A Member of
Parliament or state legislature was deemed to have defected if he either voluntarily resigned from
his party or disobeyed the directives of the party leadership on a vote.
27 Which of the following factors contributed to the elephantine size of our Constitution?
1. Single Constitution for both the Centre and the states
2. Population of India
3. Influence of the Government of India Act of 1935
4. Dominance of legal luminaries
Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : D
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Four factors have contributed to the elephantine size of our Constitution.
(a) Geographical factors, that is, the vastness of the country and its diversity.
(b) Historical factors, e.g., the influence of the Government of India Act of 1935, which was bulky.
(c) Single Constitution for both the Centre and the states except Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Dominance of legal luminaries in the Constituent Assembly
28 Which of the following are the salient features of Indian Constitution?

1. Federal System with Unitary Bias
2. Drawn From Various Sources
3. Integrated and Independent Judiciary
4. Two-tier Government

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : A
Lengthiest Written Constitution
Drawn From Various Sources
Blend of Rigidity and Flexibility
Federal System with Unitary Bias
Synthesis of Parliamentary Sovereignty and Judicial Supremacy
Integrated and Independent Judiciary
Three tier government.

1. The term ‘Federation’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution.
2. Indian Federation is the result of an agreement by the states.
19

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
The term ‘Federation’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
Article 1, on the other, describes India as a ‘Union of States’ which implies two things: one, Indian
Federation is not the result of an agreement by the states; and two, no state has the right to
secede from the federation. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
That’s why, Indian Constitution has been variously described as ‘federal in form but unitary in
spirit’, ‘quasi-federal’ by K C Wheare.
30 Consider the following statements regarding Regulating Act, 1773

1. It prohibited the servants of the company from engaging in any private trade.
2. It distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the company.
3. It introduced, for the first time, local representation in the Indian (Central) Legislative Council.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Regulating Act of 1773 was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate
the affairs of the East India Company in India.
Features of the Act
1. It designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor-General of Bengal’ and created an

Executive Council of four members to assist him. The first such Governor-General was Lord Warren
Hastings.
2. It made the governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies subordinate to the governor general
of Bengal, unlike earlier, when the three presidencies were independent of one another.
20
3. It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774) comprising one chief
justice and three other judges.
4. It prohibited the servants of the Company from engaging in any private trade or
accepting presents or bribes from the ‘natives’. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
5. It strengthened the control of the British Government over the Company by requiring the Court
of Directors (governing body of the Company) to report on its revenue, civil, and military affairs in
India.
Pitt’s India Act of 1784 distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the
company. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Charter Act of 1853 introduced, for the first time, local representation in the Indian (Central)
Legislative Council. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
31 Which of the following is/are the features of Parliamentary Form of government?

1. Collective responsibility of the executive to the President.
2. Dissolution of the lower House
3. Membership of the ministers in the legislature

A. 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : D
The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at

the Centre but also in the states. The features of parliamentary government in India are:
(a) Presence of nominal and real executives;
(b) Majority party rule,
(c) Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature, Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
(d) Membership of the ministers in the legislature,
(e) Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister,
(f) Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly).
32 Consider the following statements regarding Supreme Court

1. It is the guarantor of the fundamental rights of the citizens.
2. It is the guardian of the Indian constitution
3. It is the highest court of appeal in India
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A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
The Supreme Court is a federal court, the highest court of appeal, the guarantor of the
fundamental rights of the citizens and the guardian of the Constitution. Hence, the
Constitution has made various provisions to ensure its independence—security of tenure of the
judges, fixed service conditions for the judges, all the expenses of the Supreme Court charged on
the Consolidated
Fund of India, prohibition on discussion on the conduct of judges in the legislatures, ban on practice
after retirement, power to punish for its contempt vested in the Supreme Court, separation of the
judiciary from the
executive, and so on
33 A Democratic constitution would lose its credibility if
A. It is heavily based on the Constitution of another nation.

B. The people behind framing the Constitution were unelected.
C. It centralizes power from the federal units into the Union government.
D. It is not based on secular ideas.
Correct Answer : B
The Indian constitution borrows heavily from the constitution of other nations.
Suppose if the constituent assembly of India consisted of British administrators and only members
of princely states, we wouldn’t have acknowledged the framing of the constitution as just
and democratic.
Democracies can decide to vest greater or lesser power in its federal units; its only a matter of
political structure.
A democracy need not be secular, for e.g. Pakistan.
34 A Constitution usually does NOT serve this function:
22
A. Ensuring some kind of coordination between members of a nation

B. Specifies allocation of power in the nation in a skeletal form
C. Brings in Rule of Law in a society
D. Distributes economic resources within the population
Correct Answer : D
Most constitutions refrain from doing so, and only provide a larger set of principles on which of the
state should endeavour ensuring economic welfare.
In India, we follow principles of equity and fairness, as a part of DPSP, in the desirable distribution
of economic resources in the society.

1. In the Kesavananda Bharati case Supreme Court held that ‘the Indian Constitution is founded on the
bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles
2. Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be
the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court held that ‘the Indian Constitution is founded
on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles’.
Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
The Constitution itself declares that DPSP are fundamental in the governance of the country
and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws. Hence Statement
2 is correct.

1. The original constitution did not provide for the fundamental duties of the citizens.
2. Rights and duties of the citizens are co-relative and inseparable
3. The 96th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 added one more fundamental duty
23
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
The original constitution did not provide for the fundamental duties of the citizens. Hence
Statement 1 is correct. These were added during the operation of internal emergency (1975–77)
by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh
Committee.
Rights and duties of the citizens are co-relative and inseparable
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 added one more fundamental duty. Hence
37 Which of the provisions of the constitution provide for the secular character of the Indian State?
1. The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship
2. No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion of a particular religion
3. The State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
The Constitution of India stands for a secular state. Hence, it does not uphold any particular
religion as the official religion of the Indian State. The following provisions of the Constitution
reveal the secular character of the Indian State:
(a) The term ‘secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
(b) The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship.
(c) The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws
(Article 14).
(d) The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion (Article 15).
(e) Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16).
24
(f) All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice
and propagate any religion (Article 25).
(g) Every religious denomination or any of its section shall have the right to manage its religious
affairs (Article 26).
(h) No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion of a particular religion
(Article 27).
(i) No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the State
(Article 28).
(j) Any section of the citizens shall have the right to conserve its distinct language, script or culture
(Article 29).
(k) All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their
choice (Article 30).
(l) The State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code (Article
44).
38 Consider the following pairs

Features Borrowed Sources
1.
Federation with a strong Centre Soviet Constitution
2.
Method of election of President. US Constitution
3.
Federal Scheme Canadian Constitution
Which of the pairs given above is/are matched correctly?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. None
Correct Answer : D
25
39 Eighth Schedule recognizes which of the following languages?

1. English
2. Sanskrit
3. Magadi
4. Hindi

A. 2 and 4 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : A
Originally, it had 14 languages but presently there are 22 languages.
They are: Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri,
Konkani, Mathili (Maithili), Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi,
Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu.
English is not recognized under 8th schedule, even though it is the official language of India. So,
1 is incorrect.
Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967; Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added
by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992; and Bodo, Dongri, Maithili ( Not Magadhi) and Santhali
26
were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003.
40 The idea of residuary powers in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the Constitution of
A. France
B. Australia
C. UK
D. Canada
Correct Answer : D
This diagram contains all major borrowings:
41 Which of these South Asian nations is/are constitutional monarchy?

1. Bhutan
2. Myanmar
3. Maldives
27
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Bhutan is a constitutional monarchy with a parliamentary form of government. The political

system grants universal suffrage. It consists of the National Council and the National Assembly.
Executive power is exercised by the Council of Ministers led by the prime minister. Legislative
power is vested in both the government and the National Assembly. Judicial power is vested in the
courts of Bhutan.
Myanmar recently transformed from a military rule to a democracy. Democratic elections have
been held in Myanmar with India’s assistance. However, the polity has been disturbed lately due to
internal feuds, coups and authoritarianism.
Maldives doesn’t have constitutional monarchy.

1. The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from President of India.
2. Preamble declares that India to be of a sovereign, socialist, secular democratic and republican
polity

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
The Preamble reveals four ingredients or components:
1. Source of authority of the Constitution: The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its
authority from the people of India. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
2. Nature of Indian State: It declares India to be of a sovereign, socialist, secular democratic and
republican polity.
3. Objectives of the Constitution: It specifies justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the
objectives.
28
4. Date of adoption of the Constitution: It stipulates November 26, 1949 as the date.
43 Which of the following rights and privileges constitution confers on the citizens of India and denies
the same to aliens?
1. Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth
2. Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment
3. Cultural and educational rights

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
All the above statements are correct.
The Constitution confers the following rights and privileges on the citizens of India (and denies the
same to aliens):
1. Right against discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth
(Article15).
2. Right to equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment (Article 16).
3. Right to freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and
profession (Article 19).
4. Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29 and 30).
5. Right to vote in elections to the Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly.
6. Right to contest for the membership of the Parliament and the state legislature.
7. Eligibility to hold certain public offices, that is, President of India, Vice-President of India, judges
of the Supreme Court and the high courts, governor of states, attorney general of India and
advocate general of states.

1. Berubari Union case, the Supreme Court specifically opined that Preamble is not a part of the
Constitution.
2. In the Kesavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court rejected the earlier opinion and held that
Preamble is a part of the Constitution.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
29
Correct Answer : C
In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court said that the Preamble shows the general
purposes behind the several provisions in the Constitution, and is thus a key to the minds of the
makers of the Constitution. Further, where the terms used in any article are ambiguous or capable
of more than one meaning, some assistance at interpretation may be taken from the objectives
enshrined in the Preamble. Despite this recognition of the significance of the Preamble, the
Supreme Court specifically opined that Preamble is not a part of the Constitution.
In the Kesavananda Bharati case17 (1973), the Supreme Court rejected the earlier opinion
and held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution. It observed that the Preamble is of
extreme importance and the Constitution should be read and interpreted in the light of the grand
and noble vision expressed in
the Preamble.

1. The Preamble has been amended only twice till date.
2. It is justiciable and its provisions are enforceable in courts of law

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
Both the statements are incorrect.
The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional
Amendment Act, which has added three new words—Socialist, Secular and Integrity—to the
Preamble. This amendment was held to be valid.
The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of
legislature. It is non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.
46 Consider the following statements regarding Morley-Minto Reforms

1. It retained official majority in the Central Legislative Council but allowed the provincial legislative
councils to have non-official majority.
30
2. It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of

‘separate electorate’.
3. It granted franchise to a limited number of people on the basis of property, tax or education.

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Features of Act of 1909:
It retained official majority in the Central Legislative Council but allowed the provincial
legislative councils to have non-official majority. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of

‘separate electorate’. Under this, the Muslim members were to be elected only by Muslim
voters. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Government of India Act of 1919 granted franchise to a limited number of people on the
basis of property, tax or education. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
47 Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act reduced the voting

age from 21 years to 18 years?
A. 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act

B. 61st Constitutional Amendment Act
C. 64th Constitutional Amendment Act
D. 68th Constitutional Amendment Act
Correct Answer : B
The 61 st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988 reduced the voting age

from 21 years to 18 years for the Lok Sabha as well as the assembly
elections. This was done in order to provide to the unrepresented youth of the
country an opportunity to express their feelings and help them become a part
31
of political process.
48 The Indian model of Secularism would stand violated if

1. The state participates in religious reforms
2. The state supports or facilitates religious activities.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : D
Both are wrong assertions.
The banning of untouchability or the intrusion of state in triple talaq matter clearly shows
that the state has and will keep intervening in religious matter as and when needed. Indian model of
secularism does not demand strict separation of religion and state.
Facilitating Haz pilgrims through subsidies or managing Shrine management boards at

temples (for e.g. Vaishno Devi Shrine committee is managed by government) and mosques does not
constitute violation of Indian model of secularism.

1. Territory of India includes Territories of the states and Union territories only.
2. The names of states and union territories and their territorial extent are mentioned in the first
schedule of the Constitution.
3. ‘Union of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Territory of India’

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
According to Article 1, the territory of India can be classified into three categories:
1. Territories of the states
32
2. Union territories
3. Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time.
Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
The names of states and union territories and their territorial extent are mentioned in the first
schedule of the Constitution. . Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Notably, the ‘Territory of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Union of India’ because the latter
includes only states while the former includes not only the states but also union territories and
territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time. . Hence Statement
3 is incorrect.

1. Parliament can alter the boundaries of any state without their consent
2. Formation of new states and alteration of areas of states are not to be considered as amendments of
the Constitution under Article 368

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Constitution authorises the Parliament to form new states or alter the areas,
boundaries or names of the existing states without their consent. In other words, the Parliament
can redraw the political map of India according to its will.
The Constitution (Article 4) itself declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new
states (under Article 2) and formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of
existing states (under Articles 3) are not to be considered as amendments of the Constitution
under Article 368. This means that such laws can be passed by a simple majority and by the
ordinary legislative process.
51 Consider the following events with respect to the Union of India.

1. Formation of the State of Nagaland
2. States Reorganization Act
3. Formation of the State of Haryana
4. Formation of the State of Gujarat
33
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above events?
A. 4 – 2 – 3 – 1
B. 2 – 4 – 3 – 1
C. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
D. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
Correct Answer : D
By the States Reorganisation Act (1956) and the 7th Constitutional

Amendment Act (1956), the distinction between Part-A and Part-B states was
done away with and Part-C states were abolished
In 1960, the bilingual state of Bombay was divided into two separate
states—Maharashtra for Marathi-speaking people and Gujarat for Gujaratispeaking people.
Gujarat was established as the 15th state of the Indian
Union.
In 1963, the State of Nagaland was formed by taking the Naga

Hills and Tuensang area out of the state of Assam. This was done to satisfy
the movement of the hostile Nagas. However, before giving Nagaland the status of the 16th state of
the Indian Union, it was placed under the control of
governor of Assam in 1961.
In 1966, the State of Punjab was bifurcated to create Haryana, the 17th
state of the Indian Union, and the union territory of Chandigarh. On the
recommendation of the Shah Commission (1966), the punjabi-speaking areas
were constituted into the unilingual state of Punjab, the Hindi-speaking areas
were constituted into the State of Haryana and the hill areas were merged with
the adjoining union territory of Himachal Pradesh.
52 Which of the following writs can be issued against administrative authorities?
A. Mandamus, Prohibition and Certiorari

B. Mandamus and Certiorari
C. Mandamus and Prohibition
D. Prohibition and Certiorari
Correct Answer : B
The writ of mandamus is a command issued by the court to a public official

asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to
perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an
34
inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose.
The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial
authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities,
legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies.
Previously, the writ of certiorari could be issued only against judicial and
quasi-judicial authorities and not against administrative authorities.
However, in 1991, the Supreme Court ruled that the certiorari can be
issued even against administrative authorities affecting rights of
individuals. Like prohibition, certiorari is also not available against
legislative bodies and private individuals or bodies.

1. No person shall be a citizen of India or be deemed to be a citizen of India, if he has voluntarily
acquired the citizenship of any foreign state
2. A person born in India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 1st July 1987 is a citizen of India by
birth irrespective of the nationality of his parents.
3. If he is a citizen of any country, he undertakes to renounce the citizenship of that country in the
event of his application for Indian citizenship being accepted
Under which of the above criteria mentioned above, a person can acquire Indian Citizenship?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 only
Correct Answer : C
1. No person shall be a citizen of India or be deemed to be a citizen of India, if he has voluntarily

acquired the citizenship of any foreign state (Article 9).
2. A person born in India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 1st July 1987 is a citizen of
India by birth irrespective of the nationality of his parents.
3. That, if he is a citizen of any country, he undertakes to renounce the citizenship of that

country in the event of his application for Indian citizenship being accepted.
35

1. The Constitution prohibits discrimination against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex
or place of birth and not on the ground of residence.
2. The Parliament can prescribe residence within a state or union territory as a condition for certain
employments or appointments in that state.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
The Parliament (under Article 16) can prescribe residence within a state or union territory
as a condition for certain employments or appointments in that state or union territory, or
local authority or other authority within that state or union territory.
Accordingly, the Parliament enacted the Public Employment (Requirement as to

Residence) Act, 1957 and thereby authorised the Government of India to prescribe residential
qualification only for appointment to non-Gazetted posts in Andhra Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh,
Manipur and Tripura. As this Act expired in 1974, there is no such provision for any state except
Andhra Pradesh.
The Constitution (under Article 15) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth and not on the ground of residence.
This means that the state can provide special benefits or give preference to its residents in matters
that do not come within the purview of the rights given by the Constitution to the Indian citizens.
For example, a state may offer concession in fees for education to its residents.
55 The term “Socialist” in the Preamble of the Constitution implies

1. The government strives to maintain a more equitable distribution of wealth in society.
2. Government should regulate and facilitate the equitable ownership of factors of production to
achieve desired socio-economic objectives.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
36
Correct Answer : C
The Indian brand of socialism is a ‘democratic socialism’ and not a ‘communistic socialism’ (also
known as ‘state socialism’) which involves the nationalisation of all means of production and
distribution and the abolition of private property.
Democratic socialism, on the other hand, holds faith in a ‘mixed economy’ where both public and
private sectors co-exist side by side.
As the Supreme Court says, ‘Democratic socialism aims to end poverty, ignorance, disease and
inequality of opportunity. Indian socialism is a blend of Marxism and Gandhism, leaning heavily
towards Gandhian socialism’.
The new economic policy (1991) of liberalisation, privatisation and globalisation has, however,
diluted the socialist credentials of the Indian State.
56 The boundary commission headed by Radcliff demarcated
A. Provincial areas of Bihar and Assam post Bengal Partition 1905

B. Boundaries between the two Dominions of India and Pakistan
C. Burmese Enclaves in the north-eastern frontier of India
D. North-west frontier of India post-Soviet invasion
Correct Answer : B
The Radcliffe Line was published on 17 August 1947 as a boundary demarcation line
between India and Pakistan.
Pakistan included the provinces of West Punjab, Sind, Baluchistan, East Bengal, North-Western
Frontier Province and the district of Sylhet in Assam.
The help of a referendum was taken to establish the total geographical area of Pakistan. The
referendum in the North-Western Frontier Province and Sylhet was in favour of Pakistan.

1. The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Constitution to all citizens without any
discrimination.
2. The Fundamental Rights are meant for promoting the ideal of political democracy.

A. 1 only
37
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Constitution to all persons without any
discrimination.
They uphold the equality of all individuals, the dignity of the individual, the larger public interest
and unity of the nation.
The Fundamental Rights are meant for promoting the ideal of political democracy. They
prevent the establishment of an authoritarian and despotic rule in the country, and protect the
liberties and freedoms of the people against the invasion by the State.
58 Which of the following is/are the features of Fundamental Rights?

1. They are not absolute but qualified
2. They are justiciable, allowing persons to move the courts for their enforcement
3. They are permanent in nature

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution are characterised by the following:
They are not absolute but qualified. The state can impose reasonable restrictions on them.
However, whether such res-trictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by the courts.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
They are justiciable, allowing persons to move the courts for their enforcement, if and when
they are violated. Hence statement 2 is correct.
38
They are not sacrosanct or permanent. The Parliament can curtail or repeal them but only
by a constitutional amendment act and not by an ordinary act. Hence statement 3 is
incorrect.

1. The state is empowered to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and
educationally backward classes
2. The term ‘untouchability’ has been defined either in the Constitution or in the Act.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
The state is empowered to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially
and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the scheduled castes or the scheduled
tribes regarding their admission to educational institutions including private educational
institutions, whether aided or unaided by the state, except the minority educational institutions.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
The term ‘untouchability’ has not been defined either in the Constitution or in the Act.
However, the Karnataka High Court held that the subject matter of Article 17 is not untouchability
in its literal or grammatical sense but the ‘practice as it had developed historically in the country’. It
refers to the
social disabilities imposed on certain classes of persons by reason of their birth in certain castes.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
60 The term ‘State’ under Article 12 includes:

1. Government and Parliament of India
2. Municipalities and Panchayats
3. Any private agency working as an instrument of the State

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
39
The term ‘State’ has been used in different provisions concerning the
fundamental rights. Hence, Article 12 has defined the term for the purposes
of Part III. According to it, the State includes the following:
1. Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of the Union
government.
2. Government and legislature of states, that is, executive and legislative
organs of state government.
3. All local authorities, that is, municipalities, panchayats, district boards,
improvement trusts, etc.
4. All other authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory authorities like
LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc.
Thus, State has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its
agencies. It is the actions of these agencies that can be challenged in the
courts as violating the Fundamental Rights.
According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency
working as an instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the
‘State’ under Article 12.

1. The Muslim League boycotted the meeting of constituent assembly
2. Working of constitution assembly was started after India’s Independence.
3. Constituent assembly was a fully sovereign body, which could frame any Constitution it pleased.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
The Muslim League boycotted the meeting and insisted on a separate state of Pakistan. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
The meeting was thus attended by only 211 members. Dr Sachchidan-and Sinha, the oldest
40
member, was elected as the temporary President of the Assembly, following the French practice
The Indian Independence Act of 1947 made the following three changes in the position of the
Assembly:
The Assembly was made a fully sovereign body, which could frame any Constitution it
pleased. The act empowered the Assembly to abrogate or alter any law made by the British
Parliament in relation to India. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

1. Right to strike is a fundamental right
2. Right to freedom of movement entitles every citizen to move freely throughout the territory of the
country without any restrictions
3. All citizens are given the right to practise any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or
business

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Right to strike is not a fundamental right. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
This freedom entitles every citizen to move freely throughout the territory of
the country. The grounds of imposing reasonable restrictions on this freedom are two, namely, the
interests of general public and the protection of interests of any scheduled tribe. The entry of
outsiders in tribal areas is restricted to protect the distinctive culture, language, customs
and manners of scheduled tribes and to safeguard their traditional vocation and
properties against exploitation. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
All citizens are given the right to practise any profession or to carry on
any occupation, trade or business. This right is very wide as it covers all the means of earning
one’s livelihood. Hence statement 3 is correct.

1. 44th constitutional amendment added three new words—socialist, secular and integrity to preamble
2. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the Objectives Resolution.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
41
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Preamble has been amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which added
three new words—socialist, secular and integrity. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’, drafted and moved
by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. Hence statement 2 is correct
64 Consider the following statements.

1. A right is only possible when one can make a claim that is equally possible for others.
2. Rights not only indicate what the state must do, they also suggest what the state must refrain from
doing.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Rights are reasonable claims of persons recognised by society and sanctioned by law. However, in
most cases the claimed rights are directed towards the state. That is, through these rights people
make demands upon the state.
When I assert my right to education, I call upon the state to make provisions for my basic education.
Society may also accept the importance of education and contribute to it on its own.
Different groups may open schools and fund scholarships so that children of all classes can get the
benefit of education. But the primarily responsibility rests upon the state. It is the state that must
initiate necessary steps to ensure that my right to education is fulfilled.
If a right can be enjoyed only by an individual or a group of people, it is not a right, but a privilege.
Your freedom to drive a car on the street conjoins the freedom of other to drive on the same street.
Also, you cannot have a right that harms or hurts others. You cannot have a right to drive such a
way that it hurts others on the street.
42
My right to liberty as a person, for instance, suggests that the state can not simply arrest me at its
own will. If it wishes to put me behind bars it must defend that action; it must give reasons for
curtailing my liberty before a judicial court. This is why the police are required to produce an arrest
warrant before taking me away. My rights thus place certain constraints upon state actions.
65 Right to Equality in the Indian constitution does NOT include this right?
A. Equal access to shops, bathing ghats and hotels to citizens

B. Abolition of titles
C. Prohibition on discrimination on ground of religion
D. Rights of the accused and convicts
Correct Answer : D
Learning: Right to Equality includes the following laws:
Equality before law
Equal protection of laws
Prohibition on discrimination on ground of religion
Equal access to shops, bathing ghats, hotels etc.
Equality of opportunity in employment
Abolition of titles
Abolition of untouchability
66 Article 22 confers which of the following rights for a person who is arrested or detained?
1. Right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner
2. Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours, excluding the journey time
3. Right to be informed of the grounds of arrest.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 only
43
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
The Article 22 has two parts—the first part deals with the cases of ordinary law and the second part
deals with the cases of preventive detention law.
(a) The first part of Article 22 confers the following rights on a person who is arrested or detained
under an ordinary law:
(i) Right to be informed of the grounds of arrest.
(ii) Right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner.
(iii) Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours, excluding the journey time.
(iv) Right to be released after 24 hours unless the magistrate authorises further detention.
These safeguards are not available to an alien or a person arrested or detained under a preventive
detention law
67 Consider the following statements regarding Martial Law

1. It affects only Fundamental Rights
2. It has no specific provision in the Constitution
3. It is imposed in the whole country.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
44
68 Consider the following statements regarding Directive Principles of State policy

1. The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of
India Act of 1935.
2. The Directive Principles help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of
a law.
3. They aim at realising the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the
Preamble to the Constitution

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of
India Act of 1935. In the words of Dr B R Ambedkar, ‘the Directive
Principles are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to
the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act
of 1935.
The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature, that is, they are not legally enforceable by the
courts for their violation. Therefore, the government (Central, state and local) cannot be compelled
to implement them
45
The Directive Principles constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political programme
for a modern democratic State. They aim at realising the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and
fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution.
69 Which of the following is/are the socialist principles of Directive Principle of State Policy?
1. To make provision for just and humane conditions for work and maternity relief
2. To prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to health
3. To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health
4. To provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six
years

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : D
Socialistic Principles
These principles reflect the ideology of socialism. They lay down the framework of a democratic
socialist state, aim at providing social and economic justice, and set the path towards welfare state.
They direct the state:

1. To promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order permeated by justice—
social, economic and political—and to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and
opportunities4 (Article 38).
2. To secure (a) the right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens; (b) the equitable
distribution of material resources of the community for the common good; (c) prevention of
concentration of wealth and means of production; (d) equal pay for equal work for men and women;
(e) preservation of the health and strength of workers and children against forcible
abuse; and (f) opportunities for healthy development of children5 (Article 39).
3. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor6 (Article 39 A).
4. To secure the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old
age, sickness and disablement (Article 41).
5. To make provision for just and humane conditions for work and maternity relief (Article
42).
6. To secure a living wage7, a decent standard of life and social and cultural opportunities for all
workers (Article 43).
7. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43
A).
8. To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public
health (Article 47).
46
70 Which of the following directive principles of state policy was/were included by 42nd Amendment Act
of 1976?
1. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor
2. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life
3. To protect monuments, places and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of
national importance

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : D
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They
require the State:
1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
3. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article
43 A).
4. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article
48 A)
71 Which of these ideals or values can be found both in Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties?
1. Conservation of environment
2. Promoting harmony and the spirit of fraternity
3. Cherishing and upholding noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : A
Of the above, only environmental conservation and child education can be found in the
DPSP. So, all other than statement 1 are wrong.
According to Article 51 A, it shall be the duty of every citizen of India:
47
to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the
National Anthem;
to cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom;
to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;
to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India
transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce
practices derogatory to the dignity of women;
to value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture;
to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife
and to have compassion for living creatures;
to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
to safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the
nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement; and
to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen
years. This duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002
72 Which of the following directives is/are outside the Part IV of the Indian
Constitution?
1. Claims of SC and ST into public services
2. Instruction in mother tongue to linguistic minority children
3. Development of the Hindi Language

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
48
Correct Answer : D
Apart from the Directives included in Part IV, there are some other Directives
contained in other Parts of the Constitution. They are:
1. Claims of SCs and STs to Services: The claims of the members of the
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into
consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of
administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in
connection with the affairs of the Union or a State (Article 335 in Part
XVI).
2. Instruction in mother tongue: It shall be the endeavor of every state and

every local authority within the state to provide adequate facilities for
instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to
children belonging to linguistic minority groups (Article 350-A in Part
XVII).
3. Development of the Hindi Language: It shall be the duty of the Union to

promote the spread of the Hindi language and to develop it so that it may
serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite
culture of India (Article 351 in Part XVII)
73 Which of these bests characterizes a “nation-state”?

#00000
A. A nation with a large geographical expanse

B. Any political entity
C. A legal or political entity which is also a cultural and social entity
D. Any body that has a constitution governing it
Correct Answer : C
Nation-states can have small or large areas, small or large polities, or be fascists or democratic or
monarchical; there is no set-rule.
Even a political party of its affiliates are political entities. So, B is wrong.
A nation-state is a mix of several ethnicities.
49
A nation refers only to a socio-cultural entity, a union of people sharing who can identify
culturally and linguistically. This concept does not necessarily consider formal political
unions.
A state refers to a legal/political entity that is comprised of the following: a) a permanent

population; b) a defined territory; c) a government; and d) the capacity to enter into relations
with other states.
Combination of both is known as a nation-state.
Even political parties like INC have constitution, but they can’t be called as nation-state.

1. Constitutional amendment bill can be introduced by minister only.
2. If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the
legislatures of half of the states by a special majority
3. An amendment to Constitution can be initiated in Parliament only

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. None
Correct Answer : B
An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the
purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures. Hence Statement 3 is
correct.
The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require
prior permission of the president. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the
legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the
House present and voting. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
75 Which of the following is/are the components of basic structure of Constitution?

1. Secular character of the Constitution
2. Judicial review
3. Rule of Law
4. Principle of reasonableness
50

A. 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 3, and 4 only
Correct Answer : C
From the various judgements, the following have emerged as ‘basic features’ of the Constitution or
elements / components / ingredients of the ‘basic structure’ of the constitution:
1. Supremacy of the Constitution

2. Sovereign, democratic and republican nature of the Indian polity
3. Secular character of the Constitution
4. Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary
5. Federal character of the Constitution
6. Unity and integrity of the nation
7. Welfare state (socio-economic justice)
8. Judicial review
9. Freedom and dignity of the individual
10. Parliamentary system
11. Rule of law
12. Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
13. Principle of equality
14. Free and fair elections
15. Independence of Judiciary
16. Limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
17. Effective access to justice
18. Principle of reasonableness
19. Powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32, 136, 141 and 142
76 With reference to Oxytocin drug, consider the following statements:

1. It is included as a lifesaving drug in the National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM).
2. It is prescribed for induction of labour in women.
3. The health ministry had in April 2018 notified a ban on manufacturing of the drug by Karnataka
Antibiotics and Pharmaceuticals Ltd, a government company.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
51
Correct Answer : A
The health ministry had in April 2018 notified a ban on private drug manufacturers from producing
Oxytocin. The government had restricted its imports and decided to confine manufacturing
to Karnataka Antibiotics and Pharmaceuticals Ltd, a government company. Hence,
statement 3 is incorrect.
Manufacturers were of the view that availability will be severely hit if the government allows only
one manufacturer to make it. Oxytocin is included as a lifesaving drug in the National List of
Essential Medicines (NLEM). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Oxytocin, is a uterine stimulant hormone, prescribed for the initiation of uterine

contractions and induction of labour in women, as well as stimulation of contractions
during labour. It is also used to help abort the foetus in cases of incomplete abortion or
miscarriage, and to control bleeding after childbirth. It may be used for breast engorgement.
However, it is also used widely in the dairy industry, agriculture and horticulture to boost
production. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
https://www.livemint.com/news/india/sc-larger-bench-to-decide-over-restricting-manufacture-of-oxyt
ocin-to-single-psu-1566494130856.html
77 Consider the following pairs:

Robot in Space Country
1. FEDOR France
2. Robonaut 2 Canada
3. Kirobo China
Which of the above given pairs is/are correctly matched?

A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. None
Correct Answer : D
FEDOR or Feodor is a Russian humanoid robot that replicates movements of a remote operator
as well as performs a limited set of actions autonomously. Originally it was called Avatar and was
funded by Ministry of Emergency Situations for rescue operations but later its intended use was
expanded to space operations. Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.
https://www.cnet.com/news/iss-astronauts-reparked-a-spacecraft-so-fedor-the-creepy-robot-can-arriv
e/
52
Robonaut 2 (R2) was designed and developed by NASA and General Motors with assistance
from Oceaneering Space Systems engineers to accelerate development of the next
generation of robots and related technologies for use in the automotive and aerospace
industries. R2 is a state of the art highly dexterous anthropomorphic robot. Like its
predecessor Robonaut 1 (R1), R2 is capable of handling a wide range of EVA tools and interfaces,
but R2 is a significant advancement over its predecessor. R2 is capable of speeds more than four
times faster than R1, is more compact, is more dexterous, and includes a deeper and wider range of
sensing. Hence, pair 2 is incorrectly matched.
https://robonaut.jsc.nasa.gov/R2/
Kirobo is Japan's first robot astronaut, developed by University of Tokyo and Tomotaka
Takahashi, to accompany Koichi Wakata, the first Japanese commander of the International Space
Station. Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kirobo
78 With reference to the microplastics, consider the following statements:

1. They are less than 15 millimeters in length.
2. Microplastics can come in the form of microbeads, which are small, manufactured plastic beads
used in health and beauty products.
3. Recently, WHO looked into the specific impact of microplastics in tap and bottled water.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Plastic is the most prevalent type of marine debris found in our ocean and Great Lakes. Plastic
debris can come in all shapes and sizes, but those that are less than five millimeters in
length (or about the size of a sesame seed) are called “microplastics.” Hence, statement 1 is
incorrect.
Microplastics can come from a variety of sources including larger plastic pieces that have broken
apart, resin pellets used for plastic manufacturing, or in the form of microbeads, which are
small, manufactured plastic beads used in health and beauty products. Hence, statement 2
is correct.
https://oceanservice.noaa.gov/facts/microplastics.html
The World Health Organization (WHO) recently said the level of microplastics in drinking-water is
not yet dangerous for humans but called for more research into potential future risk.
53
In its first report into the effects of microplastics on human health, WHO looked into the specific
impact of microplastics in tap and bottled water.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/microplastics-in-drinking-water-not-a-health-risk-for-now
-who/article29218722.ece
79 With reference to the Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016, consider the following statements:
1. It aims to expand the jurisdiction of applicability of rules from the municipal area to rural areas.
2. It superseded the earlier Plastic Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Plastic has multiple uses and the physical and chemical properties lead to commercial success.
However, the indiscriminate disposal of plastic has become a major threat to the environment. In
particular, the plastic carry bags are the biggest contributors of littered waste and every year,
millions of plastic bags end up in to the environment vis-a-vis soil, water bodies, water courses, etc
and it takes an average of one thousand years to decompose completely. Therefore, to address the
issue of scientific plastic waste management, the Plastic Waste (Management and Handling)
Rules, 2011 were notified in 2011, which included plastic waste management. The
Government has notified the Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016, in suppression of the
earlier Plastic Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
The Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016 aim to expand the jurisdiction of applicability
from the municipal area to rural areas, because plastic has reached rural areas also. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
http://vikaspedia.in/energy/environment/waste-management/plastic-waste-management-rules-2016
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/dairy-co-ops-asked-to-halve-plastic-use/article29214098.ec
e
80 Which of the following committees was formed by the Reserve Bank Of India (RBI) to review the
Economic Capital Framework of the Central Bank ?
A. Vijay Kelkar Committee

B. Bimal Jalan Committee
C. Aravind Saxena Committee
54
D. Raghuram Rajan Committee
Correct Answer : B
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on August 27 released the report compiled by an expert
committee headed by Bimal Jalan, formed to review the Economic Capital Framework of the
Central Bank.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
https://www.rbi.org.in/Scripts/BS_PressReleaseDisplay.aspx?prid=47983
https://www.livemint.com/industry/banking/bimal-jalan-panel-recommends-review-of-rbi-s-capital-fra
mework-every-five-years-1566924592123.html
81 With reference to Global coal consumption, consider the following statements:

1. India is the world’s largest consumer of Coal, followed by china, Japan and South Korea.
2. Asia is the world’s largest producer and consumer of coal, accounting for 75 % of global demand.
3. South-East Asia was the only region in the world in which coal’s share of power generation grew
last year.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Renewable energy increased by over 25% in both India and China last year, which together
accounted for around half of the global growth in renewable energy.
Asia is the world’s largest producer and consumer of coal, accounting for 75 per cent of global
demand. Hence statement 2 is correct.
China is the world’s largest consumer, followed by India, Japan and South Korea. Hence statement
1 is incorrect.
South-East Asia was the only region in the world in which coal’s share of power generation grew
last year, according to the International Energy Agency (IEA). Hence statement 3 is correct
Global coal consumption peaked in 2013 at 3,867 billion tonnes of oil equivalent, but the 2019 BP
55
Statistical Review shows that demand last year had declined merely 2.5 per cent below the peak.
https://www.graphicnews.com/en/pages/39440/Asia_burns_most_coal
82 With reference to the M-Sand, consider the following statements:

1. Manufactured sand (M-Sand) is a substitute of river sand for concrete construction.
2. It does not contain organic and soluble compound that affects the setting time and properties of
cement.
3. It is manufactured using technology like High Carbon steel hit rock and then ROCK ON ROCK
process
4. The size of M-Sand is less than 4.75mm.

A. 1, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : D
In three months, Tamil Nadu government will put in place an M-sand policy that aims to promote
the use of M-sand as an alternative building material and eliminate the pervasion of sub-standard
products in the market through regulation of trade.
Manufactured sand (M-Sand) is a substitute of river sand for concrete construction. Manufactured
sand is produced from hard granite stone by crushing. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
It does not contain organic and soluble compound that affects the setting time and properties of
cement, thus the required strength of concrete can be maintained. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Manufactured sand is produced from hard granite stone by crushing. It is manufactured using
technology like High Carbon steel hit rock and then ROCK ON ROCK process which is synonymous
to that of natural process undergoing in river sand information. Hence statement 3 is correct.
The size of M-Sand is less than 4.75mm. Hence statement 4 is correct.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/policy-for-m-sand-to-be-put-in-place-soon/articl
e29185988.ece
https://theconstructor.org/building/manufactured-m-sand-concrete/8601/
83 Recently, NASA’s MMS finds its first Interplanetary Shock. In this context, consider the following
statements
1. NASA launched the Magnetospheric Multiscale (MMS) mission in 2017.
2. Interplanetary shocks are a type of collision less shock — ones where particles transfer energy
56
through electromagnetic fields instead of directly bouncing into one another.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
The Magnetospheric Multiscale Mission is a NASA robotic space mission to study the Earth's
magnetosphere, using four identical spacecraft flying in a tetrahedral formation.
The Magnetospheric Multiscale mission — MMS — has spent the past four years using high-
resolution instruments to see what no other spacecraft can. Recently, MMS made the first high-
resolution measurements of an interplanetary shock.
NASA launched the Magnetospheric Multiscale (MMS) mission in 2015. Hence statement
1 is incorrect.
Interplanetary shocks are a type of collisionless shock — ones where particles transfer energy
through electromagnetic fields instead of directly bouncing into one another. These collisionless
shocks are a phenomenon found throughout the universe, including in supernovae, black holes and
distant stars. Hence statement 2 is correct.
https://www.nasa.gov/feature/goddard/2019/nasa-s-mms-finds-first-interplanetary-shock
84 The Geographical Indication (GI) under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
has recently registered 4 new GIs, which of the following pairs are correctly matched.
1. Tawlhlohpuan: Assam.
2. Mizo Puanchei: Mizoram.
3. Tirur Betel leaf: Kerala.
4. Palani Panchamirtham: Tamil Nadu.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : C
57
Tawlhlohpuan is a medium to heavy, compactly woven, good quality fabric from Mizoram. It is
known for warp yarns, warping, weaving & intricate designs that are made by hand. Hence
Mizo Puanchei is a colourful Mizo shawl/textile, from Mizoram. It is an essential possession for
every Mizo lady and an important marriage outfit in the state. It is also the most commonly used
costume in Mizo festive dances. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Tirur betel vine from Kerala, which is mainly cultivated in Tirur, Tanur, Tirurangadi, Kuttippuram,
Malappuram and Vengara block panchayaths of Malappuram District, is valued both for its mild
stimulant action and medicinal properties. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Palani Panchamirtham, an abishega Prasadam, is one of the main offerings in the Abisegam of Lord
Dhandayuthapani Swamy, the presiding deity of Arulmigu Dhandayuthapaniswamy Temple, situated
in palani Hills in Dindigul District of Tamil Nadu. Hence statement 4 is correct.
https://pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1582173
85 Kondapalli toys are one of the most sold handicrafts in India and abroad, these are cultural icons of
A. Karnataka
B. Telangana
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Andhra Pradesh
Correct Answer : D
Kondapalli Toys are the toys made of wood in Kondapalli village of Krishna district,
Andhra Pradesh. Bommala Colony translates to Toys Colony in Kondapalli is the place where the
art of crafting takes place. It was registered as one of the geographical indication handicraft from
Andhra Pradesh as per Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/no-more-joy-for-those-who-make-these-thi
ngs-of-beauty/article29103600.ece
86 Recently scientists find new NAPRTI1 Gene linked to schizophrenia. In tjis context, consider the
following statements:
1. It is collaborative effort between Indian and USA.
2. It aims to shed more light on the mental illness.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
58
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Recently Scientists from the University of Queensland in Australia and a team of Indian researchers
searched the genomes of over 3,000 individuals and found those with schizophrenia were more
likely to have a particular genetic variation.
Collaborative effort between Indian and Australian team. After 18 years of research, Indian
and Australian scientists have identified a new gene directly linked to schizophrenia. Hence
It aims to shed more light on the mental illness and it aims to shed more light on what makes people
susceptible to schizophrenia and possible treatments for the future. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/scientists-find-new-gene-linked-to-schizophrenia/article2
8287292.ece
87 With reference to marine animal Dugong, consider the following statements:

1. It is classified as critically endangered.
2. These are largely dependent on sea grass communities for subsistence and is thus restricted to the
coastal habitats which support sea grass meadows.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
The Dugong is an herbivorous medium sized marine mammal that resembles the Manatees in bodily
characteristics. It belongs to the order Sirenia and can be found in areas that largely support the
growth of sea grass. It is the only living representative of the once-diverse family Dugongidae; its
closest modern relative, Steller's sea cow (Hydrodamalis gigas). Hence, statement 2 is correct
The IUCN lists this species of marine creature as a vulnerable species-high risk and endangered in
the wild. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/beloved-baby-dugong-mariam-dies-in-thailand-with-pl
59
astic-in-stomach/article29117620.ece
88 Utkarsh 2022 is often seen in the news, which is related to
A. Space technology
B. Military system
C. Governance system
D. Banking system
Correct Answer : D
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) board has finalized a three- year roadmap to improve regulation
and supervision, among other functions of the central bank. It is a three-year road map for medium
term objective to be achieved for improving regulation, supervision of the central bank
Utkarsh 2022 is a medium term strategy in line with the global central banks’ plan to
strengthen the regulatory and supervisory mechanism. Hence, option (d) is correct.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/rbi-board-finalises-utkarsh-2022/article28323698.ece
89 With reference to the Water Stress Index, consider the following statements:
1. The sub-national Water Stress Index is formulated by London-based risk analytics firm Verisk
Maplecroft.
2. The study says Chennai is the tip of the iceberg for India’s water stressed cities.
3. It lists India as the 55th highest risk country in the world.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
The sub-national Water Stress Index, formulated by London-based risk analytics firm Verisk
Maplecroft. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The study says Chennai is the tip of the iceberg for India’s water stressed cities. According to the
report, “The average population growth rate among the 11 extreme risk cities is 49%; more than
127 million people will call them home by 2035.” Hence, statement 2 is correct.
60
It lists India as the 46th highest risk country in the world. What’s more worrying is that 11 of India’s
20 largest cities face an ‘extreme risk’ of water stress and seven are in the ‘high risk’ category.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/mumbai/indias-large-cities-staring-at-water-crisis/article2876
4312.ece
90 With reference to the Sanchi Stupa, consider the following statements:

1. Sanchi is regarded as one of the first monastic stupas.
2. The Sanchi Stupa is one of India’s primary Buddhist sites and contains some of the oldest stone
structures in the country.
3. Buddha had visited Sanchi twice.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
The Sanchi Stupa is one of India’s primary Buddhist sites and contains some of the oldest stone
structures in the country. It took seven years of dedicated excavation and restoration by the
Archaeological Survey of India (ASI). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Stupas are semi-spherical domes with square bases that contain small receptacles for relics. There
is generally a path for circumambulation around the outer structure of the stupa. They were initially
built outside monasteries by pilgrims. Sanchi is regarded as one of the first monastic stupas.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Buddha never visited Sanchi. Neither did foreign travellers like Hiuen Tsang, who extensively
documented the holy Buddhist circuit in India, but did not mention Sanchi in his writings. Hence,
https://indianexpress.com/article/parenting/events-things-to-do/know-your-monument-sanchi-stupas-
contribution-to-indian-architecture-5862460/
91 With reference to the Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) Scheme, consider the following statements:
1. The NBS Scheme for fertilizer was initiated in the year 2015.
2. Under the scheme, a fixed amount of subsidy decided on an annual basis is provided on each grade
of subsidized Phosphatic and Potassic (P&K) fertilizers
3. In India, urea is the only controlled fertilizer and is sold at a statutory notified uniform sale price.
61
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has approved the proposal of the Department
of Fertilizers for fixation of Nutrient Based Subsidy Rates for P&K Fertilizers for the year
2019-20. The NBS Scheme for fertilizer was initiated in the year 2010 and is being
implemented by the Department of Fertilizers. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Under the scheme, a fixed amount of subsidy, decided on an annual basis, is provided on each grade
of subsidised phosphatic and potassic (P&K) fertilizers, except for urea, based on the nutrient
content present in them. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
In India, urea is the only controlled fertilizer and is sold at a statutory notified uniform sale price.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
https://www.business-standard.com/article/economy-policy/govt-hikes-subsidy-for-non-urea-fertiliser
s-to-cost-rs-22-875-cr-in-fy20-119073100922_1.html
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1580828
92 With reference to SANKALP Scheme, consider the following statements:

1. SANKALP is an outcome-oriented centrally sponsored programme of Ministry of Skill Development
& Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
2. The project is implemented with the support of International Monetary Fund in line with the
objectives of National Skills Development Mission (NSDM).
3. It focuses on the overall skilling ecosystem covering both Central & State agencies.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
SANKALP is an outcome-oriented centrally sponsored programme of Ministry of Skill Development

& Entrepreneurship (MSDE) with a special focus on decentralized planning and quality
improvement. It focuses on the overall skilling ecosystem covering both Central & State agencies.
62
Hence, both statement 1 and 3 are correct.
The project is implemented with the support of World Bank monetarily in line with the objectives
of National Skills Development Mission (NSDM). Hence, statement 2 incorrect.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1581204
https://www.business-standard.com/article/pti-stories/skill-development-minister-reviews-sankalp-pr
ogramme-119080201586_1.html
93 Which of the followings consumer rights is/are introduced under the Consumer Protection Bill, 2019?
1. Right to file a complaint from anywhere
2. Right to seek compensation under product liability
3. Right to protect consumers as a class
4. Right to seek a hearing through video conferencing
5. Right to know why a complaint was rejected
Select the correct answer from the codes given below

A. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
B. 1, 3, and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct Answer : D
Recently Parliament gave its nod to the landmark Consumer Protection Bill, 2019 which aims to
protect the rights of consumers by establishing authorities for timely and effective administration
and settlement of consumers’ dispute.
According to bill consumer gets five new rights
RIGHT TO FILE A COMPLAINT FROM ANYWHERE
RIGHT TO SEEK COMPENSATION UNDER PRODUCT LIABILITY
RIGHT TO PROTECT CONSUMERS AS A CLASS
RIGHT TO SEEK A HEARING THROUGH VIDEO CONFERENCING
RIGHT TO KNOW WHY A COMPLAINT WAS REJECTED
63
Hence, option (d) is correct.
https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=192499
https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/business/india-business/five-new-rights-you-now-get-as-a-consu
mer/articleshow/70563636.cms
94 The e-version of Rozgar Samachar has been launched by
A. NITI Aayog
B. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
C. Ministry of Labour and Employment
D. Ministry of Information & Broadcasting
Correct Answer : D
The e-version of Rozgar Samachar has been launched recently by Union Ministry of
Information & Broadcasting. It has been launched with a view to make aspirants aware of job
opportunities in government sector including public sector enterprises. It will also provide
information and guidance about admission and career opportunities in various streams through
career-oriented articles by experts. Hence, option (d) is correct.
95 The "Shillong Declaration" is recently in news, which is related to
A. Flood management
B. Waste management
C. Vulnerable sections
D. E-governance
Correct Answer : D
The 22nd national conference on e-governance adopted the 'Shillong Declaration'. The
declaration has outlined the future trajectory that would be taken in terms of e-governance with a
focus on improving connectivity in Northeast. The Shillong Declaration was adopted so that the
important ideas that emerged during the sessions of the conference may be referred to and
developed in the future. Hence, option (d) is correct.
http://www.theshillongtimes.com/2019/08/10/shillong-declaration-to-address-plight-of-citizens/
64
96 In which of the following countries does Rooppur Nuclear Project is being constructed?
A. India
B. Myanmar
C. Bangladesh
D. Nepal
Correct Answer : C
Rooppur Nuclear Power Plant is an under-construction 2.4 GWe nuclear power plant in
Bangladesh. The Rooppur project is the first initiative under an Indo-Russian deal to undertake
atomic energy projects in third countries.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
http://www.newsonair.com/Main-News-Details.aspx?id=369741
97 With reference to the Defence Planning Committee, consider the following statements:
1. It is chaired by the Ministry of Defence.
2. It is mandated to prepare a draft National Security Strategy.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
The Defence Planning Committee is a senior decision-making mechanism created in April 2018
by the Central Government of India to facilitate "comprehensive" planning for the defence forces
besides focusing on military doctrines to deal with emerging security challenges for India.
According to the notification issued by Indian Government the DPC will have several mandates
namely to
1. Prepare a draft National Security Strategy. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
2. Develop a capability development plan
65
3. Work on defence diplomacy issues
4. Improving defence manufacturing ecosystem in India.
DPC would also analyse all inputs relating to the defence planning and foreign policy imperatives.
The committee would focus on the defence acquisition and infrastructure development plans
including the 15 year long integrated perspective plan. The committee will work for the
development of Indian defence industry and technology advancements.
DPC is chaired by the National Security Advisor of India and the Chief of Integrated Staff in
the Ministry of Defence will be the member secretary of DPC, and his headquarters will be the
secretariat for the committee. The DPC will submit its reports to the Defence Minister of India.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/cabinet-secretariat-raps-mod-mea-fo
r-not-involving-nsa/articleshow/70776972.cms
98 Recently, world's largest solar park of 2,000 MW named as 'Shakti Sthala' had been set up at:
A. Karnataka
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Telangana
D. Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer : A
Pavagada Solar Park is a solar park spread over a total area of 13,000 acres (53 km2) in Pavagada
taluk, Tumkur district, Karnataka. 600 MW of power was commissioned by 31 January 2018.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
https://www.livemint.com/Industry/uJx6eSuVGTwZa6Y2aE5W7I/Worlds-largest-solar-park-Shakti-St
hala-inaugurated-in-Karn.html
99 With reference to Maharshi Badrayan Vyas Samman, consider the following statements:
1. The award introduced in the year 2002, is given to selected young scholars in the age group of 40 to
50 years.
2. The Presidential award carries a certificate of honour, a memento and a onetime cash prize of Rs.1
lakh.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
66
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
The Maharshi Badrayan Vyas Samman distinction is conferred on persons once a year on the
Independence Day (15 August) in recognition of their substantial contribution in the field of
Sanskrit, Persian, Arabic, Pali, Prakrit, Classical Oriya, Classical Kannada, Classical Telugu and
Classical Malayalam.
The award introduced in the year 2002, is given to selected young scholars in the age group of 30 to
45 years. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The Presidential award carries a certificate of honour, a memento and a one-time cash prize of Rs.1
lakh. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maharshi_Badrayan_Vyas_Samman
100 Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Swatantrata Sainik Samman Yojana
(SSSY).
1. The scheme provides for a yearly Samman Pension to freedom fighters, as a token of respect for
their contribution in the national freedom struggle.
2. It is implemented by Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
The key objective of Swatantra Sainik Samman Pension Scheme is to provide pension to freedom
fighters & their eligible dependents in India.
The objective of the pension under the Swatantra Sainik Samman Pension Scheme of 1972 is not to
“reward” patriotic men and women who threw their lives into the Freedom Movement, but to
honour them and mitigate their suffering.
The scheme provides for a monthly Samman Pension to freedom fighters, as a token of respect for
67
their contribution in the national freedom struggle. It is implemented by Ministry of Home Affairs
(Freedom Fighters Division). Hence, both statements 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/supreme-court-slams-government-for-denying-pension-to-f
reedom-fighter/article29253963.ece
68

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Online Prelims TEST - 7 (SUBJECT WISE)

( InsightsIAS Mock Test Series for UPSC Preliminary Exam 2020 )

1 Consider the following statements regarding Charter Act, 1833

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Features of Charter Act of 1833:

2 Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Both the statements are correct.

3 Consider the following statements regarding Indian Councils Act, 1861

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

It initiated the process of decentralisation by restoring the legislative powers to the

4 Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Both the statements are correct.

5 Consider the following statements regarding Government of India Act of 1919

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

All the statements are correct.

Features of Government of India Act of 1919

6 Which of the following was/were the recommendations of Simon Commission?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The commission submitted its report in 1930 and recommended

The abolition of dyarchy, Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

extension of responsible government in the provinces,

Establishment of a federation of British India. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Princely states, continuation of communal electorate and so on. Hence Statement 1 is

7 The notion of ‘Freedom’, in a society, implies

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Hence Statement 2 is incorrect and all other statements are correct.

Which of the above is/are correct?

9 Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Both the statements are incorrect.

10 Consider the following statements regarding Government of India Act of 1935.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and

11 Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Hence Statement 2 is correct.

12 Consider the following statements regarding Indian Independence Act of 1947.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

All the statements given above are correct.

Features of Indian Independence Act of 1947

13 Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

14 Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

All the statements given above are INCORRECT.

15 Consider the following statements regarding the composition of Constituent assembly.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

1. It adopted the national flag on July 22, 1947

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

All the statements given above are correct.

Other Functions Performed

1. It ratified the India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949.

17 Consider the following pairs

18 Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

19 Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Both the statements are correct.

20 Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?