Arusha Mock F4 - 2018 - All Exam PDF

President’s Office
REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL

GOVERNMENT
ARUSHA REGION MOCK EXAMINATIONS
FORM FOUR MOCK EXAMINATIONS – MAY, 2018
BASIC MATHEMATICS
CODE NO. 041 T IME: 3.00hours
TUESDAY 22nd May, 2018 8.00-11.00 a.m
INSTRUCTIONS:
(i) This paper consists of Two Sections A and B.

(ii) Answer ALL questions in section A and any
FOUR (4) questions from section B.
(iii) All work should be shown clearly on each
question.
(iv) Calculators and Cellular phones are not
allowed in the Examination room.
(v) Mathematical tables may be used.
(vi) Write your Examination number on every
page of your answer booklet(s).
This paper consists of 10 printed pages
1
SECTION A: (60 marks)
Answer ALL questions from this section
1. (a) From the set of the numbers

{1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 10, 15, 17, 21, 27} write
down;
(i) The prime numbers
(ii) The multiples of 3
(iii) The factors of 60
(b) Four wooden rods with length of 70cm,
119cm, 84cm and 105cm are cut into pieces of
the same length. Find the greatest possible
length of these pieces if no wood is left over.
2. (a) Without using mathematical tables evaluate
(0.0004)2 𝑥 √30000 𝑥 √0.0003

3
√0.000064
Write your answer in standard form.
75 5
(b) Evaluate log10 (100) ― 2log10 (9) +
100
log10 (243)
3. (a) In a survey at airport, 55 travelers said that

2
last year had been to Spain, 53 to France and 79
to Germany. 18 had been to Spain and France,
17 to Spain and German and 25 to France and
Germany while 10 had been to all three countries.
Use Venn diagram to find the number of travelers
took part in the survey.
3 𝑥 5𝑥 7
(b) Solve the inequality ― ≤ ―
4 2 6 12
4. (a) Given that 𝑢 = 𝑖 + 3j and 𝑣 = 2𝑖 - j.
Find the magnitude and direction of vector 𝑤

given that
𝑤 = 3𝑢 + 2𝑣
(b) Find the equation of the line through the

point (4, 3) and perpendicular to the line
4x + y ― 10 = 0
5. (a) Find the difference between x and 80% of x
if x = 950.
(b) The length of the diagonals of a rhombus are
15cm and 18cm. Find its area.
3
1 2
(c) Given that (𝑎 + ) = 14. Find the value of
𝑎
1
a2 + 𝑎2
6. (a) If X varies directly as Y and inversely as W,

find the value X if Y is 8 and W is 2.
(b) (i) Find M if ( 1 * 3) * M = 18 given that
a * b = a2 + b
(ii) A map is drawn on a scale of 1:25000 the
length of a river on a map is 200cm. What is
the actual length of the river in km?
7. (a) Sagani invested a certain amount of money in
NMB Bank whose interest rate was 10%
compound annually. After three years he got
Tshs.13,310,000/=. How much did he invest
initially?
(b) A student loses 12% by selling a book for
Tshs. 3410/=. Find the cost of the book.
8. (a) In an arithmetic progression the third term is
15 and the sixth term is 30. Find the sum of the
first ten terms of this Arithmetic Progression.
4
(b) 1n geometric progression the fourth term is
32 and the sixth term is 128. Find the ninenth term.
9. (a) Musa walks 1km up the side of the hill. If he

has climbed a vertical distance of 600m, find the
horizontal distance trough which has travelled.
(b) Angle A is acute and if tan A = 2.4, find in
simplified form of 𝑎⁄𝑏 the value of

2 cos 𝐴 + sin 𝐴
sin 𝐴 − cos 𝐴
10. (a) Solve x2 ― 3x ― 10 = 0 by using quadratic

formula.
(b) A rectangular sports ground is 100 metres
wide and 120 metres long. What length should
be added to the shorter side and reduced from the
longer side to make a rectangular sports ground
with an area of 10,500 square metres?
SECTION B: (40 marks)

Answer any four (4) questions from this section
5
11. The manager of butcher goes to the market to buy
cows and goats. He has capital of
Tshs.2,000,000/= but he has a space of only 40
animals. The average market price of a cow is
Tshs.80,000/= each and for goat is
Tshs.20,000/= each. If the profit per cow is Tshs.
10,000/= and per goat is Tshs.3,000/=
(a) How many cows and goats must he buy to get
a maximum profit?
(b) Using (a) above find the maximum profit.
12. The masses of 40 students joined Form Five 2017

Togolani Secondary school in Tanga were
recorded as follows:-
60 64 63 67 66 68 59 58 59 60
64 66 65 60 73 70 63 69 70 60
66 70 74 69 63 69 59 65 64 65
73 61 62 64 61 61 62 63 68 73
From the data above
6
(a) Construct the frequency distribution table
(b) Calculate :
(i) Mean (iii) Mode
(ii) Median (iv) Modal class
(c) Draw a cumulative frequency curve.
13. (a) The figure below represents a regular
pyramid with rectangular base LMNO and vertex
P. Each slanting edge is 26cm long.
P
26cm
O N
12cm
L 16cm M
(i) Find the angle PMN makes with base
LMNO.
(ii) Calculate the volume of the pyramid.
(b) In the figure below PQRS in a cyclic

quadrilateral inscribed in a circle centred O.
Show that opposite angles of a cyclic
7
quadrilateral are supplementary.
P
bb
b
Q
a S
y
R
14. Use the following Trial Balance to prepare an

annual Trading and Profit and Loss Account for
Mr. Magadula Trading Company.
TRIAL BALANCE
Account Dr . Cr.
Name
Cash 2,805,000
8
Capital 3,574,000
Purchases 3,155,000
Rent 295,000
Furniture 401,000
Shelves 375,000
Sales 3,912,000
Salary 265,000
wages 190,000
7,486,000 7,486,000
NB: Closing stock as at 31st December, 2015 was

250,000/=
15. (a) Find the image of the point (3, 6) when
rotated through 180° and then followed by the
reflection in the line y + x = 0
6 2t
(b) Find t given that A = ( ) and |𝐴| = -50
t 0
(c) Solve the following system of simultaneous
equations by matrix method.
3𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 1
{
5𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 3
16. (a) A function is defined by
9
𝑥 − 2 𝑖𝑓 𝑥 ≤ 1
g(x) = { 1 𝑖𝑓 − 1 < 𝑥 ≤ 3
𝑥 2 − 4 𝑖𝑓 𝑥 > 3
(i) Sketch the graph of g(x)
(ii) State the domain and range of g(x)
(iii) Find g(5) and g(6)
(b) (i) The probability that Kitomari will pass a
Mathematics examination is 0.3 and his
probability to pass Kiswahili examination
is 0.6. Find the probability of Kitomari to
pass Kiswahili but not Mathematics.
(ii) A bag contains three red balls and two
yellow balls. A ball is drawn at random without being
replaced and then the second ball is drawn. Find the
probability that at most one ball is red.
*** All the Best ***
10

GOVERNMENT
BIOLOGY
CODE NO. 033 T IME: 3.00 hours
THURSDAY 24th May, 2018 8.00-11.00 a.m
INSTRUCTIONS:
(vii) This paper consists of Sections A , B and C.

(viii) Answer ALL questions in section A and B and ONE
(1) question from section C.
(ix) Except for diagram that must be drawn in pencil,
ALL writings should be in blue/black ink.
(x) Calculators, Cellular phones are not allowed in
the Examination room.
(xi) Write your Examination number on every page of
your answer booklet(s).
1
Answer all questions in this section
17. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer
among the given alternatives and write its letter besides
the item number in your answer booklets.
(i) The number of chromosomes in a fertilized egg in
man that will grow into a male child is
A. 22 pairs + XX D. 22 pairs + X
B. 22 pairs + XXY E. 46 pairs
C. 22 pairs + XY
(ii) A person picks up a telephone after hearing it
ringing. Which characteristics of living things is
the person showing by this action?
A. Response and irritability
B. Irritability and movement
C. Excretion and growth
D. Respiration and nutrition
E. Reproduction and irritability
(iii) The periodic shedding of exoskeleton by insects is
called:
A. Moulting D. Metamorphosis
B. Instars E. Ecdysone
C. Differentiation
2
(iv) In a motor accident the bus driver found that he
could hardly maintain his body equilibrium.
Which of the following structure was damaged?
A. Semi circular canals D. The Cochlea
B. The medulla oblongata E. The pinna
C. The cerebellum
(v) Bleeding gums is a symptoms which can be
shown by a person suffering from:
A. Rickets D. Pellagra
B. Beriberi E. Night blindness
C. Scurvy
(vi) In plant cell the light reaction of photosynthesis
takes place in the :
A. Mitochondria
B. Cytosol
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Chloroplast
E. Nucleus
(vii) The scientific process in Biology which comes
before hypothesis formulation is:
A. Data recording
B. Experimentation
C. Interpretation of data
D. Identification of a problem
E. Formulating theory
3
(viii) The offspring of a cross between red flowered and
white flowered plants were always found to be
pink. This is an example of:-
A. Co-dominance D. Natural selection
B. Crossing over E. Back cross
C. Incomplete dominance
(ix) If the eye piece value of a microscope is X5 and the
total magnification is X200. Then the objective
value is:
A. X1000 D. X40
B. X205 E. X20
C. X195
(x) Which part of a seeds grows into the shoot system
of a plant:
A. Radicle D. Testa
B. Micropyle E. Plumule
C. Cotyledon
18. Match the responses in LIST B with the phrases in LIST
A by writing the letter of the correct response from
List B besides the item number of list A:
LIST A LIST B
(i) Animals with hooks and sucker A. Chordate
with flattened body
4
(ii) Maintenance of constant internal B. Arachnida
environment
(iii) A flying mammal C. Diabetes mellitus
(iv) Deamination of Amino acids D. Glomerulus
(v) Group of Organisms with dorsal E. An ostrich
notochord and tubular nerve cord
(vi) Blood capillaries within the F. Bat
Bowman’s Capsule
(vii) A class where earthworm belong G. Millipede
(viii) Sugar in Urine H. Centipede
(ix) A herbivorous arthropod with two I. Liver
pairs of legs per segment
(x) Functional unit of the kidney J. Nephion
K. Kidney
L. Homeostasis
M. Regulation
N. Mammalian
O. Tape worm
P. Polychaeta
Q. Oligochaeta

Answer ALL questions
19. (a) What is photolysis of water?.

(b) Study the following diagram of a leaf.
5
A B C D
(i) Name the part labeled A, B, C and D.

(ii) With two (2) reasons, state whether the leaf
above is a dicoty or monocot.
(c) How the leaf is adopted to carry photosynthesis. (4
points)
20. (a) Mention three ways in which mitosis is important
in Living things.
(b) (i) What is family planning.
(ii) Explain four (4) problems associated with
early pregnancy.
21. (a) Define the following terms:
(i) Gene (ii) Phenotype (iii) Genotype
(b) In a breeding experiment with maize seeds, white
colour was expressed in a heterozygous state while
yellow was expressed in a homozygous state only.
6
Using letters W for white and w for yellow colours
respectively.
(i) What would be the genotype and
phenotypes of offspring if a heterozygous
white seeded plant was crossed to a yellow
seeded plant? Show by genetic cross.
(ii) Write down parent genotypes that would be
crossed to give offsprings that were; all
white, all yellow, and all heterozygous white.
22. (a) For each of the following biological substance give
its name and state its functions.
(i) Green pigment in flowering plants.
(ii) Jelly-like fluid in the inner chamber of the
eye.
(iii) Red pigment in blood of the mammals.
(iv) Green liquid required bit by bit into the
duodenum.
(b) What do you understand by the following terms?
(i) Niche (iii) Community
(ii) Habitat (iv) Population
23. (a) Differentiate a zygote and an embryo.

(b) Name the hormone in human body which:
7
(i) Secreted during birth to initiate labour.
(ii) Stimulate milk production.
(iii) Maintain thickness of uterine wall during
pregnancy.
(c) Mention the important product or main product
formed when :
(i) Plants undergo anaerobic respiration
(fermentation)
(ii) Living organisms respire aerobically.
24. (a) Give two reasons why biologist classify

Organisms.
(b) The following Organisms belongs to the phylum
Arthropoda; mosquitoes, scorpion, grasshopper,
crab, millipede, termite, beetle, spider, butterfly,
ticks, centipede, prawn, cockroach, moth and
housefly. This phylum is further divided into five
(5) classes.
(i) Group the Organism according to their
respective classes.
(ii) Write down two characteristics that all
arthropods have in common.
8
25. The diagram below represents a human hind limb and
some associated structures. Study it and answer the
question that follows.
A E
(a) Name parts labeled A, B, C and D.
(b) What is the function of each part labeled B, D and
E.
(c) Name two parts of the body where this joint is
found.
(d) To what extent (degree) this joint moves.
(e) Give the type of this joint.
26. (a) State the Larmakian Theory of “Use and disuse”.
(b) Give another name of:-
9
(i) Motor Neurone
(ii) Relay Neurone
(iii) Ant diuretic hormone
(c) Explain why frogs die when placed in a well
ventilated container with small amount of water.
(d) Name the chemical substance which aid (help) the
passage of nerve impulse across a synapse.
SECTION C: (20 marks)
Answer only ONE (1) question from this section
27. Write an essay under the following guidelines:
(a) What is balanced diet?
(b) State the constituent of balanced diet and their
functions.
(c) What cause malnutrition.
(d) Mention any three disorder caused by
malnutrition and the main food deficiency
associated with each disorder.
10
(e) State the symptoms of each and methods of
control of such disorders.
28. (a) With an example in each case, define the following
terms:-
(i) Epidemic
(ii) Endemic
(iii) Pandemic diseases
(b) Write short notes on malaria disease under the
following guidelines:
(i) Causes
(ii) Vector organism
(iii) Symptoms
(iv) Preventive measures
29. Citing an example in each case write an essay on
the ways in which insects are both beneficial and
harmful to human.
11

GOVERNMENT

FORM FOUR MOCK EXAMINATION – MAY, 2018
ChemIstry
THURSDAY, 24th May, 2018 2.00-5.00 p.m.
INSTRUCTIONS:
(xii) This paper consists of Sections A, B and C.

(xiii) Answer ALL questions in ALL sections.
(xiv) Cellular phones and Calculators are not allowed in
(xv) Write your Examination number on every page of
your booklet(s).
(xvi) The following constants may be used:
 Atomic masses: H = 1, C = 12, Na = 23, S
= 3, Ca = 40, Mg = 24, Pb = 207, Al = 27, Cl =
35.5
 G.M.V. = 22.4dm3
 Avogadro’s constant = 6.02 x 1023
 1F = 96500 C
 1 L = 1dm3 = 1000cm3
1
SECTION A:
30. For each of the following items (i) – (x) choose the correct
answer from the given alternatives and write its answer
in the answer sheet provided.
(xi) Domestic utensils do rust as a result of the
presence of:
D. Air and fire D. Oil and fire

E. Air and water E. Air and oil
F. Water and oil
(xii) The discharge of cations during electrolysis is:-
F. Oxidation D. Electro coating

G. Reduction E. Sacrificial
H. Catalytic reaction
(xiii) A mixture of 50cm3 of ethanol and 50cm3 of water
can be separated by:
D. Solvent extraction D. Filtration
E. Fractional distillation E. Decantation
F. Simple distillation
(xiv) If 0.9g of Calcium metal is burnt in air, the mass

of powder formed is:
D. 1.14g D. 1.08g
2
E. 1.18 g E. 1.26g
F. 1.12g
(xv) A certain liquid has a pH of 9. This shows that it
is an::
D. Oxide D. Alkali
E. Acid E. Amine
F. Indicator
(xvi) When methane is completely burnt in Oxygen,
the products will:-
F. Carbon, Carbon monoxide and water vapour
G. Hydrogen, carbon dioxide and water vapour
H. Carbon monoxide and water vapour
I. Oxygen, Carbon dioxide and water vapour
J. Oxygen, Carbondioxide and water vapour
(xvii) Which of the following is true about ionic

compounds?
F. They are easily vapourized
G. They are easily dissolved in organic solvents
H. They are electrically neutral
I. They are poor conductors of electricity
J. They form covalent bonds with transition
cations
3
(xviii) Which of the following is not true about
hydrogen gas?
D. Is a reducing agent
E. Is a neutral gas, almost insoluble in water
F. Burns in air to form steam
G. Diffuses more rapidly than carbon dioxide
H. Is prepared by action of dilute nitric acid on
Zinc metal
(xix) Insoluble salts like barium sulphate, generally
can be obtained in the laboratory by:
A. Evaporation of its concentrated solution
B. Crystallization
C. Precipitation
D. Decomposition
E. Decrepitation
(xx) Which of the following is not among the
instruments and chemicals used for First Aid?
A. Pair of scissors
B. Assorted bandages
C. Sterilized cotton wool
D. Mosquito spray
E. Iodine tincture
4
31. Match the items in LIST A with the response in LIST
B by writing the letter of the correct responses besides
item number in answer sheet provided.
LIST A LIST B
(i) Burns in air with a persistent A. Zinc, Lead, Copper
golden yellow flame and Iron
(ii) Atoms of the same element B. Atomic number
that contain different number
of neutrons
(iii) Forms lather evenly with soap C. Electron
(iv) The number of unpaired D. Radical
electrons on an atom
(v) Sub atomic particle with no E. Metalloids
charge
(vi) The number of protons found F. Mass number
in the nucleus of an atom
(vii) Display both metallic and non- G. Iron test
metallic characteristics
(viii) Brown ring test H. Confirmatory test
for Nitrates
(ix) Their carbonates decomposes I. Mg, Al, Zn and Pb
readily when heated to give
5
metal oxides and carbon
dioxide
(x) Forms basic oxides J. Valence
K. Allotropes
L. Isotopes
M. Hard water
N. Soft water
O. Sodium
P. Neutron
Q. Magnesium
R. Oxygen
S. Electron
SECTION B: (54 Marks)
Answer ALL questions in this section
32. The table below shows a part of periodic table with

atomic numbers from 3 to 18. Some elements are
shown by letters but the letters are not the real
symbols of the elements, study it and then answer the
questions that follow.
6
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
K L M
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 (b)
N O P Q
(a) Among the elements lettered K to Q, which one
(i) Is a halogen?
(ii) Is a noble gas
(b) Give the formula of the following:
(i) Hydride of P (ii) Oxide of O.

(c) Indicate whether the bonding in the Oxide O and
P will be ionic or covalent? Give reasons for your
answer.
33. (a) A Commercial Sulphuric acid usually labeled as
98% of the acid by weight and having the density of
1.84g/cm3.
(i) Calculate the molarity of this industrial
acid.
(ii) What volume of this acid that will be
required to prepare 2dm3 of 0.5M
Sulphuric acid?
(b) Name the indicator you would choose for the
following titrations:
(i) Hydrochloric acid versus ammonia
solution.
7
(ii) Acetic acid versus sodium hydroxide.
34. (a) Distinguish the following:
(i) Equilibrium reaction from reversible
reaction.
(ii) Endothermic reaction from exothermic
reaction.
(b) The following equation shows reaction between
hydrogen and iodine gases to form hydrogen
iodide gas.
H2 + I2 ⇌ 2HI + Heat
Explain what happens to the position of
equilibrium if:-
(i) The temperature is increased?
(ii) The pressure is lowered?
(iii) Hydrogen iodide is pumped into the system.
35. The diagrams below represent common methods of
collecting the gases in the laboratory.
Method A Method B Method C

8
(a) Identify the methods A, B and C
(b) Which method is used in the laboratories to
prepare the following gas:
(i) Ammonia
(ii) Chlorine
(iii) Hydrogen
(c) State whether each of the following processes
involves a chemical or physical change.
(i) Paper burning
(ii) Glass breaking
(iii) Changing liquid to solid
(iv) Rusting of iron
36. (a) Differentiate empirical formula from molecular
formula.
(b) Calculate the percentage composition by mass of
water in hydrated magnesium chloride, MgCl2.6H2O.
(c) Calculate the empirical formula for a compound
with the following composition.
Lead 8.32g, Sulphur 1.28g and Oxygen 2.56g.
37. (a) Define the term class C – fire.
(b) (i)Name one combustible material in class - C fire.
(ii) Why is water not used to put off oil fires?
(iii) Your friends clothes have caught fire. In
9
order to extinguish the fire you have decided
to use damp blanket to cover her. What is
the function of a damp blanket?
(c) (i) Is air a compound or a mixture? Give four
points to support your answer.
(ii) Name components of the fire triangle.
SECTION C: (26 Marks)

38. (a) Define the following items.
(i) Electrolysis
(ii) Electroplating
(b) State the laws of electrolysis.
(c) 0.2F of electricity is passed through a solution of
Copper II Sulphate. Calculate the mass of copper
deposited and the volume of Oxygen gas produced at
S.T.P.
39. (a) Balance the following equations:

(i) Ca + H3PO4 Ca3(PO4)2 + H2
(ii) Cu + HNO3 Cu(NO3)2 + NO2 + H2O
(iii) SnCl2 + FeCl3 SnCl4 + FeCl2
10
(b) With the equation where necessary what will
happen when:
(i) Iron II chloride is introduced into a gas jar
containing chlorine gas.
(ii) A burning splint is introduced into a gas
jar containing hydrogen.
(iii) A gas containing ammonia gas is left open
near the reagent bottle hydrogen chloride
gas.
40. (a) Describe the extraction of Sodium from its ore and
write all the reaction equations.
(b) State four (4) uses of sodium metal.
11

GOVERNMENT
ARUSHA REGION MOCK EXAMINATION

CIVICS
MONDAY 21st May, 2018 8.00-10.30 a.m
INSTRUCTIONS:
(xvii) This paper consists of Section A, B, and C.

(xviii) Answer ALL questions in section A and B and
THREE (3) questions from section C.
(xix) Section A and B carry 20 marks each and
section C carries 60 marks.
(xx) Cellular phones are not allowed in the
Examination room.
(xxi) Write your Examination number on every
page of your answer booklet(s).

1
SECTION A: (20 Marks)
1. For each of the items (i – x), choose the most

correct answer among the given alternatives and
write its letter besides the item number.
(i) Family stability in a society is important

because :
A. It guarantees the society with good
sources of income.
B. It protects immoralities in the society.
C. It ensures job security.
D. It helps people to live a comfortable life
E. It is a bridge to community conflicts
(ii) Biological difference between men and

women is referred as:
A. Gender
B. Sex
C. Gender gap
2
D. Gender analysis
E. Masculinity
(iii) A form of government which is created
temporary by people within the country
while waiting for general election is called:
A. Transitional government
B. Dictatorship government
C. Union government
D. Republic government
E. Monarchy government
(iv) Which of the following is not an indicator of
poverty?
A. High illiteracy rate
B. Dependent economy
C. Environmental destruction
D. Low per capital income
E. Low mortality rate
(v) In order to make a health decision on any
problem the first important stage is to:
A. Choose the best alternative solution

3
B. Develop self confidence
C. Identify and clearly understand the
challenge
D. Seek guidance and councelling
E. Seek advice from religious leaders
(vi) The National motto of United Republic of
Tanzania inscribed in the coat of arms is:
A. Freedom and work
B. Ujamaa and self reliance
C. People and development
D. Education for self reliance
E. Freedom and unit
(vii) The two categories of local government
authority are:
A. Village and District authorities
B. District and Urban authorities
C. Village council and village authorities
D. Street and town governments
E. Urban councils and village authorities
(viii) In life skills the ability of a person to
appreciate himself or herself is known as:
4
A. Self-esteem
B. Coping with emotions
C. Assertiveness
D. Self-service
E. Self-awareness
(ix) Political liberalization has brought about:
A. Many political parties which has
introduced freedom of press
B. Rural-urban migration in search of
good life
C. World bank and international
monetary fund in Tanzania
D. Increased financial institutions both
in rural and urban areas
E. Sustainable agricultural programes
(x) The following are characteristics of non-
democratic government except:
A. Leaders are obtained by the will of
majority
B. Leaders ensure their decision are
final
5
C. The decisions must based on the will
of majority
D. There is violation of human rights
E. Leaders usually abuse their power
2. Match the items in LIST A with the correct
response in LIST B by writing a letter of the
correct response besides the item number in the
booklet(s) provided.
LIST A LIST B
(i) Prepare the young boys and A. Team work
girls to adulthood
(ii) Is the one in which peace, B. Initiation
respect, love and good ceremony
behavior are maintained.
(iii) Habits that are passed on C. Self-
from one generation to confidence
another
(iv) Feeling of confidence in D. Self worth
yourself that you are good
and useful person.
6
(v) A knowledge or ability to E. Positive
live a better life with other relation
people in the society.
(vi) A belief in one’s ability to do F. Customs
things successful
(vii) The union of a man and a G. Culture
woman and husband and
wife
(viii) Act of making objects or H. Social skills

pattern by cutting away
materials from wood or
stone.
(ix) A state of having I. Family
meaningful loving,
supportive and cooperative
relationship.
(x) A situation whereby a K. Carving
certain activity is performed
together.
7
L. Beliefs
M. Courtship
N. Self
awareness
O. Language

3. Read the following passage and then answer the
questions that follow:
The South is the part of the world whose
interdependence is constantly widening and
deepening our vision is of cooperative world make
more secure for all its people.
We would like to see a truly independent
world organization on the basic human equality
and human variety in pursuit of jointly defined
common purpose where there is peace, security
and dignity of all persons where all can take
advantage of scientific and technological
8
advances and where the world resources are used
in all sustainable meaner to meet the needs of all
rather than satisfy the narrow interests a few
people. So that poverty can be abolished without
damage the environment.
Our vision is for the south to achieve a people
centered development a form of development
which is itself reliant equitable, participatory and
sustainable. We like a process of development
achieved through active participation of the
people on their own interests as they see them
relying primarily on their own resources and
carried out under their own control. The objective
should not only to be secure in economic growth
but also to ensure that it has benefits to mass of
the people.
Development is conceived as a process which
enables human beings to realize their potentials,
build self confidence, dignity and fulfillments.
Development requires sustained economic
growth for only expanding economy can poverty
9
be eradicated.
But development cannot be measured by
growth of gross National product, what is
produced, how and what social and
environmental cost by who and from whom all
these just as higher Gross National product.
Hence in condition of mass poverty priority
must be given to policies aimed at ending poverty,
increasing productivity, employment and
ensuring that basic needs of people are met with
any surplus being fairly shared.
Such good and services, food shelter basic
education and health facilities are accessible to
all without discrimination on ground of gender,
race colour or Religion.
Q U E S T I O N S:
(a) Suggest the suitable title for the above
passage.
(b) What is author’s vision on type of
development suitable for developing
countries?
10
(c) Point out two factors which make economic
growth more realistic and justified for all.
(d) What is the advantage of involving people in
development process?
(e) List out three (3) ways to be used so as to
eradicate poverty in the south.
4. (a) List down five (5) conditions for a person to
be granted Tanzanian citizenship by registration.
(b) Outline five (5) advantages of Team work.
.
Answer THREE (3) questions from this section.
Each question carries 20 marks
5. Explain six (6) measures for eradicating poverty

in Tanzania.
6. Most developing countries conduct general
elections but the challenges remains in the extent
to which a particular election is free and fair, in
the light of this quotation discuss six features for
free and fair election.
11
7. Examine six (6) reasons which led Tanganyika
and Zanzibar to join together and form United
Republic of Tanzania in 1964.
8. The government of Tanzania like any other
government in the world spends its money for its
people. In the light of this statement explain how
the central government in Tanzania spends its
money.
9. Describe the importances of financial Institution
for economic development in Tanzania.
10. Discuss six (6) negative impacts of globalization
in developing countries like Tanzania.
12
GOVERNMENT
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
MONDAY 21st May, 2018 2.00 - 5.00 p.m
INSTRUCTIONS:
(xxii) This paper consists of Sections A, B, C and D.

(xxiii) Answer ALL questions in sections A and B and
sections C and D as instructed under each section.
(xxiv) Cellular phones and calculators are not allowed in
(xxv) Write your Examination number on every page of

1
COMPREHENSION AND SUMMARY
41. Read the passage below and answer the question that
follows:
Mama Nachila was found complaining about her
daughter Nachila who had been chased away from Twiga
Secondary School. Despite her parental active from her
parents, teachers, elders and good friends, she chose her
own way of behavior saying a child as her generation is
concerned ought to be free in doing whatever endeavors
partings in life. And her new typical way of life she adopted
kept on her shoulder and consequences of immoral actions.
“My daughter I told you that your life is not yet ripe and
your own corn which is so delicate is also not yet ready to
receive the sweet earthenical destructive things that may
deteriorate your future precious life thereafter”. The mother
told her, “Look now your natural beauty has been destroyed
by your immoral practices you have been doing and hiding”.
“You are now seen as somebody who had been saved from
the dreadful fangs of lion killer of the world which segregates
nobody nuisance”.
2
“We brought you, we bore you, you were given all the
essential and potential things for your requirements.
Number of seeable and figurative examples, but you couldn’t
hear and understand; instead you erected your need and
eyes that were shining like a torch to attract fish men and
boys”. Her mother repeated explaining with tears running
on her old face. As good parents were told you in advance
you would have thought how you were born and brought up,
the way we have suffered to care for and look after you, all
these beautiful and ugly days in life”. My daughter you had
swayed and walked on top-toes like an acrobatic person
walking on a line and risking in danger lines and arms of
death”.
Nachila didn’t say anything, she cried and later on she
kept silent like a broken pot. Nachila who was born in a very
poor and wise family which feared God was seen at home.
Yes blaming herself for she knew couldn’t protrude her head
above the water anymore. She got a terrible suspension from
the headmistress approved by school board after being
warned for several times, through implemental
punishments. While she was at Twiga secondary School,
Worse enough she involved herself in immoral activities such
as smoking, drinking and prostitution. Nachila didn’nt
3
adhere nor abide to school regulations and teacher’s advice.
She ranked herself as a Queen of Twiga Secondary School.
Bad boys and girls and sugar bodies were her best
friends. She pretends to be ill if ever she didn’t like to attend
lessons. Education was a by-gona that existed no more in
her typical life style.
As the saying goes, that time will costume and anything
has its ends telling and revealing the sea its, Nachila fame
and her being a walking stick and a shining star to the
society vanished. Her beautiful figure remained like a
curved wood made by a sculptor put on a laughable costume
of drama scene. Nobody approached her, no word of relief
came from one of her trustful friends and neighbours. She
only remembered the headmistress words “NO DISCIPLINE
NO LEARNING” she came to realize that the very same
advisable words were the pillars that supported and
concealed the four corner-stone’s of her future life, thus
loyalty, obiduna, unity and discipline.
“I’m nothing”, Nachila talked to herself and that was
her last speech she put on her school uniform and
disappeared. After two weeks news spread that she had
hanged herself on a mango tree in a thick forest. Villagers
collected her dead rotten body in their traditional bucket
4
ready for burial ceremony. “Poor Nachila” her mother wept.
The crowd and the relatives cried too, “What kind of
Education” on old man remarked.
Q U E S T I O N S:
(xi) Mama Nachila was
A. A grandmother of Nachila
B. A mother of Nachila
C. A stepmother
D. A friend of Nachila
(xii) Mama Nachila was complaining because

A. Nachila was stubborn
B. Nachila was suspended for few months
C. Nachila was told to go back home because
she was sick
D. Nachila was spelled from school
(xiii) Nachila was a student of …………………..
A. Mwani Secondary School
B. Twaga Secondary School
C. Dioni Secondary School
D. Twiga Secondary School
(xiv) The reason Nachila was chased away from school
was ………..
5
A. She engaged into immoral act such as
smoking, drinking and prostitution
B. She engaged into moral act such as smoking,
drinking and prostitution
C. She engaged into drinking and prostitution
D. She missed learning class hours
(xv) “Your life is not ripe and your own corn is so
delicate is also not yet ready to receive the sweet
earthenical ………… “ meant:-
A. Nachila was not strong
B. Nachila was very young to engage herself into
immoral actions.
C. Nachila was very young to engage herself into
prostitution and smoking
D. Nachila was very young to engage into
drinking and prostitution.
(xvi) Nachila was born in a family which was
A. Rich and Famous
B. Rich but not famous
C. Very poor and fearing God
D. Very poor, wise family and fearing God
(xvii) Nachila before she was chased away she was
given ……………..
6
A. A warning
B. A warning then suspended
C. A warning and punishment
D. Scolded and warning
(xviii) While Nachila was a queen at Secondary
School used to have best friends who were
A. Prostitutes and bad girls
B. Good girls and sugar bodies
C. Bad boys, girls and sugar babies
D. Bad boys and prostitutes
(xix) What lessons do we get from this page
A. To be like Nachila
B. To be disciplined students
C. To be disciplined, respect ourselves and to
study hard.
D. To be disciplined but also not to terminate
from immoral actions
(xx) Children disappoint parents because:-
A. They don’t get employment after school
B. Education doesn’t help them to change their
behavior
C. They misuse chances in school
D. They learn how to rule parents.
7
Qn. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) (viii) (ix) (x)
Ans.
42. Read and summarise the following passage in five
sentences in a single paragraph.
Agriculture is the most commonly activity practised
by human. It involves the cultivation of crops and
animal rearing. Agriculture can be done for subsistence
or for commercial purposes. Even activities like storage
processing and marketing of agricultural products are
also regarded as part of agriculture.
Small scale agriculture is practised on relatively small
plots of land to meet both subsistence and commercial
needs. It is characterized with the use of elementary
tools such as panga and hoes to cultivate. Farmers
often plant various crops as well as rearing animals in
a single plot of land by using the labour provided with
the family members. They also use organic manure
8
from animals.
However, rapid population growth may affect the
small scale agriculture as it leads to the reduction of the
sizes of farms, over exploitation of the soil which results
to soil fertility. It may also change from subsistence
farming to commercial farming to meet the needs of the
growing population.
Small scale agriculture has some advantages
including growing of variety of food crops and rear
animals on a single plot for both subsistence and
commercial purposes. Farmers also earn income from
selling any surplus they may have. The cost of farming
is low due to the use of simple tools as well as land being
acquired at a little or no cost at all since the land is
mainly inherited.

PATTERNS AND VOCABULARY

9
43. Re-write the following sentences according to the
instruction given after each.
(i) Before he finished his assignment, he was forced

to leave the library. (Begin: Scarcely ……………)
(ii) The teacher can’t understand why Ali is absent.
(Re-write using Absence instead of absent).
(iii) They study much at night. (Re-write in Past
Perfect)
(iv) Vicky is well taught, she can do this exercise. (Re-
write using ……………… enough to …………….)
44. Write one word for the following phrases.
(i) One who roams about aimlessly ……………………
(ii) One who is willing to give this to other people
freely…………………..
(iii) Someone who does not show respect to other
people and their feelings …………………….
(iv) One who always demands more than what he is
supposed to get …………..
45. Below is a telephone conversation between friends. Fill
in the missing parts.
Lucy:- Hello, may I talk to Judy please?
Judy:………………………………………………………
10
Lucy:- Oh, how are you? How have you been?
Judy………………………………………………………
Lucy:- I am very sorry, where was the accident?
Judy:………………………………………………………
Lucy:- Good to hear that your injuries were not too
serious. You will pull through.
Judy:………………………………………………………
Lucy:- We will visit you as soon as we can. Bye for
now and I wish you a quick recovery.
46. Correct the following sentences where necessary.
(i) Can you tell me asked Sibi how many syllables are
in the word keep.
(ii) Either Juma or Peter will present their report
tomorrow.
(iii) In the last few month, several bouts that had sank
in the lake have been raised to the surface.
(iv) Chacha generally likes whoever he works with.
47. Fill each blank space with the correct form of the word
in brackets.
(i) Because the bicycle had been left in the field its
tyres ………..(burst) when the temperature rise.
(ii) That bicycle must have ………………….. (cost) him
dearly.
11
(iii) The baby had …………………. (lie) there crying for
hours when the mother returned.
(iv) They ………………….. (lay) the tiles on the
bathroom floor.
LANGUAGE USE:
Answer Question 8, 9 And Select TWO (2) in
Question 10.
48. The following sentences are jumbled, Re-arrange them

in a logical sequence to make a meaningful paragraph
by writing the corresponding letter in the answer
booklet(s) provided:-.
For example (i) - H
A. With the aid of television camera, visual images
are changed into electrical signals.
B. A television set receives these signals and one can
watch them on the screen.
12
C. However, in order to enable the television set to
receive these signals properly an antenna is
needed.
D. These are then combined with radio waves and
broadcast in the same way as ordinarily sound
signals.
E. Television is the system of transmitting moving
pictures by radio or cable.
49. Match the items in LIST A with the response in LIST B

to make meaningful sentences by writing the letter of
the correct response beside the item number.
LIST A LIST B
i) The carpenter took the A. help
tolls from the boy who
was his ………………..
ii) Because of hunger, the B. lent
refugees, collects roots
and plant which are……
iii) Minja tried to avoid the C. apprentice
person who …….. him a
13
lot of money.
iv) Several people were D. passed

trapped in the boat
which ……….. in the
river.
v) Your friend has ………. E. adible
His exams.
F. mend
G. sank
H. toppled
I. accepted
J. found
50. Answer two questions from the four alternatives A, B, C

and D.
A. Write a composition of not less than 250 words
with the title, “We should all strive to protect our
environment so that it protects us”.
B. A neighbouring school has invited your school to a
debate contest. The motion they have suggested is
14
“Murders or thieves who use violence must get life
imprisonment”. Your school is required to
supports the motion and you are the main speaker.
Prepare a speech of not more than 250 words to
support the motion.
C. The Guardian newspaper has advertised a vacancy
of product supplier in Misufiri Agro chemical
company Box 34 Arusha. Apply to the manager
giving your address as Bahati Migori
P. O. Box 188 Msaranga. Your level of education
should be a form four leaver with good
performance.
D. Imagine that you have just heard the news that you
have passed your form four examinations. Your
family and friends arrange a party to celebrate, and
you are expected to make a short speech. Write
your speech of not less than 250 words.
15
SECTION D: (40 marks)
RESPONSE TO READING
Answer two (2) questions from this section. One (1)
question should be selected from poetry and the other
from novels and short stories or plays.
LIST OF READINGS
NOVELS AND SHORT STORIES:
A Wreath for Fr. Mayer - S. N. Nduguru (1977),
Mkuki na Nyota
Unanswered cries - Osman Conteh, Macmillan

Passed like a shadow - B.M. Mapalala (2006) DUP
Spared - S.N. Ndunguru (2004) Mkuki na Nyota
Weep not Child - Ngugi Wa Thiongo (1987)
Heinemann
The Interview - P. Ngugi (2002) Macmillan
PLAYS:
Three suitors one Husband - O. Mbia (1994)
Eyre Methuen
16
The lion and the Jewel -W. Soyinka (1963), DUP
This Time Tomorrow - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1972)
Heinemann
The Black Hermik - Ngugi wa Thiong’o (1968)
Heinemann
POETRY
Song of Lawino and Ocol - O. P’ Bitek (1979),
EAPH
Growing up with Poetry -D. Rubadiri (ed) (1989)
Heinemann
Summons - R. Mabala (1960),
TPH
51. Read the following poem and answer the questions that
follow:
My husband laughs at me
Because I cannot dance white men’s dances
He despises Acoli dances
He nurses stupid ideas
That the dances of his people are sinful,
That they are mortal sins.
17
I am completely ignorant
Of the dances of foreigners
And I do not like it
Holding each other
Tightly, tightly
In public
I cannot
I am ashamed
Dancing without a song
Dancing silently like a wizard
Without respect drunk …
If someone tries
To force me to dance this dance
I feel like hanging myself
Feet first!
I wish I could become

A meteorite
And I would know
Where to fall!
18
QUESTIONS:
a) What is the poem about?
b) How many stanzas are there?
c) Is the persona happy in this poem? Give reason
for your answer.
d) Is the poem relevant to your society? Give reason
for your answer.
e) What is the lesson we get from this poem?
f) What type of poem is this?
g) Comment on the Language use in the poem.
h) What is the possible theme in the poem?
i) How many verses are in the poem?
j) What is the tone of the poet?
52. Poetry have always been said to have different

characteristics from other genres. Discuss this view
showing four differences.
53. “Literature is the mirror of the society”, how relevant is
this statement. Use two plays to clarify the given
statement.
19
54. Family stability is highly determined by relationship
between wife and husband when the relationship is
bad; it causes instability in the family. Support the
above view point using two (2) novels you have read in
class.
20

GOVERNMENT

.
Geography
WEDNE SDAY 23rd May, 2018 8.00-11.00 a.m
INSTRUCTIONS:
(xxvi) This paper consists of Section A, B, C and D with

a total of twelve (12) questions.
(xxvii) Answer ALL questions in sections A, B, and C and
ONE (1) question from each part of section D.
(xxviii) Map extract of HANANG (sheet 84/4) is provided.
(xxix) Credit will be given for the use of net and relevant
diagrams.
(xxx) Calculators, Cellular phones and any authorized
materials are not allowed in the examination room.
(xxxi) Write your Examination number on every page
of your answer booklet(s).

1
PHYSICAL AND MATHEMATICAL GEOGRAPHY
1. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the correct answer
from among the given alternatives and write its letter
besides the item number.
(xxi) The CCTV channel is conducting an interview at
Alaska (75°W 42°N) at 7.30 p.m. Tuesday. At
what time and day will people in Katavi (45°E
06°S) be watching the TV?
F. 8.30 p.m. Tuesday
G. 3.30 p.m. Wednesday
H. 11.30 p.m. Wednesday
I. 12.30 p.m. Tuesday
J. 3.30 a.m. Wednesday
(xxii) Which of the following are tropical Cyclones?
A. Tornadoes and Doldrums
B. Tornadoes and Hurricanes
C. Hurricanes and Typhoons
D. Doldrums and Typhoons
E. Typhoons and Eddies
(xxiii) Which of the following are the features of
2
Mediterranean vegetation?
F. Trees do have thorns
G. There is little undergrowth
H. Trees have thick barks
I. Evergreen leaves
J. Buttressed trunk trees
(xxiv) A Cuesta is a relief feature with:
F. High mountains and valleys
G. Tension forces
H. The dip slope and scarp slope
I. Transform faults
J. Deep and shallow parts of the earth’s
surface
(xxv) Which feature forms natural barrier to floods?
F. Levee B. Dam C. Water fall
D. Rapid E. Delta
(xxvi) Which of the following features is formed by wind
erosion:
F. Attol reef B. Barchans
C Serf dunes D. Rock Pedestals
E. Blow hole
(xxvii) When several rivers drain into a depression they
form drainage system called :
F. Dendritic D. Centripal
3
G. Trellised E. Superimposed
H. Radial
(xxviii) Which of the following statement is not true of an
Equatorial region?
F. It is found between 15° and 30° North and
South of the equator
G. It has a small annual range of temperature
H. It has heavy rainfall throught the year
I. Rainfall is commonly of conventional type
J. Relative humidity is high
(xxix) The barysphere of the Earth is made up of:

A. Iron and nickel
B. Iron and Zinc
C. Iron and Aluminium
D. Silica and Magnesia
E. Silica and Alumina
(xxx) The process of changing granite to gneiss rock is
called:
F. Denudation D. Metamorphism
G. Volcanism E. Sedimentation
H. Exfoliation
2. Match the Phrase in LIST A with the responses in
LIST B by writing the letter of the correct responses
besides the item number .
4
LIST A LIST B
(i) The limit of the overhead sun A. 22nd December
(ii) Tropic of Capricorn B. 23½°S and
23½°N
(iii) Equator C. 21st June
(iv) The Earth between the sun D. Prime meridian
and the moon
(v) Moon between the sun and E. 66½°S and
the Earth 66½°N
F. Umbra and
Penumbra
G. Happens only on
full moon days
H. Equinox
I. Eclipse
J. Autumn
3. With the aid of labeled diagrams explain on Barchans

and Seif dunes features produced by wind deposition.

APPLICATION OF STATISTICS, INTRODUCTION TO

RESEACH AND ELEMENTARY SURVEYING
4. (a) Describe the nature of geographical data.
(b) Carefully study the climatic data given below for
station D and answer the questions that follow.
5
MONTH J F M A M J J A S O N D
TEMP (°c) 21.7 20 20.6 18.9 16 13.9 13.9 16 20 22.2 22.2 22.2
RAIN (MM) 104.7 101.6 78.7 17.9 7.6 0 0 0 2 .5 22.9 23.9 132
(i) Name the graph which is suitable to be drawn to

present the data above.
(ii) Draw the graph mentioned in part (a) above.
(iii) Give two advantages and disadvantages of the
graph drawn in (b) above.
(iv) Suggest the type of natural regions for the station
D and the economic activities conducted.
(v) Mention two vegetation types found in the station
D.
5. (a) (i) What is research design?
(ii) Explain on two types of research design.
(b) Give the difference between probability sampling
and Non-Probability sampling.
6. (a) Define the following terms as used in survey.

(i) Tie-line (ii) Off-set (iii) Baseline
(b) Explain the uses of the following tools in Survey.
(i) Plumb bob (ii) Pegs (iii) Ranging Rods
6
MAP READING AND PHOTOGRAPHY INTERPRETATION
7. Study carefully the Map Extract of HANANG sheet 84/4

provided, then answer the following questions:
(i) Calculate the area covered by Lake Balangida in
Km².
(ii) With evidence from the Map, describe four (4)
geomorphic processes that have shaped the area
shown in the mapped area.
(iii) Explain four (4) land uses in the Map.
(iv) What are the three (3) major indicator of climate
in the area? Give evidence.
(v) Describe the relief of the area.
8. Study the Photograph below and answer the questions

that follows :
7
(i) Identify the type of photograph.
(ii) Identify the economic activity taking place in
the photograph.
(iii) Suggest the scale of the activity.
(iv) Suggest the major reasons for the decline for
the production of the commodity shown in the
photograph.
(v) Where in Tanzania this photograph might have
been taken?
8
SECTION D: (20 marks)
Answer ONE (1) question from each part
PART I:- REGIONAL FOCAL STUDIES
9. Elaborate eight (8) problems facing Livestock Keeping in

Tanzania.
10. Suggest seven (7) measures to be taken to address
transportation problems in Tanzania.
PART II: ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES, POPULATION

AND SETTLEMENT
11. Human factors influence the development of nucleated

settlement patter. Discuss.
12. The distribution of human population is unavoidable

circumstances. By providing eight (8) factors discuss
the validity of the statement.
9

GOVERNMENT
HISTORY
Wednesday 23rd May, 2018 2.00-5.00 p.m
INSTRUCTIONS:
(xxxii) This paper consists of Section A, B, and C.

(xxxiii) Answer ALL questions in section A and B and
choose only THREE (3) questions from section C.
(xxxiv) All writings must be in blue or black pen.
(xxxv) Cellular phones are not allowed in the
Examination room.
(xxxvi) Write your Examination number on every page of

1
SECTION A: (20 Marks)
01. For each of the items (i – x), choose the correct answer
from among the given alternatives and write its letter
besides the item number in the answer sheet provided.
(xxxi) The following statements are true about the

term HISTORY except;
K. History shows the changing relationship

between human being in the course of
material production
L. History is the study of great heroes.
M. History shows man’s struggle against
nature.
N. History is the record of human activities.
O. History is the study of changes in the
process of material production.
(xxxii) Among the effects of the European penetration

into the interior of west Africa was:
K. Introduction and development of copper
industry
2
L. Development of Maritime technology
M. Decline of trans-Sahara trade
N. Abolition of triangular slave trade
O. The raise of Ghana, Mali and Songhai
empires.
(xxxiii) Slave trade was abolished because:

K. European wanted to stop the suffering of
Africa
L. It was inhuman
M. It was profitable
N. It was against the GOD will
O. It was no longer profitable
(xxxiv) The principle of effective occupation established

in Berlin Conference resolutions was intended
to:
G. Enhance equality in dividing colonies
among the Europeans
H. To ensure peaceful settlement of rivalries
among the European powers.
I. Enabling the drawing of territorial
boundaries so as to minimize territorial
conflicts among imperialists.
3
J. Ensure that territorial claims are backed by
concrete steps
K. Stop the process of scramble for colonies in
Africa
(xxxv) Mores by treaty of 1822 was about:

G. Slave trade in west Africa
H. Division of East Africa among the
imperialist powers
I. Abolition of slave trade by prohibit sultan
to sell slaves out of his dominion.
J. To close the Zanzibar slave market.
K. Selling slave to the interior of East Africa.
(xxxvi) Peasant agriculture was mostly preferred by
colonialist in many colonies because:
I. It was cheap and peasants produced for
both the metropolies and themselves
J. Settlers were arrogant and conformists
K. Peasants were able to acquire capital loans
from colonial banks and pay on time.
L. It was easy to inject new production
techniques among peasants.
M. It enables the colonial state to bring about
development among the rural peasants.
4
(xxxvii) Among the impacts of the Industrial
capitalism in Africa was:
K. Introduction of food crops
L. Fall of traditions religious beliefs
M. Exploitation of African raw-materials
N. Development of African industries
O. Development of African settlers
(xxxviii) The colonial education aimed the following
except:
I. Creating African personnel to work in
white color jobs
J. To train how cadre man power who could
be loyal to their colonies
K. To inculcate the western culture among
Africans to enhance obedience towards
colonial administration
L. To propagate colonial economic policies
among Africans
M. To produce a small group of Africa skilled
and literate workers to serve the interest
of their colonial masters.
(xxxix) Among the following statements what was a
problem towards independence of Nigeria.
5
F. Elitism, tribalism and religion
G. Religion, Ignorance and tribalism
H. Religion, tribalism and Poverty
I. Regionalism, tribalism and Religion
J. Elitism, tribalism and ignorance
(xl) One of the notable United Nations failure in its
objectives is its in ability to;
F. Control poverty in Africa
G. Create tribunes for war criminals
H. Prohibit racial discrimination in Africa.
I. Prevent big powers from violating its
principles
J. Eradicate colonial rule
02. Match the item in LIST A with the correct response from
LIST B and write the letter of the correct response
besides the item number in the provided answer sheet.
LIST A LIST B
(i) African chiefs had clearly A. Diwani
defined duties and
acknowledged status in the
process of colonial
administration
(ii) An agency for recruiting B. Mwinyi
6
contract labour during colonial
era in Africa.
(iii) It symbolized the unity of the C. Tip Tipp
state in the Asante kingdom
(iv) Land lords in Pemba, and D. Direct rule
Zanzibar
(v) Fort builds by Portuguese in E. Nyarubanja
West Africa that help them to
link trade in Gold between
Africa and Europe.
(vi) Earliest in habitants of South F. Golden stool
Africa
(vii) Saw the snow-capped mount G. Asante.
Kilimanjaro in 1848
(viii) Monsoon winds assisted traders H. Elmina

dhows to blow from Asia
(ix) The partition of East Africa in I. San and Hottentots
1890
(x) Spain, Portugal, Britain, J. Johannes Rebmann.
Denmark and France and
Hollan
K. Indirect rule
L. Fort Jesus
M. Xhosa
N. Ludwig Krapf.
O. November to April
7
in the 13th C
P. S I L A B U.
Q. May to October
R. Fall of sultanate
system in Zanzibar
S. Participants in
Trans-Atlantic slave
trade
T. Scrambled for East
Africa

03. (a) Draw a sketch map of Africa and indicate the sites
of African resistance as named below;
(i) Nama and Herero
(ii) Mandinka
(iii) Abushiri and Bwana heri
(iv) Chimurenga
(v) Nandi resistance
(b) For each above in (a) mentioned resistance identify
8
the European nations which were resisted by
Africans.
04. (a) In each of the following items (i) – (v) below there
are five statements. One among the statements is
WRONGLY stated. Identify it and write its letter
beside the item number in the provided answer
sheet.
(i) A. England was the first country to
industrialize.
B. Slave labour contributed a lot to the
development of Europe and America.
C. Industrialization and slavery are
incompatible.
D. Industrialization made slave labour
unprofitable.
E England objected the abolition of slave
trade.
(ii) A. Both Nama and Herero were new

migrants in Namibia.
B. The Nama were Khoikhoi in origin and
Herero were the Bantu.
C. Both Nama and Herero were pastoralist
9
who competed for grazing Land.
D. A massive Herero revolt was led by Chief
Maherero.
E. Both the Nama and Herero regiment
waged a war against the German rule.
(iii) A. Indirect rule was a system of

administration initiated by Lord Lugard
in Nigeria.
B. Indirect rule created enemity and hatred
between local African Chiefs and their
fellow Africans.
C. In Indirect rule British administered
their colonies jointly.
D. Indirect rule suited the divide and rule
technique.
E. Indirect rule was useful system during
the establishment of colonialism in some
African colonies.
(iv) A. Feudal societies were Tenso and Tindiga

in East Africa.
B. Payment of rent to Land Lord is
characteristics of Feudalism.
10
C. The major means of production under
feudalism was Land.
D. The feudal relations along the coast of
East Africa was Umwinyi.
E. Feudalism was the third mode of
production.
(v) A. Settler Agriculture involved Land
Alienation
B. Settler Agriculture involved migrants
Labour
C. Settler Agriculture involved taxation.
D. Settler Agriculture led to the rise of Land
reserves.
E. Settler Agriculture featured by production
of cash and food crops.
(b) Arrange the following statements in chronological
order, use letter (A – E) to write beside the item
number in the answer sheet.
(i) They also played the same role of preparing
African societies for industrial demands and
colonization as their counter parts.
(ii) Explorers carried out several expeditions
inside Africa.
11
(iii) Some people referred explorers as travelers.
(iv) Explorers were Europeans who came to Africa
for Geographical interests.
(v) They wanted to collect information and obtain
knowledge over geographical areas such as
lakes, rivers and mountains.

Choose and Answer only THREE (3) questions from the
following questions.
05. Explain six (6) pre-requisites of state formation in
Pre-colonial Africa.
06. Explain the socio-economic factors for the interaction
among the people of Africa. (five (5) factors)
07. Describe the six (6) reasons for the British to find it
necessary to establish peasant agriculture in Uganda
and not in Kenya.
12
08. Examine the reasons for the changing nature of the
French Colonial policy of assimilation in ruling
African colonies. (Six (6) points).
09. With examples explain the economic motives for the
occurrence of the scramble for and partition of
Africa. (five (5) points)
10. What were the hindrance to the struggle for
Independence in Africa. (six hindrance)
13
Ofisi ya Rais
TAWALA ZA MIKOA NA SERIKALI ZA MITAA
MKOA WA ARUSHA - MTIHANI WA UTAMIRIFU
KIDATO CHA NNE, MTIHANI WA UTAMIRIFU – MEI, 2018
KISWAHILI
CODE NO. 021 MUDA: Saa 3.00
Jumanne 22 Mei, 2018 8.00-11.00 Jioni
M A E L E K E Z O:
(xxxvii) Karatasi hii ina sehemu A, B, C, D na E,

zenye jumla ya maswali kumi na tano (15)
(xxxviii) Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu A, B na D,
Swali Moja (1) kutoka sehemu C na maswali Matatu
(3) kutoka sehemu E. Swali la kumi na tano (15)
ni la lazima.
(xxxix) Zingatia maelekezo ya kila sehemu na ya kila
swali.
(xl) Simu za mkononi HAZIRUHUSIWI kwenye chumba
cha mtihani.
(xli) Andika namba yako ya mtihani kila ukurasa wa
kijitabu chako cha kujibia.
Karatasi hii ina kurasa 9 zilizochapwa
1
SEHEMU A: (ALAMA 10)
UFAHAMU
Jibu maswali yote katika sehemu hii
1. Soma kwa makini kifungu cha habari kifuatacho kisha
jibu maswali yanayofuata:
Ingawaje Kiswahili kimetumika sana wakati wa
ukoloni, ni wazi kuwa matumizi mengi ya Kiswahili
hayakuwa ya kustawisha utamaduni wa Kiafrika. Kiswahili
kama lugha nyingine za kiafrika kilijulikana kama lugha ya
kishenzi. Wazo hilo liliwafanya hata waafrika wenyewe
katika nchi hizi wazidharau lugha zao.
Kwa vile mtu aliyestaarabika alijulikana kuwa ni yule
azungumzaye Kiingereza, na Wakoloni katika kuipa hadhi
lugha yao walisisitiza kuwa ndiyo lugha pekee ya maana
kufanyia kazi, hivyo basi wananchi wengi, walijiona bora
zaidi wakiwa wanajua Kiingereza. Wale ambao hawakujua
2
Kiingereza walijiona wasio na thamani katika shughuli
mbalimbali za maendeleo ingawa Kiswahili walikijua vizuri.
Ni wazi kuwa fikra kama hizi zimesababisha hali duni
ya wananchi wengi kushindwa kutekeleza majukumu yao
katika kuchangia maendeleo ya nchi yao. Je, ni kweli
kwamba katika Tanzania ya leo kazi zote za maendeleo
zinaendeshwa na wenye kujua kiingereza? Suala
linalojadiliwa hivi sasa ni utumiaji wa Kiswahili kama
chombo madhubuti kwa mtanzania katika shughuli za
maendeleo.
Jambo hili si la kuleta mjadala kuwa Kiingereza
kisitumike, la hasha! Kiingereza kinayo nafasi yake kubwa
tu. Hata hivyo msimamo wa Tanzania kuhusu lugha ya
Kiswahili unaonesha wazi kuwa ndiyo lugha ya taifa na
kitambulisho cha utaifa. Pamoja na uzito huo, lugha hii ni
chombo madhubuti cha kutekeleza maendeleo mbalimbali
ya nchi.
3
M A S W A L I:
(i) Andika kichwa cha habari uliyosoma.
(ii) Fikra za kupuuza Kiswahili zimesababisha jambo
gani katika mipango ya maendeleo ya nchi?
(iii) Ni upi msimamo wa Tanzania kuhusu lugha ya
Kiswahili?
(iv) Mwandishi wa habari hii anathibitisha kuwa
katika enzi za ukoloni Kiswahili kilionekana kama
lugha ya namna gani?
(v) Kutokana na habari uliyosoma, ni kipi kilikuwa
kigezo cha ustaarabu wa mtu wakati wa ukoloni?.
2. Fupisha habari uliyosoma kwa maneno yasiyopungua
sitini (60).
4
SEHEMU B: (ALAMA 25)
SARUFI NA UTUMIZI WA LUGHA
3. Vitenzi vya Kiswahili vina tabia zake. Kwa kutumia
mifano ya sentensi tano onesha tabia za vitenzi.
4. (a) Rejesta ni nini?
(b) Eleza mambo manne (4) yanayosababisha
kutokea kwa rejesta.
5. Eleza njia zilizotumika kuunda misamiati ifuatayo
katika Lugha ya Kiswahili:
(a) Namba
(b) Mwanajeshi
(c) Kipimapembe
(d) Mtutu
(e) Mbalimbali
6. Andika nomino tano (5) za ngeli ya U – YA na kwa
kila moja tunga sentensi ya umoja na wingi.
5
Mfano - (i) Ubaya - Ubaya Umezidi
- Mabaya yamezidi.
7. Sentensi zifuatazo zina makosa. Sahihisha makosa
hayo kwa kuziandika upya.
(a) Kiti hichi kibovu usichikalie.
(b) Sisi tunasambazaga vitabu mashuleni.
(c) Nikifika Arusha nitakupelekea barua.
(d) Mtoto anatoka jasho
(e) Nimekuja hapa ili kusudi niongee na ninyi.
SEHEMU C: (ALAMA 10)
UANDISHI
Jibu swali moja (1) kutoka sehemu hii

8. “Muundo wa barua za kirafiki na barua za kikazi ni
tofauti”. Kubali ama kataa kauli hii kwa kutumia hoja
tano zenye mashiko.
9. Andika insha isiyozidi maneno mia mbili (200) kuhusu
moja ya mada zifuatazo:
6
(i) Ukeketaji
(ii) Mmomonyoko wa maadili
(iii) Umuhimu wa kilimo
(iv) Dawa za kulevya
SEHEMU D: (ALAMA 10)
MAENDELEO YA KISWAHILI

10. Baada ya Kiswahili kuteuliwa kuwa lugha ya Taifa,
vyombo mbalimbali viliundwa kwa lengo la kukikuza
na kukieneza. Elezea majukumu matano ya baraza la
Kiswahili la Taifa (BAKITA).
SEHEMU E: (ALAMA 45)
FASIHI KWA UJUMLA
Jibu maswali matatu (3) kutoka sehemu hii. Swali la
kumi na tano (15) ni la lazima
7
11. “Njia za uhifadhi wa Fasihi Simulizi zinakabiliwa na
matatizo kuntu”. Jadili ukweli wa kauli hii kwa
kuelezea matatizo yanazozikabili njia za uhifadhi wa
Fasihi Simulizi. (Tumia njia tatu (3) na kwa kila njia
eleza matatizo mawili).
12. “Wasanii ni askari wa kazi za wanyonge na silaha zao
ni kalamu na karatasi”. Jadili ukweli wa hoja hii kwa
kutumia diwani mbili kati ya diwani ulizosoma.
13. “Ukosefu wa elimu katika jamii hurudisha maendeleo
ya jamii nyuma”. Jadili kauli hii kwa kutumia
tamthiliya mbili ulizosoma.
14. “Jina la kitabu ni kivutio cha wasomaji wa Riwaya”.
Kwa kutumia riwaya teule mbili (2) ulizosoma onesha
jinsi majina yanavyosadifu yaliyomo.
15. (a) Ngano ni nini?
(b) Taifa sifa nne za ngano.
(c) Tunga ngano kwa kuzingatia sifa zake.

8
ORODHA YA VITABU
USHAIRI
 Wasakatonge - M.S. Khatibu (DUP)
 Malenga Wapya - TAKILUKI (DUP)
 Mashairi ya Chekacheka -T.A Mvungi (EP & D. LTD)
RIWAYA
 Takadini - Ben J. Hanson (MBS)
 Watoto wa Mama Ntilie- E. Mbogo (H.P)
 Joka la Mdimu - A. J. Safari (H.P)
TAMTHILIYA
 Orodha - Steven Raymonds (MA)
 Kilio chetu - Medical Aid Foundation
 Ngoswe Penzi Kitovu cha Uzembe – E. Semzaba (ESC)
***Kila la Kheri**
9

GOVERNMENT
PhysIcs

FRIDAY 25th May, 2018 8.00-11.00 a.m.
INSTRUCTIONS:
(xlii) This paper consists of Sections A, B and C.

(xliii) Answer ALL questions in section A and B, and
only ONE (1) question from section C.
(xliv) Calculators and Cellular phones are not
ALLOWED in the Examination room.
(xlv) Write your Examination number on every page of
your examination booklet(s) provided.
(xlvi) Write in blue or black ink pen, all drawings
should in pencil.
(xlvii) Leave one clear line between one answer and
another.
1
(xlviii) Where never necessary the following constants
may be used:
22
― Pie, 𝜋 =
7
― Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 10m/s2

― Specific heat capacity of water = 4200J/KgK
― Specific heat capacity of Copper = 380J/KgK
― Latent heat of fusion of ice = 32 x 105J/KgK
2
Attempt ALL questions in this section
answer from among the given alternatives and write its
letter besides the item number in the booklet(s)
provided.
(xxi) A micrometer screw gauge measure the diameter
of thin objects like wire and ball bearing to an
accurate of ……..
G. 0.0001 mm C. 0.001 mm
H. 0.001 cm D. 0.01 cm
(xxii) The property of a material to recover its
original shape and size on removal of stretching
force is called
I. Cohesively C. Plasticity
J. Elasticity D. Expansion
(xxiii) Which of the following material can be
magnetised strongly:
G. Ferromagnetic C. Magnets
3
H. Diamagnetism D. Paramagnetic
(xxiv) A car of mass 600kg accelerates from rest to

8m/s in 40 seconds. The resultant force of the
car is:
G. 70 N C. 100 N
H. 120 N D. 60 N
(xxv) The diagram below shows a hydraulic press being
used to lift a container. Taking the radius of 1st
piston to be r, and that of 2nd piston to be R and
assuming the Pascal Principle of transmission of
Pressure in fluids:
L
Effort E 1st Piston Load 2nd Piston
AREA, a AREA, A
d2
d1
Liquid
The Mechanical Advantage (M.A) is …………
4
r² 2
G. r⁄ B. C. (R⁄r) D. (R⁄r)
R R²
(xxvi) A shaving mirror is typical application of::-
K. Plane Mirror
L. Convex mirror
M. Concave mirror
N. Magnifying mirror
(xxvii) An airship is floating stationary high above
the ground in this case:-
K. The air upthrust = the airship weight

L. The air temperature inside the airship = the
temperature outside
M. The air density outside the airship is greater
than the air density inside.
N. The inside upthrust is greater than the air
weight
(xxviii) In a Machine, the efficiency is less than 100%
in practice. This is because:-
A. The velocity ratio is greater than the
mechanical advantage
5
B. The mechanical advantage is greater than
one.
C. The velocity ratio depends on friction
D. The velocity ratio does not depends on
velocity
(xxix) ………. Is used to measure forces.
I. Beam balance C. Spring balance

J. A Newton D. N⁄
Kg
(xxx) The cylindrical body has dimensions of length, (l),
14 cm, radius (r) = 5cm and its volume is …….
F. 70 cm3 C. 350 cm3

G. 1099 cm3 D. 100 cm3
56. Match the items in LIST A with the responses in LIST
B by writing the letter of the correct response beside
the item number in the booklet provided.
LIST A LIST B
(i) A large celestrial body made up of A. Tides
hot gases known as plasma.
6
(ii) A group of stars that form a B. Low tides
definite shape or pattern when
viewed from the earth
(iii) The dark region low areas similar C. Meteors or
to ocean basins on the earth. shooting stars
They are filled with dark solidified
lava and area less Crastered than
the high lands.
(iv) Is the situation of the tides where D. Geocentric
the moon is close to the Earth. Theory
(v) Tendency where the moon travels E. High tides
around the earth and as they
together travels around the sun,
the gravitational forces causes
the world ocean water level to rise
and fall.
(vi) Twinkle at night appears to be F. Lunar
being moving from East to West. highlands
(vii) It is massive enough so that its G. Planets
own gravity causes it assumes a
spherical shape.
(viii) A group of stars. H. A galaxy
7
(ix) Is a faintly bright belt, stretching I. Heliocentric
approximately in a North-South theory
direction over East Africa, from
horizon to horizon.
(x) Resides in areas of space J. A star
populated by numerous other
objects, it is no longer considered,
now designated a dwarf planet.
K. Asteroids
L. Zodiacal light
M. Pluto
N. Satellites
O. Younger
Maria
P. The Milky-
way
Q. Ocean tides
R. Proxigee
S. Ocean
current
T. A
constellation
U. Meteriorites
8
V. Comets
W. Asteroids
X.
Y. A
Z. milk way
57. For each of the items (i) – (x), fill in the blanks space
by writing the correct answer/word(s) against the item
number in the booklet provided.
(i) ……… is the opposition that a circuit component
or a substance offers to the flow of electric
current.
(ii) The deliberate adding very small amount of
impurities to a very pure semiconductor crystal
is called …………..
(iii) …………… is the phenomena occurs when
positive and negative clouds collides.
(iv) ………….. is an image that cannot be real and so
cannot be formed on screen.
(v) The device used to test the sign of charge is
called ……………..
(vi) ………………. Is an upward force exerted by
fluids on the other bodies.
9
(vii) When needle, paper clips, razor blades and chalk
powder were placed on the surface of water, they
all floated on top. This were due to property
known a ………………
(viii) ………. Is the point within the earth where an
earthquake begin.
(ix) A tendency of material to drop to lower levels of
liquid is called ……………
(x) ……………. Is an instrument for determining the
relative density of liquid.
SECTION B: (60 MARKS)
58. (a) Define the following terms:

(i) Equilibrium
(ii) Centre of gravity.
(b) Briefly explain why:
(i) A racing car rarely get accident despite of
moving with very high speed.
(ii Door handles are placed at the end of the
door and not at the centre.
10
(c) A uniform half metre rule is freely pivoted at the
15 cm mark and balanced horizontally when mass
of 40g hangs at 20cm mark. Make a clear sketch
to show the forces and then calculate the mass of
a half met ruler.
59. (a) Is there differences between boiling and
evaporation? If any Note them down.
(b) Why spirit poured on the skin feels much colder
than water at the same temperature?.
(c) 90g of water at 97ºC was added to 120g of brine
in a Copper calorimeter of mass 50g at 17ºC. The
final temperature of the mixture was 55ºC.
Calculate the specific heat capacity of the brine.
60. (a) Define the following terms as applied to curved
mirrors.
(i) Principle focus
(ii) Principle axis
11
𝑣
(b) Given 1⁄𝑢 + 1⁄𝑣 = 1⁄𝑓 and M =
𝑢
Where u - is object distance

V – Image distance
F - focal length, and
M – Magnification of image
(M +1)f
Show that object distance u =
M
(c) An object is placed on the axis of the concave

mirror of focal length 200mm. The image produced
has magnification of 1.5. Calculate the position
of the image formed.
61. (a) Define the term “Electromagnetic Induction”
(b) (i) What is Induction Coil.
(ii) With the help of a well labeled diagram,
explain the mode of action of an induction
coil.
(c) State reasons why practical transformer are NOT
100% efficient.
62. (a) (i) Define radioactively decay.
12
(ii) The half life of a certain unstable
radionuclide is 64 days. Explain the meaning
of this statement.
(b) A radioactive material has a half life of 2 minutes.
If the initial contrate is 256 countrate per minute.
(i) How long will it take for the contrate to

drop to 32 countrate per minute?
(ii) What fraction of the original amount will
remain undecayed?
(c) (i) What is nuclear fission?
(iii) Uranium, U – 238 will atomic number 92,

emits two alpha particle (∝- particle) and
two beta particles (𝛽 - particle) and finally
form thorivum (Th) nucleus. Write the
nuclear equations for this process.
63. (a) (i) What are cathode rays?
(ii) Briefly explain what happens when cathode
rays stopped suddenly.
(b) (i) Draw a well labeled diagram of the X-ray
13
tube.
(iii) Distinguish between soft X-rays and Hard
X-rays. (Any three (3)
Answer only ONE (1) question from this section
64. (a) Distinguish the following.
(i) Mechanical waves and Electromagnetic
waves.
(ii) Transverse waves and Longitudinal waves.
(b) (i) Explain why duck remain floating at the

same place as a wave passes by water in a
pond.
(ii) An FM radio station broadcasts
electromagnetic waves at a frequency of 125M
Hz. The radio waves has wavelength of 2.4
metres. Calculate the speed of radio waves.
(c) (i) What are Microwaves?
(ii) List down two uses of Micro waves.
14
65. (a) Define the following terms.
(i) Transistor
(ii) Diode
(b) (i) Differentiate between extrinsic and intrinsic
semiconductor.
(ii) The output power of a signal is 50W and
Input power is 0.1W. Calculate power gain (A).
(c) (i) Draw circuit symbol for n-p-n transistor.
(ii) What is the different between analogue and
digital signals.
15

GOVERNMENT

ChemIstry
THURSDAY, 24th May, 2018 2.00-5.00 p.m.
INSTRUCTIONS:
(xlix) This paper consists of Sections A, B and C.

(l) Answer ALL questions in ALL sections.
(li) Cellular phones and Calculators are not allowed in
(lii) Write your Examination number on every page of
your booklet(s).
(liii) The following constants may be used:
 Atomic masses: H = 1, C = 12, Na = 23, S
= 3, Ca = 40, Mg = 24, Pb = 207, Al = 27, Cl =
35.5
 G.M.V. = 22.4dm3
 Avogadro’s constant = 6.02 x 1023
 1F = 96500 C
 1 L = 1dm3 = 1000cm3
1
SECTION A:
answer from the given alternatives and write its answer
in the answer sheet provided.
(xxxi) Domestic utensils do rust as a result of the
presence of:
I. Air and fire D. Oil and fire

J. Air and water E. Air and oil
K. Water and oil
(xxxii) The discharge of cations during electrolysis
is:-
K. Oxidation D. Electro coating

L. Reduction E. Sacrificial
M. Catalytic reaction
(xxxiii) A mixture of 50cm3 of ethanol and 50cm3 of
water can be separated by:
I. Solvent extraction D. Filtration
J. Fractional distillation E. Decantation
K. Simple distillation
2
(xxxiv) If 0.9g of Calcium metal is burnt in air, the
mass of powder formed is:
I. 1.14g D. 1.08g
J. 1.18 g E. 1.26g
K. 1.12g
(xxxv) A certain liquid has a pH of 9. This shows that
it is an::
H. Oxide D. Alkali
I. Acid E. Amine
J. Indicator
(xxxvi) When methane is completely burnt in
Oxygen, the products will:-
O. Carbon, Carbon monoxide and water vapour
P. Hydrogen, carbon dioxide and water vapour
Q. Carbon monoxide and water vapour
R. Oxygen, Carbon dioxide and water vapour
S. Oxygen, Carbondioxide and water vapour
(xxxvii) Which of the following is true about ionic

compounds?
O. They are easily vapourized
P. They are easily dissolved in organic solvents
Q. They are electrically neutral
3
R. They are poor conductors of electricity
S. They form covalent bonds with transition
cations
(xxxviii) Which of the following is not true about
hydrogen gas?
K. Is a reducing agent
L. Is a neutral gas, almost insoluble in water
M. Burns in air to form steam
N. Diffuses more rapidly than carbon dioxide
O. Is prepared by action of dilute nitric acid on
Zinc metal
(xxxix) Insoluble salts like barium sulphate, generally
can be obtained in the laboratory by:
H. Evaporation of its concentrated solution
I. Crystallization
J. Precipitation
K. Decomposition
L. Decrepitation
(xl) Which of the following is not among the
instruments and chemicals used for First Aid?
F. Pair of scissors
G. Assorted bandages
H. Sterilized cotton wool
4
I. Mosquito spray
J. Iodine tincture
67. Match the items in LIST A with the response in LIST
B by writing the letter of the correct responses besides
item number in answer sheet provided.
LIST A LIST B
(i) Burns in air with a persistent A. Zinc, Lead, Copper
golden yellow flame and Iron
(ii) Atoms of the same element B. Atomic number
that contain different number
of neutrons
(iii) Forms lather evenly with soap C. Electron
(iv) The number of unpaired D. Radical
electrons on an atom
(v) Sub atomic particle with no E. Metalloids
charge
(vi) The number of protons found F. Mass number
in the nucleus of an atom
(vii) Display both metallic and non- G. Iron test
metallic characteristics
(viii) Brown ring test H. Confirmatory test
for Nitrates
5
(ix) Their carbonates decomposes I. Mg, Al, Zn and Pb
readily when heated to give
metal oxides and carbon
dioxide
(x) Forms basic oxides J. Valence
K. Allotropes
L. Isotopes
M. Hard water
N. Soft water
O. Sodium
P. Neutron
Q. Magnesium
R. Oxygen
S. Electron
SECTION B: (54 Marks)
68. The table below shows a part of periodic table with

atomic numbers from 3 to 18. Some elements are
shown by letters but the letters are not the real
symbols of the elements, study it and then answer the
questions that follow.
6
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
K L M
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 (b)
N O P Q
(a) Among the elements lettered K to Q, which one
(i) Is a halogen?
(ii) Is a noble gas
(b) Give the formula of the following:
(i) Hydride of P (ii) Oxide of O.

(c) Indicate whether the bonding in the Oxide O and
P will be ionic or covalent? Give reasons for your
answer.
69. (a) A Commercial Sulphuric acid usually labeled as
98% of the acid by weight and having the density of
1.84g/cm3.
(iii) Calculate the molarity of this industrial
acid.
(iv) What volume of this acid that will be
required to prepare 2dm3 of 0.5M
Sulphuric acid?
7
(c) Name the indicator you would choose for the
following titrations:
(iii) Hydrochloric acid versus ammonia
solution.
(iv) Acetic acid versus sodium hydroxide.
70. (a) Distinguish the following:

(iii) Equilibrium reaction from reversible
reaction.
(iv) Endothermic reaction from exothermic
reaction.
(c) The following equation shows reaction between
hydrogen and iodine gases to form hydrogen
iodide gas.
H2 + I2 ⇌ 2HI + Heat
Explain what happens to the position of
equilibrium if:-
(iv) The temperature is increased?
(v) The pressure is lowered?
(vi) Hydrogen iodide is pumped into the system.
71. The diagrams below represent common methods of
collecting the gases in the laboratory.
8
Method A Method B Method C
(d) Identify the methods A, B and C
(e) Which method is used in the laboratories to
prepare the following gas:
(iv) Ammonia
(v) Chlorine
(vi) Hydrogen
(f) State whether each of the following processes
involves a chemical or physical change.
(v) Paper burning
(vi) Glass breaking
(vii) Changing liquid to solid
(viii) Rusting of iron
72. (a) Differentiate empirical formula from molecular
formula.
9
(b) Calculate the percentage composition by mass of
water in hydrated magnesium chloride, MgCl2.6H2O.
(c) Calculate the empirical formula for a compound
with the following composition.
Lead 8.32g, Sulphur 1.28g and Oxygen 2.56g.
73. (a) Define the term class C – fire.
(b) (i)Name one combustible material in class - C fire.
(ii) Why is water not used to put off oil fires?
(iii) Your friends clothes have caught fire. In
order to extinguish the fire you have decided
to use damp blanket to cover her. What is
the function of a damp blanket?
(c) (i) Is air a compound or a mixture? Give four
points to support your answer.
(ii) Name components of the fire triangle.

74. (a) Define the following items.
(iii) Electrolysis
(iv) Electroplating
(b) State the laws of electrolysis.
10
(c) 0.2F of electricity is passed through a solution of
Copper II Sulphate. Calculate the mass of copper
deposited and the volume of Oxygen gas produced at
S.T.P.
75. (a) Balance the following equations:

(iv) Ca + H3PO4 Ca3(PO4)2 + H2
(v) Cu + HNO3 Cu(NO3)2 + NO2 + H2O
(vi) SnCl2 + FeCl3 SnCl4 + FeCl2
(b) With the equation where necessary what will
happen when:
(iv) Iron II chloride is introduced into a gas jar
containing chlorine gas.
(v) A burning splint is introduced into a gas
jar containing hydrogen.
(vi) A gas containing ammonia gas is left open
near the reagent bottle hydrogen chloride
gas.
76. (a) Describe the extraction of Sodium from its ore and
write all the reaction equations.
(b) State four (4) uses of sodium metal.
11

GOVERNMENT
Book - keeping
FRIDAY 25th May, 2018 8.00-11.00 a.m.
INSTRUCTIONS:
(liv) This paper consists of Sections A, B and C.

(lv) Answer ALL questions.
(lvi) Calculators and Cellular phones are not allowed in
any way in the Examination room.
(lvii) Remember to write your Examination number on
every page of your answer sheet provided.

1
77. For each of the following items (i) – (x), choose the correct
answer from among the given alternatives and write its
letter besides the item number in the answer
sheet(s)/booklet(s) provided.
(xli) If we take goods for personal use we should debit:
L. Drawing account, credit purchases account

M. Purchases account, credit drawings account
N. Sales account, credit stock account
O. Sales account, credit purchases account
P. Supplier, credit owners account
(xlii) A cheque paid by the business owner that is in
possession of payee but not yet deposited with the
bank is called:
N. Standing Order D. Unpresented cheque

O. Unpaid cheque E. Drawers cheque
P. Dishonoured cheque
(xliii) In the trading account, the sales returns should be:
L. Added to cost of goods sold
M. Deducted from purchases
N. Deducted from sales
2
O. Added to sales
P. Added to purchases
(xliv) A person selling goods on behalf of the principal is
called:
L. Partner D. Consignee
M. Auditor E. Wholesaler
N. Consignor
(xlv) Which of the following is nominal account:
A. Bank account
B. Furniture and fittings
C. Motor vehicle
D. Motor running expenses
E. Bank overdraft
(xlvi) A receipt and payments account is one::-
T. Which is accompanied by a balance sheet
U. In which the profit is calculated
V. In which the opening and closing cash
balance are shown
W. In which the surplus of income over
expenditure is calculated
X. In which loss is realized
3
(xlvii) Cheusi buys Tshs.4,000/= worth of goods
and sell 75% of them for Tshs.5,000/=. Her gross
profit is shs:
T. Tshs.1,000/= D. Tshs.4,000/=
U. Tshs.2,000/= E. Tshs.5,000/=
V. Tshs.3,000/=
(xlviii) The best method of departmental account is:
P. To allocate expenses in proportion to sales
Q. To charge against each department its
controllable costs
R. To charge all expenses between the
departments
S. To share costs among department
T. To calculate gross profit only
(xlix) On receipts of the acceptance from the drawee of
a bill of exchange, the drawer
M. Credit a debtors account

N. Remove the acceptor’s account from books of
Account
O. Charges the bank account
P. Takes absolutely no accounting action
Q. Is not paid completely.
4
(l) If creditors at January 1st 2015 were 5,000/=,
creditors at 31st December 2015 were 8,400/=
and the payment for creditors were 64,000/=
then, the purchases for 2015 were:
A. 6,060/= D. 60,600/=
B. 67.400/= E. Non of the above
C. 63,200/=
78. Choose the correct items from LIST B and matches
with the explanation in LIST A and write its letter
against the number of corresponding explanation in the
tables.
LIST A LIST B
(i) Is where both debit and credit entries A. Books of
are shown in the cash book. Prime entries
(ii) Subsidiary books used to record B. Advice note
goods returned by customers.
(iii) Verification of value of the property of C. Nugatory
the business and value of its debts. expenditure
(iv) An excess of costs of sales over sales. D. Gross profit
(v) The expenditure for which the E. Stock taking

government has received no value.
5
(vi) Resources owned by the business F. Delivery note
(vii) A document which shows quantities G. Accrual
of goods dispatched and their port expenses
destination
(viii) A document sent by the seller to the H. Net profit
buyer to correct an undercharge on
the original invoice.
(ix) A document sent by the seller to the I. Contra entry
buyer to correct an overcharge on the
original invoice.
(x) A document written by the seller J. Trial balance
giving information that the goods
ordered have been sent.
K. Balance
sheet audit
L. Assets
M. Return
Inward day
Book
N. Invoice
O. Inquiry
P. Debit note
Q. Gross loss
6
R. Proforma
Invoice
S. Sales ledger
T. Balance
sheet
U. Return note
V. Credit note
79. (a) State five limitations of single entry system.

(b) Classify the following expenditures into capital
and revenue expenditures.
Expenditure Type of expenditure

1. Buying van a) ……………………………….
2. Petrol cost for van b) ……………………………….
3. Repairs to van c) ……………………………….
4. Putting extra head d) ……………………………….
light on van
5. Buying Machinery e) ………………………………..
80. (a) Subscription - in arrears on 1st January, 2015
Shs.4,000/=
7
- In advance on 1st January,
2015 shs.1,200/=
- Received during the year
Shs.48,920/=
- In areas 31st December, 2015
Shs.2,100/=
- In advance on 31st December,
2015 shs.8,900/=
Prepare the subscription account and show

clearly the balances (c/d and b/d)
(b) Write short notes on the following:
(i) Business entity concept
(ii) Zero base budgeting
(iii) Virement
SECTION C: (60 MARKS)
81. Brown of London consigned 300 cases of soap at 12/=

each to Green of Canada on 10th Jan 2004. On 25th
December, 2004 Green forward an account sale with
draft for balance showing the following:
(i) 250 cases sold for shs.5,900/=
8
(ii) Port and duty charges shs.720/=
(iii) Storage charges shs.410/=
(iv) Commission on sale 5% Del Credere 1%
In addition to the above information, consignor
incurred shs.1,000/= for freight and 270 for insurance
when goods sent to Green.
Required: Show ledger entries in the books of
Consignor.
82. Mwananchi Mwenyewe extracted a trial balance as at
31st Dec 2010. He was unable to balance it, but as
urgently needed his accounts for tax purposes; he
opened a suspense account and entered shs.11,050/=
debit balance in it.
In the next year he found the following errors listed:
(i) The sales returns book had been under cast by
shs.1,000/=
(ii) Drawings of shs.800/= had been debited to
wages account.
(iii) A payment of bank charges shs.2,700/= had not
been posted to the expenses account.
(iv) A sale of goods shs.3,850/= to Utalijua Jiji on
30th Dec, 2010 had not been entered in the books
at all.
9
(v) A rent rebate of shs.2,000/= had been entered in
the cash book but not posted elsewhere.
(vi) The Purchases Day Book had carried forward a
figure of shs.247,980/= when it should have
been shs.248,970/=
(vii) Discount allowed of shs,2,180/= had been
credited to the discount allowed account.
Form the above information, you are required to
prepare:-
(i) The journal entries needed to correct the
errors.
(ii) The suspense account balanced off.
83. Robinson and Emily are in partnership. They share
profit and loss in the ratio of 3:2. The following Trial
Balance was extracted as at 31st Dec. 2015
S/N DETAI.S DR. CR
1. Office equipment (at cost) 26,000
2. Motor vehicle (at cost) 36,800
3. Provision for depreciation
at 31st Dec. 2014
- MotorVehicle 14,720
- Office equipment 7,800
4. Stock 31st Dec. 2014 99,880
10
5. Debtor and Creditor 83,840
6. Cash at bank 2,460
7. Cash in hand 560
8. Purchases and sales 286,520
9. Salaries 23,668
10. Office expenses 5,480
11. Discount allowed 2,252
12. Current account at 31st
Dec. 2014
Robinson 5,516
Emily 4,844
13. Capital: Robinson 108,000
Emily 48,000
14. Drawings: Robinson 32,000
Emily 16,000
615,460 615,460
The following notes are also applicable at 31st Dec,

2014:
(a) Stock 31st Dec 2014 shs.109.360
(b) Office expenses owing shs.440/-
(c) Provide for depreciation, motor vehicle 20% of cost
and Equipment 10% on book value per annual.
(d) Charge interest on Capital at 10%
11
(e) Charge interest on drawings: Robinson Shs.720/=
and Emily shs.840.
Required:
(i) Trading and Profit and Loss, Appropriation
account for the year ended 31st Dec. 2014
(ii) Partner’s current account in a columnar
form.
(iii) A balance sheet as at that date.
12

GOVERNMENT
Commerce
FRIDAY 25th May, 2018 2.00-4.30 p.m.
INSTRUCTIONS:
(lviii) This paper consists of Sections A, B and C.

(lix) Answer ALL questions in section A and B, and only
TWO (2) questions from section C.
(lx) Calculators and Cellular phones are NOT allowed in
(lxi) Write your Examination number on every page of
your examination booklet(s).
1
84. For each of the items (i) – (x), choose the answer from
among the given alternatives and write its letter besides
the item number in your answer booklet(s).
(li) Other things remaining equal the price of
commodities are usually based on.
Q. Supply and demand

R. Competition
S. Cost of selling
T. Supply
U. All the above
(lii) The amount of capital a company is allowed to
raise is called:
Q. Paid up capital
R. Called up capital
S. Issued capital
T. Nominal capital
U. Total capital
(liii) The tax levied on goods produced within a country
are called:
2
Q. Custom duties
R. Preference duties
S. Specific duties
T. Exercise tax
U. Advalorem duties
(liv) A credit note is issued to correct:
O. Any error in an invoice
P. An undercharge in an invoice
Q. Overcharge in an invoice
R. Errors of Omission
S. Error in delivery
(lv) Principle of Insurance which ensures equitable
distribution of losses between different insurers
who may have covered the same subject matter of
Insurance
K. Subrogation D. General average

L. Proximate cause E. Ice-Insurance
M. Contribution
(lvi) ……………… provide for hire of a ship for a
particular period of time:
Y. Time charter
3
Z. Voyage charter
AA. Voyage portly
BB. Containerization
CC. Advertising
(lvii) Which of the following is not function of
Management.
W. Planning D. Production
X. Staffing E. Organizing
Y. Direction
(lviii) Satisfaction derived after consumption of goods
and services is referred to as:
U. Utility D. Exchange
V. Satisfaction E. Auxiliary services
W. Consumption
(lix) A cheque is drawn in favour of Moses Msaliboko.
How is Moses Msaliboko described?
R. A drawer D. An endorsee
S. Payee E. A payer
T. A drawee
(lx) Which of the following is an example of visible
exports:
4
A. Financial services C. Selling vehicles
B. Tourism E. Education services
U. Vehicle insuarance
85. MATCHING ITEMS
Match the items in Column A with the responses in Column
B by writing the letter of the correct response beside the item
number in your answer booklet
COLUMN A COLUMN B
(i) Companies created by an act of A. Prospectus
parliament.
(ii) Is a unit of capital of a joint stock B. Ordinary share
Company.
(iii) A document that evidence that a C. Dividend
Company has borrowed a specific
sum of money.
(iv) A document issued by BRELA D. Memorandum
empowering a public company to of association
commence business
(v) A document which gives legal E. Secured
existence of a limited company debentures
(vi) Companies formed and registered F. Certificate of
under Companies Act incorporation
5
(vii) A document which lays down and G. Partnership
define the powers and limitation of deed
a companies to outsiders
(viii) People who initiates the idea of H. Trading licence
forming a company
(ix) A document which invite the I. Pioneers
public to subscribe shares in a
public company.
(x) A document which lays down the J. Statutory
rules and regulation for the company
internal affairs of a company
K. Articles of
association
L. Promoters
M. Debentures
N. Certificate of
trading
O. A share
P. Certificate of
hypothecation
Q. Registered
Company
6
R. Preference
shares
S. Articles of
Association
Answer ALL questions in this section s
86. Write short notes on the following:

(a) Premium
(b) Supermarket
(c) A catalogue
(d) Cover note
(e) Cash discount
87. Distinguish the following

(a) Single shops and tied shops
(b) Posters and neon signs
(c) Jointly supply and jointly demand
(d) Liners and tramps
88. (a) If the business current assets are shs.23,500,
7
fixed assets are shs.76,500, long term liabilities
are shs.20,000 and current liabilities are
shs.18,500. Calculate working capital.
(b) The price of commodity x rose by 50% resulting to
20% fall in quantity demanded.
(i) Calculate its demanded elasticity
(ii) What does the result of your calculations tell
you?
89. Mention and briefly explain the six advantages and

four disadvantages of specialization.
Choose only TWO (2) questions from this section
90. (a) What is balance of trade?

(b) Why should a country like Tanzania deal with
foreign trade.
91. What are the dangers of competitive advertising to the

consumer?
92. (a) Mention and explain source of capital of sole
Proprietor.
8
(b) Distinguish between general and limited
partnership.
93. Why transportation is so important in business and in
Commercial transactions

Arusha Mock F4 - 2018 - All Exam PDF

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Arusha Mock F4 - 2018 - All Exam PDF

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

President’s Office

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL

(i) This paper consists of Two Sections A and B.

This paper consists of 10 printed pages

Answer ALL questions from this section

1. (a) From the set of the numbers

(0.0004)2 𝑥 √30000 𝑥 √0.0003

3. (a) In a survey at airport, 55 travelers said that

4. (a) Given that 𝑢 = 𝑖 + 3j and 𝑣 = 2𝑖 - j.

Find the magnitude and direction of vector 𝑤

(b) Find the equation of the line through the

6. (a) If X varies directly as Y and inversely as W,

9. (a) Musa walks 1km up the side of the hill. If he

simplified form of 𝑎⁄𝑏 the value of

10. (a) Solve x2 ― 3x ― 10 = 0 by using quadratic

SECTION B: (40 marks)

12. The masses of 40 students joined Form Five 2017

(b) In the figure below PQRS in a cyclic

14. Use the following Trial Balance to prepare an

NB: Closing stock as at 31st December, 2015 was

REGIONAL ADMINISTRATION AND LOCAL

(vii) This paper consists of Sections A , B and C.

This paper consists of 11 printed pages

Answer all questions in this section

SECTION B: (60 marks)

19. (a) What is photolysis of water?.

(i) Name the part labeled A, B, C and D.

23. (a) Differentiate a zygote and an embryo.

(ii) Stimulate milk production.

(iii) Maintain thickness of uterine wall during

(c) Mention the important product or main product

(i) Plants undergo anaerobic respiration

(ii) Living organisms respire aerobically.

24. (a) Give two reasons why biologist classify

some associated structures. Study it and answer the

question that follows.

(a) Name parts labeled A, B, C and D.

(b) What is the function of each part labeled B, D and

(c) Name two parts of the body where this joint is

(d) To what extent (degree) this joint moves.

(e) Give the type of this joint.

26. (a) State the Larmakian Theory of “Use and disuse”.

(b) Give another name of:-

(ii) Relay Neurone

(iii) Ant diuretic hormone

(c) Explain why frogs die when placed in a well

ventilated container with small amount of water.

(d) Name the chemical substance which aid (help) the

passage of nerve impulse across a synapse.

SECTION C: (20 marks)

Answer only ONE (1) question from this section

27. Write an essay under the following guidelines:

(a) What is balanced diet?

(b) State the constituent of balanced diet and their

(c) What cause malnutrition.

(d) Mention any three disorder caused by

malnutrition and the main food deficiency

associated with each disorder.

control of such disorders.

28. (a) With an example in each case, define the following

(iii) Pandemic diseases

(b) Write short notes on malaria disease under the

* All the Best *

* All the Best *

* All the Best *