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Solutions of Mock CAT - 07 (CAT 2015 Pattern)

 Scorecard

 Accuracy

 Qs Analysis

 Booster Analysis

 Video Analysis

 Solutions

 Bookmarks

 VRC

 LRDI

 QA

Sec 1

Directions for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Women have emerged as the natural leaders of efforts to implement these legal
amendments, as they have traditionally managed forestlands, sustainably sourcing food,
fuel and fodder for the landless poor, as well as gathering farm-fencing materials,
medicinal plants and wood to build their thatched-roof homes.

Under the leadership of women like Pradhan, 850 villages in the Nayagarh district of
Odisha state are collectively managing 100,000 hectares of forest land, with the result
that 53 percent of the district’s land mass now has forest cover. This is more than
double India’s national average of 21 percent forest cover. Overall, 15,000 villages in
India, primarily in the eastern states, protect around two million hectares of forests.

According to the latest Forest Survey of India, the country’s forest cover increased by
5,871 square km between 2010 and 2012, bringing total forest cover to 697,898 sq km
(about 69 million hectares). Still, research indicates that every single day, an average of
135 hectares of forestland is handed over to development projects like mining and
power generation.

Tribal communities in Odisha are no strangers to large-scale development projects that


guzzle land. Forty years of illegal logging across the state’s heartland forest belt,
coupled with a major commercial timber trade in teak, sal and bamboo, left the hilltops
bald and barren. Streams that had once irrigated small plots of farmland began to run
dry, while groundwater sources gradually disappeared. Over a 40-year period, between
1965 and 2004, Odisha experienced recurring and chronic droughts, including three
consecutive dry spells from 1965-1967. As a result of the heavy felling of trees for the
timber trade, Nayagarh suffered six droughts in a 10-year span, which shattered a
network of farm- and forest-based livelihoods. Villages emptied out as nearly 50 percent
of the population fled in search of alternatives.

As the crisis escalated, Kesarpur, a village council in Nayagarh, devised a campaign


that now serves as the template for community forestry in Odisha. The council allocated
need-based rights to families wishing to gather wood fuel, fodder or edible produce.
Anyone wishing to fell a tree for a funeral pyre or house repairs had to seek special
permission. Carrying axes into the forest was prohibited.

Villagers took it in turns to patrol the forest using the ‘thengapali’ system, literally
translated as ‘stick rotation’: each night, representatives from four families would carry
stout, carved sticks into the forest. At the end of their shift, the scouts placed the sticks
on their neighbours’ verandahs, indicating a change of guard. The council imposed
strict yet logical penalties on those who failed to comply: anyone caught stealing had to
pay a cash fine corresponding to the theft; skipping a turn at patrol duty resulted in an
extra night of standing guard.

As the forests slowly regenerated, the villagers made additional sacrifices. Goats,
considered quick-cash assets in hard times, were sold off and banned for 10 years to
protect the fresh green shoots on the forest floor. Instead of cooking twice a day,
families prepared both meals on a single fire to save wood.

Some 20 years after this ‘pilot’ project was implemented, in early April of 2015, a hill
stream gurgles past on the outskirts of Gunduribadi, irrigating small farms of ready-to-
harvest lentils and vegetables.

Manas Pradhan, who heads the local forest protection committee (FPC), explains that
rains bring rich forest humus into the 28 hectares of farmland managed by 27 families.
This has resulted in soil so rich a single hectare produces 6,500 kg of rice without
chemical boosters – three times the yield from farms around unprotected forests.

Q.1
Which of the following options best represents the central idea of the passage?

a The arising of a new movement amongst tribal communities to protect the forest
and its resources

b The role of women in protecting the land rights of tribals and in ensuring
sustainable use of forest resources

c The rampant misuse of forest land and resources will lead to their depletion and
eventual loss of livelihood for tribal communities

d The importance of the involvement of tribal communities in the protection and


regeneration of the forest and its resources

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Women have emerged as the natural leaders of efforts to implement these legal
amendments, as they have traditionally managed forestlands, sustainably sourcing food,
fuel and fodder for the landless poor, as well as gathering farm-fencing materials,
medicinal plants and wood to build their thatched-roof homes.

Under the leadership of women like Pradhan, 850 villages in the Nayagarh district of
Odisha state are collectively managing 100,000 hectares of forest land, with the result
that 53 percent of the district’s land mass now has forest cover. This is more than
double India’s national average of 21 percent forest cover. Overall, 15,000 villages in
India, primarily in the eastern states, protect around two million hectares of forests.

According to the latest Forest Survey of India, the country’s forest cover increased by
5,871 square km between 2010 and 2012, bringing total forest cover to 697,898 sq km
(about 69 million hectares). Still, research indicates that every single day, an average of
135 hectares of forestland is handed over to development projects like mining and
power generation.

Tribal communities in Odisha are no strangers to large-scale development projects that


guzzle land. Forty years of illegal logging across the state’s heartland forest belt,
coupled with a major commercial timber trade in teak, sal and bamboo, left the hilltops
bald and barren. Streams that had once irrigated small plots of farmland began to run
dry, while groundwater sources gradually disappeared. Over a 40-year period, between
1965 and 2004, Odisha experienced recurring and chronic droughts, including three
consecutive dry spells from 1965-1967. As a result of the heavy felling of trees for the
timber trade, Nayagarh suffered six droughts in a 10-year span, which shattered a
network of farm- and forest-based livelihoods. Villages emptied out as nearly 50 percent
of the population fled in search of alternatives.

As the crisis escalated, Kesarpur, a village council in Nayagarh, devised a campaign


that now serves as the template for community forestry in Odisha. The council allocated
need-based rights to families wishing to gather wood fuel, fodder or edible produce.
Anyone wishing to fell a tree for a funeral pyre or house repairs had to seek special
permission. Carrying axes into the forest was prohibited.

Villagers took it in turns to patrol the forest using the ‘thengapali’ system, literally
translated as ‘stick rotation’: each night, representatives from four families would carry
stout, carved sticks into the forest. At the end of their shift, the scouts placed the sticks
on their neighbours’ verandahs, indicating a change of guard. The council imposed
strict yet logical penalties on those who failed to comply: anyone caught stealing had to
pay a cash fine corresponding to the theft; skipping a turn at patrol duty resulted in an
extra night of standing guard.

As the forests slowly regenerated, the villagers made additional sacrifices. Goats,
considered quick-cash assets in hard times, were sold off and banned for 10 years to
protect the fresh green shoots on the forest floor. Instead of cooking twice a day,
families prepared both meals on a single fire to save wood.

Some 20 years after this ‘pilot’ project was implemented, in early April of 2015, a hill
stream gurgles past on the outskirts of Gunduribadi, irrigating small farms of ready-to-
harvest lentils and vegetables.
Manas Pradhan, who heads the local forest protection committee (FPC), explains that
rains bring rich forest humus into the 28 hectares of farmland managed by 27 families.
This has resulted in soil so rich a single hectare produces 6,500 kg of rice without
chemical boosters – three times the yield from farms around unprotected forests.

Q.2
The data provided in the third paragraph lead to the inference that

a larger collective efforts of villages will lead to better management of India’s


forest cover.

b development projects should be sanctioned with the view that they do not harm
the sustainability of the forest resources.

c the eastern states of India are spearheading the initiative that helps protect the
country’s forest cover.

d the increase in forest cover in India, between 2010 and 2012, is being completely
offset everyday by the proliferation of development projects on forest land.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Women have emerged as the natural leaders of efforts to implement these legal
amendments, as they have traditionally managed forestlands, sustainably sourcing food,
fuel and fodder for the landless poor, as well as gathering farm-fencing materials,
medicinal plants and wood to build their thatched-roof homes.

Under the leadership of women like Pradhan, 850 villages in the Nayagarh district of
Odisha state are collectively managing 100,000 hectares of forest land, with the result
that 53 percent of the district’s land mass now has forest cover. This is more than
double India’s national average of 21 percent forest cover. Overall, 15,000 villages in
India, primarily in the eastern states, protect around two million hectares of forests.

According to the latest Forest Survey of India, the country’s forest cover increased by
5,871 square km between 2010 and 2012, bringing total forest cover to 697,898 sq km
(about 69 million hectares). Still, research indicates that every single day, an average of
135 hectares of forestland is handed over to development projects like mining and
power generation.

Tribal communities in Odisha are no strangers to large-scale development projects that


guzzle land. Forty years of illegal logging across the state’s heartland forest belt,
coupled with a major commercial timber trade in teak, sal and bamboo, left the hilltops
bald and barren. Streams that had once irrigated small plots of farmland began to run
dry, while groundwater sources gradually disappeared. Over a 40-year period, between
1965 and 2004, Odisha experienced recurring and chronic droughts, including three
consecutive dry spells from 1965-1967. As a result of the heavy felling of trees for the
timber trade, Nayagarh suffered six droughts in a 10-year span, which shattered a
network of farm- and forest-based livelihoods. Villages emptied out as nearly 50 percent
of the population fled in search of alternatives.

As the crisis escalated, Kesarpur, a village council in Nayagarh, devised a campaign


that now serves as the template for community forestry in Odisha. The council allocated
need-based rights to families wishing to gather wood fuel, fodder or edible produce.
Anyone wishing to fell a tree for a funeral pyre or house repairs had to seek special
permission. Carrying axes into the forest was prohibited.

Villagers took it in turns to patrol the forest using the ‘thengapali’ system, literally
translated as ‘stick rotation’: each night, representatives from four families would carry
stout, carved sticks into the forest. At the end of their shift, the scouts placed the sticks
on their neighbours’ verandahs, indicating a change of guard. The council imposed
strict yet logical penalties on those who failed to comply: anyone caught stealing had to
pay a cash fine corresponding to the theft; skipping a turn at patrol duty resulted in an
extra night of standing guard.

As the forests slowly regenerated, the villagers made additional sacrifices. Goats,
considered quick-cash assets in hard times, were sold off and banned for 10 years to
protect the fresh green shoots on the forest floor. Instead of cooking twice a day,
families prepared both meals on a single fire to save wood.

Some 20 years after this ‘pilot’ project was implemented, in early April of 2015, a hill
stream gurgles past on the outskirts of Gunduribadi, irrigating small farms of ready-to-
harvest lentils and vegetables.

Manas Pradhan, who heads the local forest protection committee (FPC), explains that
rains bring rich forest humus into the 28 hectares of farmland managed by 27 families.
This has resulted in soil so rich a single hectare produces 6,500 kg of rice without
chemical boosters – three times the yield from farms around unprotected forests.

Q.3
From the information given in the passage, which of the following cannot be inferred?

a Rampant and illegal logging in Orissa and subsequent deforestation is related to


the drying up of the groundwater resources.

b Loss of livelihoods in the villages of Nayagarh can be linked to the rapid


deforestation that took place in the state.

c Prohibitory measures to ensure that forest resources are not misused have helped
in the forest regeneration process in Orissa.
d The prohibition on grazing of animals in the forest has helped in safeguarding the
regeneration process of the forest.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Women have emerged as the natural leaders of efforts to implement these legal
amendments, as they have traditionally managed forestlands, sustainably sourcing food,
fuel and fodder for the landless poor, as well as gathering farm-fencing materials,
medicinal plants and wood to build their thatched-roof homes.

Under the leadership of women like Pradhan, 850 villages in the Nayagarh district of
Odisha state are collectively managing 100,000 hectares of forest land, with the result
that 53 percent of the district’s land mass now has forest cover. This is more than
double India’s national average of 21 percent forest cover. Overall, 15,000 villages in
India, primarily in the eastern states, protect around two million hectares of forests.

According to the latest Forest Survey of India, the country’s forest cover increased by
5,871 square km between 2010 and 2012, bringing total forest cover to 697,898 sq km
(about 69 million hectares). Still, research indicates that every single day, an average of
135 hectares of forestland is handed over to development projects like mining and
power generation.

Tribal communities in Odisha are no strangers to large-scale development projects that


guzzle land. Forty years of illegal logging across the state’s heartland forest belt,
coupled with a major commercial timber trade in teak, sal and bamboo, left the hilltops
bald and barren. Streams that had once irrigated small plots of farmland began to run
dry, while groundwater sources gradually disappeared. Over a 40-year period, between
1965 and 2004, Odisha experienced recurring and chronic droughts, including three
consecutive dry spells from 1965-1967. As a result of the heavy felling of trees for the
timber trade, Nayagarh suffered six droughts in a 10-year span, which shattered a
network of farm- and forest-based livelihoods. Villages emptied out as nearly 50 percent
of the population fled in search of alternatives.

As the crisis escalated, Kesarpur, a village council in Nayagarh, devised a campaign


that now serves as the template for community forestry in Odisha. The council allocated
need-based rights to families wishing to gather wood fuel, fodder or edible produce.
Anyone wishing to fell a tree for a funeral pyre or house repairs had to seek special
permission. Carrying axes into the forest was prohibited.

Villagers took it in turns to patrol the forest using the ‘thengapali’ system, literally
translated as ‘stick rotation’: each night, representatives from four families would carry
stout, carved sticks into the forest. At the end of their shift, the scouts placed the sticks
on their neighbours’ verandahs, indicating a change of guard. The council imposed
strict yet logical penalties on those who failed to comply: anyone caught stealing had to
pay a cash fine corresponding to the theft; skipping a turn at patrol duty resulted in an
extra night of standing guard.

As the forests slowly regenerated, the villagers made additional sacrifices. Goats,
considered quick-cash assets in hard times, were sold off and banned for 10 years to
protect the fresh green shoots on the forest floor. Instead of cooking twice a day,
families prepared both meals on a single fire to save wood.

Some 20 years after this ‘pilot’ project was implemented, in early April of 2015, a hill
stream gurgles past on the outskirts of Gunduribadi, irrigating small farms of ready-to-
harvest lentils and vegetables.

Manas Pradhan, who heads the local forest protection committee (FPC), explains that
rains bring rich forest humus into the 28 hectares of farmland managed by 27 families.
This has resulted in soil so rich a single hectare produces 6,500 kg of rice without
chemical boosters – three times the yield from farms around unprotected forests.

Q.4
Based on the information in the passage, it can be inferred that, of all the measures used
to regenerate forest resources, the most productive is

a Collective

b Protective

c Legal

d Prohibitory

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

The 1948 Universal Declaration of Human Rights empowered the U.N. to act as
custodian for the protection of human rights, discrimination against women, children’s
rights, torture, missing persons and arbitrary detention that was occurring in many
countries. Moreover, the U.N. and its specialised agencies are engaged in enhancing all
aspects of human life, including education, health, poverty reduction, the rights of
women and children, and climate change.

As a result, the Nobel Peace Prize was awarded 12 times to the U.N., its specialised
agencies, programmes and staff. This included an award in 1988 to the U.N.
Peacekeeping Forces, and in 2001 to the U.N. and its secretary-general, Kofi Annan.
The U.N. defined, codified and expanded the realm of international law, governing the
legal responsibilities of States in their conduct with each other, and their treatment of
individuals within State boundaries. More than 560 multilateral treaties on human
rights, refugees, disarmament, trade, oceans, outer space, etc. encompassing all aspects
of international affairs were negotiated by the U.N.

The U.N. has made progress with its eight Millennium Development Goals, which will
be followed by 17 Sustainable Development Goals to enhance social, environmental and
economic progress by 2030. But it could not stop the United States from abandoning the
Kyoto Protocol, ignoring the Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty, repudiating the
Biological Weapons Convention, and repealing the Anti-Ballistic Missile Treaty.

The U.N. is not without shortcomings. In 1970, when the Nuclear Non-proliferation
Treaty (NPT) was signed by 190 nations, all five superpowers owned nuclear weapons.
Later, despite the NPT and Partial Test Ban Treaty, several countries - North Korea,
Israel, Pakistan, and India - developed nuclear weapons. This revealed the U.N.’s
inability to enforce regulations on offending nations. Along similar lines, the U.N.’s
International Court of Justice has resolved major international disputes, but the U.N.’s
veto powers have limited its effectiveness at critical times. The International Criminal
Court, established in 2002, has prosecuted several war criminals - but it has been
criticised for prosecuting only African leaders while Western powers too have
committed war crimes.

Dag Hammarskjold, secretary-general from 1953-1961, said that the “U.N. was not
created to take mankind to heaven, but to save humanity from hell.” The U.N. has
solved many violent conflicts, prevented wars, and saved millions of lives but it also
faced disappointments. In Cambodia, a peacekeeping mission (1991–95) ended violence
and established a democratic government, but well after Pol Pot’s Khmer Rouge (1975-
79) had executed over 2.5 million people. In Rwanda, over 800,000 were massacred in
100 days. In 1995, Bosnian Serb forces overran the “safe zone” of Srebrenica and
massacred 8,000 Muslim men and boys. In Darfur, an estimated 300,000 Sudanese
civilians were killed. In Nigeria, Boko Haram has killed over 13,000 people. A recent
report by “Body Count” revealed that “in addition to one million deaths in Iraq, an
estimated 220,000 people have been killed in Afghanistan and 80,000 in Pakistan as a
result of US foreign policy”.

Last year, Israel attacked homes, schools, hospitals, and U.N. shelters in Gaza killing
2,200 Palestinians. Condemning that action, Navi Pillay, U.N. High Commissioner for
Human Rights, said that “Israel was deliberately defying international law in its
military offensive in Gaza and that world powers should hold it accountable for possible
war crimes.” The U.N. Security Council (SC) has failed as the United States vetoes any
action against Israel.

The Arab Spring in the Middle East caused thousands of deaths and regime changes in
Tunisia, Egypt, Libya and Yemen. Libya is devastated with over 40,000 deaths, and the
civil war in Syria has killed over 220,000 people. These wars have displaced over 50
million people. Now, ISIS has infiltrated these countries causing gruesome killings,
human rights abuses, and war crimes, at an unprecedented rate.

Q.5
Which of the following best defines the role that was envisioned for the UN when it was
first created?

a To defend minority groups and the weak by ensuring the protection of human
rights and the eradication of discrimination against weaker groups

b To save humanity from the scourge of war, protect human rights, maintain
international peace and security, uphold international law and enhance quality of life

c To improve the quality of life of all human beings through intervention on areas
like education, poverty and climate

d To resolve international conflicts in order to save lives and avert wars and to
ensure the liberation of countries under colonial rule

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

The 1948 Universal Declaration of Human Rights empowered the U.N. to act as
custodian for the protection of human rights, discrimination against women, children’s
rights, torture, missing persons and arbitrary detention that was occurring in many
countries. Moreover, the U.N. and its specialised agencies are engaged in enhancing all
aspects of human life, including education, health, poverty reduction, the rights of
women and children, and climate change.

As a result, the Nobel Peace Prize was awarded 12 times to the U.N., its specialised
agencies, programmes and staff. This included an award in 1988 to the U.N.
Peacekeeping Forces, and in 2001 to the U.N. and its secretary-general, Kofi Annan.
The U.N. defined, codified and expanded the realm of international law, governing the
legal responsibilities of States in their conduct with each other, and their treatment of
individuals within State boundaries. More than 560 multilateral treaties on human
rights, refugees, disarmament, trade, oceans, outer space, etc. encompassing all aspects
of international affairs were negotiated by the U.N.

The U.N. has made progress with its eight Millennium Development Goals, which will
be followed by 17 Sustainable Development Goals to enhance social, environmental and
economic progress by 2030. But it could not stop the United States from abandoning the
Kyoto Protocol, ignoring the Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty, repudiating the
Biological Weapons Convention, and repealing the Anti-Ballistic Missile Treaty.

The U.N. is not without shortcomings. In 1970, when the Nuclear Non-proliferation
Treaty (NPT) was signed by 190 nations, all five superpowers owned nuclear weapons.
Later, despite the NPT and Partial Test Ban Treaty, several countries - North Korea,
Israel, Pakistan, and India - developed nuclear weapons. This revealed the U.N.’s
inability to enforce regulations on offending nations. Along similar lines, the U.N.’s
International Court of Justice has resolved major international disputes, but the U.N.’s
veto powers have limited its effectiveness at critical times. The International Criminal
Court, established in 2002, has prosecuted several war criminals - but it has been
criticised for prosecuting only African leaders while Western powers too have
committed war crimes.

Dag Hammarskjold, secretary-general from 1953-1961, said that the “U.N. was not
created to take mankind to heaven, but to save humanity from hell.” The U.N. has
solved many violent conflicts, prevented wars, and saved millions of lives but it also
faced disappointments. In Cambodia, a peacekeeping mission (1991–95) ended violence
and established a democratic government, but well after Pol Pot’s Khmer Rouge (1975-
79) had executed over 2.5 million people. In Rwanda, over 800,000 were massacred in
100 days. In 1995, Bosnian Serb forces overran the “safe zone” of Srebrenica and
massacred 8,000 Muslim men and boys. In Darfur, an estimated 300,000 Sudanese
civilians were killed. In Nigeria, Boko Haram has killed over 13,000 people. A recent
report by “Body Count” revealed that “in addition to one million deaths in Iraq, an
estimated 220,000 people have been killed in Afghanistan and 80,000 in Pakistan as a
result of US foreign policy”.

Last year, Israel attacked homes, schools, hospitals, and U.N. shelters in Gaza killing
2,200 Palestinians. Condemning that action, Navi Pillay, U.N. High Commissioner for
Human Rights, said that “Israel was deliberately defying international law in its
military offensive in Gaza and that world powers should hold it accountable for possible
war crimes.” The U.N. Security Council (SC) has failed as the United States vetoes any
action against Israel.

The Arab Spring in the Middle East caused thousands of deaths and regime changes in
Tunisia, Egypt, Libya and Yemen. Libya is devastated with over 40,000 deaths, and the
civil war in Syria has killed over 220,000 people. These wars have displaced over 50
million people. Now, ISIS has infiltrated these countries causing gruesome killings,
human rights abuses, and war crimes, at an unprecedented rate.

Q.6
Which of the following could be the most logical reason of why the author views both
the pros and the cons of the United Nations?

a Viewing both sides would help to understand the aspects that the UN should
highlight about its functioning to the international community

b Viewing both sides would help to understand the weaknesses that the UN should
work on in the future

c Viewing both sides would help maintain a fair and objective analysis of the UN
and its functioning

d Viewing both sides would help to understand the ways in which the UN can be
made more effective in the future

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

The 1948 Universal Declaration of Human Rights empowered the U.N. to act as
custodian for the protection of human rights, discrimination against women, children’s
rights, torture, missing persons and arbitrary detention that was occurring in many
countries. Moreover, the U.N. and its specialised agencies are engaged in enhancing all
aspects of human life, including education, health, poverty reduction, the rights of
women and children, and climate change.

As a result, the Nobel Peace Prize was awarded 12 times to the U.N., its specialised
agencies, programmes and staff. This included an award in 1988 to the U.N.
Peacekeeping Forces, and in 2001 to the U.N. and its secretary-general, Kofi Annan.
The U.N. defined, codified and expanded the realm of international law, governing the
legal responsibilities of States in their conduct with each other, and their treatment of
individuals within State boundaries. More than 560 multilateral treaties on human
rights, refugees, disarmament, trade, oceans, outer space, etc. encompassing all aspects
of international affairs were negotiated by the U.N.

The U.N. has made progress with its eight Millennium Development Goals, which will
be followed by 17 Sustainable Development Goals to enhance social, environmental and
economic progress by 2030. But it could not stop the United States from abandoning the
Kyoto Protocol, ignoring the Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty, repudiating the
Biological Weapons Convention, and repealing the Anti-Ballistic Missile Treaty.

The U.N. is not without shortcomings. In 1970, when the Nuclear Non-proliferation
Treaty (NPT) was signed by 190 nations, all five superpowers owned nuclear weapons.
Later, despite the NPT and Partial Test Ban Treaty, several countries - North Korea,
Israel, Pakistan, and India - developed nuclear weapons. This revealed the U.N.’s
inability to enforce regulations on offending nations. Along similar lines, the U.N.’s
International Court of Justice has resolved major international disputes, but the U.N.’s
veto powers have limited its effectiveness at critical times. The International Criminal
Court, established in 2002, has prosecuted several war criminals - but it has been
criticised for prosecuting only African leaders while Western powers too have
committed war crimes.

Dag Hammarskjold, secretary-general from 1953-1961, said that the “U.N. was not
created to take mankind to heaven, but to save humanity from hell.” The U.N. has
solved many violent conflicts, prevented wars, and saved millions of lives but it also
faced disappointments. In Cambodia, a peacekeeping mission (1991–95) ended violence
and established a democratic government, but well after Pol Pot’s Khmer Rouge (1975-
79) had executed over 2.5 million people. In Rwanda, over 800,000 were massacred in
100 days. In 1995, Bosnian Serb forces overran the “safe zone” of Srebrenica and
massacred 8,000 Muslim men and boys. In Darfur, an estimated 300,000 Sudanese
civilians were killed. In Nigeria, Boko Haram has killed over 13,000 people. A recent
report by “Body Count” revealed that “in addition to one million deaths in Iraq, an
estimated 220,000 people have been killed in Afghanistan and 80,000 in Pakistan as a
result of US foreign policy”.

Last year, Israel attacked homes, schools, hospitals, and U.N. shelters in Gaza killing
2,200 Palestinians. Condemning that action, Navi Pillay, U.N. High Commissioner for
Human Rights, said that “Israel was deliberately defying international law in its
military offensive in Gaza and that world powers should hold it accountable for possible
war crimes.” The U.N. Security Council (SC) has failed as the United States vetoes any
action against Israel.

The Arab Spring in the Middle East caused thousands of deaths and regime changes in
Tunisia, Egypt, Libya and Yemen. Libya is devastated with over 40,000 deaths, and the
civil war in Syria has killed over 220,000 people. These wars have displaced over 50
million people. Now, ISIS has infiltrated these countries causing gruesome killings,
human rights abuses, and war crimes, at an unprecedented rate.

Q.7
Based on the information in the passage, which of the following is not a logical criticism
that can be levelled at the United Nations?

a While the International Court of Justice has resolved major international


disputes, the U.N. has not been as effective as it could have been.

b The UN has prosecuted several war criminals but it is not credited with being just
in the scope of its prosecution.

c The UN has not been able to maintain the status quo in the diplomatic relations
within the international community.

d The UN has not been assertive enough to enforce regulations on offending


nations.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

The 1948 Universal Declaration of Human Rights empowered the U.N. to act as
custodian for the protection of human rights, discrimination against women, children’s
rights, torture, missing persons and arbitrary detention that was occurring in many
countries. Moreover, the U.N. and its specialised agencies are engaged in enhancing all
aspects of human life, including education, health, poverty reduction, the rights of
women and children, and climate change.

As a result, the Nobel Peace Prize was awarded 12 times to the U.N., its specialised
agencies, programmes and staff. This included an award in 1988 to the U.N.
Peacekeeping Forces, and in 2001 to the U.N. and its secretary-general, Kofi Annan.
The U.N. defined, codified and expanded the realm of international law, governing the
legal responsibilities of States in their conduct with each other, and their treatment of
individuals within State boundaries. More than 560 multilateral treaties on human
rights, refugees, disarmament, trade, oceans, outer space, etc. encompassing all aspects
of international affairs were negotiated by the U.N.

The U.N. has made progress with its eight Millennium Development Goals, which will
be followed by 17 Sustainable Development Goals to enhance social, environmental and
economic progress by 2030. But it could not stop the United States from abandoning the
Kyoto Protocol, ignoring the Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty, repudiating the
Biological Weapons Convention, and repealing the Anti-Ballistic Missile Treaty.

The U.N. is not without shortcomings. In 1970, when the Nuclear Non-proliferation
Treaty (NPT) was signed by 190 nations, all five superpowers owned nuclear weapons.
Later, despite the NPT and Partial Test Ban Treaty, several countries - North Korea,
Israel, Pakistan, and India - developed nuclear weapons. This revealed the U.N.’s
inability to enforce regulations on offending nations. Along similar lines, the U.N.’s
International Court of Justice has resolved major international disputes, but the U.N.’s
veto powers have limited its effectiveness at critical times. The International Criminal
Court, established in 2002, has prosecuted several war criminals - but it has been
criticised for prosecuting only African leaders while Western powers too have
committed war crimes.

Dag Hammarskjold, secretary-general from 1953-1961, said that the “U.N. was not
created to take mankind to heaven, but to save humanity from hell.” The U.N. has
solved many violent conflicts, prevented wars, and saved millions of lives but it also
faced disappointments. In Cambodia, a peacekeeping mission (1991–95) ended violence
and established a democratic government, but well after Pol Pot’s Khmer Rouge (1975-
79) had executed over 2.5 million people. In Rwanda, over 800,000 were massacred in
100 days. In 1995, Bosnian Serb forces overran the “safe zone” of Srebrenica and
massacred 8,000 Muslim men and boys. In Darfur, an estimated 300,000 Sudanese
civilians were killed. In Nigeria, Boko Haram has killed over 13,000 people. A recent
report by “Body Count” revealed that “in addition to one million deaths in Iraq, an
estimated 220,000 people have been killed in Afghanistan and 80,000 in Pakistan as a
result of US foreign policy”.

Last year, Israel attacked homes, schools, hospitals, and U.N. shelters in Gaza killing
2,200 Palestinians. Condemning that action, Navi Pillay, U.N. High Commissioner for
Human Rights, said that “Israel was deliberately defying international law in its
military offensive in Gaza and that world powers should hold it accountable for possible
war crimes.” The U.N. Security Council (SC) has failed as the United States vetoes any
action against Israel.

The Arab Spring in the Middle East caused thousands of deaths and regime changes in
Tunisia, Egypt, Libya and Yemen. Libya is devastated with over 40,000 deaths, and the
civil war in Syria has killed over 220,000 people. These wars have displaced over 50
million people. Now, ISIS has infiltrated these countries causing gruesome killings,
human rights abuses, and war crimes, at an unprecedented rate.

Q.8
What does the following quote indicate “U.N. was not created to take mankind to
heaven, but to save humanity from hell”?

a The UN should resolve issues and ensure that problems do not arise in the scope
of responsibility that it has been entrusted with.

b The UN was not created to help in the progress of mankind or to establish a


utopian state.

c The UN does not have a broad role in international affairs but it still fails to
perform that role to its fullest.

d The international community is faced with various problems that the UN should
help resolve.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 9 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Little is known about the generations before the conquest of Sind by the Arabs (A.D.
711), when the civilization of Sind was believed to be at its peak. D K Mansharamani
writes in ‘Comparative Indian Literature’ that many poets at the time would have
composed verses which would have been sung throughout the land, but that these are
clearly lost because records of that poetry might have been deliberately destroyed
during the holocaust, and also perhaps because of the ‘indifference on the part of
Sindhis, a lack of enthusiasm for preserving their own traditions, culture and
literature’. The earliest specimens of Sindhi poetry still surviving, he states, is to be
found in a laudatory verse quoted by Imam Hafiz Abu Hatim Albusti (?- 965) in his
Arabic work Rauzatul Uqala Va Nuzhatul Fuzala (Garden of the Intelligent and Pleasure
of the Learned). Though its meaning in Arabic is available, this verse, said to be dated to
A.D. 801, has defied deciphering, Mansharamani adds. “It must be presumed that
Sindhi literature, especially poetry, began to flower during the Sumras Era when native
chiefs wrested power from the Arabs. Around this time, local romantic tales became the
basis of Sindhi poetry, contributing the raw material for later development of Sindhi
poetry.”

Twenty-three generations of Sumras are said to have ruled over Sindh for
approximately 500 years. There is some variation on dates (Mansharamani refers to it
their rule as between 1050 – 1350, while Mohan Gehani mentions 1010 – 1440), but the
fact remains that this period is considered a golden period in the history of Sind,
“yielding a treasure trove of folk literature” in Gehani’s words. “The universal values
of love, truthfulness, patriotism, love for the land and its flora, fauna and the spirit of
sacrifice to uphold the noble values found expression in the compositions of minstrels
and folk ballad of the period...,” he says in his History of Sindh, first published in 1998.
“These folk tales are the life blood of Sindhi culture today, akin to (the) water of the
great Sindhu”. It was during this time that the Sindhi language emerged in its present
form to give Sindh a distinct identity as a nation, says Gehani.

The Sindhi script that is currently in use was standardized in the year 1853, with 52
letters. Earlier, there were primarily four scripts being used for the Sindhi language -
Arabic, Devanagiri, Gurumukhi and Hatvaniki, the last of these essentially being used
by the business community.

While it would be impossible to provide a comprehensive picture of the number of


literary figures who were active at the time, there are some names that are held sacred
within the Sindhi community. Shah Abdul Latif (1689 – 1752) is considered the prime
poet of Sindh; his Shah-Jo-Risalo,is considered a national treasure and still forms the
basis of much of the folk drama and music in the robust vocal culture of the
Sindhis. Shah – Jo- Risalo, first published by Dr Ernest Trumpp in Leipzig, Germany,
in 1886, weaves in seven folk tales of Sind into the work – Lila-Chanesar, Mumal-Rano,
Suhini-Mehar, Sasui-Punhun, Noori –Jamtamachi, Bijal Raidiyach and Umar-Marui.
Dr H.T. Sorley in his book Musa Peravagon’s named Shah Latif as one of the seven
greatest poets of the world.

Q.9
Which of the following statements can be inferred from the second paragraph of the
passage?

a The Sumra dynasty had an enormous influence on the flourishing Sindhi prose
literature during the period.

b The Sindhi language developed immensely and helped in the progress of the
community.

c Sindhi literature incorporated numerous literary influences from around the


world.

d The Sindhi literature and language reached its zenith during the said period.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 9 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
Little is known about the generations before the conquest of Sind by the Arabs (A.D.
711), when the civilization of Sind was believed to be at its peak. D K Mansharamani
writes in ‘Comparative Indian Literature’ that many poets at the time would have
composed verses which would have been sung throughout the land, but that these are
clearly lost because records of that poetry might have been deliberately destroyed
during the holocaust, and also perhaps because of the ‘indifference on the part of
Sindhis, a lack of enthusiasm for preserving their own traditions, culture and
literature’. The earliest specimens of Sindhi poetry still surviving, he states, is to be
found in a laudatory verse quoted by Imam Hafiz Abu Hatim Albusti (?- 965) in his
Arabic work Rauzatul Uqala Va Nuzhatul Fuzala (Garden of the Intelligent and Pleasure
of the Learned). Though its meaning in Arabic is available, this verse, said to be dated to
A.D. 801, has defied deciphering, Mansharamani adds. “It must be presumed that
Sindhi literature, especially poetry, began to flower during the Sumras Era when native
chiefs wrested power from the Arabs. Around this time, local romantic tales became the
basis of Sindhi poetry, contributing the raw material for later development of Sindhi
poetry.”

Twenty-three generations of Sumras are said to have ruled over Sindh for
approximately 500 years. There is some variation on dates (Mansharamani refers to it
their rule as between 1050 – 1350, while Mohan Gehani mentions 1010 – 1440), but the
fact remains that this period is considered a golden period in the history of Sind,
“yielding a treasure trove of folk literature” in Gehani’s words. “The universal values
of love, truthfulness, patriotism, love for the land and its flora, fauna and the spirit of
sacrifice to uphold the noble values found expression in the compositions of minstrels
and folk ballad of the period...,” he says in his History of Sindh, first published in 1998.
“These folk tales are the life blood of Sindhi culture today, akin to (the) water of the
great Sindhu”. It was during this time that the Sindhi language emerged in its present
form to give Sindh a distinct identity as a nation, says Gehani.

The Sindhi script that is currently in use was standardized in the year 1853, with 52
letters. Earlier, there were primarily four scripts being used for the Sindhi language -
Arabic, Devanagiri, Gurumukhi and Hatvaniki, the last of these essentially being used
by the business community.

While it would be impossible to provide a comprehensive picture of the number of


literary figures who were active at the time, there are some names that are held sacred
within the Sindhi community. Shah Abdul Latif (1689 – 1752) is considered the prime
poet of Sindh; his Shah-Jo-Risalo,is considered a national treasure and still forms the
basis of much of the folk drama and music in the robust vocal culture of the
Sindhis. Shah – Jo- Risalo, first published by Dr Ernest Trumpp in Leipzig, Germany,
in 1886, weaves in seven folk tales of Sind into the work – Lila-Chanesar, Mumal-Rano,
Suhini-Mehar, Sasui-Punhun, Noori –Jamtamachi, Bijal Raidiyach and Umar-Marui.
Dr H.T. Sorley in his book Musa Peravagon’s named Shah Latif as one of the seven
greatest poets of the world.

Q.10
According to the author, which of the following is true about Sindhi literature and
language?
a The Sindhi language originated from Arabic, Devanagari, Gurumukhi and
Hatvaniki.

b Folk literature of Sindh reflects a mosaic of different literary elements.

c Imam Hafiz Abu Hatim Albusti wrote in the Sindhi script.

d The scripts used for the Sindhi language before 1853 were utilised by every
section of the society.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 9 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Little is known about the generations before the conquest of Sind by the Arabs (A.D.
711), when the civilization of Sind was believed to be at its peak. D K Mansharamani
writes in ‘Comparative Indian Literature’ that many poets at the time would have
composed verses which would have been sung throughout the land, but that these are
clearly lost because records of that poetry might have been deliberately destroyed
during the holocaust, and also perhaps because of the ‘indifference on the part of
Sindhis, a lack of enthusiasm for preserving their own traditions, culture and
literature’. The earliest specimens of Sindhi poetry still surviving, he states, is to be
found in a laudatory verse quoted by Imam Hafiz Abu Hatim Albusti (?- 965) in his
Arabic work Rauzatul Uqala Va Nuzhatul Fuzala (Garden of the Intelligent and Pleasure
of the Learned). Though its meaning in Arabic is available, this verse, said to be dated to
A.D. 801, has defied deciphering, Mansharamani adds. “It must be presumed that
Sindhi literature, especially poetry, began to flower during the Sumras Era when native
chiefs wrested power from the Arabs. Around this time, local romantic tales became the
basis of Sindhi poetry, contributing the raw material for later development of Sindhi
poetry.”

Twenty-three generations of Sumras are said to have ruled over Sindh for
approximately 500 years. There is some variation on dates (Mansharamani refers to it
their rule as between 1050 – 1350, while Mohan Gehani mentions 1010 – 1440), but the
fact remains that this period is considered a golden period in the history of Sind,
“yielding a treasure trove of folk literature” in Gehani’s words. “The universal values
of love, truthfulness, patriotism, love for the land and its flora, fauna and the spirit of
sacrifice to uphold the noble values found expression in the compositions of minstrels
and folk ballad of the period...,” he says in his History of Sindh, first published in 1998.
“These folk tales are the life blood of Sindhi culture today, akin to (the) water of the
great Sindhu”. It was during this time that the Sindhi language emerged in its present
form to give Sindh a distinct identity as a nation, says Gehani.

The Sindhi script that is currently in use was standardized in the year 1853, with 52
letters. Earlier, there were primarily four scripts being used for the Sindhi language -
Arabic, Devanagiri, Gurumukhi and Hatvaniki, the last of these essentially being used
by the business community.

While it would be impossible to provide a comprehensive picture of the number of


literary figures who were active at the time, there are some names that are held sacred
within the Sindhi community. Shah Abdul Latif (1689 – 1752) is considered the prime
poet of Sindh; his Shah-Jo-Risalo,is considered a national treasure and still forms the
basis of much of the folk drama and music in the robust vocal culture of the
Sindhis. Shah – Jo- Risalo, first published by Dr Ernest Trumpp in Leipzig, Germany,
in 1886, weaves in seven folk tales of Sind into the work – Lila-Chanesar, Mumal-Rano,
Suhini-Mehar, Sasui-Punhun, Noori –Jamtamachi, Bijal Raidiyach and Umar-Marui.
Dr H.T. Sorley in his book Musa Peravagon’s named Shah Latif as one of the seven
greatest poets of the world.

Q.11
According to the author, why is Shah-Jo-Risalo considered as a seminal work in Sindhi
literature?

a After getting published in Germany in 1886, Shah-Jo-Risalo introduced Sindhi


literature to the Western world.

b Shah-Jo-Risalo reflects the poetic brilliance of the period.

c Later works of Sindhi literature borrowed significantly from Shah-Jo-Risalo.

d The folk tales of Shah-Jo-Risalo are principally romantic in nature.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 9 to 12: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

Little is known about the generations before the conquest of Sind by the Arabs (A.D.
711), when the civilization of Sind was believed to be at its peak. D K Mansharamani
writes in ‘Comparative Indian Literature’ that many poets at the time would have
composed verses which would have been sung throughout the land, but that these are
clearly lost because records of that poetry might have been deliberately destroyed
during the holocaust, and also perhaps because of the ‘indifference on the part of
Sindhis, a lack of enthusiasm for preserving their own traditions, culture and
literature’. The earliest specimens of Sindhi poetry still surviving, he states, is to be
found in a laudatory verse quoted by Imam Hafiz Abu Hatim Albusti (?- 965) in his
Arabic work Rauzatul Uqala Va Nuzhatul Fuzala (Garden of the Intelligent and Pleasure
of the Learned). Though its meaning in Arabic is available, this verse, said to be dated to
A.D. 801, has defied deciphering, Mansharamani adds. “It must be presumed that
Sindhi literature, especially poetry, began to flower during the Sumras Era when native
chiefs wrested power from the Arabs. Around this time, local romantic tales became the
basis of Sindhi poetry, contributing the raw material for later development of Sindhi
poetry.”

Twenty-three generations of Sumras are said to have ruled over Sindh for
approximately 500 years. There is some variation on dates (Mansharamani refers to it
their rule as between 1050 – 1350, while Mohan Gehani mentions 1010 – 1440), but the
fact remains that this period is considered a golden period in the history of Sind,
“yielding a treasure trove of folk literature” in Gehani’s words. “The universal values
of love, truthfulness, patriotism, love for the land and its flora, fauna and the spirit of
sacrifice to uphold the noble values found expression in the compositions of minstrels
and folk ballad of the period...,” he says in his History of Sindh, first published in 1998.
“These folk tales are the life blood of Sindhi culture today, akin to (the) water of the
great Sindhu”. It was during this time that the Sindhi language emerged in its present
form to give Sindh a distinct identity as a nation, says Gehani.

The Sindhi script that is currently in use was standardized in the year 1853, with 52
letters. Earlier, there were primarily four scripts being used for the Sindhi language -
Arabic, Devanagiri, Gurumukhi and Hatvaniki, the last of these essentially being used
by the business community.

While it would be impossible to provide a comprehensive picture of the number of


literary figures who were active at the time, there are some names that are held sacred
within the Sindhi community. Shah Abdul Latif (1689 – 1752) is considered the prime
poet of Sindh; his Shah-Jo-Risalo,is considered a national treasure and still forms the
basis of much of the folk drama and music in the robust vocal culture of the
Sindhis. Shah – Jo- Risalo, first published by Dr Ernest Trumpp in Leipzig, Germany,
in 1886, weaves in seven folk tales of Sind into the work – Lila-Chanesar, Mumal-Rano,
Suhini-Mehar, Sasui-Punhun, Noori –Jamtamachi, Bijal Raidiyach and Umar-Marui.
Dr H.T. Sorley in his book Musa Peravagon’s named Shah Latif as one of the seven
greatest poets of the world.

Q.12
Why does the author feel that Rauzatul Uqala Va Nuzhatul Fuzala has not been
‘deciphered’ so far although the work is written in Arabic?

a Scholars could never feel the Sindhi essence because the work which is primarily
in Sindhi is written in Arabic.

b Some of the Arabic words used in Rauzatul Uqala Va Nuzhatul Fuzala are
archaic.

c The romantic tales of Rauzatul Uqala Va Nuzhatul Fuzala have allusions to


unknown mythical figures.

d When the native chiefs fought with the Arabs, the original work was destroyed.
o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 13 to 16: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

My move to Berlin compared to Delhi was then “twice removed” from “home”— the
town I had been born in and grew up for seventeen long years. While the spatial
markers of home did change over the years—many spaces acquired home-like qualities
as did people. For a long time the dining table back home was a fixed marker of
something more invariable, something that hadn’t changed— a point of reference. So
even after a decade when I moved to Berlin from Delhi, despite being used to handling
the pangs of homesick hunger— it was always the jhal muri among all other things that
I tried to approximate, that I ended up longing.

I had grown up hearing stories about muri (puffed rice) while gorging on muri— my
father’s family had migrated from Mymensingh (now in Bangladesh) and were
supposedly famous (and proud) muri eaters. I saw them at addas with cha and spiced
up muri with various interesting and unlikely ingredients. My father’s version, which I
loved the most, often consisted of nigella seeds, papad, potato and cauliflower carefully
cut to size and fried, some oil from preserves, and a few bites of chopped onion. Green
chilli was indispensable to our muri, no matter who was making the mixture— it was
the untold testimony of the fact that we were from the eastern part of undivided Bengal.
Sometimes muri was served as homely prescription for stomach aches, bland and spice-
less, in a bowl of water, soaked and lifeless, without taste or texture. And, of course, for
special occasions and religious offerings, muri was rolled in hot liquid jaggery and left to
cool— chewy, sweet big round balls of muri too big for our palms back then— always
leaving a trail of sticky crumbs. That was the other thing about these bits of billowed
crispy munchies— you always left evidence of a having eaten muri—it was almost
impossible to contain those straying flakes in one cupped palm without spilling.

The beautiful thing about the muri concoction was how, despite there being a popular
consensus about its stable structure of ingredients, it was the varieties, the add-ons that
were more telling about where it came from and the expertise of the mixer. In essence
the concoction was always an “ad hoc assemblage” of ingredients. Sometimes just salt,
chilli, bits of raw onion and a hint of mustard oil—that’s all you needed. You couldn’t
be denied a dish of muri based on the absence of ingredients; it could be adapted and
appropriated in whatever way, according to ingredients at hand, according “to taste”—
something of the concocter’s ability to make use of available ingredients, always
marking the good from the extraordinary!

So why am I talking of the muri when I talk of diaspora and food? Probably because for
me the diasporic foodie always has to make do with an “ad hoc assemblage” of
ingredients—miserly teaspoons of homemade preserves that must last for a year or six
months before supply is restored. Spices that always taste a tad different on olive
oil…The diasporic foodie, straddling the worlds between nostalgia and a newfound
adventure for taste, a newer palette, and newer flavours— does just that. Every dish
stands in between a memory of tastes filtered through longing, and ingredients at
hand— curcumin instead of turmeric, some mild version of paprika or cayenne instead
of the real deal, the Rajasthani red chilli powder, kurbis that doesn’t look like kaddoo
(pumpkin) and nobody ever peels these strange-looking cucumbers!

Q.13
The last paragraph of the passage serves to bring which of the following statements to
light?

a For an expatriate, food becomes the link between the home and host countries.

b The immigrant does not have access to Indian foods in the market.

c The immigrant does not have enough money and so, he spends very little on
ingredients.

d The diasporic individual is used to the food habits of the host nation.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 13 to 16: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

My move to Berlin compared to Delhi was then “twice removed” from “home”— the
town I had been born in and grew up for seventeen long years. While the spatial
markers of home did change over the years—many spaces acquired home-like qualities
as did people. For a long time the dining table back home was a fixed marker of
something more invariable, something that hadn’t changed— a point of reference. So
even after a decade when I moved to Berlin from Delhi, despite being used to handling
the pangs of homesick hunger— it was always the jhal muri among all other things that
I tried to approximate, that I ended up longing.

I had grown up hearing stories about muri (puffed rice) while gorging on muri— my
father’s family had migrated from Mymensingh (now in Bangladesh) and were
supposedly famous (and proud) muri eaters. I saw them at addas with cha and spiced
up muri with various interesting and unlikely ingredients. My father’s version, which I
loved the most, often consisted of nigella seeds, papad, potato and cauliflower carefully
cut to size and fried, some oil from preserves, and a few bites of chopped onion. Green
chilli was indispensable to our muri, no matter who was making the mixture— it was
the untold testimony of the fact that we were from the eastern part of undivided Bengal.
Sometimes muri was served as homely prescription for stomach aches, bland and spice-
less, in a bowl of water, soaked and lifeless, without taste or texture. And, of course, for
special occasions and religious offerings, muri was rolled in hot liquid jaggery and left to
cool— chewy, sweet big round balls of muri too big for our palms back then— always
leaving a trail of sticky crumbs. That was the other thing about these bits of billowed
crispy munchies— you always left evidence of a having eaten muri—it was almost
impossible to contain those straying flakes in one cupped palm without spilling.

The beautiful thing about the muri concoction was how, despite there being a popular
consensus about its stable structure of ingredients, it was the varieties, the add-ons that
were more telling about where it came from and the expertise of the mixer. In essence
the concoction was always an “ad hoc assemblage” of ingredients. Sometimes just salt,
chilli, bits of raw onion and a hint of mustard oil—that’s all you needed. You couldn’t
be denied a dish of muri based on the absence of ingredients; it could be adapted and
appropriated in whatever way, according to ingredients at hand, according “to taste”—
something of the concocter’s ability to make use of available ingredients, always
marking the good from the extraordinary!

So why am I talking of the muri when I talk of diaspora and food? Probably because for
me the diasporic foodie always has to make do with an “ad hoc assemblage” of
ingredients—miserly teaspoons of homemade preserves that must last for a year or six
months before supply is restored. Spices that always taste a tad different on olive
oil…The diasporic foodie, straddling the worlds between nostalgia and a newfound
adventure for taste, a newer palette, and newer flavours— does just that. Every dish
stands in between a memory of tastes filtered through longing, and ingredients at
hand— curcumin instead of turmeric, some mild version of paprika or cayenne instead
of the real deal, the Rajasthani red chilli powder, kurbis that doesn’t look like kaddoo
(pumpkin) and nobody ever peels these strange-looking cucumbers!

Q.14
Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as a reason for the puffed rice
concoction to be considered a delicacy?

a The main ingredients always remained the same and hence, the delectable taste
was never compromised.

b Green chillies and a generous quantity of mustard oil made all the difference in
taste.

c The most delicious puffed rice concoction was sold in restaurants.

d The various supplementary food items added to the mixture added to the taste.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 13 to 16: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

My move to Berlin compared to Delhi was then “twice removed” from “home”— the
town I had been born in and grew up for seventeen long years. While the spatial
markers of home did change over the years—many spaces acquired home-like qualities
as did people. For a long time the dining table back home was a fixed marker of
something more invariable, something that hadn’t changed— a point of reference. So
even after a decade when I moved to Berlin from Delhi, despite being used to handling
the pangs of homesick hunger— it was always the jhal muri among all other things that
I tried to approximate, that I ended up longing.

I had grown up hearing stories about muri (puffed rice) while gorging on muri— my
father’s family had migrated from Mymensingh (now in Bangladesh) and were
supposedly famous (and proud) muri eaters. I saw them at addas with cha and spiced
up muri with various interesting and unlikely ingredients. My father’s version, which I
loved the most, often consisted of nigella seeds, papad, potato and cauliflower carefully
cut to size and fried, some oil from preserves, and a few bites of chopped onion. Green
chilli was indispensable to our muri, no matter who was making the mixture— it was
the untold testimony of the fact that we were from the eastern part of undivided Bengal.
Sometimes muri was served as homely prescription for stomach aches, bland and spice-
less, in a bowl of water, soaked and lifeless, without taste or texture. And, of course, for
special occasions and religious offerings, muri was rolled in hot liquid jaggery and left to
cool— chewy, sweet big round balls of muri too big for our palms back then— always
leaving a trail of sticky crumbs. That was the other thing about these bits of billowed
crispy munchies— you always left evidence of a having eaten muri—it was almost
impossible to contain those straying flakes in one cupped palm without spilling.

The beautiful thing about the muri concoction was how, despite there being a popular
consensus about its stable structure of ingredients, it was the varieties, the add-ons that
were more telling about where it came from and the expertise of the mixer. In essence
the concoction was always an “ad hoc assemblage” of ingredients. Sometimes just salt,
chilli, bits of raw onion and a hint of mustard oil—that’s all you needed. You couldn’t
be denied a dish of muri based on the absence of ingredients; it could be adapted and
appropriated in whatever way, according to ingredients at hand, according “to taste”—
something of the concocter’s ability to make use of available ingredients, always
marking the good from the extraordinary!

So why am I talking of the muri when I talk of diaspora and food? Probably because for
me the diasporic foodie always has to make do with an “ad hoc assemblage” of
ingredients—miserly teaspoons of homemade preserves that must last for a year or six
months before supply is restored. Spices that always taste a tad different on olive
oil…The diasporic foodie, straddling the worlds between nostalgia and a newfound
adventure for taste, a newer palette, and newer flavours— does just that. Every dish
stands in between a memory of tastes filtered through longing, and ingredients at
hand— curcumin instead of turmeric, some mild version of paprika or cayenne instead
of the real deal, the Rajasthani red chilli powder, kurbis that doesn’t look like kaddoo
(pumpkin) and nobody ever peels these strange-looking cucumbers!

Q.15
The second paragraph of the passage suggests which of the following about the addition
of green chillies?

a People from the eastern side of pre-independent India were always fond of
making their puffed rice concoction hot by adding green chillies.
b Some people, especially the author’s family members used green chillies in the
concoction.

c Spices, salt and green chillies were added to the preference of the taste buds of the
concerned person.

d For stomach aches, chopped green chillies were added to puffed rice soaked in a
bowl of water.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 13 to 16: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.

My move to Berlin compared to Delhi was then “twice removed” from “home”— the
town I had been born in and grew up for seventeen long years. While the spatial
markers of home did change over the years—many spaces acquired home-like qualities
as did people. For a long time the dining table back home was a fixed marker of
something more invariable, something that hadn’t changed— a point of reference. So
even after a decade when I moved to Berlin from Delhi, despite being used to handling
the pangs of homesick hunger— it was always the jhal muri among all other things that
I tried to approximate, that I ended up longing.

I had grown up hearing stories about muri (puffed rice) while gorging on muri— my
father’s family had migrated from Mymensingh (now in Bangladesh) and were
supposedly famous (and proud) muri eaters. I saw them at addas with cha and spiced
up muri with various interesting and unlikely ingredients. My father’s version, which I
loved the most, often consisted of nigella seeds, papad, potato and cauliflower carefully
cut to size and fried, some oil from preserves, and a few bites of chopped onion. Green
chilli was indispensable to our muri, no matter who was making the mixture— it was
the untold testimony of the fact that we were from the eastern part of undivided Bengal.
Sometimes muri was served as homely prescription for stomach aches, bland and spice-
less, in a bowl of water, soaked and lifeless, without taste or texture. And, of course, for
special occasions and religious offerings, muri was rolled in hot liquid jaggery and left to
cool— chewy, sweet big round balls of muri too big for our palms back then— always
leaving a trail of sticky crumbs. That was the other thing about these bits of billowed
crispy munchies— you always left evidence of a having eaten muri—it was almost
impossible to contain those straying flakes in one cupped palm without spilling.

The beautiful thing about the muri concoction was how, despite there being a popular
consensus about its stable structure of ingredients, it was the varieties, the add-ons that
were more telling about where it came from and the expertise of the mixer. In essence
the concoction was always an “ad hoc assemblage” of ingredients. Sometimes just salt,
chilli, bits of raw onion and a hint of mustard oil—that’s all you needed. You couldn’t
be denied a dish of muri based on the absence of ingredients; it could be adapted and
appropriated in whatever way, according to ingredients at hand, according “to taste”—
something of the concocter’s ability to make use of available ingredients, always
marking the good from the extraordinary!

So why am I talking of the muri when I talk of diaspora and food? Probably because for
me the diasporic foodie always has to make do with an “ad hoc assemblage” of
ingredients—miserly teaspoons of homemade preserves that must last for a year or six
months before supply is restored. Spices that always taste a tad different on olive
oil…The diasporic foodie, straddling the worlds between nostalgia and a newfound
adventure for taste, a newer palette, and newer flavours— does just that. Every dish
stands in between a memory of tastes filtered through longing, and ingredients at
hand— curcumin instead of turmeric, some mild version of paprika or cayenne instead
of the real deal, the Rajasthani red chilli powder, kurbis that doesn’t look like kaddoo
(pumpkin) and nobody ever peels these strange-looking cucumbers!

Q.16
Which of the following options captures the essence of the passage?

a The evolution of the puffed rice concoction

b Mapping the evolution of the puffed rice concoction: The culinary crisis of the
diasporic individual

c Absence of key food ingredients in a foreign country

d The East-West divide of erstwhile Bengal exemplified through the puffed rice
concoction

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.17
Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a
logical order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most
appropriate one.

A. Those who favor the Supreme Court ruling argue that the 14th amendment protects
rights from legislative majorities.
B. I’ve often said I don’t want my guns or my marriage registered in Washington.
C. The constitution is silent on the question of marriage because marriage has always
been a local issue.
D. Those who disagree with the recent Supreme Court ruling argue that the court
should not overturn the will of legislative majorities.
E. Our founding fathers went to the local courthouse to be married, not to Washington,
DC.
a CEBDA

b BCADE

c DAEBC

d CADBE

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.18
Five sentences are given below, labeled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. They need to be arranged in a
logical order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most
appropriate one.

1. “Today we accepted the decision to go, we accepted that risk, we believe the window
is good.”
2. “There’s a lot of uncertainty at the end, we cannot know everything,” Bertrand
Piccard, Borschberg’s project co-founder and occasional co-pilot, said after the team
decided to fly.
3. “We really are in the moment of truth now,” Conor Lennon, a member of the Solar
Impulse team said from the project’s headquarters.
4. To cross the Pacific he will have to repeat the feat two and a half times over.
5. “It’s the moment of truth technically and in human terms as well.”

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 43521

Q.19
Five sentences are given below, labeled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. They need to be arranged in a
logical order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most
appropriate one.

1. The song has a sense of capaciousness, of air and light and flight.
2. Like Strange Fruit, George Gershwin’s song has been recorded thousands of times –
by everyone from George Benson to Janis Joplin to Amit Chaudhuri – and yet it still
sounds unique in each artist’s voice.
3. The tragedy of her life imbues these lyrics with pathos.
4. I listen to the song on the summer solstice, with the knowledge that darker days are
coming, that the days will soon start to get shorter and the sun scarcer.
5. Full of vulnerability and strength, Holiday reassures the listener that “nothin’ can
harm you”, capturing the hope that better days are to come.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 24153

Q.20
Five sentences are given below, labeled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. They need to be arranged in a
logical order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the most
appropriate one.

1. At the same time, he has been criticized for his hard-driving methods as a boss and
for some of his more outlandish ideas, like establishing a human colony on Mars.
2. He was also the co-founder of PayPal.
3. Musk’s third attempt to resupply the International Space Station ended
in failure Sunday when the rocket exploded just after launch.
4. Doing the impossible—whether creating the Tesla electric car or launching rockets
with SpaceX—is second nature to him.
5. His passion for innovation has made him one of the richest men in America, with an
estimated worth of $10 billion.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 42513

Q.21
Four sentences are given below, labeled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences
need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the
given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.

a The court has yet to decide on that.

b The Swiss company was in court to try and overturn a ban imposed by the Food
Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI), a regulator, on June 5th.

c On June 30th, the Bombay High Court ruled that Nestlé, a multinational food-
maker, could export its Maggi brand of two-minute noodles from India.

d But a ban on local sales remains in place—at least for now.


o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.22
Four sentences are given below, labeled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences
need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the
given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.

a The poaching crisis facing elephants has also quietly resulted in the carnage of
thousands of vultures.

b Over the last three years, poachers have relentlessly laced elephant carcasses to
eliminate vultures and prevent their overhead circling from giving away the scene of the
crime.

c Yet for a vulture, to eat and be poisoned or not to eat: that is the question.

d Majestic to those who know them, yet unloved by many, vultures bear the brunt
of retaliatory poisonings targeting predators that have killed livestock.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.23
Four sentences are given below, labeled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences
need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the
given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.

a The ancestors of these gar shared the world with T. rex and velociraptors.

b Certain Native Americans groups used gar scales as arrowheads, and even as
protective breastplates.

c It was a bittersweet sight, as their untimely death allowed me to observe their


impressive, armor-like scales and mouths full of sharp teeth.

d A number of juvenile longnose gar were stuck in the fences near the Trinity,
likely trying to return to the main river after feeding in the flooded areas.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.24
Four sentences are given below, labeled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences
need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the
given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.

a They ate diets of superior nutritional quality, had a lower prevalence of all
skeletal pathological conditions, and physically undemanding lifestyles.

b Non-elites, whom we have studied now from nearly a dozen sites, carried much
greater burdens of infection, degenerative joint disease, anemia, and growth arrest in
childhood.

c The skeletons of Middle Sicán elites indicate they lived very well.

d Levels of degenerative joint disease and anemia are extremely low.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.25
Given below are four sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or
part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and usage (including
spelling, punctuation and logical consistency). Then, choose the most appropriate
option.

A. It was not an epic humiliation.


B. It was not a result that will reverbarete through the generations.
C. But in sense, Brazil’s Copa América exit to Paraguay is all the more crushing for
that.
D. It was not some devastation to be written off as a freak; it was quotidian.

a Only D

b B and C

c A and C

d B and D

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.26
Given below are four sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or
part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar and usage (including
spelling, punctuation and logical consistency). Then, choose the most appropriate
option.

A. Since it worked in the lab, out in the field, the wheat was still attacked by the pests.
B. But negative results are a part-and-parcel of the scientific process; researchers
behind the project will now work to improve the strain.
C. The wheat trial was the subject of protests by anti-GM campaigners in 2012.
D. And opposition groups said the outcome was further evidence of the “folly” of
investing in GM technology.

a Only C

b A and C

c A and B

d C and D

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.27
Given below are four sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or
part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage (including
spelling, punctuation and logical consistency). Then, choose the most appropriate
option.

A. You don’t have to look far for all sorts of uncompromising, doctrinare, brook-no-
criticism behaviour.
B. You see it all the time in government, academia and companies.
C. And there are big costs that come with it.
D. The student-led protest movement in Hong Kong is one example.

a Only C

b A and B

c B and C
d C and D

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.28
Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

The news that Richard W. Matt, the convicted murderer who was killed by the police
on Friday after a weeks-long manhunt, spent most of his time behind bars painting
technically skilled portraits of Julia Roberts, President Obama and fellow inmates’
relatives, and bartering them for preferential treatment, has come as a surprise to
many. But to those who have spent years teaching art in prisons or making it themselves
as inmates, such a trade is a deeply ingrained ritual of incarcerated life. It is practiced
informally or as part of established programs by a wide range of prisoners, many of
them, like Mr. Matt, with profoundly violent pasts and little art experience.

Which of the following can best be inferred from this passage?

a Irrespective of the fact that Mr. Matt had no education in arts, he proved himself
to be a skilled painter.

b It is not usual for people to expect inmates with a violent past to have a creative
side.

c People who have no interaction with prison life have misconceptions about it.

d Life in prison is different from life outside it.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.29
Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

Chinese investors jokingly call the central bank “central mama”. They thanked her for
dispensing a bit of love over the weekend by trimming interest rates and reducing some
lenders’ required reserves. The rate cut, her fourth since November, took one-year
benchmark lending rates to 4.85%, a record low for China. Punters hope this will save
the stock market from further carnage.

Which of the following can best be inferred from this passage?


a The Chinese central bank does the best it can for the country’s investors.

b The Chinese central bank is trying to save the stock market from crashing.

c China is on the brink of a major financial crisis.

d The Chinese central bank has made more money available to the Chinese market.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.30
Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

Once Hollywood sci-fi, small hovercraft are gaining ground in the real world. The U.S.
Army is looking at the “world’s first flying motorcycle,” and Toyota’s luxury brand
Lexus has built its own hoverboard. Yet these and other levitating wonders won’t hit
the market anytime soon. They still have to undergo safety testing and regulatory
scrutiny. And some are simply meant to amuse.

Which of the following can best be inferred from this passage?

a Some hovercrafts are not financially viable and are hence, created only for
amusement purposes.

b Irrespective of its increasing popularity, hovercrafts are yet to be made available


for sale.

c The inventions of the real world are influenced by Hollywood sci-fi.

d Hovercrafts are one of the first machines to be created that can fly above the
ground.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.31
Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.

Although Frank J. Schwartz, shark biologist with the University of North Carolina, says
there’s too much natural variability in weather cycles to blame the recent increase in
humans being attacked by sharks, on global warming. Burgess says the link is plausible.

Which of the following, if true, can be used to strengthen Burgess’s argument?

a The recent spate of warmer temperatures in North Carolina is likely to bring


more sharks to the beaches that attack the unsuspecting public who are also attracted to
the beaches in the hot weather.

b During summer season, baby sharks tend to move towards the beaches and their
violent natures leads them to attack the human beings.

c The inquisitiveness of sharks has been piqued by the addition of new species in
their habitat, due to climate changes, which has resulted in more attacks.

d More marine biologists are venturing into deep sea, which is infested by sharks,
in order to research on the effects of global warming on aquatic life.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.32
The following text is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that
best captures the essence of the text.

Brutality is everywhere. No player has died during Calcio storico, but Luciano Artusi, a
former director of the body that oversees the games, conceded that “we have had a
spleen removed.” Filippo Allegri, one of the on-field paramedics, said that his group
generally expects that seven or eight players from each team will not finish any given
game. He recalled that 10 players, or about 20 percent of the participants, required
hospitalization after a particularly brutal final in 2013. There are no substitutions, so
exhaustion is common. So are dehydration and concussions.

a Calcio storico is an illegal game which demands a lot from its players including
the will to be injured.

b The people who are related to Calcio storico find this game too brutal to not be
managed by a body.

c Calcio storico is a physically demanding game which may result in various bodily
injuries for its players.

d The people who oversee Calcio storico are aware of the game being so brutal that
almost 20 percent of the participants are hospitalized by the time the finals are over.
o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.33
The following text is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that
best captures the essence of the text.

The dramatic turn came hours after Greece missed a debt payment to the I.M.F.,
leaving Greece effectively in default and raising the pressure on the country to find a
solution to its rapidly escalating financial squeeze. With its banking system shut down
and access to further aid cut off, Greece faced the prospect of further debt defaults and
the possibility of being forced to abandon the euro as its currency.

a Greece may not have enough money to meet its international financial
obligations and is facing the risk of losing the right to use the Euro as its currency.

b Greece is in a financial crisis and is at risk of losing its financial identity.

c Greece is not in a condition to repay any of the loans that it has taken to maintain
its currency.

d In view of the financial difficulties faced by Greece, it is not unusual for the
country to not be able to repay its debts.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.34
The following text is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the option that
best captures the essence of the text.

Christianity’s gravest setbacks are in the realm of values. American culture is shifting
away from orthodox Christian positions on homosexuality, premarital sex,
contraception, out-of-wedlock childbearing, divorce and a range of other social issues.
More and more Christians feel estranged from mainstream culture. They fear they will
soon be treated as social pariahs, the moral equivalent of segregationists because of
their adherence to scriptural teaching on gay marriage. They fear their colleges will be
decertified, their religious institutions will lose their tax-exempt status, their religious
liberty will come under greater assault.

a American culture is moving away from the orthodox values of Christianity


regarding various social issues.
b In America, Christians are afraid of being ostracized as the gap between their
religious values and the mainstream culture is increasing.

c Christians are afraid to lose their religious identity because of the shift in the
mainstream American values.

d Gay marriage is one of the biggest social concerns that has segregated Christians
from the Americans due to their difference in values.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Sec 2

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

The table below gives the marks scored by six candidates of an engineering college in
four subjects – Digital systems, Analog systems, Power electronics and Microprocessors.
Each subject is assigned a Credit as mentioned in bracket along with the subject name as
shown in the table below.

The grade assigned to a student in a subject is based on the marks scored by him in that
subject and each grade is assigned a distinct point. The following tables show the
relation between ‘marks and grade’, and ‘grade and points’.
Q.35
The names of the two students who got the same CGPA are

a Nitin and Arihant

b Gaurav and Prabhakar

c Prabhakar and Saurabh

d No two students got the same CGPA

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

The table below gives the marks scored by six candidates of an engineering college in
four subjects – Digital systems, Analog systems, Power electronics and Microprocessors.
Each subject is assigned a Credit as mentioned in bracket along with the subject name as
shown in the table below.
The grade assigned to a student in a subject is based on the marks scored by him in that
subject and each grade is assigned a distinct point. The following tables show the
relation between ‘marks and grade’, and ‘grade and points’.

Q.36
Who got the highest CGPA ?

a Nitin

b Arihant

c Saurabh

d None of these

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
The table below gives the marks scored by six candidates of an engineering college in
four subjects – Digital systems, Analog systems, Power electronics and Microprocessors.
Each subject is assigned a Credit as mentioned in bracket along with the subject name as
shown in the table below.

The grade assigned to a student in a subject is based on the marks scored by him in that
subject and each grade is assigned a distinct point. The following tables show the
relation between ‘marks and grade’, and ‘grade and points’.

Q.37
Except the student who got the highest CGPA among these six students, everybody
applied for rechecking and each one of them got their marks increased in one or more
subjects. One of them got ‘k’ more marks in total, after rechecking, and his CGPA
became the highest. What is the smallest possible value of k?

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 4

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
The table below gives the marks scored by six candidates of an engineering college in
four subjects – Digital systems, Analog systems, Power electronics and Microprocessors.
Each subject is assigned a Credit as mentioned in bracket along with the subject name as
shown in the table below.

The grade assigned to a student in a subject is based on the marks scored by him in that
subject and each grade is assigned a distinct point. The following tables show the
relation between ‘marks and grade’, and ‘grade and points’.

Q.38
What was the CGPA of Gaurav?

a 2.66

b 2.6

c 2.4

d 2.56

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Direction for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

The charts given below show the music cassettes/CDs buying behavior of people
according to their age and their preference for different types of sales outlets in the city
of Phoren during the period 2010-14. It is assumed that nobody below the age of 10
years buys any music cassette/CD in the city.
Q.39
In 2010, if there was a total of 1000 buyers of music cassettes/CDs in the city of Phoren
and the number of buyers increased by 100 every year during the given period, then
what was the total number of buyers of music cassettes/CDs who were from age group
C during the period 2010 to 2014?
x

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 829

Direction for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

The charts given below show the music cassettes/CDs buying behavior of people
according to their age and their preference for different types of sales outlets in the city
of Phoren during the period 2010-14. It is assumed that nobody below the age of 10
years buys any music cassette/CD in the city.
Q.40
By what percentage did the absolute difference between number of buyers who bought
music cassettes/CDs from mail order and those from online stores change between 2010
and 2014? (Assume the number of buyers of music cassettes/CDs remained the same for
every year during this period)
a Decreased by 15%

b Decreased by 25%

c Increased by 15%

d Increased by 25%

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Direction for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

The charts given below show the music cassettes/CDs buying behavior of people
according to their age and their preference for different types of sales outlets in the city
of Phoren during the period 2010-14. It is assumed that nobody below the age of 10
years buys any music cassette/CD in the city.
Q.41
Which type of sales outlet(s) managed to retain the number of its customers at the same
level for a period of three consecutive years in the period 2010 to 2014?
a Multi product shops

b Online stores

c Both (a) and (b)

d Data Insufficient

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Direction for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

The charts given below show the music cassettes/CDs buying behavior of people
according to their age and their preference for different types of sales outlets in the city
of Phoren during the period 2010-14. It is assumed that nobody below the age of 10
years buys any music cassette/CD in the city.
Q.42
In every age group, if the pattern of buying from various sales outlets show the same
break-up as the one given for the total, then what was the number of buyers in the age
group B buying music cassettes/CDs from music shops in 2010? (Assume there was a
total of 1000 buyers of music cassettes/CDs in the city of Phoren and the number of
buyers increased by 100 every year during the given period.)

a 500

b 322

c 425

d 380

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Rahul has a total of 80 coins and these coins are made up of different metals among
platinum, gold, silver, bronze, copper and aluminium. Denominations of platinum and
gold coins are multiple of 25 (in paise) and that of coins made up of other metals are
multiple of 5 (in paise). The range of denominations of these coins and the breakup of
total coins are given in the tables below.

Q.43
Total value of silver and bronze coins with Rahul can exceed the value of platinum and
gold coins with him by at most

a 720 paise

b 240 paise

c 540 paise

d 450 paise

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Rahul has a total of 80 coins and these coins are made up of different metals among
platinum, gold, silver, bronze, copper and aluminium. Denominations of platinum and
gold coins are multiple of 25 (in paise) and that of coins made up of other metals are
multiple of 5 (in paise). The range of denominations of these coins and the breakup of
total coins are given in the tables below.

Q.44
Rahul had copper coins of all its possible denominations and total value of all these
copper coins is Rs. 9.60. What is the maximum number of 45 paise copper coins that he
could have?

a 18

b 17

c 16

d 15

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Rahul has a total of 80 coins and these coins are made up of different metals among
platinum, gold, silver, bronze, copper and aluminium. Denominations of platinum and
gold coins are multiple of 25 (in paise) and that of coins made up of other metals are
multiple of 5 (in paise). The range of denominations of these coins and the breakup of
total coins are given in the tables below.

Q.45
If government allows use of only those coins in market whose denomination(in paise) is
multiple of 25, then what can be the maximum value of coins that Rahul can use in the
market?

a Rs. 70

b Rs. 84

c Rs. 78

d Rs. 72

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Rahul has a total of 80 coins and these coins are made up of different metals among
platinum, gold, silver, bronze, copper and aluminium. Denominations of platinum and
gold coins are multiple of 25 (in paise) and that of coins made up of other metals are
multiple of 5 (in paise). The range of denominations of these coins and the breakup of
total coins are given in the tables below.

Q.46
What is the maximum number of coins of denominations lying between 25 and 50 paise,
both inclusive, with Rahul?

a 32

b 48

c 40

d 24

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given bel
Q.47
Market Capitalization is highest for

a Chemical

b Pharmaceutical
c IT

d Bank

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given bel
Q.48
For how many sectors is market Appreciation more than the average of market capitalization?

a 3

b 2
c 1

d 0

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given bel
Q.49
Total market Capitalization of the company at present is

a Rs. 232.5 crore

b Rs. 222.5 crore


c Rs. 242.5 crore

d Rs. 200 crore

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given bel
Q.50
Number of shares is highest for

a Chemical

b Pharmaceutical
c Auto

d Bank

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Six friends – Amit, Dan, Farhan, Golu, Sumit and Nitin – bought one item each from
among mobile, Ipad, laptop, printer, pendrive and tablet not necessarily in the same
order. Each item was of different brand from among Nokia, Samsung, Hp, Philips, LG
and Apple. It is also known that:
1. Laptop is of Samsung brand.
2. Farhan bought the item of Philips brand but it was not a pendrive.
3. Nokia manufactures only Ipad and LG doesn’t manufacture mobiles.
4. Amit bought a mobile.
5. Apple manufactures only mobiles, pendrives and tablets.
6. Golu bought either a tablet or a printer. Nitin did not buy a laptop.
7. No person bought an item of brand which had the same initial letter as his own name.

Q.51
Which of the following is a correct combination of ‘person – item bought – brand’?

a Amit – mobile – Apple

b Nitin – laptop – Samsung

c Sumit – Ipad – Nokia

d More than one of the above

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Six friends – Amit, Dan, Farhan, Golu, Sumit and Nitin – bought one item each from
among mobile, Ipad, laptop, printer, pendrive and tablet not necessarily in the same
order. Each item was of different brand from among Nokia, Samsung, Hp, Philips, LG
and Apple. It is also known that:
1. Laptop is of Samsung brand.
2. Farhan bought the item of Philips brand but it was not a pendrive.
3. Nokia manufactures only Ipad and LG doesn’t manufacture mobiles.
4. Amit bought a mobile.
5. Apple manufactures only mobiles, pendrives and tablets.
6. Golu bought either a tablet or a printer. Nitin did not buy a laptop.
7. No person bought an item of brand which had the same initial letter as his own name.

Q.52
If it is known that no brand manufactures an item whose initial letter is same as the
initial letter of the brand, then who bought the item of LG brand?

a Golu

b Sumit

c Dan

d Amit

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Six friends – Amit, Dan, Farhan, Golu, Sumit and Nitin – bought one item each from
among mobile, Ipad, laptop, printer, pendrive and tablet not necessarily in the same
order. Each item was of different brand from among Nokia, Samsung, Hp, Philips, LG
and Apple. It is also known that:
1. Laptop is of Samsung brand.
2. Farhan bought the item of Philips brand but it was not a pendrive.
3. Nokia manufactures only Ipad and LG doesn’t manufacture mobiles.
4. Amit bought a mobile.
5. Apple manufactures only mobiles, pendrives and tablets.
6. Golu bought either a tablet or a printer. Nitin did not buy a laptop.
7. No person bought an item of brand which had the same initial letter as his own name.

Q.53
Who bought the printer?

a Farhan

b Golu
c Nitin

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Six friends – Amit, Dan, Farhan, Golu, Sumit and Nitin – bought one item each from
among mobile, Ipad, laptop, printer, pendrive and tablet not necessarily in the same
order. Each item was of different brand from among Nokia, Samsung, Hp, Philips, LG
and Apple. It is also known that:
1. Laptop is of Samsung brand.
2. Farhan bought the item of Philips brand but it was not a pendrive.
3. Nokia manufactures only Ipad and LG doesn’t manufacture mobiles.
4. Amit bought a mobile.
5. Apple manufactures only mobiles, pendrives and tablets.
6. Golu bought either a tablet or a printer. Nitin did not buy a laptop.
7. No person bought an item of brand which had the same initial letter as his own name.

Q.54
Which item did Dan purchase?

a Tablet

b Laptop

c Pendrive

d Mobile

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Eight people – Prachi, Reema, Swati, Aditi, Rohit, Jatin,Ishan and Love – are sitting
around a rectangular table. Prachi, Rima, Swati and Aditi are females and other
persons are males. Three persons are sitting along each of the two longer sides and one
person along each of the two shorter sides. Following information is also given:
1. If Jatin exchanges his seat with Rohit, then he will have two new neighbours, but if he
exchanges his seat with the person sitting opposite to Rohit, then he will have one new
neighbour.
2. Aditi is sitting equidistant from both Jatin and Prachi.
3. Reema is 4th to the right of Rohit.
4. Persons sitting on the shorter sides are of opposite gender and Aditi is one of them.
5. Love is sitting opposite to Reema.

Q.55
Who is sitting to the immediate right of Jatin?

a Reema

b Ishan

c Swati

d Either (a) or (c)

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Eight people – Prachi, Reema, Swati, Aditi, Rohit, Jatin,Ishan and Love – are sitting
around a rectangular table. Prachi, Rima, Swati and Aditi are females and other
persons are males. Three persons are sitting along each of the two longer sides and one
person along each of the two shorter sides. Following information is also given:
1. If Jatin exchanges his seat with Rohit, then he will have two new neighbours, but if he
exchanges his seat with the person sitting opposite to Rohit, then he will have one new
neighbour.
2. Aditi is sitting equidistant from both Jatin and Prachi.
3. Reema is 4th to the right of Rohit.
4. Persons sitting on the shorter sides are of opposite gender and Aditi is one of them.
5. Love is sitting opposite to Reema.

Q.56
Who is definitely not a neighbour of Rohit?

a Aditi

b Ishan
c Prachi

d Swati

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Eight people – Prachi, Reema, Swati, Aditi, Rohit, Jatin,Ishan and Love – are sitting
around a rectangular table. Prachi, Rima, Swati and Aditi are females and other
persons are males. Three persons are sitting along each of the two longer sides and one
person along each of the two shorter sides. Following information is also given:
1. If Jatin exchanges his seat with Rohit, then he will have two new neighbours, but if he
exchanges his seat with the person sitting opposite to Rohit, then he will have one new
neighbour.
2. Aditi is sitting equidistant from both Jatin and Prachi.
3. Reema is 4th to the right of Rohit.
4. Persons sitting on the shorter sides are of opposite gender and Aditi is one of them.
5. Love is sitting opposite to Reema.

Q.57
For how many persons, can their neighbours be found out uniquely?

a Zero

b Two

c Four

d More than four

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

Eight people – Prachi, Reema, Swati, Aditi, Rohit, Jatin,Ishan and Love – are sitting
around a rectangular table. Prachi, Rima, Swati and Aditi are females and other
persons are males. Three persons are sitting along each of the two longer sides and one
person along each of the two shorter sides. Following information is also given:
1. If Jatin exchanges his seat with Rohit, then he will have two new neighbours, but if he
exchanges his seat with the person sitting opposite to Rohit, then he will have one new
neighbour.
2. Aditi is sitting equidistant from both Jatin and Prachi.
3. Reema is 4th to the right of Rohit.
4. Persons sitting on the shorter sides are of opposite gender and Aditi is one of them.
5. Love is sitting opposite to Reema.

Q.58
If everyone moves to the seat just right of him/her, then which of the following pairs of
persons can sit opposite to each other?

a Jatin and Rohit

b Jatin and Prachi

c Swati and Love

d Jatin and Love

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

The given figure has 9 boxes labelled A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I respectively. Each box
has a distinct single-digit natural number written on it. Two numbers, on any two
adjacent boxes, are called as adjacent numbers.
Additional information :
1. The sum of the numbers on boxes G and I is less than 13.
2. The sum of the numbers on boxes adjacent to H is equal to the sum of the numbers on
boxes adjacent to G.
3. The sum of the numbers on the boxes that are adjacent to the box containing 5 is 30.
4. The sum of the numbers on boxes C and D is less than 6.
5. Box E does not have the lowest number and box F does not have the highest number.
6. The sum of the numbers on boxes G and H is prime.
7. The sum of the numbers on the boxes adjacent to D exceeds the sum of the numbers
on boxes adjacent to C by 6.
Q.59
Which of the following statements is sufficient to find the number written on box C?
(i) The sum of the numbers on boxes adjacent to F is more than the sum of the numbers
on boxes adjacent to E.
(ii) The sum of the numbers on boxes adjacent to F is less than the sum of the numbers
on boxes adjacent to E.

a The question can be answered by using statement (i) alone but not (ii) alone.

b The question can be answered by using statement (ii) alone but not (i) alone.

c The question can be answered by using either statement alone.

d No more information is required.

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o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

The given figure has 9 boxes labelled A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I respectively. Each box
has a distinct single-digit natural number written on it. Two numbers, on any two
adjacent boxes, are called as adjacent numbers.
Additional information :
1. The sum of the numbers on boxes G and I is less than 13.
2. The sum of the numbers on boxes adjacent to H is equal to the sum of the numbers on
boxes adjacent to G.
3. The sum of the numbers on the boxes that are adjacent to the box containing 5 is 30.
4. The sum of the numbers on boxes C and D is less than 6.
5. Box E does not have the lowest number and box F does not have the highest number.
6. The sum of the numbers on boxes G and H is prime.
7. The sum of the numbers on the boxes adjacent to D exceeds the sum of the numbers
on boxes adjacent to C by 6.

Q.60
For how many boxes the numbers written on them can be uniquely determined?

x
o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 5

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

The given figure has 9 boxes labelled A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I respectively. Each box
has a distinct single-digit natural number written on it. Two numbers, on any two
adjacent boxes, are called as adjacent numbers.
Additional information :
1. The sum of the numbers on boxes G and I is less than 13.
2. The sum of the numbers on boxes adjacent to H is equal to the sum of the numbers on
boxes adjacent to G.
3. The sum of the numbers on the boxes that are adjacent to the box containing 5 is 30.
4. The sum of the numbers on boxes C and D is less than 6.
5. Box E does not have the lowest number and box F does not have the highest number.
6. The sum of the numbers on boxes G and H is prime.
7. The sum of the numbers on the boxes adjacent to D exceeds the sum of the numbers
on boxes adjacent to C by 6.

Q.61
For how many pairs of adjacent boxes, the sum of the numbers on them is 15?

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 0

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.

The given figure has 9 boxes labelled A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I respectively. Each box
has a distinct single-digit natural number written on it. Two numbers, on any two
adjacent boxes, are called as adjacent numbers.
Additional information :
1. The sum of the numbers on boxes G and I is less than 13.
2. The sum of the numbers on boxes adjacent to H is equal to the sum of the numbers on
boxes adjacent to G.
3. The sum of the numbers on the boxes that are adjacent to the box containing 5 is 30.
4. The sum of the numbers on boxes C and D is less than 6.
5. Box E does not have the lowest number and box F does not have the highest number.
6. The sum of the numbers on boxes G and H is prime.
7. The sum of the numbers on the boxes adjacent to D exceeds the sum of the numbers
on boxes adjacent to C by 6.

Q.62
For how many boxes, the sum of the numbers on the boxes adjacent to them must be a
prime number?

a 2

b 3

c 4

d 5

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
1. P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members of a family.
2. Each one of them has a different profession, from among Doctor, Teacher, Lawyer,
Engineer, Architect, Chartered Accountant and Banker, and a different income.
3. There are two married couples in the family.
4. R is the Doctor and earns more than the Engineer as well as the Lawyer.
5. T is married to the Chartered Accountant and she earns the least.
6. No lady is either Lawyer or Engineer.
7. Q, the Teacher, earns less than P, the Banker. W is married to Q and he earns more
than S as well as P.
8. V is not a Lawyer. The Chartered Accountant earns less than the Lawyer but more
than the Banker.

Q.63
Who earns the maximum in the family?

a V
b W

c R

d S

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
1. P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members of a family.
2. Each one of them has a different profession, from among Doctor, Teacher, Lawyer,
Engineer, Architect, Chartered Accountant and Banker, and a different income.
3. There are two married couples in the family.
4. R is the Doctor and earns more than the Engineer as well as the Lawyer.
5. T is married to the Chartered Accountant and she earns the least.
6. No lady is either Lawyer or Engineer.
7. Q, the Teacher, earns less than P, the Banker. W is married to Q and he earns more
than S as well as P.
8. V is not a Lawyer. The Chartered Accountant earns less than the Lawyer but more
than the Banker.

Q.64
What is P's position from the top when they are arranged in descending order of their
incomes?

a Second

b Fourth

c Third

d Fifth

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
1. P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members of a family.
2. Each one of them has a different profession, from among Doctor, Teacher, Lawyer,
Engineer, Architect, Chartered Accountant and Banker, and a different income.
3. There are two married couples in the family.
4. R is the Doctor and earns more than the Engineer as well as the Lawyer.
5. T is married to the Chartered Accountant and she earns the least.
6. No lady is either Lawyer or Engineer.
7. Q, the Teacher, earns less than P, the Banker. W is married to Q and he earns more
than S as well as P.
8. V is not a Lawyer. The Chartered Accountant earns less than the Lawyer but more
than the Banker.

Q.65
What is the profession of V?

a Engineer

b Chartered Accountant

c Engineer or Chartered Accountant

d Data inadequate

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
1. P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members of a family.
2. Each one of them has a different profession, from among Doctor, Teacher, Lawyer,
Engineer, Architect, Chartered Accountant and Banker, and a different income.
3. There are two married couples in the family.
4. R is the Doctor and earns more than the Engineer as well as the Lawyer.
5. T is married to the Chartered Accountant and she earns the least.
6. No lady is either Lawyer or Engineer.
7. Q, the Teacher, earns less than P, the Banker. W is married to Q and he earns more
than S as well as P.
8. V is not a Lawyer. The Chartered Accountant earns less than the Lawyer but more
than the Banker.

Q.66
At least how many male members are there in the family?

a Two

b Three
c Four

d Five

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Sec 3

Q.67
In a plane, there are two family of lines y = x + N and y = –x + N, where N {0, 1, 2, 3,
4}. The number of squares that can be formed by these lines is :

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 30

Q.68
Let α and β, which are integers, be the roots of a quadratic equation ax + bx + c = 0,
2

where α and β lie between -3 and 3. If α, β are of opposite sign then find the number of
possible values of a + b + c.

a 1

b 4

c 6

d Infinite

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.69
Out of 4 different roses and 9 different sunflowers, a bunch of flowers is to be prepared.
Find the number of ways of preparing a bunch of eight flowers containing at least one
rose.
a 1278

b 12
C
7

c 1287

d 13
C
7

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.70
Neha wants to visit Nitin’s house, hence she calls up Nitin and asks him to come to her
residence and pick her up. Nitin asks her to leave immediately and start walking
towards his house. At the same time he also leaves by car, meets Neha on the way, picks
her up and drives back to his house, thereby taking a total of 30 mins. Had Nitin driven
all the way to pick Neha from her home, he would have taken a total of 40 mins. What is
the ratio of speed at which Neha walks to the speed at which Nitin drives the car?

a 1:4

b 1:5

c 1:3

d 2:3

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.71
Find the sum of the following series:
1 + 3 + 7 + 13 + 21 … up to 50 terms.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 41700
Q.72
What is the area enclosed by the graphs y = |x + a| and y = 5?

a 25 sq. units

b 50 sq. units

c 75 sq. units

d Data insufficient

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.73
The cost of building a wall is Rs. 1404. What would be the cost of building the wall if the

daily wages of workers increase by and the working hours per day increase by a

fraction of ?

a Rs. 1470

b Rs. 1225

c Rs. 1575

d Rs. 1775

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.74
The minimum value of | x + 3 | + | x – 3 | + | x – 4 | + | x – 5 | + | x + 5 | is

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 17
Q.75

a 8

b 4

c 6

d 2

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.76
How many distinct sums will Nandu get if he has to add any 7 distinct numbers out of
the first 18 natural numbers such that the sum is always divisible by 3?

a 35

b 26

c 27

d 25

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.77
A can complete a piece of work in 60 days, B in 30 days, C in 20 days, D in 15 days, E in
12 days and F in 10 days. Now these 6 people make two teams – one consisting of 2
members and the other of 4 members – in such a way that one team takes twice the time
to complete the work as compared to the other team. How many such pairs of teams are
possible?

a 1
b 3

c 6

d 6
C2

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.78
A sequence X , X , X , ......, is in arithmetic progression and another sequence Y , Y , Y , ....
1 2 3 1 2 3

is also in arithmetic progression. A new sequence is obtained by multiplying the


corresponding terms of the two sequences (for example, X Y , X Y , ..... and so on). If the
1 1 2 2

first three terms of the new sequence are 1440, 1716 and 1848, what is its eighth term?

a 144

b 348

c 248

d 288

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.79
At a birthday party, a mischievous boy was wearing a hollow conical hat having radius
of 2 cm and height of 6 cm. The birthday cake was cuboidal in shape with dimensions 6
cm × 6 cm × 4 cm. The boy took the hat off his head and forced it into the cake such that
the cake rose uniformly upto 2 cm inside the hat. Find the volume of the cake that is
inside the hat. (Assume the thickness of the hat to be negligible.)

c
d

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.80
X = 10 a + 10 b + 10c + 2, where a, b and c are natural numbers. Which of the following
3 2

statements is definitely false?

a If X on dividing by ‘a’ leaves a remainder 2, then ‘a’ can take exactly two values.

b X is not a perfect square.

c X may be a 4 digit number.

d Option (a) is false.

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.81
A student’s performance is judged by a test, a demo lecture and 6 class assignments (all
class assignments are assigned the same weightage). If the demo lecture counts twice as
much as the test and thrice as much as one class assignment, what is the contribution of
a class assignment in the students final performance?

a 4/21

b 3/14

c 2/21

d 1/3

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.82
In square PQRS, U and V are two points on its diagonals. If O is the intersection point
of the two diagonals, OV = 3 cm and OU = 4 cm, then what is the length of the line
segment UV?
I. 7 cm
II. 1 cm
III. 5 cm

a I or II only

b II or III only

c III only

d I, II or III

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.83
f(x) = x + 1, g(x) = [f(x) – 1] and h(x) = g(x) × x
2

If g(x) = h(x), then how many value(s) of x is/are possible? (it is given that x is an
integer)

a 3

b 2

c 1

d 0

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.84
Let P1 and P2 be the smallest and the second smallest number that have 8 factors each.
What is the absolute difference between P1 and P2?

a 4
b 6

c 8

d 12

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.85
My digital clock counts 10 seconds of a normal clock as 1 minute and 60 such minutes of
itself as 1 hour. It has a display that shows the day as well. It was at par with the normal
clock at 12 noon on Monday. The time and day shown by the clock at 3 p.m (actual
time) of the same day was

a 6 p.m., Monday

b 6 a.m., Tuesday

c 6 p.m., Tuesday

d 4 a.m., Tuesday

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.86
The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is ‘A’ cm and each of the two equal sides is ‘B’ cm
longer than the third side. Which of the following is the length of the equal sides?

c
d

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.87
Vinod is a very shrewd shop owner. He adjusted his electronic weighing scale in such a
way that the error percentage of his scale is directly proportional to the displayed
weight(in kg) of the commodity. But he gives a discount of 10% on every transaction.
His weighing scale shows 5 kg for 4 kg. If he sells the commodity at its cost price, what is
the actual profit percentage when the displayed weight is 10 kg?

a 35%

b 30%

c –5%

d 50%

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.88
Find the remainder when (x – 11x + 18x + 2x – 17) is divided by (x – 9).
4 3 2

a 0

b 1

c 2

d 3

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : b

Q.89
An escalator is moving downwards at a speed of 4 steps/minute. Neerja takes 6 minutes
less to reach the bottom from the top of the escalator, if he comes down on the moving
escalator, as compared to when he does so on the stationary escalator. Gia takes 6 more
min to reach the top from the bottom of the escalator if he goes up on the escalator
moving downward as compared to when he does so on the stationary escalator. They
start simultaneously from the top and the bottom of the escalator, moving downward,
respectively and meet after 4 minutes. How many steps are there in the escalator?

a 60

b 56

c 48

d Cannot be determined

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.90
The average weight of the text books carried by Sonu to school is 1.5 kg. The average
weight of the exercise books carried by Sonu is 2.5 kg. If Sonu carries only text books
and exercise books to school and the number of these books are in the ratio 2 : 3, what is
the total weight of Sonu’s school bag? (Ignore any other weights in the bag such as that
of school bag,pen,pencil etc.)

a 10.5 kg

b 10 kg

c 20 kg

d Data insufficient

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.91
What is the radius (in cm) of the circle with centre O, shown in the diagram given
below, if the angle made by the chord AB at the centre is 120°, PB = 9 cm and PT = 6
cm?
a

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : d

Q.92
If (x – 2) (x – 4) (x – 6) … (x – 100) < 0, where x is a natural number, the number of
values that x can have is

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : 25

Q.93
What is the ratio of A and B, where A is the square of the volume of a sphere drawn by
taking the diagonal of a cube as its diameter and B is the cube of the sum of the areas of
all the circles that can be inscribed on each of the faces of the same cube?

a
b

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : a

Q.94
a, b, c and d are four natural numbers such that:

Then (a + b + c + d) is equal to

a 45

b 50

c 60

d 75

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.95

a 2 50

b 225
c 2

d 2 1/25

o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c

Q.96
In the given figure, the number inside a region indicates the area (in square units) of
that region. Find the area of ΔABC.

a 218 sq. units

b 182 sq. units

c 315 sq. units

d 249 sq. units

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Correct Answer : c

Q.97
If 9x + 4, 2x + 7 and 8x – 1 represent the lengths of three sides of a triangle (x > 1), then
2 2

which of the following is not an acceptable value for x?

a 1

b √2

c 2
d 2√2

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Correct Answer : d

Q.98
What is the number of consecutive zeroes at the end, when (2 – 2 ) is written in binary
189 89

number system?

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Correct Answer : 89

Q.99
If three prime numbers, all greater than 100, are in A.P, their common difference

a must be divisible by 6.

b must be greater than 600.

c must be divisible by 2 but not necessarily by 3.

d need not be divisible by either of 2 or 3.

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Correct Answer : a

Q.100
Ten litres of milk is taken out from a container having 30 litres of pure milk and
replaced with 20 litres of water. Then from the resulting solution, 10 litres content is
taken out and replaced with 20 litres of pure water. If (n – 2) more such operations are
carried out, what is the volume (in litres) of pure milk in the container after the (n –
1)th such operation?

a 30/n+2

b 60/n+2
c 60/n+1

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Correct Answer : c

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