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Chapter 3 Answers
Chapter 3 Answers
Chapter 3 Answers
1. In a study relating college grade point average to time spent in various activities, you
distribute a survey to several students. The students are asked how many hours they
spend each week in four activities: studying, sleeping, working, and leisure. Any activity
is put into one of the four categories, so that for each student, the sum of hours in the four
activities must be 168.
i. In the model
GPA = β 0 + β1study + β 2 sleep + β3 work + β 4leisure + u
does it make sense to hold sleep , work , and leisure fixed while changing
study ?
(Ans)
No. By definition, study + sleep + work + leisure = 168. Therefore, if we change
study, we must change at least one of the other categories so that the sum is still 168.
iii. How could you reformulate the model so that its parameters have a useful
interpretation and it satisfies Assumption MLR.3?
(Ans)
Simply drop one of the independent variables, say leisure:
GPA = β 0 + β1 study + β 2 sleep + β 3 work + u.
Now, for example, β1 is interpreted as the change in GPA when study increases by
one hour, where sleep, work, and u are all held fixed. If we are holding sleep and
work fixed but increasing study by one hour, then we must be reducing leisure by one
hour. The other slope parameters have a similar interpretation.
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ECON 482 / WH Hong Answer Key
avgabil are negatively correlated, what is the likely bias in β1 obtained from the
bias in β1 : E( β1 ) < β1 . This means that, on average across different random samples,
the simple regression estimator underestimates the effect of the training program. It is
even possible that E( β1 ) is negative even though β1 > 0.
3.
i. Consider the simple regression model y = β 0 + β1 x + u under the first four Gauss-
⎛ n
⎞ ⎛ n
⎞
β1 = ⎜ ∑ ( zi − z ) yi ⎟ ⎜ ∑ ( zi − z ) xi ⎟
⎝ i =1 ⎠ ⎝ i =1 ⎠
Show that β1 is linear (in yi ) and unbiased. Remenber, because E ( u x ) = 0 , you
covariance between z and x because we do not divide by n – 1, but we are only using
it to simplify notation. Then we can write β1 as
2
ECON 482 / WH Hong Answer Key
∑ (z i − z ) yi
β1 = i =1
.
szx
This is clearly a linear function of the yi: take the weights to be wi = (zi − z )/szx.
To show unbiasedness, as usual we plug yi = β 0 + β1 xi + ui into this equation, and
simplify:
n
∑ ( z − z )( βi 0 + β1 xi + ui )
β1 = i =1
szx
n n
β 0 ∑ ( zi − z ) + β1szx + ∑ ( zi − z )ui
= i =1 i =1
szx
n
∑ ( z − z )u
i i
= β1 + i =1
szx
n
where we use the fact that ∑ ( z − z ) = 0 always.
i =1
i Now szx is a function of the zi
and xi and the expected value of each ui is zero conditional on all zi and xi in the
sample. Therefore, conditional on these values,
n
∑ ( z − z )E(u )
i i
E( β1 ) = β1 + i =1
= β1
szx
because E(ui) = 0 for all i.
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ECON 482 / WH Hong Answer Key
⎡ n ⎤ n
Var ⎢ ∑ ( zi − z )ui ⎥ ∑ (z − z )
i
2
Var(ui )
Var( β1 ) = ⎣ i =1 ⎦= i =1
szx2 szx2
n
∑ (z − z ) i
2
=σ2 i =1
szx2
because of the homoskedasticity assumption [Var(ui) = σ2 for all i]. Given the
definition of szx, this is what we wanted to show.
iii. Show directly that, under the Gauss-Markov assumption, var βˆ1 ≤ var β1 , where ( ) ( )
β̂1 is the OLS estimator. [Hint: The Cauch inequality implies that
2
⎛ −1 n ⎞ ⎛ −1 n 2 ⎞⎛ −1
n
2⎞
⎜
⎝
n ∑i =1
( z i − z )( xi − x ) ≤
⎟ ⎜
⎠ ⎝
n ∑i =1
( zi − z ) ⎟⎜
⎠⎝
n ∑
i=1
( xi − x ) ⎟ ;
⎠
notice that we can drop x from the sample covariance.]
(Ans)
n
We know that Var( β̂1 ) = σ2/ [∑ ( xi − x ) 2 ]. Now we can rearrange the inequality in
i =1
the hint, drop x from the sample covariance, and cancel n-1 everywhere, to get
n n
[∑ ( zi − z ) 2 ] / szx2 ≥ 1/[∑ ( xi − x ) 2 ]. When we multiply through by σ2 we get
i =1 i =1
Computer Exercises
4. Confirm the partiallling out interpretation of the OLS estimates by explicitly doing the
partialling out for Example 3.2 in the textbook, using the data set in WAGE1.dta. This
first requires regressing educ on exper and tenure and saving the residuals, r̂1 .
Then, regress log ( wage ) on r̂1 . Compare the coefficient on r̂1 with the coefficient on
(Ans)
The regression of educ on exper and tenure yields
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ECON 482 / WH Hong Answer Key
n = 526, R2 = .101.
Now, when we regress log(wage) on r̂1 we obtain
n
log( wage) = 1.62 + .092 r̂1
n = 526, R2 = .207.
As expected, the coefficient on r̂1 in the second regression is identical to the coefficient
on educ in equation (3.19). Notice that the R-squared from the above regression is
below that in (3.19). In effect, the regression of log(wage) on r̂1 explains log(wage)
using only the part of educ that is uncorrelated with exper and tenure; separate effects of
exper and tenure are not included.
5. Use the data set in WAGE2.dta for this problem. As usual, be sure all of the following
regression contain an intercept.
i. Run a simple regression of IQ on educ to obtain the slope coefficient, say, δ1 .
(Ans)
The slope coefficient from the regression IQ on educ is (rounded to five decimal
places) δ1 = 3.53383.
ii. Run the simple regression of log ( wage ) on educ , and obtain the slope coefficient,
β1 .
(Ans)
The slope coefficient from log(wage) on educ is β1 = .05984.
iii. Run the multiple regression of log ( wage ) on educ and IQ , and obtain the slope
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ECON 482 / WH Hong Answer Key