Test Pattern

(1001CMD303119015) )1//1CMD3/3119/15)
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET(UG)
MINOR
(Academic Session : 2019 - 2020) 25-08-2019
PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER COURSE (PHASE : MLB)
This Booklet contains 20 pages.

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.

Important Instructions :

1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with
blue/black ball point pen only.

2. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question
carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.

4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.

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marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified
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Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)

Form Number : in figures

: in words

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Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2020

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TOPIC : NLM + WPE + COM, Electrostatics Complete, Capacitor, Current Elect., Geometrical Optics.
1. Two masses of 1 kg and 5 kg are attached to the ends 4. Two masses of 1 g and 9 g are moving with equal
of a massless string passing over a pulley of negligible kinetic energies. The ratio of the magnitudes of
weight. The pulley itself is attached to a light spring their respective linear momenta is :-
balance as shown in figure. The masses start moving (1) 1 : 9 (2) 9 : 1
during this interval; the reading of spring balance will (3) 1 : 3 (4) 3 : 1
be : 5. A uniform chain has a mass m and length l. It is
held on a frictionless table with one-sixth of its
length hanging over the edge. The work done in
just pulling the hanging part back on the table
is :-

mgl mgl
(1) (2)
72 36
1 kg
5 kg
mgl mgl
(3) (4)
12 6
(1) more than 6 kg (2) less than 6 kg 6. A body is moved along a straight line by a machine
(3) equal to 6 kg (4) none of the above delivering a constant power. The distance, moved by
2. Three masses of 1 kg, 6 kg and 3 kg are connected the body in time t, is proportional to :-
to each other with threads and are placed on a table
(1) t (2) t3/4
as shown in figure. What is the acceleration with
which the system is moving? (3) t3/2 (4) t2
(Take g = 10 m s–2) :- 7. A body of mass 2 kg is projected at 20 m/s at an
angle 60° above the horizontal. Power due to the
T1 T2
6kg gravitational force on the block at its highest point
is :-
T1 T2
(1) 200 W (2) 100 3 W
1kg 3kg
(3) 50 W (4) zero
–2
(1) zero (2) 1 m s 8. If the momentum of a certain body be increased
–2 –2
(3) 2 m s (4) 3 m s by 50%, its KE will increase by :-
3. When a body slides down an inclined plane with (1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 100% (4) 125%
coefficient of friction m, then its acceleration will 9. An object of mass 5 kg falls from rest through a
be :- vertical distance of 20 m and reaches ground with
(1) g(sin q – m cos q) a velocity of 10 m/s. The work done by air
(2) g(sin q + m cos q) resistance is: (g = 10 m s–2) :-
(3) g(m sin q – cos q) (1) +730 J (2) –750 J
(4) g(m sin q + cos q) (3) +980 J (4) –980 J
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10. An engine pumps water continuously through a 14. A bullet of mass m moving with velocity v strikes
hose. Water leaves the hose with a velocity v and a suspended wooden block of mass M and gets
m is the mass per unit length of the water jet. What embedded. If the block rises to a height h, the
is the rate at which kinetic energy is imparted to initial velocity of the bullet will be :-
water ? (M + m)
(1) 2gh (2) 2gh
m
1 2 m (M - m)
(1) mv3 (2) mv 2gh 2gh
2 (3) (4)
(M + m) m
15. A mass of 20 kg moving with a speed of
1 2 2 1 3 10 m/s collides with another stationary mass of
(3) m v (4) mv
2 2
5 kg. As a result of the collision, the two masses
11. Given that the displacement of the body in metre stick together. The kinetic energy of the composite
mass will be :-
is a function of time as follows:
(1) 600 J (2) 1000 J
4
x = 2t +5
(3) 800 J (4) 1200 J
The mass of the body is 2 kg. What is the increase 16. When 30 mC charge is given to an isolated
in its kinetic energy one second after the start of conductor of capacitance 5 mF. If this conductor
motion? is now connected to another isolated conductor by
(1) 8 J (2) 16 J a conducting wire (at very large distance) of total
charge 50 mC and capacity 10 mF then common
(3) 32 J (4) 64 J potential and the ratio of final charges on
12. A body of mass 3 kg acted upon by a constant conductors is :
force is displaced by S meter, given by relation: 16 3 3 1
(1) volt, (2) volt,
1 2 3 5 16 2
S= t where t is in second. Work done by the
3 16 1 16 2
force in 2 seconds is :- (3) volt, (4) volt,
3 2 5 3
17. The graph shows the variation of voltage V across
8 19 5 3
(1) J (2) J (3) J (4) J the plates of two capacitors A and B with charge
3 5 19 8
‘Q’. Relation between capacitance of A and B is :
13. A shell explodes and many pieces fly off in
V­ A
different directions. Which of the following is
conserved ? B

(1) Kinetic energy

Q®
(2) Momentum

(3) Neither momentum nor KE (1) CA > CB (2) CA = CB

(4) Momentum and KE (3) CA < CB (4) None of these

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18. The electrostatic force between the metal plates of 21. The resultant capacity between the points A and
an parallel plate capacitor ‘C’ having a area A and B in the adjoining circuit will be :
distance between plates is d. Capacitor is
C
connected with a battery of emf V is :

(1) Independent of the distance between the plates C

C
(2) Linearly proportional to the distance between C
C
the plates

(3) Proportional to the square root of the distance C

between the plates

A B
(4) Inversely proportional to the square of the
distance between the plates (1) C (2) 2C

19. Energy stored between the plates of parallel plate (3) 3C (4) 4C
capacitor of area ‘A’ and separated by a distance 22. The charge on the capacitor of capacitance
d. If electric field between its plates is E : 2 mF is :
1 A 2mF
(1) e0 E 2
2 d
1 d
(2) e0 2 3mF
2 E A
3mF
1
(3) e 0 E Ad 4mF
2

2
+ –
(4) e 0EAd
8V
20. A parallel plate capacitor is charged upto potential
(1) 4.5 mC (2) 6.0 mC
of 300 volts. Area of the plates is 100 cm2 and
(3) 7 mC (4) 30 mC
spacing between than is 2 cm. if the plates are
23. On placing a dielectric slab between the plates of
moved part to a distance of 5 cm, without
an isolated charged capacitor its :
disconnecting the power source then change in
energy of the capacitor is : Capacitance Charge Potential Energy Electric
difference stored field
(e0 = 9 × 10–12 c2 N–1 m–2) (1) Decreases Remains Decrease Increase Increase
unchanged
(1) 6 × 10–8 J
(2) Increases Remains Increase Increase Decrease
unchanged
(2) –1215 × 10–10 J
(3) Increases Remains Decrease Decrease Decrease
(3) 1215 × 10–10 J unchanged
(4) Decreases Remains Decrease Increase Remains
(4) –243 × 10 –9 J unchanged unchanged

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24. In the given figure, two identical capacitor C1 and 28. A thin metal plate P is inserted between the plates
C2 are connected to battery. Air is filled between of a parallel plate capacitor of capacity ‘C’ in such
the plates of C1 and a dielectric is filled between a way that its edges touch the two plates as shown
the plates of C2 then : in figure. The capacity now becomes :

+ q2 q1
P
K C1
– C2

(1) q1 < q2 (2) q1 > q2 (1) 0 (2) 3C

(3) 2C (4) ¥
(3) q1 = q2 (4) None of these
29. Choose the correct direction of electric field at
25. Two capacitors of capacity C 1 and C 2 are point ‘O’ in the given diagram ‘O’ is the centre
connected as shown in figure. Now the switch is of given regular pentagon :
closed then heat dissipated in circuit :
+Q

C1=2mF + + C2=3mF
+Q +Q
200V – – 400V O

(1) 24 mJ (2) 2400 mJ

+Q
(3) 24 mJ (4) None of these
26. Four parallel plates are shown in figure. Each plate (1) (2)
have same area ‘A’ then equivalent capacitance
(3) (4)
eA
of the system is : (Where C = 0 ) 30. The figures shows electrostatic lines of force for
d
static charge, which pattern is incorrect :
d +

d –

d (a)

2 3C
(1) 3C (2) C (3) (4) 2C
3 2
(b)
27. A 3 mega ohm resistor and an uncharged 1 mF
capacitor are connected in series with a battery of
4 volt at one second after the connection is made (c)
what are the rate at which the charge on the
capacitor is increasing :
-1/3 mC 4 -1/3 m C
(1) 4(1 - e ) (2) e (d)
sec 3 sec
-1/3 mC 4 mC (1) a, d (2) b, c
(3) 4e (4) (1 - e -1/3 )
sec 3 sec (3) only c (4) c, d
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31. Two metal spheres of same mass are suspended 34. If E is the electric field intensity of an electrostatic
from a common point of a light insulating string. field then the electrostatic energy density is
The length of each string is same. The spheres are proportional to :
given electric charges +q on one and +2q on the (1) E (2) E2
other. Which of the following diagram best shows
the resulting position of spheres : 1
(3) (4) E 3
E2

q1 q2 q 35. If an electron moves from rest from a point at

(1) (2) which potential is 50 volt to another point at which
potential is 70 volt then its kinetic energy in the
+q +2q +q +2q
final state will be :
(1) 3.2 × 10–10 J (2) 3.2 × 10–18 J
q q q
(3) (4) (3) 1 mJ (4) 1 dyne
36. Two charges, each equal to q, are kept at
+q +2q +q +2q
x = –a and x = a on the x-axis. A particle of massM
32. A solid sphere of radius R, is charged uniformly
with a total charge ‘Q’, then the correct expression q
and charge q0 = is placed at the origin. If charge
for electric field is (r = distance from centre) 2
KQr q0 is given a small displacement (x << a) along the
(1) , where r < R x-axis, the net force acting on the particle is
R3
KQ proportional to :
(2) 2 , where r ³ R
r (1) x2 (2) –x
(3) It is zero, at all points
(4) 1 and 2 both 1 1
33. There exists a uniform electric field in the space as (3) (4) -
x x
shown. Four points A, B, C and D are marked which
are equidistant from the origin. If VA, VB, VC and 37. If linear charge density of a wire of length ‘L’
VD are their potentials respectively, then : l0 x
depends on distance ‘x’ from one end as l = ,
Y L
total charge of wire is :
B

A 30°
X
C O
O L
E
D

(1) VB > VA > VC > VD l0 L

(2) VA > VB > VD > VC (1) l0L (2)
4
(3) VA = VB > VC = VD l0 L
(3) (4) 2l0L
(4) VB > VC > VA > VD 2
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38. Charge distribution on a ring in x-y plane is shown 42. The potentiometer wire of length 100 cm has a
in the figure. Then electric potential at origin is : resistance of 10 W. It is connected in series with
–– a resistance of 5 W and an accumultator of emf
––
–2Q –– 3Q 3V having negligible resistance. A source of
1.2 V is balanced :
–
–
–
–
– O 5W
–
–
– 3V
r –
–
– –
4Q –4Q
–– l
––
A B
G
Q
(1) 4 pe r (2) zero
0 1.2V
Q 3Q
(3) 2 pe r (4) 4 pe r (1) 60 cm (2) 40 cm
0 0
39. A +q1 charge is at centre of an imaginary spherical (3) 30 cm (4) None
Gaussian surface ‘S’ and –q 1 charge is placed 5V 10W
nearby this +q1 charge inside ‘S’. A charge +q2 is 43.
located outside this Gaussian surface. Then electric A B
field on Gaussian surface will be :
(1) due to –q1 and q 2 (2) due to q2 only
(3) due to all charges (4) zero 2V 20W
40. In the following figure. Equipotential lines are shown : In the following circuit the value of (VA – VB)
50V 40V 30V 20V 10V 0V is :

A B C 2
(1) - volt (2) 4 volt
3

8
20cm 20cm 10cm 10cm 5cm (3) - volt (4) 7 volt
3
1
(1) EA = V / cm (2) EB = 1 V/cm 44. Find the angle of reflection :
2
N
(3) EC = 2 V/cm (4) All of the above
41. Find the value of I :
60º
2W 6W

I (1) 30° (2) 60°

1W
(3) 70° (4) None of these
2V 5V
10V 45. Our eyes are most sensitive for :

2W (1) Yellow colour (2) Red colour

(1) +2.1 A (2) –1.4 A (3) 2 A (4) –4.2 A (3) Pink colour (4) Black colour
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TOPIC : Chemical Equilibrium, Halogen Derivatives, Oxygen Containing Compound, Nitrogen Containing,
Biomolecule, Polymer, Solid State, Periodic Table.
46. Van’t Hoff factor is- 54. Which group is isoelectronic group.
(1) i < 1 (2) i > 1 (1) NO+, C22–, CN–, N2
(3) i = 1 (4) All possible (2) N2,O2–,NO,CO
47. Freezing point of 1 molal NaCl solution assuming (3) CN–, N2, O22–,C22–
NaCl to be 100% dissociated in H 2 O, is- (4) C22–, O2–, CO, NO
(Kf = 1.86 K molality–1) 55. Mass percentage of ‘C’ in glucose is -
(1) – 186 (2) – 3.72 (1) 40% (2) 72%
(3) 1.86 (4) 3.72 (3) 35% (4) 50%
48. Which salt solution has maximum vapour pressure. 56. A + 2B ® 2C find maximum moles of product that
(1) AgCl (2) Na2SO4 can be obtained from 2 mole of A and 1 mole of B.
(3) (NH4)3PO4 (4) Urea (1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 1.5
49. Which contains least no. of molecules - 57. Assuming that petrol is octane (C8 H18 ) and has
density 0.8 g mL–1. 1.425 L of petrol on complete
(1) 1g CO2 (2) 1g N2
combustion will consume.
(3) 1g O2 (4) 1 g H2
(1) 50 mole of O2 (2) 100 mole of O2
50. Which of the following solution has lowest
(3) 125 mole of O2 (4) 200 mole ofO2
Boilling point -
58. 12 L of H2 and 11.2 L of Cl2 are mixed and exploded.
(1) 1M NaCl
The composition by volume of mixture is–
(2) 1M glucose
(1) 24 L of HCl (g)
(3) 1M K4[Fe(CN)6]
(2) 0.8 L Cl2 and 20.8 L HCl (g)
(4) 1M CuSO4
(3) 0.8 L H2 and 22.4 L HCl (g)
51. 1.5 mole of O2 combine with Mg to form MgO. The
(4) 22.4 L HCl (g)
mass of Mg (at wt. 24) that has to combine is-
59. The following quantum no. are possible for how
(1) 72 gm (2) 24 gm many orbitals n = 3, l = 2, m = +2 ?
(3) 36 gm (4) 94 gm (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
52. Which of the following has i < 1 in Benzene solution- 60. Which sub–shell is not permissible :–
(1) CCl4 (1) 2d (2) 4f (3) 6p (4) 3s
(2) C6H5COOH 61. Which set of quantum number is correct for an
(3) Urea electron in 3p orbital :-
(4) Al2(SO4)3 1
(1) n = 3, l = 2 m = 0 s = +
2
53. Two radiations of energies E1 & E2 are 25eV &
1
50eV respectively If l1 & l2 are their wavelength (2) n = 3, l = 0, m = + 1, s = +
2
then their relation is - 1
(3) n = 3, l = – 2 m = – 1, s = +
(1) l1 = l2 (2) l1 = 2l2 2
1
(3) 2l1 = l2 (4) l1 = 4l2 (4) n = 3 l = 1 m = 0, s = +
2
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62. Which of the following transition neither shows ˆˆ† 2B, At equilibrium 1 mole of A and
67. A ‡ˆˆ
absorption nor emission of energy in case of
2 mole of B were present in 5L flask. Equilibrium
hydrogen atom :–
constant is -
(1) 3px ® 3s (2) 3dxy ® 3dyz
2
(3) 3s ® 3dxy (4) All the above (1) 4 (2) 0.8 (3) (4) 2
5
63. Select the correct statement from the following : 68. ˆˆ† P has equilibrium constant 50 at temperature
If R ‡ˆˆ
(1)Equilibrium constant changes with addition of 70ºC and 45 at 82ºC, the nature of reaction is -
catalyst (1) Exothermic (2) Endothermic
(2)Catalyst increases the rate of forward reaction only. (3) Inverssible (4) All
(3)The equilibrium constant at equilibrium does 69. If 3 mole of PCl5 are left at equilibrium when initial
not changed by catalyst 5 moles of PCl5 are heated. Find equilibrium constant
(4)Catalyst are active only in solution. ˆˆ† PCl 3 + Cl 2
at 2 atm equilibrium pressure PCl 5 ‡ˆˆ
64. In a chemical equilibrium, the rate constant for
the backward reaction is 7.5 × 10 –4 and the 4 27
(1) (2)
equilibrium constant is 1.5. The rate constant for 27 4
the forward reaction is:-
(1) 2 × 10–3 (2) 5 × 10–4 8 21
(3) (4)
21 8
(3) 1.12 × 10–3 (4) 9.0 × 10–4
65. Which of the following reaction has Kp > Kc. 70. ˆˆ† I 2 (vap.) is 200 mm. then
If Kp for reaction I 2 (s) ‡ˆˆ
ˆˆ† 2SO + O
(1) 2SO3 ‡ˆˆ vapour pressure of Iodine vapours at equilibrium is-
2 2

(1) 200 mm
ˆˆ† PCl5
(2) PCl3 + Cl 2 ‡ˆˆ
1
(2) mm
ˆˆ† 2HI
(3) H 2 + I 2 ‡ˆˆ 200
(3) 100 mm
ˆˆ† 2NH 3
(4) N2 + 3H 2 ‡ˆˆ (4) 200 mm
66. Which of the following is not correct for - 71. Which of the following compound does not give
iodoform test ?
ˆˆ† 2NH
N 2 + 3H 2 ‡ˆˆ 3
(1) CH 3 C H
Kp 1 O
(1) =
[RT ]
2
Kc
(2) CH 3 C Ph
(2) Kp < Kc O
(3) CH3 CH2 CH2
[N H 3 ]
2

(3) K c =
[ N 2 ][ H 2 ] OH
3

(4) CH3 C CH3

(4) Unit of Kp(atm)2
O
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H NO2
72. C Cl Pd/BaSO
2

4
C H
O O Sn NaNO2 + HCl CH3CH2OH
75. A B C
HCl 0° – 5°C D
Above reaction is known as :-
(1) Stephen reduction
What is the final product C in above reaction :-
(2) Rosenmund reduction
(3) Gattermann reaction OH OCH2CH3
(4) Etard reaction
(1) (2)
OH

73. 1) CHCl3 + KOH

? CH2CH3
2) HÅ

(3) (4)
OH
CHO
76. Which of the following compound give ketone on
(1)
oxidation with KMnO4 under normal condition :-
(1) Isobutyl alcohol
(2) t-butyl alcohol
OH
COOH (3) s-butyl alcohol
(2) (4) 1-butanol
77. Which of the following is not oxidised by Tollen’s
Reagent ?
OH (1) Formic acid
CH2OH
(3) (2) Acetaldehyde
(3) Benzaldehyde
(4) Acetone
OH O
CCl3 Br
78. CH3 C NH2 KOH
2
?
(4)
Which of the following is not true for above reaction.
74. Aldol condensation of Acetaldehyde gives ? (1) Above reaction is known as Hoffmann
Bromamide
(1) CH2 = CH – CH2 – CHO
(2) Product is CH3 – CH2 – NH2
OH
(2) CH3 CH CH2 CHO O
(3) Intermediate of above reaction is CH3 C N
(3) CH 3 – CH = CH – CHO
(4) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CHO (4) Both (2) and (3)
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79. Which of the following is not addition polymer ? 86. The atomic numbers of the metallic and
(1) Teflon (2) PVC nonmetallic elements which are liquid at room
(3) Polyethene (4) Nylon-6,6 temperature respectively are :-
80. Which of the following is polysaccharide ? (1) 55, 87 (2) 80, 35
(1) Glucose (3) 33, 87 (4) 35, 80
(2) Fructose
87. In the 4th period of the periodic table, how many
(3) Sucrose
elements have one or more 4d electrons ?
(4) Starch
81. If all the axial angles defining the unit cell, are equal (1) 2 (2) 18 (3) 0 (4) 10
in magnitude, the crystal cannot be: 88. Match the column ?
(1) Orthorhombic
(2) Cubic
Column-I Column-II
(3) Hexagonal (Atomic number)
(4) Tetragonal (I) 103 (P) s-block
82. An ionic compound is expected to have octahedral (II) 86 (Q) f-block
(III) 87 (R) d-block
structure if r+/r– lies in the range of:
(IV) 108 (S) p-block
(1) 0.414 to 0.731
(2) 0.732 to 1
(3) 0.225 to 0.413 (1) I-P, II-Q, III-R, IV-S

(4) 0.155 to 0.225 (2) I-Q, II-P, III-R, IV-S

83. The unit cell present in ABCABC closest packing of (3) I-Q, II-S, III-P, IV-R
atoms is:
(1) Hexagonal (4) I-S, II-P, III-Q, IV-R

(2) Tetragonal 89. Which of the following is not correctly

(3) Face centered cubic matched ?
(4) Primitive cube (1) [Xe] 4f145d56s2 = Transition element
84. Stacking of a square close packing in single layer one
(2) [Xe] 4f145d106s26p67s2 = Representative element
above the other forms the multilayer arrangement of:
(1) CCP type (2) HCP type (3) [Xe] 4f73d16s2 = Inner transition element
(3) SCC type (4) BCC type (4) [Xe] 4f145d106s2 = Transition element
85. In a crystal, copper atoms are arranged in CCP, silver
90. Element with atomic number 102 is placed in ?
atoms are present at all tetrahedral voids, zinc atoms
are present at all the octahedral voids. If all the atoms (1) s-block
along two of the cube diagonals are removed, then
(2) p-block
the empirical formula of the crystal will be:-
(1) Cu5Ag8Zn4 (2) Cu7Ag8Zn6 (3) d-block
(3) Cu2Ag5Zn3 (4) Cu4Ag4Zn2 (4) f-block
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TOPIC : Breathing and Exchange of Gases, Excretory System, Circulatory System (Blood, Blood Group,
Blood Clotting) Plant Anatomy Complete, Plant Morphology Root, Stem.
91. Carbonic anhydrase is mostly active in :- 101. The reabosorption of water in DCT of nephron is
(1) WBC (2) RBC under control of a hormone :-
(3) Platelets (4) Blood plasma (1) LH (2) FSH (3) ADH (4) Prolactin
92. Pneumotaxic centre occurs in :- 102. Human kidney is :-
(1) Hypothalamus (2) Cerebrum (1) Pronephric (2) Mesonephric
(3) Medulla oblongata (4) Pons (3) Metanephric (4) Opisthonephric
93. In alveolar air, partial pressure of O2 is :- 103. Reabsorption of useful substances like glucose,
(1) 159 mm Hg (2) 95 mm Hg amino acid from glomerular filtrate occurs in :-
(3) 104 mm Hg (4) 45 mm Hg (1) Loop of Henle
94. A respiratory disease is :- (2) Proximal convoluted tubules
(1) Typhoid (2) Asthma (3) Distal convoluted tubules
(3) Gout (4) Piles (4) Duct of Bellini
95. Vital capacity is measured with :- 104. Birds and reptiles are :-
(1) Sphygmomanometer (2) Spirometer (1) Ureotelic (2) Uricotelic
(3) Stethoscope (4) Haemocytometer (3) Ammonotelic (4) Guanotelic
96. How much CO2 released by 200 ml deoxygenated 105. Urea is formed in liver cells from :-
blood into lung alveoli :- (1) NH3 and carbonmonoxide
(1) 4 ml (2) 8 ml (3) 12 ml (4) 20 ml (2) NH3 and carbondioxide
97. Bicarbonate formed inside erythrocytes passes out (3) Carbondioxide and creatinine
into plasma while chloride of plasma pass into (4) Water and purines
erythrocytes. The phenomenon is called :- 106. Ascending loop of Henle permeable for :-
(1) Haldane effect (1) NH3 (2) H2O (3) Na+ (4) Glycogen
(2) Hamburger phenomenon 107. Haemodialysis is carried out in case of severe
(3) Bohr effect defect in :-
(4) Metachrosis (1) Lungs (2) Heart (3) Liver (4) Kidney
98. Exchange of gases in lung alveoli occurs through :- 108. Juxtaglomerular cells of kidney synthesises an
(1) Osmosis enzyme called :-
(2) Active transport (1) Renin (2) ADH
(3) Simple diffusion (3) Angiotensinogen (4) Oxytocin
(4) Some time active transport, some time by 109. If liver is removed which nitrogenous waste will
simple diffusion. increase in blood :-
99. Adam’s apple represents :- (1) Uric acid (2) Urea
(1) Cricoid cartilage of larynx (3) NH3 (4) Protein
(2) Thyroid cartilage of larynx 110. Concentration of urine in mammals depends upon :-
(1) Bowman’s capsule
(3) Arytenoid cartilage of larynx
(2) Length of loop of Henle
(4) Corniculate cartilage of larynx
(3) PCT
100. Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is :-
(4) DCT
(1) Linear (2) Hyperbolic 111. A blood group have both a and b antibodies is :-
(3) Sigmoid (4) Hypobolic (1) A (2) B (3) AB (4) O
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112. In blood :- 118. Find the incorrect match :-
(1) Platelets are less than WBCs
Column I Column II Column III
(2) RBCs are less than platelets
(1) Glycosuria Glucose in Diabetes mellitus
(3) RBCs are more than WBCs urine
(4) RBCs are less than WBCs (2) Polyuria Dilute urine Diabetes
113. The most abundant agranular leucocytes in blood insipidus
is :- (3) Silicosis Occupational Fbrous lungs
(1) Neutrophils lung disease
(2) Monocytes (4) Asthma Allergy Allergy of upper
respiratory tract
(3) Lymphocytes
(4) Eosinophils 119. Under normal physiological condition how much
114. Prothrombin and albumin protein of plasma are haemoglobin saturated with O2 in deoxygenated
synthesises by :- blood ?
(1) Spleen (2) Kidney (3) Liver (4) Stomach (1) 97% (2) 40% (3) 75% (4) 45%
115. Find the correct match :- 120. Both Apical meristem and intercalary meristem are
(1) Basophils ® Secretes antibodies ......................meristem :
(2) Uremia ® Increase level of uric acid in blood (1) Primary (2) Secondary
(3) Emphysema ® Increase surface area of lungs (3) Lateral (4) Promeristem
(4) RBCs ® Most abundant formed elements in 121. Which of the following is not formed by the
blood. process of dedifferentiation :
116. Find the correct match :- (1) Interfascicular cambium
(2) Vascular cambium of root
Column I Column II Column III (3) Cork cambium
(1) PCT Medulla of Facultative water
(4) Intrafascicular cambium
kidney absorption
(2) Monocytes Granulo Phagocytic cells 122. Select the mismatched in given column-I & II :
cytes
(3) Urethra 4 cm in Found only in
Column-I Column-II
female mammals
(I) Internode - Apical
(4) Uric acid Uricotelic Camel, Octopus
elongation meristem
117. Match the following columns and select the (II) Increase girth of - Lateral
correct answer :- plant organ meristem
(III) Increases width of - Marginal
Column I Column II
leaf lamina meristem
A Erytho (I) Decrease number
(IV) Development of - Vascular
cytopenia of RBCs
primary vascular cambium
B Thrombocytes (II) Platelets
tissue
C Urea cycle (III) Liver
D Carotid body (IV) Peripheral
Chemoreceptor (1) I & IV (2) I & III
(1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (3) III & IV (4) I & II
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 123. Stone cells and fibres are the types of :
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (1) Parenchyma (2) Sclerenchyma
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (3) Collenchyma (4) Prosenchyma
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124. Which of the following is not developed from 132. A type of wood which do not conduct water and dark
protoderm: brown in colour is :
(1) Root hair (2) Trichome (1) Spring wood (2) Sap wood
(3) Hypodermis (4) Stomata (3) Heart wood (4) Early wood
133. In ......X...... protoxylem lies toward centre and
125. During shoot elongation which one is not
metaxylem lies towards periphery. Such an
developed from apical meristem :
arrangement of primary xylem is called as ...Y....
(1) Dermal tissue
Select the correct word for X and Y ?
(2) Grand tissue X - Y
(3) Primary vascular tissue (1) Stem - Exarch
(4) Secondary vascular tissue (2) Root - Endarch
126. Pulp of fruit composed by : (3) Root - Exarch
(1) Collenchyma (2) Parenchyma (4) Stem - Endarch
134. ...................... is a dead mechanical tissue
(3) Sclereids (4) Arenchyma
127. Which one is a living mechanical tissue that
perform photosynthesis :
(1) Sclerenchyma (2) Prosenchyma
(3) Collenchyma (4) Chlorenchyma (1) (2)
128. Phloem fibre that obtained from pericycle
(1) Fibre of Jute (2) Fibre of Hemp.
(3) Fibre of Sunn (4) Fibre of patua
129. Select the mismatch in column - I & II :
Column-I Column-II
(I) Ground meristem - Cortex
(II) Procambium - Primary xylem
(III) Prosenchyma - Pericycle of Dicot Root
(3) (4)
(IV) Collenchyma - Hypodermis of monocot
stem
(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV
130. Collectively term for Phellem, Phellogen and
Phelloderm is : 135. Select the incorrect pair from given below :
(1) Rhytidome (2) Cork
(3) Bark (4) Periderm (1) Radial vascular - Xylem and phloem
bundle are on different-
131. Annual ring compose by : different radius
(1) Only spring wood (2) Conjoint - Xylem and phloem
(2) Only Autumn wood vascular bundle are on same radius
(3) Bicollateral - Phloem present both
(3) Cork vascular bundle side of xylem
(4) One ring of spring wood and one ring of (4) Amphivasal - Phloem surround to
vascular bundle xylem
Autumn wood

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136. Match the Column-I with Column-II : 142. Sweet potato is homologous to :
(a) Multiseriate (i) Dicot. (1) Potato (2) Colocasia
prosenchymatous pericycle stem (3) Ginger (4) Turnip
and Radial vascular bundle 143. Which of the following is wrongly matched :
(b) collenchymatous (ii) Monocot
hypodermis and vascular stem (1) Runner - Cyanadon (2) Stolon - Jasmine
bundles are in ring (3) Offset - Mint (4) Sucker - Pineapple
(c) Scattered vascular bundle (iii) Monocot 144. Which of the following modification of root does
and undifferentiate ground root not perform storage of food :
tissue
(d) well develop pith and poly (iv) Dicot (1) Fasciculated root (2) Stilt root
arch root (3) Tuberous root (4) Conical root
(1) a-iv b-i c-ii d - iii 145. Which of the following is not a part of Bark :
(2) a-iii b-i c-ii d - iv (1) Periderm (2) Vascular cambium
(3) a-i b-ii c-iii d - iv (3) Secondary phloem (4) Phelloderm
(4) a-iv b-ii c-i d - iii 146. Select the right option which correctly labelled to
137. Match the Column-I with Column-II P, Q, R, S in given diagram of root :
(i) Light in colour (a) Spring wood
(ii) Narrow vessel
(iii) Less lignification S
(iv) High lignification (b) Autumn wood
(v) Wide vessel
R
(vi) High Density
(vii) Low Density Q
(viii) Dark in colour P
(1) a - i, iii, v, vi (2) a - i, iii, v, vii (1) P = Meristematic zone, Q = Root cap,
b - ii, iv, vii, viii b - ii, iv, vi, viii R = Maturation Zone, S = Elongation zone
(3) a - i, iii, iv, vi (4) a - i, ii, iv, vi (2) P = Root cap, Q = Meristematic zone,
b - ii, v, vii, viii b - iii, v, vii, viii R = Elongation zone S = Maturation zone
138. Concentration gradient in sieve tube element (3) P = Root cap, Q = Meristematic zone,
maintained by : R = Maturation zone, S = Elongation zone
(1) Sieve tube (4) P = Root apex, Q = Root cap, R = Elongation zone,
(2) Companion cell S = Maturation zone
(3) Phloem parenchyma 147. Saccharomyces is used for production of :
(4) Phloem parenchyma (1) Cheese (2) Citric acid
139. Which of the following does not contain vessels: (3) Beer and Bread (4) Cyclosporin A
(1) Neem (2) China rose 148. Which of the following is a clot-buster ?
(3) Mango (4) Drimys (1) Streptokinase (2) Cyclosporin A
140. Which of the following is considered as example (3) Statin (4) Streptomycin
of living syncyte - 149. Which compound is the main component of Biogas?
(1) Sieve tube (2) Vessels (1) Butane (2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Companion cell (4) Tracheids (3) Carbon monoxide (4) Methane
141. In which plant cambium is not present for 150. Amount of which vitamin is increased during
secondary growth : conversion of milk to curd ?
(1) Pinus (2) Mango (1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B12
(3) Neem (4) Smilax (3) Vitamin E (4) Vitamin D
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151. In India ‘Jaya’ and ‘Ratna’ were developed during 159. The vectors used for human genome sequencing were:
green revolution. These are varieties of : (1) Ti - plasmid
(1) Wheat (2) Rice (2) BAC
(3) Jowar (4) Bajra (3) YAC
152. A protoplast is a cell : (4) Both (2) and (3)
(1) Without cell organelles 160. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic
(2) Without plasma membrane material was given by :
(3) Without cell wall
(1) Avery
(4) Without DNA in nucleus
(2) Hershey and Chase
153. Pusa Gaurav is a variety of Brassica and it is
(3) Griffith
developed by :
(1) Mutation (4) Meselson and Stahl
(2) Tissue culture 161. Which of the following types of RNA is most
(3) Somatic hybridisation abundant in plant cell ?
(4) Hybridisation and selection (1) rRNA (2) mRNA
154. Exoskeleton of arthropods is formed by chitin. Chitin (3) tRNA (4) sRNA
is a polymer of : 162. Which of the following is a feature of plasmids ?
(1) N-acetyl glucosamine (1) Autonomous replication
(2) Glucose (2) Circular structure
(3) N-acetyl galactosamine (3) Double stranded
(4) Galactose (4) All of these
155. Which of the following usually do not form polymers? 163. Which of the following compound is used to stain
(1) Amino acids DNA fragments separated on agarose gel ?
(2) Nucleotides
(1) Ethidium bromide (2) Calcium oxide
(3) Lipids
(3) Sodium nitrate (4) Polyethylene glycol
(4) Monosaccharides
164. Gene therapy for the first time was used to treat:
156. Which of the following proteins acts as hormone?
(1) Adenosine deaminase deficiency
(1) Antibody
(2) Diabetes
(2) Insulin
(3) GLUT-4 (3) AIDS
(4) Receptor protein (4) b-galactosidase deficiency
157. Which of the following characters was not used by 165. A normal visioned man whose father was colourblind
Mendel in his experiments on pea plants ? marries a normal woman whose father was also
(1) Flower color colorblind. They have first child as son. What are the
(2) Seed shape chances that the son would be color-blind?
(3) Flower size (1) 40% (2) 50% (3) 0% (4) 100%
(4) Seed color 166. Tendency of alleles of different genes to remain
158. Which one is correct ? together during meiosis is known as :
(1) Turner’s syndrome – Allosomic monosomy (1) Recombination
(2) Klinefelter’s syndrome – Autosomal trisomy (2) Translocation
(3) Down’s syndrome – Allosomic trisomy (3) Inversion
(4) Sickle cell anaemia – X-linked recessive disease (4) Linkage
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167. How many genotypes and phenotypes are found in 173. The codons UUU, GGG, UGG and AUG code for:
humans with respect to ABO blood group system? (1) Methionine, Glycine, Phenylalanine and
(1) 2 phenotypes and 4 genotypes Tryptophan, respectively
(2) 3 phenotypes and 4 genotypes (2) Phenylalanine, Glycine, Tryptophan and
(3) 4 phenotypes and 6 genotypes Methionine, respectively
(4) 4 phenotypes and 8 genotypes (3) Tryptophan, Glycine, Methionine and
168. Which of the following is a non proteinaceous Phenylalanine, respectively
enzyme ? (4) Glycine, Tryptophan, methionine and
(1) Ribozyme Phenylalanine, respectively
(2) Endonuclease 174. If template strand has sequence 3¢–TAC–5¢ and the
(3) DNA polymerase sequence of m-RNA produced from it is
(4) Ligase 5¢–AUG–3¢. Then the sequence of anticodon on the
169. 5¢-ATGTTAGCTG–3¢ is a sequence from the coding t-RNA which will bind to this codon will be:
strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding (1) 3¢–UAC–5¢ (2) 5¢–UAC–3¢
sequence of the transcribed mRNA? (3) 5¢–AUG–3¢ (4) 3¢–AUG–5¢
(1) 5¢-AUGUUAGCUG–3¢ 175. In a random mating population, frequency of
(2) 5¢-ATGTTAGCTG–3¢ recessive allele is 0.3. What will be the frequency
(3) 5¢-UACAAUCGAC–3¢ of individuals showing dominant trait ?
(4) 3¢-UACAAUCGAC–5¢ (1) 0.09 (2) 0.41
170. Which of the following is a palindromic sequence? (3) 0.91 (4) 0.51
(1) 5¢-GAATTC–3¢ (2) 5¢-GGCTTA–3¢ 176. A pedigree for an autosomal recessive trait is given
3¢-CTTAAG–5¢ 3¢-CCGAAT–5¢ below. Find out the genotypes of first generation :
(3) 5¢-CCGTAT–3¢ (4) 5¢-TTCAGG–3¢
3¢-GGCATA–5¢ 3¢-AAGTCC–5¢
I
171. Which of the following foods can prevent the
deficiency of vitamin A in human body ?
(1) Bt-Brinjal II
(2) Golden Rice
(3) Lemon III
(4) Groundnut
172. Match the Column-I and Column-II and choose the (1) Aa, aa (2) Aa, Aa
correct option : (3) AA, aa (4) aa, Aa
177. A normal/healthy cell does not have :-
Column-I Column-II (1) Proto-onco genes
A ADA deficiency (i) Gene therapy
(2) Cellular-onco genes
B Emphysema (ii) a-1 antitrypsin
C Transgenic mouse (iii) Vaccine safety testing (3) Oncogenes
D Nematode resistance (iv) RNAi (4) Tumor suppressor genes
178. Which of the following stimulant drug causes
(1) A-i B-ii C-iii D - iv hallucination on excess dose ?
(2) A-ii B-iii C-iv D - i
(1) LSD (2) Cocaine
(3) A-i B-ii C-iv D - iii
(3) Cannabis (4) Opium
(4) A-iii B-iv C-i D - ii
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179. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? 180. Match the following -
(1) Allergies could be because of protected Disease Pathogen
environment provided in early life A. Typhoid i. Trichophyton
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis is an auto-immune B. Pneumonia ii. Common round worm
disease C. Ascariasis iii. Salmonella typhi
(3) Recombinant RNA technology has allowed D. Ring worms iv. Haemophilus influenzae
production of antigenic polypeptides of
(1) A-iii B-iv C-i D-ii
pathogen in bacteria or yeast (2) A-iii B-iv C-ii D-i
(4) An antibody is represented as H2L2 (3) A-iii B-i C-iv D-ii
(4) A-iv B-iii C-i D-ii

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