Physics 1C: Electrodynamics, Optics, and Special Relativity

Fall 2015

Discussion: Week 2
Agnieszka Wergieluk
Graduate TA
awergieluk@ucla.edu

Problem 1
A long coaxial cable consists of two concentric conductors with the dimensions shown in the figure below. There
are equal and opposite currents I in the conductors. It may be assumed that the currents are uniformly distributed
along the conductors.
~ at r within the conductor (r < a).
a) Find the magnetic field B
~
b) Find B between the two conductors (a < r < b).
c) Find B~ within the outer conductor (b < r < c).
d) Find B~ outside the cable (r > c).

This is one of many examples in which the Ampère law is extremely useful. Only imagine having to solve this with
Biot-Savart!...
First, we need to establish the current density in the inner and outer conductor. Straightforwardly, since the current
density is defined as the amount of current going through a given surface per unit surface, the current density in the
inner conductor is
I
jin = , (1)
πa2
while in the case of the outer cylinder it’s
I
jout = . (2)
π(c2 − b2 )
We can draw the intuition regarding what the field looks like from the example of a thin straight wire: we know
from experiment that in case of such a wire the magnetic field circles around the wire. We suspect that in the case of
a coaxial cable the magnetic field will also have a circular nature. Thus we choose our Ampèrian loop to be a circle,
placed appropriately to the limits set in parts a), b), c), and d). The magnetic field should be constant around such
a circular loop, making the line integral in the Ampère law trivial. Then we can immediately solve:

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 Agnieszka Wergieluk, Physics 1C Discussion: Week 2 - Fall 2015

a)
I
~ · d~l = B 2πr = µ0 Ienc = µ0 jin πr2
B ⇒ (3)
µ0 jin r µ0 Ir
⇒ B= = . (4)
2 2πa2
As already discussed, the field circles around the axis of the cable. We can write this in cylindrical coordinates as

~ = µ0 Ir φ̂ ,
B (5)
2πa2
where we assumed that the current in the inner conductor flows in the direction of the positive z-axis.

b) Straightforwardly, via a direct calculation similar to a),

~ = µ0 I φ̂ .
B (6)
2πr

c) Now our Ampèrian loop is inside the outer cylinder. It is important to note that the current in this cylinder has
the opposite direction with respect to the current in the inner cylinder. Again, we have
r2 − b2
 2
c − r2
I    


~ ~ 2
B · dl = B 2πr = µ0 Ienc = µ0 I − jout π r − b 2
= µ0 I 1 − 2 = µ0 I ⇒ (7)
c − b2 c2 − b2
c2 − r 2
⇒ B = µ0 I . (8)
(2πr)(c2 − b2 )
As before, we can write

~ = µ0 I c2 − r2
B φ̂ . (9)
2πr(c2 − b2 )
A cautious student may become a bit alarmed at this point, as the formula above looks rather bizarre. Is there any
way to check whether it is correct? Of course! From the Ampère law we expect that there will be no field outside the
cable (since then Ienc = I − I = 0 due to the opposite directions of the current). The above result should reproduce
this outcome at r = c - and we can see that indeed, for r = c the above field becomes zero! Similarly, for r = b we
reproduce the field from part b). We thus reassure ourselves that the formula is right, even though it looks a bit
intimidating.

d) As argued above, in this region

~ =0.
B (10)

We have thus solved for the magnetic field everywhere:

 µ0 Ir
 2πa2 φ̂


for r<a,
 µ0 I φ̂

for a<r<b,

 2πr
~ =
B
(11)
µ0 I c2 −r 2
2πr(c2 −b2 ) φ̂ for b<r<b,







0 for r>c.

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 Agnieszka Wergieluk, Physics 1C Discussion: Week 2 - Fall 2015

Problem 2
Using your preferred method, calculate the fields of the following arrangements:
i) the field of a loop of current I on the axis of the loop, a distance z above the center of the loop,
ii) the field of a current I spread on and flowing along an infinitely long cylindrical shell, inside and outside the
shell,
iii) the field of a current I flowing around a closely wound, infinitely long solenoid, inside and outside the shell.
Assume the coil density per length is n.

Before solving this problem by direct calculation, concentrate on what are your expectations as to what the fields
should look like. Consider very thoroughly how the geometry of the flow affects the outcome.

a) The first thing one should always strive to do when solving a problem is - if possible - to sketch the arrangement
in question. It is really a formidable - and mistakes-ridden - task just to imagine how the arrangement should work,
especially when solving it for the first time. Studies show that drawing a relevant picture is the first thing that the
professors do when setting to solve a problem. Learn form their example and you’ll quickly see positive results!
In this situation we have

π
where we used the fact that α = 2 − θ. To solve for the magnetic field we need to use the Biot-Savart law,
Z ~
~ µ0 I dl × ~r0
B(~r) = , (12)
4π C |~r0 |3

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 Agnieszka Wergieluk, Physics 1C Discussion: Week 2 - Fall 2015

the integration is performed over the contour C along which the current flows. We can see that for any d~l, the
~ will be canceled by the horizontal part of the field element dB
horizontal part of the field element dB ~ 0 due to the the
line element d~l opposite to d~l. Thus we only need to consider the vertical part of the field, dBx = dB sin θ. Now,
0

from the geometry of the setup we can see that

a
sin θ = , (13)
r0
and
p
r0 = a2 + x2 . (14)
Altogether then the Biot-Savart law becomes

|d~l × ~r0 | sin θ

Z
µ0 I
Bx (~r) = , (15)
4π C |~r0 |3
Additionally,
π
|d~l × ~r0 | = dl r0 sin = dl r0 , (16)
2
since for a circular loop d~l is always perpendicular to ~r0 , so that finally
r0 sin θ
Z Z
µ0 I µ0 I a
Bx (~r) = dl = dl . (17)
4π C |~r0 |3 4π C (a + x2 )
2 3/2

Now note that none of the quantities under the integral sign depend on the l. That means that the integration is
trivial and yields
µ0 I a2
Bx (~r) = . (18)
2 (a2 + x2 )3/2

Taking into the account the direction of the field, we write

µ0 Ia2
B(~r) = 3/2
x̂ . (19)
2 (a2 + x2 )

b)

Using Ampère law, we can immediately obtain that inside the cylinder the field is zero (loop 1 does not encircle any
current), while outside we have

~ = µ0 I φ̂ .
B (20)
2πr

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 Agnieszka Wergieluk, Physics 1C Discussion: Week 2 - Fall 2015

c) Let us look closely how a magnetic field around a solenoid is formed:

Each wire produces circular magnetic field lines near itself. Near the solenoid’s axis, the field lines combine into a net
magnetic field that is directed along the axis. The closely spaced field lines there indicate a strong magnetic field.
Outside the solenoid the field lines are widely spaced - the field there is very weak.
From a bit further away, the solenoid looks like

In the limiting case of an ideal solenoid, which is infinitely long and ideally tightly wound, the field inside is uniform
and parallel to the axis of the cylinder, and the field outside is zero. We can see it using the Ampère law:

We can see that the blue loop encircles no current. Since we can put one side of the loop into infinity, where the
field should be zero anyway, we can see that for the outcome to be zero the field along the other side of the loop also
has to be zero. Therefore the field outside a perfect solenoid is zero.
The red loop encircles the current. The side outside the solenoid experiences no field as explained above, while the
field along the piece inside should be constant. Thus we have
I
~ · d~l = BL = µ0 Ienc = µ0 nIL
B ⇒ B = µ0 nI . (21)

Finally, the violet loop does not encircle any current, and the way the field integral around this loop yields zero is
when the field is constant throughout the inside of the solenoid, confirming the result above.

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 Agnieszka Wergieluk, Physics 1C Discussion: Week 2 - Fall 2015

Problem 3
Using the Biot-Savart law, find the magnetic field a distance s from an infinite straight wire carrying a current I.
Then compare the result (and the effort involved!) with what you get using the Ampère law.
Hint: First consider the wire to be finite. Then take the limit of infinite wire.

We want to solve for the magnetic field of a following ”piece of current” (of course it is impossible to maintain a
steady current in a finite piece of straight wire, but let’s forget about this for now):

Then - from the Biot-Savart law - we can write

µ0 I |d~l × ~r0 | µ0 I dl r0 sin α
|dB| = 0
= . (22)
4π |~r | 3 4π |~r0 |3
We can see that sin α = cos θ. Still, we do not know r0 ! We can always write
p
r0 = l2 + s2 , (23)
but the gain here is disputable because in turn we have no idea what l is. Luckily, we can also write
l
tan θ = ⇒ l = s tan θ . (24)
s
You could be tempted now to write down
dl = r0 dθ , (25)
0
but that would be wrong as r depends on θ (or alternatively on l) and thus the relation between them cannot be
that easy. Instead, we note from (24) that
sin2 θ
 
dl s s
=s 1+ 2
= 2
⇒ dl = dθ . (26)
dθ cos θ cos θ cos2 θ
Then
θ2 θ2
dl r0 cos θ
Z Z Z
µ0 I µ0 I s cos θ µ0 I 1 1
|B| = = dθ = dθ
, (27)
4π |~r0 |3 4π θ1 cos2 θ r0 2 4πs θ1 cos θ tan2 θ + 1
where in the last equation we used (23).
The intergal above is less formidable than you might think. Note that
1 1 1
= = = cos2 θ , (28)
tan2 θ + 1 sin2 θ
cos2 θ +1 sin2 θ+cos2 θ
cos2 θ
then
Z θ2
µ0 I µ0 I

|B| = dθ cos θ = sin θ2 − sin θ1 . (29)
4πs θ1 4πs
In the end we only want to know the field from an infinite wire. If we ”stretch” both ends of the wire to infinity,
then θ1 → − π2 and θ2 → π2 . In this case our formula becomes
µ0 I
. |B| = (30)
2πs
This, of course, exactly agrees with what we would obtain from the Ampère law.

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 Agnieszka Wergieluk, Physics 1C Discussion: Week 2 - Fall 2015

Problem 4

Find the dipole moment of a loop of current carrying a steady current I.

You know from the lecture that the dipole moment of a loop of area A carrying a current I is

µ = IA . (31)

It actually can be defined by

~ ,
τ =µ×B (32)

where τ is the torque acting on a loop of current in a magnetic field B ~ (see problem 6). I admit that I assigned this
problem having in mind deriving the dipole of moment of a loop of current and only later realized that that actually
is upper division material. If you feel utterly comfortable with the material, you can read about this in chapter 5 of
Griffiths ’Introduction to Electrodynamics’. If you feel like you have enough on your plate already, just remember the
two equations above and move on. ;)

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 Agnieszka Wergieluk, Physics 1C Discussion: Week 2 - Fall 2015

Problem 5

Calculate the magnetic field of a toroid, depicted below:

Hint: try depicting the toroid from the above.

From above, the toroid can be depicted as:

This view allows us to note the symmetry of the problem: using the right hand rule, we can deduce that the field is
going to have a circular symmetry, and it’s going to point in the clockwise direction, as depicted below:

Then we can use Ampère’s law to get

µ0 I
B 2πr = µ0 I ⇒ B= inside the toroid, (33)
2πr
where I is the total amount of current going ”around the toroid”. If we were given some characterization of how
tightly the wires are wound, like the linear density n, we could write I = ni.

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 Agnieszka Wergieluk, Physics 1C Discussion: Week 2 - Fall 2015

Problem 6

Consider a rectangular current loop in a uniform magnetic field. What is the total force on the loop? What is the
total torque on the loop? Explain how this applies to the working principle of an electric motor.

First, let us calculate the total force on the loop. We will consider wire elements 1, 2, 3, and 4 (as in the picture).
Wire elements 1 and 3 have each length l, while wire elements 2 and 4 have each length L. Wire element 1 is at some
angle θ with respect to the magnetic field B. Then

F1 = IBl sin θ . (34)

The wire element 3 makes the same angle θ with the magnetic field, but the current in this wire makes an angle θ + π,
so that


F3 = IBl sin θ + π . (35)

Clearly, F1 + F3 = 0. Next, the force on the wire 2 is

F2 = IBL , (36)

and it’s directed as shown:

The force in wire 4 will have the same magnitude, but will be directed in the opposite way. Therefore F2 + F4 = 0,
and thus the total force on the loop is zero.
Now, let us calculate the torque. Forces F1 and F3 lie along the same line, so that the respective torques add up to
zero:

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 Agnieszka Wergieluk, Physics 1C Discussion: Week 2 - Fall 2015

To establish directions, let’s say that the magnetic field B is aligned with the y-axis. The the torque connected with
F2 is
l
τ2 = F2 sin α ŷ . (37)
2
The torque connected to F4 is going to be
l
τ4 = F4 sin α ŷ . (38)
2
Clearly, these add up (since F2 = F4 ) to give us the total torque

τtot = lF2 sin α = IBLl sin α . (39)

We may note that Ll = A is just the area of the loop, so that

τtot = IBA sin α . (40)

We easily note that the toque will be the largest when α = π2 , i.e., when the loop is in the plane of B.
Since for describing the torque on a given current-carrying loop the constants I and A will appear again and again,
we decide to define a new quantity, the so called magnetic moment (or magnetic dipole moment), as a vector µ of
magnitude

µ = IA (41)

and direction perpendicular to the center of the loop. Then we can write

τ =µ×B . (42)

Imagine that we place our loop on some hinges so that it can spin freely. It should be clear that under these
conditions the current-carrying loop of wire will spin because of the presence of the magnetic field B. It is obvious
that this is the working principle of countless electric tools: fans, blenders, drills, etc.

There is a phenomenon closely connected with the example above - - which you should already know from the
lecture - that is called magnetic induction. In our example we have found that the magnetic field causes a current-
carrying wire to spin. It has been found by Michael Faraday in 1831 that the opposite effect takes place: if we spin
a loop of wire with no current in it in a magnetic field, the magnetic field will produce a current in this loop! Some
technical details aside (like for example that the current is not constant), just imagine the consequences: if we attach
a wire to one of the hinges, we may ”collect” the flowing current and, say, load a battery. In fact, this is exactly
how a coal-based electric plant or hydroelectric plant works! In the case of the coal-based plant, the coal is burned in
a sort of very sophisticated, humongous furnace. The heat from burning coal heats up water which turns into very
hot (up to 1000◦ F) steam. This steam exerts pressure on a turbine and thus causes it to move. The turbine’s shaft
is connected to the so-called generator, which basically consists of many loops of wire kept between magnets. The
movement of the turbine causes the loops of wire inside the generator to move in a magnetic field and so a current is
created.
Think of that next time you turn the light on!

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 Agnieszka Wergieluk, Physics 1C Discussion: Week 2 - Fall 2015

Advanced Problems
The following problems are intended to be a bit more complex than usual. However, I implore everyone to have a
go at them - after you’ve done the previous problems and the homework problems assigned by the professor - because
during my years’ long work for Corbin I’ve learned one thing: one may expect absolutely everything to pop up during
the exam. You may just as well be prepared for the worst!
Additionally, that the problem is hard does not mean it’s not interesting. Give them all a go!

Problem 7

A thin glass rod of radius R and length L carries a uniform surface charge σ. It is set spinning about its axis, at
an angular velocity ω. Find the magnetic field at a distance s  R from the axis, in the xy plane.
Hint: treat it as a stack of magnetic dipoles.

We are going to take seriously the hint provided above and imagine the rod as a stack of dipoles, i.e., a stack of
loops carrying identical currents I. Thus we are dealing with the following situation:

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 Agnieszka Wergieluk, Physics 1C Discussion: Week 2 - Fall 2015

We place this construction in a reference frame as follows:

We note that we are asked to calculate the field anywhere in the x − y plane, however, from the cylindrical symmetry
we can immediately see that the field will have radial dependence. Just as well then we can place our point of interest
ta the x-axis.
Now we need to know what is the field of a loop of current not only directly above and below its center, but
anywhere in space. (Remember, this are advanced problems - some material will be out of your reach for now. It is
still good to follow derivations and the ways in which one can approach solutions.) Those of you who are familiar with
the multipole expansion, and specifically a dipole vector potential arising from that expansion might know that the
field of a dipole (placed at the origin) is to a good approximation (the better the larger the distance from the rod)

~ dip (~r) = µ0 m 2 cos θ r̂ + sin θ θ̂ ,

 
B (43)
4πr3
where m is the dipole moment. We know that m = IA = IπR2 , but do we know what the current I is? We know
that the charge density is σ. If the rod rotates with angular velocity ω, then the velocity of the point at its surface is
ωR and by the very definition current density flowing around the rod is σωR. When we imagine the rod as a stack of
dipoles, we effectively divide it into rings of currents of thickness dz. It is therefore natural to take that I = σωR dz .
Now, that is not the end of our considerations here. The field above is of a dipole placed at the origin, while we
are dealing with a lot of dipole that are not (save one) at the origin of frame of reference. Now, let us note that using

r̂ = sin θ (cos φ x̂ + sin φ ŷ) + cos θ ẑ (44)

θ̂ = cos θ (cos φ x̂ + sin φ ŷ) − sin θ ẑ (45)

we can always write (43) as

~ r) = µ0 m     
dB(~ 2 cos θ sin θ x̂ + cos θ ẑ + sin θ cos θ x̂ − sin θ ẑ , (46)
4πr3
where we have denoted the field as dB ~ to reflect the fact that it is only the field coming an infinitesimal slice of the
rod, and also used the fact that in our chosen frame of reference φ = 0. Again, you should understand that our choice
of the frame of reference does not affect the outcome! Explicitly now,

~ r) = µ0 m 2 cos θ sin θ x̂ + 2 cos θ cos θ ẑ + sin θ cos θ x̂ − sin θ sin θ ẑ =

 
dB(~ (47)
4πr3 
µ0 m 
3 cos θ sin θ x̂ + 2 cos2 θ − sin2 θ ẑ .
 
= (48)
4πr3
When the field is written in this way, we can immediately convince ourselves that for a point on the x axis, the x-
components of the field for z > 0 (and therefore θ ∈ (0, π2 )) will cancel with those for z < 0 (and therefore θ ∈ ( π2 , π)).
Thus we only need to consider

~ r) = µ0 m  µ0 m 
2 cos2 θ − sin2 θ ẑ = 3 cos2 θ − 1 ẑ .
 
dB(~ 3 3
(49)
4πr 4πr

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 Agnieszka Wergieluk, Physics 1C Discussion: Week 2 - Fall 2015

Finally taking into the account that m = IπR2 = πσωR3 dz we can see that the total field will be given by the
following integral:
3 Z +L/2  2

~ dip (~r) = µ0 σωR ẑ 3 cos θ − 1
B dz . (50)
4 −L/2 r3

We understand that r is the distance from the center of a given dipole, in our case thus given by
p
r = z 2 + s2 . (51)

You should note that r, θ and s are not independent. In fact, we know that cos θ = − cos(π − θ), and from the
geometry of the problem we can see that
z z
cos(π − θ) = = 2 , (52)
r (z + s2 )1/2

which enables us to write now

 z2 +L/2
µ0 σωR3 ẑ +L/2 µ0 σωR3 ẑ +L/2

3 3 r2 − 1 3z 2
Z Z Z
~ dip (~r) = µ0 σωR ẑ
B dz= dz −
1
dz 3 = (53)
4 r 3 4 r 5 4 r
−L/2 −L/2 −L/2
"Z #
3 +L/2 2 Z +L/2
µ0 σωR ẑ 3z 1
=
4
dz
5/2 − dz
3/2 . (54)
−L/2 2
z +s 2 −L/2 z + s2
2

Now, the integrals are

" #L/2
+L/2 +L/2
3z 2 3z 2 z3 L3
Z Z
dz
5/2 = 2 dz
5/2 = 2
3/2 = (55)
h
i3/2
L 2
−L/2 z 2 + s2 0 z 2 + s2 s2 s2 + z 2 0 4s2 s2 + 2

and
" #L/2
+L/2
Ls2 + 41 L3
Z
1 z L
2 dz
3/2 = 2 1/2
= = , (56)
s2 (s2 + z 2 )
h
2 1/2
i h
2 i3/2
0 z 2 + s2 0 s2 s2 + L2 s2 s2 + L2

so that
" #
3
~ dip (~r) = µ0 σωR ẑ L3 Ls2 + 41 L3
B − h = (57)
4 h
i3/2
L 2

2 i3/2
4s2 s2 + 2 s2 s2 + L2
" #
µ0 σωR3 ẑ L3 4Ls2 + L3
= − = (58)
4 h
i3/2
L 2
h
2 i3/2
4s2 s2 + 2 4s2 s2 + L2
µ0 σωR3 L
= − h ẑ . (59)

2 i3/2
4 s2 + L2

If you’ve made it this far and are somewhat scared about how tough this problem was, please calm down: it was
an upper division level problem. Yet I am sure with some effort (and just assuming the form of the magnetic field of
a dipole) you could totally follow this derivation - and that’s all this is about!

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 Agnieszka Wergieluk, Physics 1C Discussion: Week 2 - Fall 2015

Problem 8
A very long conducting rod of radius a has an off-center hole of radius b whose axis is parallel but off-set by a
distance d from the axis of the rod. A uniform current density j flows in the conductor. What is the magnetic field
~ at the axis of the hole?
B

We solve this problem using the principle of the superposition. We understand that a conducting rod carrying
a current density j with a hole in it is equivalent to a whole conducting rod superposed with another conducting
rod exactly of the dimensions of the hole with current density−j, that is flowing the opposite way. This is the most
important point of this problem and therefore you should make sure that you fully understand it!
To proceed, we need to calculate what is the magnetic field of a whole conducting rod. We can get it quite easily
from the Ampère law: for a rod of radius R,
( µ0 jr
2 φ̂ for r<R,
~ r) =
B(~ (60)
2
µ0 jR
2r φ̂ for r > R .
Thus we can immediately write down the field of the large, whole conducting rode:
( µ0 jr
2 φ̂ for r<a,
B~ a (~r) = (61)
2
µ0 ja
2r φ̂ for r>a.
The field will look similar for the small conducting rode carrying −j, that is
( µ0 jr 0
− 2 φ̂ for r<b,
~ b (~r) =
B (62)
2
− µ02rjb φ̂0 for r>b.

What is φ̂0 ? Look at this in the picture below:

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 Agnieszka Wergieluk, Physics 1C Discussion: Week 2 - Fall 2015

To find how to express φ̂0 by quantities we know, let us first figure out how can we express φ̂ entirely by means of
Cartesian coordinates. From geometry of the problem we can see that

φ̂ = cos φ ŷ − sin φ x̂ . (63)

Now, we can also see that

y x
sin φ = p and cos φ = p , (64)
x2 + y2 x2 + y2

so that
x y
φ̂ = p ŷ − p x̂ . (65)
x2 + y 2 x2 + y 2

This was the crucial step, so make sure you understand it!
Now then, we can write in the exactly same manner

φ̂0 = cos φ0 ŷ − sin φ0 x̂ , (66)

where this time

y x−d
sin φ0 = p and cos φ0 = p , (67)
(x − d)2 + y 2 (x − d)2 + y 2

so that
x−d y
φ̂0 = p ŷ − p x̂ . (68)
(x − d)2 + y2 (x − d)2 + y 2

~ a for
Now we can finally solve the problem. For finding the field on the axis of the hole, we need to add the field B
~
r < a and the field Bb for r < b. These are
!
~ a,in (~r) = µ0 jr µ0 j xr yr µ0 jr µ0 j
B φ̂ = p ŷ − p x̂ = φ̂ = (x ŷ − y x̂) , (69)
2 2 x2 + y 2 x2 + y 2 2 2

!
0
~ b,in (~r) = − µ0 jr φ̂0 = − µ0 j (x − d)r0 yr0 µ0 j
B p ŷ − p x̂ =− ((x − d) ŷ − y x̂) . (70)
2 2 (x − d)2 + y 2 (x − d)2 + y 2 2

~ b,in (~r) we used r0 and not r! Finally then

Note how in case of the field B

~ tot,in (~r) = B
B ~ b,in (~r) = µ0 jd d ŷ .
~ a,in (~r) + B (71)
2
Now isn’t that a fascinating result - the field inside the hole is uniform!

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 Agnieszka Wergieluk, Physics 1C Discussion: Week 2 - Fall 2015

Problem 9

~ for a
A square loop of wire of edge a carries a current I. Using the Biot-Savart law show that the magnetic field B
point on the axis of the loop and a distance x from its center is given by

4a2 I
B=

1/2 .
π0 c2 4x2 + a2 4x2 + 2a2

In problem 3 we have solved for the magnetic field from a piece of wire carrying current I:

~ wire | = µ0 I

|B sin θ2 − sin θ1 . (72)
4πs
Clearly, we can imagine the square loop of current as composed of four wires:

In this situation θ2 = −θ1 = θ (please refer to the picture in the solution to problem 3), and from the geometry of
the problem we can see that
a a
2 2
sin θ = q =q , (73)
a2 a2
4 + s2 2 + x2

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 Agnieszka Wergieluk, Physics 1C Discussion: Week 2 - Fall 2015

q
2
where we have used the fact that s = a4 + x2 . Furthermore, the horizontal contributions from the wires cancel out,
while the vertical contributions add up, so that we only really care about |dB| sin α, where
a
2
sin α = q . (74)
a2
4 + x2

Thus the total field is given by

a a
|B| ~ wire | × sin α = 2 × µ0 I sin θ × sin α = 2 × µ0 I q 2
~ = 4 × |B ×q 2 = (75)
πs πs a2
+ x2 a2
+ x22 4

µ0 I a2
= q q . (76)
2πs a2 + x2 a2 + x2
2 4

Finally, we plug in the expression for s to obtain

~ = µ0 I a2 4µ0 Ia2
|B|
1/2
= 1/2
. (77)
2π a2
+ x2 a2
+ x2 π (2a2 + 4x2 ) (a2 + 4x2 )
2 4

All you need to know now is that

1
c2 = , (78)
µ0 0
which allows us to obtain the form of the solution we were asked for:

~ = 4Ia2
|B| 1/2
. (79)
π0 c2 (2a2 + 4x2 ) (a2 + 4x2 )

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