Test Booklet Code A

Stage-II

NTSE TEST SERIES

National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)
for
Stage-1 Qualified Students
Mental Ability and Scholastic Aptitude Test

TEST PAPER-2
 NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) A
(For Stage-1 Qualified Students) CODE

Time : 3 Hours
TEST-2 M.M. : 200

Complete Syllabus Test

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :

1. There are 200 questions in this test. All are compulsory.

2. The question paper consists of two sections (Section-A : Mental Ability Test (MAT) and Section-B :
Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT))
3. Section A (MAT) contains 50 questions and Section B (SAT) contains 150 questions in two parts.
(Part-I : Language Test : 50 questions and Part-II : Aptitude Test : divided into three sections. Section-I is
having 40 questions of Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology), Section-II is having 20 questions from
Mathematics and Section-III is having 40 questions of Social Science.
4. Use only a ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.
5. The mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
6. Darken only one circle for each question.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on the Answer sheet.
8. Each question carries 1 mark. There is 0.333 marks negative marking for every wrong answer.

Section A : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

Choose the correct answer :

1. If AMISHA is coded as YMQGRY, then OPEN will 4. The number of triangles in the given figure is
be coded as
(1) KJVL (2) KMUL
(3) KJUL (4) KNJL
2. If RAT = 13, HEN = 9, then BATS is equal to
(1) 10
(2) 12
(1) 28 (2) 30
(3) 14
(3) 34 (4) 32
(4) 16
5. A cube is coloured red in its two opposite faces
3. Riya walks 4 km towards east, then she turns left and rest 4 faces are uncoloured. It is cut into 125
and walks 6 km, then turns right and walks 4 km. smaller cubes. The number of smaller cubes which
How far, she is from the starting point? are red coloured at only one face is
(1) 8 m (2) 14 km (1) 5 (2) 25
(3) 9.5 km (4) 10 km (3) 50 (4) 100

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Mental Ability Test NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A)

28 35 42 52 16. Which letter replaces the question mark?

6. If  3,  8,  10, then is equal to
47 15 13 23 1 2 4 5
(1) 12 (2) 14
3 D O 6
(3) 15 (4) 16
Directions (Q.7 to Q.10) : Four diagrams marked (1),
(2), (3) and (4) are given below. Find the one that best
4 J ? 5
illustrates the relationship among three given groups.
2 2 3 8
(1) L (2) F
(1) (2) (3) H (4) S
17. The angle between hour hand and minute hand of
a clock at 3:15 PM is
(3) (4) (1) 0º (2) 2.5º
7. Males, Doctors, Engineers (3) 5º (4) 7.5º
8. Planets, Earth, Mumbai 18. Choose a group of letters from options, which will
9. Animals, Mammals, Birds complete the given pattern.

10. Graduates, Players, Actors a__a__aba__a__acab__c

11. Identify the missing number in the following pattern. (1) cbbac (2) ccbab
4, 5, 7, 9, _____ , 15, 19 (3) bccab (4) bccba
(1) 10 (2) 11 19. The total number of days in x nonleap years x
(3) 12 (4) 13 weeks x days is

12. Select the missing number (1) 366x (2) 373x

1 2 4 1 (3) 370x (4) 367x
20. A hotel has x rooms. There are x boxes in each
2 5 4 10 7 5 2 14 4 3 ? 5
room and each box contains x coins. If a box is
3 2 3 2 lost, then the remaining number of coins in the
(1) 3 (2) 7 hotel is
(3) 10 (4) 15 (1) x2 – 1 (2) x3 – 1
13. Select the missing number (3) x2 – x (4) x3 – x
21. In 24 hours, how many times, hour hand and
2 4 17
minute hand lie on the same straight line?
3 ? 10
(1) 22 (2) 44
5 1 6 (3) 24 (4) 48
(1) 1 (2) 2 Directions (Q.22 to 26): In a class, out of 120
(3) 3 (4) 4 students, 15 opted English only, 16 opted Hindi only, 9
14. Choose the missing term in the following series. opted Geography only and 45 opted English and
Geography both, 30 opted Geography and Hindi both, 8
1, 2, 3, 2, 5, 7, _____ , 11, 13, 4 opted English and Hindi both and 80 opted Geography.
(1) 3 (2) 5
22. The number of students who opted English is
(3) 7 (4) 9
(1) 60 (2) 64
15. Find the number which does not belong to the
following group : (3) 66 (4) 72

1001, 2002, 3003, 10007, 20002, 30003 23. The number of students who opted Hindi is
(1) 1001 (2) 3003 (1) 30 (2) 40
(3) 10007 (4) 30003 (3) 50 (4) 60

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A) Mental Ability Test

24. The number of students who did not opted any of Directions (Q.34 & 35): In the following questions
the above subjects is complete the given pattern by selecting missing portion
(1) 5 (2) 10 from given options (1), (2), (3) and (4).
(3) 15 (4) 20
34.
25. The number of students who opted all the three
subjects only is
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 8
?
26. The number of students who opted Geography and
Hindi only is
(1) 24 (2) 26
(1) (2)
(3) 28 (4) 30
Directions (Q.27 to Q.29) : In a code language, %
stands for , # stands x, $ stands for + and = stands
for –. (3) (4)
27. The value of 4$2%5 = 3$3%5 is equal to
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 0 (4) 5
28. The value of 7#2$4%2 = 3 is equal to
35.
(1) 11 (2) 12
(3) 13 (4) 15
29. The value of 5%7$2%3 = 4%5#2 is equal to
?
26 29
(1)  (2) 
105 105
22 23 (1) (2)
(3) (4) 
105 105
30. In a village, there are 70 farmers, 30 farmers
cultivate wheat, 25 cultivate gram and 15 cultivate
both. The number of farmers who cultivate neither (3) (4)
wheat nor gram is
(1) 20 (2) 25
(3) 30 (4) 35 36. Find the water image of given figure.
31. Choose a option which is next term in the given
sequence.
A3Y, E11U, I19Q, _____.
(1) M27N (2) M31M
(3) N23M (4) N23O
Directions (Q.32 & 33): Choose a figure which is
different from the other three.
32.
(1) (2)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

33.

(3) (4)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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Mental Ability Test NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A)

37. A dice is thrown four times and its different 42. Teacher who teaches exactly 3 subjects is
positions are shown as follows (1) Ram
(2) Karan
6 5 3 2
(3) Riya
3 1 2 4 5 1 3 6
(4) Can't be determined
43. Group of teachers who are teaching exactly 2
The numbers opposite to 6 is subjects is
(1) 1 (2) 3 (1) Ram, Karan, Riya

(3) 4 (4) 5 (2) Karan, Riya, Aman

(3) Karan, Riya, Shreya
38. In the given figure, area of square PQRS is x. Find
area of shaded portion. (4) Shreya, Riya, Ram
44. A is a brother of B. A is son of C. D is C's father.
How B is related to D?
P Q
(1) Son (2) Grandson
(3) Brother (4) Grandfather
S R
45. How many prime numbers are there less than 1500
and greater than 10 whose sum of digits is 2?
27 2 25 2 (1) 2 (2) 5
(1) x (2) x
4 4
(3) 9 (4) More than 10
27 25 46. Plant : Tree :: Cub : ?
(3) x (4) x
4 4
(1) Boy (2) Human
39. Pointing towards a photograph, a man tells his
(3) Lion (4) Girl
friend, "She is the daughter of the only son of my
father's wife". How is the girl in photograph related 47. 26 : 2 : 36 : 3 : : 84 : 4 : : 25 : ?
to man? (1) 1 (2) 5
(1) Daughter (2) Cousin (3) 3 (4) 4
(3) Mother (4) Sister 48. 35 : 12 : : 77 : ?

40. In a certain code language, MIRACLE is coded as (1) 12 (2) 14

NKUEHRL, then how is GAMBLE coded in the (3) 18 (4) 17
same code language? 49. If the day on 24 Aug, 2019 will be Saturday, then
(1) JDOCMF (2) NHCGGU the day on 4 Oct, 2029 will be
(1) Thursday (2) Saturday
(3) HCPFQK (4) OHDGHU
(3) Sunday (4) Monday
Directions (Q.41 to 43): In a college, there are five
teachers. Ram and Aman are teaching Hindi and 50. Select the missing number
Mathematics, Karan and Aman are teaching
Mathematics and Science. Riya and Ram are teaching
Geography and Hindi. Shreya and Aman are teaching
Sanskrit and Spanish.
41. Who among the all teachers teaches maximum
number of subjects?
(1) Ram (2) Aman (1) 4 (2) 5
(3) Riya (4) Karan (3) 8 (4) 10

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A)
Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)
(Part-I : Language Test)
Directions (Q51 to Q60) : Read the given passages
carefully and answer the following questions by choosing
the most suitable option.
A. Opera refers to a dramatic art form, originating in
Europe, in which the emotional content is
conveyed to the audience as much through music,
both vocal and instrumental, as it is through the
lyrics. By contrast, in musical theater an actor's
dramatic performance is primary, and the music
plays a lesser role. The drama in opera is
presented using the primary elements of theater
such as scenery, costumes, and acting. However,
the words of the opera, or libretto, are sung rather
than spoken. The singers are accompanied by a
musical ensemble ranging from a small
instrumental ensemble to a full symphonic
orchestra.
51. Which of the following is TRUE w.r.t. the passage?
(1) A musical theater is primarily dominated by the
musical ensemble
(2) An actor plays the central part in an opera as
well as in a musical theater
(3) In an opera, music is as crucial as the lyrics
while delivering the emotions
(4) Scenery, costumes and acting play a less
important role in musical theater
52. In an opera singers are supported by a musical
ensemble ranging from a small instrumental
_________ to a full symphonic orchestra.
(1) troupe (2) comity
(3) symphony (4) collection
53. The ethos of drama is built in an opera through
(1) Dramatic performance
(2) Primary elements of theater and musical
ensemble
(3) Full symphonic orchestra
(4) Vocal music
54. The above given passage illustrates
(1) The functioning of an opera
(2) The characteristic features of a musical theater
(3) The elements of drama in an opera and
musical theater
(4) The differences between opera and musical
theater as dramatic art forms
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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test)
55. Libretto refers to
(1) The emotional content of an opera
(2) The musical composition of an opera
(3) The lyrics of an opera
(4) The symphony of an orchestra
B. Dolphins are regarded as the friendliest creatures
in the sea and stories of them helping drowning
sailors have been common since Roman times.
The more we learn about dolphins, the more we
realize that their society is more complex than
people previously imagined. They look after other
dolphins when they are ill, care for pregnant
mothers and protect the weakest in the community,
as we do. Some scientists have suggested that
dolphins have a language but it is much more
probable that they communicate with each other
without needing words. Could any of these
mammals be more intelligent than man? Certainly
the most common argument in favor of man's
superiority over them that we can kill them more
easily than they can kill us is the least
satisfactory. On the contrary, the more we discover
about these remarkable creatures, the less we
appear superior when we destroy them.
56. The irony presented in the passage is that
(1) Dolphins are the most superior mammals
(2) Dolphins have a more complex society than
ours
(3) Dolphins can communicate without a language
(4) In the wake of his discovery about remarkable
dolphins, man assumes superiority by killing
them
57. As per the passage, dolphins still remain
(1) an undisputed truth (2) a moot point
(3) an enigma (4) an acquit
58. The characteristics of dolphins described in the
passage point out
(1) The remarkable quality of dolphins
(2) The superiority of dolphins
(3) The similarities between the behaviour of
humans and that of the dolphins
(4) The mysterious ways by which they work in
their community
Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A)

59. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the 67. After joining the Singapore based bank in 1990, he
word 'friendliest' as used in the passage? has head various departments, including corporate
and investment banking.
(1) Most congenial (2) Most convenient
(1) he has headed various departments
(3) Most appealing (4) Most delightful
(2) he had head various departments
60. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to
the word 'probable' as used in the passage? (3) he has head various department
(4) No improvement
(1) Impertinent (2) Strained
68. Neither of the players admit that he made an error.
(3) Forced (4) Inconceivable
(1) the players admit as
Directions (Q61 to Q65) : Fill in the blanks with the
most appropriate phrase. (2) the players admits that
(3) the player admit that
61. It has often been noted that sudden appraisals,
accolades and financial gains tend to change (4) No improvement
people’s behaviour and they start _________ 69. Over the past decade, China's economic and
themselves. military might have grown impressively, leading the
(1) getting on (2) getting up country to the path of prosperity.

(3) getting beyond (4) getting above (1) has grown impressively
(2) have been growing impressively
62. We really can’t _________ him regarding security
systems in the office. (3) grows abundantly
(1) bank on (2) angle for (4) No improvement

(3) rely onto (4) focus on 70. No other agency but the government has the
obligation to provide the basic infrastructure to
63. When John started coming to work at odd hours, schools and colleges.
he was asked by the boss to _________.
(1) government has the obligation
(1) think on his feet (2) shape up
(2) the government has obligation
(3) sink in (4) pass up
(3) the government itself has the obligation
64. Kids have a tendency to _____ due to nervousness (4) No improvement
or anxiety.
Directions (Q71 to Q75) : Fill in the blanks with the
(1) roam around (2) fiddle around most appropriate option to complete the passage.
(3) flout over (4) give way Letters that 71 to relatives and intimate
65. After spending two years over his dissertation, it friends should be written in an easy, 72
_________ him that he is not meant to pursue it style. They should really be 73 of friendly
further.
chat; and being unpremeditated and 74
(1) grew over (2) grew at compositions, they should be informal and easy-to-
(3) grew on (4) grew upon read 75 with essays.
Directions (Q66 to Q70) : In the following sentences a 71. (1) were written (2) are written
phrase has been underlined. Identify which option best (3) are made (4) were made
improves the underlined part. If no improvement is
72. (1) simplistic (2) placid
required, choose option (4).
(3) conversational (4) random
66. The Managing Director, as well as the Board
members, were in favour of taking strict action 73. (1) of the nature (2) in the nature
against the workers on strike. (3) by the nature (4) from the nature
(1) Were in the favour (2) Are in favour 74. (1) fictional (2) plain
(3) Was in favour (4) No improvement (3) casual (4) spontaneous

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test)

75. (1) as compared (2) in comparison 81. S1 : The paragraphs of a piece of prose differ
(3) to compare (4) comparing S2 : _________________________
Directions (Q76 to Q79) : Identify the relationship S3 : _________________________
between the given two words and choose the option that S4 : _________________________
depicts a similar relationship.
S5 : To be expressed under each head
76. Adroit : Clever : : ?
P : From the stanzas or verses of a poem
(1) Dexterous : Skill (2) Awkward : Careful
Q : The stanzas of a poem are usually of the
(3) Ascetic : Vision (4) Sinister : Evil same length and pattern
77. Chronic : Recurring : : ? R : But paragraphs are long or short according
(1) Apathy : Indifference to the amount of matter
(2) Empathize : Suffering Choose the correct option.
(3) Synchronize : Relate (1) PQR (2) QPR
(4) Intent : Attention (3) PRQ (4) QRP
78. Veteran : Experience : : ? 82. S1 : To forgive an injury is often considered to be
(1) Glib : Smooth a sign of weakness

(2) Altruist : Benevolence S2 : _________________________

(3) Optical : Visual S3 : _________________________

(4) Notorious : Famous S4 : _________________________

79. Neurologist : Nervous system : : ? S5 : But it takes a strong character to restrain

(1) Obstetrician : Childbirth
(2) Eyes : Ophthalmologist
(3) Psychiatrist : Emotional
(4) Gynecologist : Reproduction
Directions (Q80 to Q82) : Five parts of a paragraph are
given. You are provided with the beginning (S1) and the
ending (S5) of this paragraph and other parts are
jumbled up. Choose the correct order of the jumbled
parts (P, Q and R) to create a meaningful and logical
paragraph.
80. S1 : A Metaphor is an implied Simile
S2 : ______________________
S3 : ______________________
S4 : ______________________
S5 : Every Simile can be compressed into a
Metaphor and every Metaphor can be
expanded into a Simile
those natural passions
P : It is really a sign of strength
Q : And hate into an act of vengeance
R : It is easy to allow oneself to be carried away
by resentment
Choose the correct option.
(1) PQR (2) PRQ
(3) RPQ (4) QPR
Directions (Q83 & Q84) : The last sentence of each
paragraph is missing. Choose the most appropriate
option to complete the paragraph.
83. A : We are unable to manage our machines.
B : Machines are required to be fed promptly
and waited upon attentively; otherwise they
refuse to work or cause destruction. We
already find it difficult to do without them.
C : ______________________________.

P : Or acts as another, but takes for granted (1) We do not know what to do with our
knowledge
Q : And proceeds as if the two things were one
(2) Science and its powers are not properly used
R : It does not, like the Simile, state that one by us
thing is like another
(3) In the course of time they may rule over us
Choose the correct option. altogether
(1) QPR (2) RQP (4) We do not know the value of these
(3) RPQ (4) QRP superhuman machines

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-I : Language Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A)

84. A : Trees give shade for the benefit of others. 91. Actions speak louder than words
B : And while they themselves stand in the sun (1) Actions tell us more
and endure the scorching heat
(2) Actions denote our real self
C : ______________________________.
(3) Actions make all the difference
(1) Trees provide a better living environment
(4) Intentions of people are judged by what they do
(2) Trees produce the fruit by which others profit
92. A moot point
(3) Trees die in order to benefit the lives of others
(1) A point to be settled
(4) They are our friends who bear the heat only for
(2) A point open to debate
providing shelter to only us
(3) At a dead end
Directions (Q85 to Q87) : Identify the synonym of the
given word. (4) A point of argument
85. Militant 93. A broken reed
(1) Aggressive (2) Hurtful (1) A treacherous person
(3) Malign (4) Harmful (2) A confused person
86. Altercation (3) An unreliable person
(1) Pathological (2) Argument (4) A dishonest person
(3) Prevention (4) Cruelty 94. A queer fish
87. Condone (1) A person with strange/odd personality
(1) Forbear (2) Forge (2) A reticent person
(3) Forget (4) Forgive (3) A person full of doubts
Directions (Q88 & Q89) : Identify the most appropriate (4) A person who gets annoyed easily
one word substitution for the given definition.
Directions (Q95 to Q97) : Choose the most appropriate
88. Dissection and examination of a corpse to antonym of the given capitalized word.
determine the cause of death
95. TRIFLING
(1) Metronome
(1) Random (2) Significant
(2) Aster
(3) Paltry (4) Abundance
(3) Autopsy
96. AMORAL
(4) Biopsy
(1) Immoral (2) Pious
89. An antisocial person who may commit criminal
acts (3) Chaste (4) Surreal

(1) Osteopath 97. VISIONARY

(2) Sociopath (1) Dominant (2) Captive

(3) Chiropractor (3) Powerful (4) Pragmatic

(4) Exodontist Directions (Q98 to Q100) : Identify the correctly spelt
word.
Directions (Q90 to Q94) : Identify the most appropriate
meaning of the given idiom/phrase. 98. (1) Imigrant (2) Souvenir
90. A wild goose chase (3) Sedenteray (4) Controled
(1) An expensive project that is incredible 99. (1) Flaterring (2) Coinscided
(2) Trying to reach a conclusion (3) Recommendation (4) Acidental
(3) An absurd search for something non-existent 100. (1) Camouflage (2) Enthusiact
(4) Unsubstantial piece of evidence (3) Volunnteer (4) Hillarious

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NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

(Part-II : Aptitude Test)

SECTION-I

101. Two bodies of different masses ma and mb are 104. Time period of revolution of a certain planet in an
dropped from two different heights a and b orbit of radius 4R is T. Its period of revolution in an
orbit of radius R is
Statement -1 : The time taken by the bodies to
reach the ground is in the respective ratio (1) T
of a: b. T
(2)
Statement -2 : The time taken by the bodies is 4
independent of their masses. T
(3)
8
(1) Only (1) is correct (2) Only (2) is correct
T
(3) Both are correct (4) Both are incorrect (4)
2
102. Varun, Arun and Tarun are standing in moving train 105. Force of gravitation between two masses is found
as shown below, Varun throws a ball in the upward
to be F, in vacuum. Both the masses are first
direction. Choose the correct option among the
placed in air, then in water at same distance apart
following
from each other. If the force of gravitation between
them in air is F1 and in water is F2 then,
TARUN VARUN ARUN
(1) F1 > F2
(2) F1 < F2

(3) F1 = F2  F
(1) Tarun can catch the ball, if train is retarding (4) F1 = F2 = F
(2) Arun can catch the ball, if train is accelerating 106. A, B, C and D are four substances with relative
(3) Ball cannot be caught by Varun in any 1 3
condition density , , 2, 1 respectively. Choose the correct
2 4
(4) Tarun can catch the ball, if train is accelerating statement.

103. In the given figure, the value of m so, that the (1) All will float in water
2 kg block will cover a distance of 2 m in (2) Only A and B will float in water
1 s. Starting from rest [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(3) A, B and D will float and C will sink
(4) All will sink in water
107. An object floats one third submerged in a liquid of
density 2.4 g/cm 3. The relative density of the
m kg object is
2 kg 2 kg
(1) 8
8 3
(1) kg (2) kg (2) 0.8
3 8
(3) 1
5 8
(3) kg (4) kg
8 5 (4) 2.4

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A)

108. The value current (I) drawn from the battery of 5 V 113. The velocity with which Arjun should release his
in circuit given below is arrow in vertically upward direction so that it hit the
2 fish just above him. If Arjun is observing fish in a
convex mirror of focal length 10 m and the image
2 20
2 2 distance is m . [Take g = 10 m/s2]
3
2
2 R
[Assume F  , arrow and fish both lie on the
2
2 principal axis of convex mirror and the arrow will
2
2 2 stop after hitting the fish and arrow is shot from
2 pole]
2 2 (1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s
(3) 30 m/s (4) 40 m/s
5V
2
114. If the concentration (v/v%) of acetone solution is
5 ⎛5⎞ 4.4%, then the volume of acetone dissolved in
(1) A (2) ⎜ ⎟ A
4 ⎝4⎠ 43 ml of water is
3 4 (1) 1.89 ml (2) 1.98 ml
⎛5⎞ ⎛5⎞
(3) ⎜ ⎟ A (4) ⎜ ⎟ A (3) 2.24 ml (4) 2.31 ml
⎝4⎠ ⎝4⎠
109. A substance floats in water, but sinks in oil. The 115. 'X','Y' and 'Z' represent the three states of matter
density of the substance. having arrangement of particles as given below.

(1) Is more than the density of water

(2) Less than the density of oil
(3) Equal to the density of oil
(4) Less than the density of water
110. In the figure given below, the current in wire A and
‘X’ ‘Z’
B is 10 A and 5 A respectively and the distance
between wire A and wire B is 2 m and distance Which of the following state(s) represent(s) the
between wire B and wire C is 4 m. If the wire B maximum rate of diffusion?
experiences no net force, then the current in wire (1) Only 'X' (2) Only 'Y'
C is [Consider length to be unit]
(3) Only 'Z' (4) Both 'X' and 'Z'
116. The molecular mass of a gas is found to be
I 52.88 amu. The volume occupied by 0.2231 g of
10 A 5A gas at STP is
(1) 84.5 ml (2) 94.5 ml
2m 4m
(3) 43.5 ml (4) 93.5 ml
A B C
(1) 10 A (2) 5 A 117. An element 'M' has the valency 3. The most
probable valency of the element with which 'M' forms
(3) 20 A (4) 2 A ionic compound with molecular formula MX3 is
111. Liquids A and B are at 40ºC and 20ºC respectively. (1) 1 (2) 2
When mixed in the ratio of masses 2 : 3, the final
(3) 3 (4) 4
temperature is 30ºC. The ratio of specific heat of
A to B is 118. An oxide on reacting with water forms a compound
'Y' which is used for white washing. The compound
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 3 : 2 formed on reaction of 'Y' with the gas exhaled by
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 2 : 1 human beings during respiration is
112. 80g of ice at 0ºC is mixed with 10g of steam at (1) Magnesium sulphate
100ºC. The final temperature of the mixture is (2) Magnesium carbonate
(1) 0ºC (2) 10ºC (3) Calcium carbonate
(3) 100ºC (4) 30ºC (4) Calcium sulphate

(10)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

119. Read the given statements carefully : 125. The monomer of teflon is
Statement-1 : Lithium hydroxide is generally used (1) Tetrafluoroethane (2) Tetrafluoroethene
as an antacid
(3) Tetrafluoroethyne (4) Tetrafluoroethyl
Statement-2 : Ammonium hydroxide is generally
used to neutralise the SO2 exhaled by astronauts 126. In CH3 C CH3 CH3 , prefix and suffix
in spaceships
O CH3
Now, choose the correct option
respectively are
(1) Both the statements are correct
(2) Both the statements are incorrect (1) oxy, ane (2) oxy, oic acid

(3) Only statement-1 is correct (3) methyl, oic acid (4) methyl, one
(4) Only statement-2 is correct 127. In a DNA molecule, 2000 base pairs are present.
120. Alloy 'A' contains chromium, iron, vanadium and If 20% of the nucleotides present is adenine then
carbon and is used to make axle and the other the number of guanine in DNA molecule is
parts of automobiles. Alloy 'A' is (1) 1200 (2) 600
(1) Nickel-chromium (2) Chrome-vanadium
(3) 800 (4) 1000
(3) Steel (4) German silver
121. Which of the following represents an isoelectronic 128. Cell placed in
Conc. sugar
triad? A solution
(1) Na+, Mg2+, Cl – (2) Na+, Al3+, Mg2+
Plant cell
B Distilled water
(3) Na+, F–, K+ (4) Al3+, O2–, Cs+ Cell placed in
122. Which of the following is incorrect?
What would happen to the plant cell in condition
CH3
(A) and (B)?
(1) - Toluene
(A) (B)
OH
(2) - Pentanoic acid

(3) CH3  CH = CH  CH3 - But-2-ene

(4) - Propane

123. If 'y' gram of metal combines with chlorine to from

'x' g of metal chlorides then the equivalent weight (4)
of metal is 129. A patient is having the following symptoms.
17x 35.5y • Fever
(1) (2)
xy xy
• Nausea and vomiting
17y 35.5x
(3) (4) Which of the following medication would be
yx yx
prescribed to him in order to relieve the symptoms?
124. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is
possible? (1) Antiemetics and Analgesics

1 (2) Antipyretics and Antiemetics

(1) n = 2, l = 0, ml = 3, s  
2 (3) Antiallergics and Antidiarrhoeal
1
(2) n = 0, l = 1, ml = 1, s   (4) Analgesics and Antipyretics
2
130. CDRI prepared a non-steroidal and non hormonal
1
(3) n = 2, l = 1, ml = 0, s   contraceptive oral pill ‘X’. The ‘X’ is
2
(1) Mala-N (2) Mala D
1
(4) n = 3, l = 4, ml = 3, s  
2 (3) I-pill (4) Saheli

(11)
Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A)

131. Hindbrain 100

90
80

Concentration
70
X Y Z 60

mg/L
Second Controls Situated 50
largest involuntary below midbrain 40
30
part of functions of and above Y 20
the brain the body 10

X, Y and Z, respectively are CO2 CH4 CFC O2 NO2 SO2

Gases
(1) Medulla, pons and cerebrum (1) Acid rain and smog
(2) Cerebellum, medulla and pons (2) Ozone depletion and osmosis
(3) Cerebrum, pons and medulla (3) Greenhouse effect and ozone depletion
(4) Cerebellum, pons and medulla (4) Global warming and deforestation
136. Select the incorrect statements regarding the
132. Classify the given organisms as ammonotelic,
below elements.
uricotelic and ureotelic.
(i) Trygon (ii) Labeo (iii) Necturus (iv) Bufo
(v) Lizard (vi) Draco (vii) Kiwi (viii) Columba
(ix) Camel (x) Lion
Ammonotelic Uricotelic Ureotelic
(1) (iii), (vii), (viii), (ix) (i), (ii), (iv), (vi) (v), (x)
(1) These are dead cells
(iii), (iv), (v), (vi)
(2) (i), (ii)
(vii), (viii)
(ix), (x)
(2) These help in transport of water
(3) (i), (iii), (iv) (ii), (v), (vii), (ix) (vi), (viii), (x) (3) These are devoid of pits
(4) These are the elements of xylem
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) (v), (vi), (vii), (viii) (iv), (ix), (x)
137. All of the following are taxonomical aids, except
133. Statement 1 : Turtle eggs incubated at 20°C (1) Biosphere reserve (2) Botanical gardens
would hatch into females. (3) Zoological park (4) Herbarium
Statement 2 : Turtle eggs incubated at 38°C 138. Samika uses a bucket of water while taking bath
would hatch into males. instead of a shower and Surbhi prepares cloth
(1) Both the statements are true bags from old bedsheets. Which of the following
‘R’s is being used by them, respectively?
(2) Both the statements are false
(1) Recycle and reduce (2) Reduce and recycle
(3) Only statement 1 is true (3) Reuse and reduce (4) Reduce and reuse
(4) Only statement 2 is true 139. Rust of wheat and blast of rice are
134. While taking notes Ravisha wrote the steps of (1) Water-borne diseases
processing fibres into wool in random order. (2) Air-borne diseases
Arrange the given steps in correct order.
(3) Seed-borne diseases
(i) Sorting (ii) Rolling into yarn
(4) Soil-borne diseases
(iii) Scouring (iv) Shearing 140. What is the pathway followed by the wave of
(1) (iv)  (iii)  (i)  (ii) contraction in the heart?
(2) (iii)  (i)  (ii)  (iv) (1) SA nodeBundle of HisPurkinje fibresAV
node
(3) (ii)  (iv)  (i)  (iii)
(2) AV nodeSA nodeBundle of HisPurkinje
(4) (i)  (ii)  (iii)  (iv) fibres
135. In an area the concentration of different gases in (3) SA nodeAV nodeBundle of HisPurkinje
the atmosphere is depicted by the above graph. fibres
Which of the following phenomenon would be (4) SA nodeAV nodePurkinje fibresBundle
prevalent in the area? of His

(12)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

SECTION-II

141. If a polygon has 230 diagonals, then the number of 146. If the surface area of a hemisphere is 147 cm2,
sides of the polygon is then the volume of the hemisphere (in cm3) is
(1) 16 686
(1)  (2) 432
(2) 19 3
343 1372
(3) 18 (3)  (4)
3 3
(4) 23
147. The minimum value of the expression x2 + 3x + 7
is
142. 2014 1  2013 1  2014  2016 is equal to
3 19
(1) 2011 (1) (2)
7 4
(2) 2014
17 2
(3) (4)
(3) 1 8 3
(4) 2020 148. The remainder when 16800 is divided by 7 is
143. The sum of the maximum and the minimum values (1) 1
1 (2) –1
of is
2
5  (3 sin x  4 cos x ) (3) 4
7
(1) (4) 6
30
1
(2) 1 149. The sum of 10 terms of the sequence 2 , 3 1 ,
2 4
7 1, 1 , ... is
(3) 4 5
31 8 16
1 (1) 65
(4)
5 203
(2) 63 
⎛ 1 ⎞ 1024
144. If 3f ( x  1)  2f ⎜ = x such that x  0, –1,
⎝ x  1⎠⎟ 1023
(3) 65 
then 5f(3) is equal to 1024
1023
20 (4) 69 
(1) 1024
3
150. The area of the given figure is (in cm2)
(2) 4
E
22
(3)
3 8 cm
6 cm
22
(4) D
5 A
145. If x + y = 7 and x2y3 + x3y2 = 7, then the value of
|x – y| can be 5 cm
7 cm
(1) 0
B C
(2) 3 5 12 cm

(3) 3 5 (1) 54  20 3 (2) 24  10 3

(4) 1 (3) 24  20 3 (4) 54  10 3

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Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A)

151. If P cm is the perimeter of a triangle with two sides 155. If l = sec – sin and m = cosec – cos, then
as 7 cm and 11 cm, then 2
⎛ l cot   m tan  ⎞
(1) 22 < P < 36 ⎜⎝ l cot   m tan ⎠⎟ equals

(2) 22  P  36 l 2  m2
(1)
(3) 20 < P < 35 l 2  m2
(4) 21  P  36
l 2  m2
(2)
152. In the given figure, if AE : EB = 3 : 2 and FB : CF l 2  m2
= 4 : 3, then ar(BEF) : ar(ABC) is
2
A ⎛ l  m⎞
(3) ⎜
⎝ l  m ⎟⎠
2
E ⎛ l  m⎞
(4) ⎜
⎝ l  m ⎟⎠
B C
F 156. If the medians BE and CF of ABC intersect at P,
(1) 5 : 7 then the ratio of ar(BPC) to ar(FPE) is
(2) 1 : 1 (1) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(4) 8 : 35 (3) 4 : 1
153. Let ABCD be an isosceles trapezium with AD || BC (4) 2 : 3
as shown in the figure. The area of the trapezium
157. The average of the first 100 prime numbers is
is 40 cm2 and the radius of the circle is 4 cm. If
E and G are the mid-points of AD and BC (1) A prime number
respectively, then AB equals
(2) A composite number
A E
D (3) An integer
F H
(4) Not an integer
158. If a line passes through (3, 4) and (8, 5), then the
B C common point to this line and 2x – y + 1 = 0 is
G
(1) 4 cm ⎛ 4 11⎞
(1) (0, 0) (2) ⎜⎝ , ⎟⎠
3 3
(2) 5 cm
⎛ 7 8⎞
(3) 6 cm (3) ⎜⎝ , ⎟⎠ (4) (1, 1)
3 3
(4) 7 cm
159. If four coins were tossed together, then the
154. The volume of a right circular cone formed by a probability of exactly 3 coins showing head and the
sector of a circle of radius 2r cm and sector angle fourth showing a tail is
as 90° is
1 3
r 3 15 (1) (2)
cm3 8 8
(1)
36 1 7
(3) (4)
r 3 15 4 16
(2) cm3
24 160. The coordinates of the circumcentre of the triangle
3 whose vertices are (3, 1), (2, 2) and (2, 0) are
r 15
(3) cm3
96 (1) (2, 2) (2) (2, 1)
r 3 15 ⎛ 1⎞
cm3 ⎛1 ⎞
(4)
172 (3) ⎜⎝ 3, ⎟⎠ (4) ⎜ , 1⎟
2 ⎝3 ⎠

(14)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

SECTION-III

161. Assertion (A): Members of the third estate walked 166. Assertion (A): Before the eighteenth century in
out of the assembly organized by Louis XVII of England, the common land was essential for
France on 5 May, 1789 to pass proposals for new survival for the poor people.
taxes. Reason (R): The common land was owned by the
Reason (R): All the 600 members of the third poor
estate were made to stand at the back in that (1) A is true, R is false
Assembly.
(2) A is false, R is true
(1) A is true, R is false
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(2) A is false, R is true explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 167. In medieval France, the items of ______ a person
explanation of A could purchase per year was regulated, not only
162. The Russian Social Democratic workers party was by income but also by social rank.
founded in _______ by socialists who respected (1) Food (2) Clothing
Marx’s ideas. (3) Beverages (4) Property
(1) 1914 (2) 1898 168. Which of the following was not a feature of
(3) 1905 (4) 1874 Napoleonic code of 1804?

163. Allied powers were initially led by _______ and in (1) Removed all privileges based on birth
1941, they were joined by USSR and USA. (2) Established equality before the law
(1) Italy and Germany (2) Italy and France (3) Gave right to vote to women
(3) UK and France (4) Japan and Italy (4) Secured the right to property
164. Match the following table and choose the correct 169. By 1931, Vietnam had became the ______ largest
response from the options given thereafter. exporter of rice in the world.
Column I Column II (1) Second (2) Third
a. Chena (i) Central America (3) Fourth (4) Fifth

b. Podu (ii) India 170. Match the following table and choose the correct
response from the options given thereafter
c. Tary (iii) Sri Lanka
Column I Column II
d. Milka (iv) Africa
a. 1916 (i) Kheda movement in
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) Gujarat
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) b. 1917 (ii) Satyagraha against
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) the Rowlatt Act

(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) c. 1918 (iii) Champaran

movement in Bihar
165. Gujjar Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir are great
herders of d. 1919 (iv) S a t y a g r a h a
movement among
(1) Goat and sheep mill workers of
(2) Cows and yak Ahmedabad
(3) Buffaloes and donkeys (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) Cows and buffaloes (3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

(15)
Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test) NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A)

171. Nearly _______ million people migrated from 178. Which of the following facts is not correct about
Europe to America and Australia in the nineteenth the Himalayan rivers?
century. (1) Most of the Himalayan rivers are perennial
(1) 30 (2) 40 (2) Himalayan rivers receive water from rain as
(3) 50 (4) 60 well as from melted snow from the lofty
mountains
172. Fuller is a person who
(3) The Himalayan rivers have short courses from
(1) Sorts wool according to its fibre
their source to the sea
(2) Gathers cloth by pleating (4) Himalayan river perform intensive erosional
(3) Prepares fibres prior to spinning activity in their upper courses
(4) Dyes different colours on clothes 179. The differential heating and cooling of land and
water creates.
173. Assertion (A): In the twentieth century, most of
the women in London worked in domestic service (1) Low pressure on the landmass of India and
sector. seas around it

Reason (R): In the twentieth century, women got (2) High pressure on the landmass of India and
employment in wartime industries and offices. seas around it

(1) A is true, R is false (3) Low pressure on the landmass of India while
the seas around experience comparatively high
(2) A is false, R is true pressure
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (4) Low pressure on the seas and high pressure
explanation of A on the landnass of India
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 180. Tropical deciduous forests receive rainfall between
explanation of A
(1) 300 cm and 200 cm (2) 250 cm and 200 cm
174. Penny chapbook were carried by petty pedlars in
(3) 200 cm and 70 cm (4) 70 cm and 20 cm
________
181. Match List I (Types of forests) with List II (Animal
(1) France (2) China found in the forests)
(3) England (4) Japan List I List II
175. Which of the following novel is an epistolary novel? a. Montane forests (i) Royal Bengal Tiger
(1) Pamela b. Mangrove forests (ii) One horned
(2) Tom Jones rhinoceroses
(3) Pickwick papers c. Tropical Evergreen (iii) Tiger
forests
(4) Hard Times
d. Tropical deciduous (iv) Snow leopad
176. India shares its land boundaries in the north with
forests
(1) Pakistan and Afganistan
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(2) Nepal and Bhutan
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(3) Myanmar and Bangladesh (3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(4) Maldives and Sri Lanka (4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
177. The longitudinal valley lying between lesser 182. The working age of a population of a country lies
Himalaya and the _______ are known as Duns. between
(1) Great Himalayas (1) 12 years and 60 years
(2) Inner Himalayas (2) 15 years and 59 years
(3) Shiwaliks (3) 18 years and 60 years
(4) Purvanchal (4) 17 years and 58 years

(16)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A) Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)

183. Assertion (A): Resources can be classified on the 189. _______ was the first port developed soon after
basis of origin as biotic and abiotic Independence to ease the volume of trade on the
Mumbai port.
Reason (R): Resource can be classified on the
basis of status of development as renewable and (1) Marmagao port (2) Mangalore port
non-renewable (3) Kandla port (4) Tuticorin port
(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A 190. In 1991, for the first time in India, _______ were
also added to the list of protected species.
(2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain
A (1) Plants (2) Moths

(3) A is true and R is false (3) Dragonfly (4) Butterflies

191. Assume that there are 4 earning members in a
(4) A is false and R is true
family. The average per capita income of the family
184. The species of animals which are only found in is ` 7500. If the income of three members of the
some particular areas usually isolated by natural
family is ` 6000, ` 7000 and ` 8000, then the
or geographical barriers are called as
income of the fourth member of the family is
(1) Vulnerable species (2) Endemic species
(1) ` 7500 (2) ` 9000
(3) Rare species (4) Extinct species
(3) ` 9500 (4) ` 8000
185. ‘Rooftop rain water harvesting’ was commonly
practised to store 192. Which of the following facts is not correct about
the sectors of the Indian economy?
(1) Water for irrigation
(1) More than half of the workers in the country
(2) Drinking water are working in the primary sector
(3) Water for washing clothes (2) Primary sector is producing only 35% of the
GDP of India
(4) Water for cleaning purposes
(3) Second and tertiary sectors employ less than
186. The type of farming which is done mostly with the
half the people of the country
help of migrant labourers is known as the
(4) The secondary and tertiary sector produce
(1) Intensive subsistence farming three-fourth of the production in India
(2) Primitive subsistence farming 193. Banks in India these days hold about _______
(3) Plantation farming percent of their deposits as SLR.

(4) Shifting farming (1) 10 (2) 21.5%

187. According to 2009–10, match items of Column I (3) 20 (4) 25

(states) along with items of Column II (Percentage 194. ICDS (Integrated Child Development Services) was
of production of iron ore) introduced in India in _______.
Column I (State) Column II (Percentage (1) 1975 (2) 1960
share in production of (3) 1980 (4) 1955
iron ore)
195. The accepted average calorie requirement in India
a. Odisha (i) 19% is _______ per person per day in rural areas.
b. Karnataka (ii) 11% (1) 2000 calories (2) 2400 calories
c. Jharkhand (iii) 33% (3) 2800 calories (4) 2100 calories
d. Chhattisgarh (iv) 28% 196. Which of the following statements is true?
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (1) All countries that have constitutions are
democratic
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) All countries that are democratic need not have
188. India stands at seconds place as an exporter of constitution
jute after _________
(3) All countries that are democratic have a
(1) China (2) Bangladesh constitution
(3) Brazil (4) Egypt (4) All the constitution are not democratic

(17)
Scholastic Aptitude Test (Part-II : Aptitude Test)
197. Which of the following is not a feature of a
democracy?
(1) The final decision making power must rest with
those elected by the people
(2) In a democracy, each adult citizen must have
one vote and each vote must have one value
(3) Women do not have the right to votes in a
democracy
(4) Democracy must be based on a free and fair
election where those currently in power have
a fair chance of losing
198. In Saudi Arabia, the testimony of one man is
considered equal to that of ______ women.
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five
 
(18)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A)
199. In India, _______ of seats in local government
bodies, like panchayats and municipalities, are
now reserved for women.
(1) One-fourth (2) One-tenth
(3) One-fifth (4) One-third
200. The data of fifty years between 1950 and 2000
shows that
(1) Both democracies and dictatorships show
same rate of economic growth
(2) Dictatorships have slightly higher rate of
economic growth than democracies
(3) Democracies show higher rate of economic
growths than dictatorships
(4) Dictatorships show extremely high rate of
economic growth than democracies

 

 


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 Test Booklet Code A

Stage-II

NTSE TEST SERIES

National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)
for
Stage-1 Qualified Students
Mental Ability and Scholastic Aptitude Test

TEST PAPER-2
ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS
 NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) A
(For Stage-1 Qualified Students) CODE

Time : 3 Hours
TEST-2 M.M. : 200

ANSWERS
1. (3) 41. (2) 81. (1) 121. (2) 161. (4)
2. (3) 42. (1) 82. (2) 122. (4) 162. (2)
3. (4) 43. (3) 83. (3) 123. (2) 163. (3)
4. (3) 44. (2) 84. (2) 124. (3) 164. (3)
5. (3) 45. (1) 85. (1) 125. (2) 165. (1)
6. (4) 46. (3) 86. (2) 126. (4) 166. (1)
7. (4) 47. (1) 87. (4) 127. (1) 167. (2)
8. (3) 48. (3) 88. (3) 128. (3) 168. (3)
9. (2) 49. (1) 89. (2) 129. (2) 169. (2)
10. (1) 50. (2) 90. (3) 130. (4) 170. (4)
11. (4) 51. (3) 91. (4) 131. (2) 171. (3)
12. (1) 52. (4) 92. (2) 132. (4) 172. (2)
13. (2) 53. (2) 93. (3) 133. (2) 173. (2)
14. (1) 54. (4) 94. (1) 134. (1) 174. (3)
15. (3) 55. (3) 95. (2) 135. (3) 175. (1)
16. (3) 56. (4) 96. (3) 136. (3) 176. (2)
17. (4) 57. (2) 97. (4) 137. (1) 177. (3)
18. (4) 58. (3) 98. (2) 138. (4) 178. (3)
19. (2) 59. (1) 99. (3) 139. (2) 179. (3)
20. (4) 60. (4) 100. (1) 140. (3) 180. (3)
21. (2) 61. (4) 101. (3) 141. (4) 181. (3)
22. (2) 62. (1) 102. (4) 142. (2) 182. (2)
23. (3) 63. (2) 103. (1) 143. (1) 183. (3)
24. (1) 64. (2) 104. (3) 144. (3) 184. (2)
25. (2) 65. (4) 105. (4) 145. (3) 185. (2)
26. (2) 66. (3) 106. (3) 146. (1) 186. (3)
27. (1) 67. (1) 107. (2) 147. (2) 187. (3)
28. (3) 68. (2) 108. (2) 148. (3) 188. (2)
29. (4) 69. (1) 109. (4) 149. (3) 189. (3)
30. (3) 70. (3) 110. (3) 150. (1) 190. (1)
31. (2) 71. (2) 111. (2) 151. (1) 191. (2)
32. (2) 72. (3) 112. (1) 152. (4) 192. (2)
33. (3) 73. (1) 113. (2) 153. (2) 193. (2)
34. (4) 74. (4) 114. (2) 154. (2) 194. (1)
35. (3) 75. (1) 115. (3) 155. (3) 195. (2)
36. (4) 76. (4) 116. (2) 156. (3) 196. (3)
37. (4) 77. (1) 117. (1) 157. (4) 197. (3)
38. (3) 78. (2) 118. (3) 158. (2) 198. (1)
39. (1) 79. (1) 119. (2) 159. (3) 199. (4)
40. (3) 80. (3) 120. (2) 160. (2) 200. (2)

(1)
 NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) A
(For Stage-1 Qualified Students) CODE

TEST-2

ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS

Section A : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

1. Answer (3)
2. Answer (3)
RAT = 18 + 1 + 20 = 39
39
  13
3

HEN = 8 + 5 + 14 = 27

27
9
3
3. Answer (4)
4. Answer (3)
5. Answer (3)
6. Answer (4)
(22 + 82) – (42 + 72) = 3
(32 + 52) – (12 + 52) = 8
7. Answer (4)
8. Answer (3)
9. Answer (2)
10. Answer (1)
11. Answer (4)
Prime number +2
12. Answer (1)
LCM of vertically arranged number + HCF of horizontally arranged number
13. Answer (2)
2 4 17  24 + 1 = 17
5 1 6  51 + 1 = 6
 3 ? 10  32 + 1 = 10

(2)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

14. Answer (1)

1 , 2 , 3 , 2 , 5 , 7 , 3 , 11 , 1 3 , 4

Prime numbers Natural numbers

15. Answer (3)
Only prime number
16. Answer (3)
Difference of squares of diagonal numbers – remaining number.
i.e. (32 – 22) – 1 = 4
 4th place is D.
17. Answer (4)
18. Answer (4)
19. Answer (2)
20. Answer (4)
21. Answer (2)
22. Answer (2)

Hindi English

a b c
g
f d

Geography
a = 16, b = 4, c = 15
d = 41, e = 9, f = 26, g = 4
23. Answer (3)
24. Answer (1)
25. Answer (2)
26. Answer (2)
27. Answer (1)
28. Answer (3)
29. Answer (4)
30. Answer (3)
31. Answer (2)
32. Answer (2)
33. Answer (3)
34. Answer (4)
35. Answer (3)
36. Answer (4)

(3)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A)

37. Answer (4)

38. Answer (3)
39. Answer (1)
40. Answer (3)
41. Answer (2)
42. Answer (1)
43. Answer (3)
44. Answer (2)
45. Answer (1)
46. Answer (3)
47. Answer (1)
HCF of (2, 6) = 2
HCF of (3, 6) = 3
HCF of (8, 4) = 4
 HCF of (2, 5) = 1
48. Answer (3)
35 = 5 × 7
 5 + 7 = 12
49. Answer (1)
50. Answer (2)
Product of opposite numbers is a perfect square
i.e. 25 × 4 = 100
18 × 8 = 144
8 × 2 = 16
 5 × 5 = 25

  

(4)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

(Part-I : Language Test)

51. Answer (3)

52. Answer (4)
53. Answer (2)
54. Answer (4)
55. Answer (3)
56. Answer (4)
57. Answer (2)
58. Answer (3)
59. Answer (1)
60. Answer (4)
61. Answer (4)
‘getting above’ means to act superior
62. Answer (1)
‘bank on’ means to trust, rely upon someone
63. Answer (2)
‘shape up’ means to improve your ways
64. Answer (2)
‘fiddle around’ means to make nervous movements with hands
65. Answer (4)
‘grew upon’ means to slowly start realizing
66. Answer (3)
Subject-verb agreement error - Since the subject of the sentence is ‘The Managing Director’, the verb should
be singular.
67. Answer (1)
Tense Error - Present perfect tense is required.
68. Answer (2)
Subject-verb agreement error - Since the subject is singular, the verb should also be singular.
69. Answer (1)
Subject-verb agreement error - Since the subject is ‘economic and military might’, the verb should also be
singular.
70. Answer (3)
Pronoun error - there is a missing emphatic pronoun that is required to emphasize upon the subject.
71. Answer (2)
72. Answer (3)
73. Answer (1)
74. Answer (4)

(5)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A)

75. Answer (1)

76. Answer (4)
Since ‘adroit’ and ‘clever’ are synonymous, the answer pair should also have the same meaning. ‘sinister’ and
‘evil’ are also ‘synonyms’.
77. Answer (1)
‘Chronic’ and ‘Recurring’ mean the same. Anything that persists for a long time and occurs repeatedly is called
a recurring or chronic activity. So the answer pair should also share the same meaning. ‘Apathy’ and
‘Indifference’ are both synonymous.
78. Answer (2)
A ‘Veteran’ in any field is a person with a lot of experience. It means these words share a relationship of
characteristic. An ‘Altruist’ is someone who is kind, benevolent. ‘Benevolence’ become his characteristic.
79. Answer (1)
A Neurologist studies the nervous system; An Obstetrician studies child birth
80. Answer (3)
81. Answer (1)
82. Answer (2)
83. Answer (3)
84. Answer (2)
85. Answer (1)
86. Answer (2)
87. Answer (4)
88. Answer (3)
89. Answer (2)
90. Answer (3)
91. Answer (4)
92. Answer (2)
93. Answer (3)
94. Answer (1)
95. Answer (2)
96. Answer (3)
97. Answer (4)
98. Answer (2)
99. Answer (3)
100. Answer (1)

  

(6)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

Section B : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

(Part-II : Aptitude Test)

SECTION-I

101. Answer (3)

1 2 1 2
a= gt1 b = gt2
2 2
2a 2 2b 2
g t1 g t2
= =

2a 2b
 t1  t2
g g

t1 : t2 : : a: b
102. Answer (4)
103. Answer (1)

T T
2 a 2 a
m

2g 2g
Fig. 1 Fig. 2
From Fig. 1
T – 2g = 2a ...(i)
From Fig. 2
2g + mg – T = (2 + m)a ...(ii)
1 2
s  at
2
1
2 a  12
2
a = 4 m/s2 ...(iii)
T – 2g = 2 × 4
T – 20 = 8
T = 28 s
2g + mg – 28 = (2 + m)4
20 – 28 + mg = 8 + 4m
–8 + mg = 8 + 4m
10m – 4m = 16

16 8
m   kg
6 3

(7)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A)

104. Answer (3)

T 2  (4R)3 ...(1)

T12  R3 ...(2)
3
T12 ⎛ 1⎞
⎜ ⎟
T2 ⎝4⎠
3
⎛ 1⎞
T12  ⎜ ⎟ T 2
⎝4⎠
3/2
⎛ 1⎞ 1 1 T
T1  ⎜ ⎟ T  .T  T 
3
⎝4⎠ (2) 8 8

105. Answer (4)

The gravitational force is independent of medium.
106. Answer (3)
107. Answer (2)
Weight of body = Weight of volume displaced

V .g  LV ' .g

L
.A.L  L .A.
3
 1  24
  L   0.8 g/ c m3
L 3 3 3

 0.8
Relative density =   0.8
W 1
108. Answer (2)
1

2 6/5  2
2
2 

5V 5V

2
5v 25 ⎛ 5 ⎞
I   ⎜ ⎟
6 16 ⎝ 4 ⎠
2
5
109. Answer (4)
110. Answer (3)

0  5  10  5I
 0
2  2 2  4
I
10 
2
I = 20 A

(8)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

111. Answer (2)

Heat loss = Heat gain
m1S1(40 – 30) = m2S2(30 – 20)
S1 m2 3
 
S2 m1 2
112. Answer (1)
Heat required for phase change of ice to water at 0ºC = mL
 80 × 80 = 6400 calorie
Heat released when 10 g steam is converted to water
mL = 10 × 540 = 5400 calorie
As heat released in condensation of steam is not sufficient to raised the temperature of mixture. So the final
temperature of mixture is 0ºC
113. Answer (2)

20
If image is at m from convex mirror then object should be at 20 m.
3
 S = 20 m
 v2 – u2 = 2as
u2 = 2 × 10 × 20
u = 20 m/s
114. Answer (2)
Let the volume of acetone = x ml
volume of acetone × 100
 = 4.4
volume of solution
x
 100 = 4.4
43  x
x  1.98 ml
115. Answer (3)
116. Answer (2)
0.2231
Number of moles = = 4.2 × 10–3 moles
52.88
V(ml)
=n
22400 ml
V = n × 22400 = 4.2 × 10–3 × 22400 = 94.5 ml
The valency of an element '19' is 3.
117. Answer (1)
118. Answer (3)
119. Answer (2)
120. Answer (2)
121. Answer (2)
122. Answer (4)

(9)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A)
123. Answer (2)
Hint : y g of metal 'M' combines with = (x – y)g of chlorine
y
 1g of chlorine reacts with = (x  y) g of 'M'

35.5y
35.5g of chlorine reacts with = (x  y) g

35.5y
Hence, equivalent weight of metal is (x  y) g

124. Answer (3)

125. Answer (2)
126. Answer (4)
127. Answer (1)
20% is adenine,  20% is thymine, 30% is guanine and 30% is cytosine.
Hence 30% of 4000 is 1200.
128. Answer (3)
129. Answer (2)
130. Answer (4)
131. Answer (2)
X-Cerebellum, Y-medulla, Z-pons
132. Answer (4)
133. Answer (2)
In turtle, eggs incubated at high temperature hatch into females and eggs incubated at temperature below 28°C
hatch into males.
134. Answer (1)
135. Answer (3)
136. Answer (3)
These elements are tracheid and vessels.
137. Answer (1)
138. Answer (4)
139. Answer (2)
Both are air-borne diseases.
140. Answer (3)

SECTION-II
141. Answer (4)
Let n be the number of sides of the polygon.
n(n  3)
Then, number of diagonals =
2
n(n  3)
 = 230
2
n(n – 3) = 460
n = 23 or n = –20
But n > 0.
So, n = 23

(10)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions
142. Answer (2)

2014 1  2013 1  (2015  1) (2015  1)

= 2014 1  2013 1  20152  1

= 2014 1  2013  2015

= 2014 1  (2014  1) (2014  1)

= 2014 1  20142  1

= 2014  2014 = 2014

143. Answer (1)

 
2
0  (3sinx – 4cosx)2  32  ( 4)2
0 (3sinx – 4cosx)2  25
 5  5 + (3sinx – 4cosx)2  30
1 1 1
  2 
30 5  (3 sin x  4 cos x ) 5
1 1 1 6 7
The sum of the maximum and the minimum values =   =
30 5 30 30
144. Answer (3)

⎛ 1 ⎞
3f(x + 1) + 2f ⎜ =x
⎝ x  1⎟⎠

⎛ 1⎞
3f(x) + 2f ⎜ ⎟ = x – 1 ...(1)
⎝ x⎠
1
Replacing x by , we get
x
⎛ 1⎞ 1
3f ⎜ ⎟  2f ( x ) = 1 ...(2)
⎝ x⎠ x
Multiplying equation (1) by 3 and equation (2) by 2, we get
⎛ 1⎞
9f ( x )  6f ⎜ ⎟ = 3x – 3 ...(3)
⎝ x⎠

⎛ 1⎞ 2 2  2x
6f ⎜ ⎟  4f ( x ) = 2 = ...(4)
⎝ x⎠ x x
Subtracting equation (4) from equation (3), we get

2  2x ⎞
5f(x) = 3 x  3  ⎛⎜
⎝ x ⎟⎠
⎛ 2  6⎞ 4
 5f(3) = 9  3  ⎜ = 6
⎝ 3 ⎟⎠ 3
22
 5f(3) =
3
145. Answer (3)
146. Answer (1)
147. Answer (2)

(11)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A)
148. Answer (3)
16800 = 23200 = (81066) × 4 = (7 + 1)1066 × 4
 If 16800 is divided by 7, then the remainder is 1 × 4 = 4.
149. Answer (3)
⎛1 1 1 1 ⎞
Required sum = (2 + 3 + 4 + ... upto 10 terms)  ⎜⎝     ... upto 10 terms⎟
⎠
2 4 8 16
10 ⎤
1 ⎡ ⎛ 1⎞
⎢1  ⎜ ⎟ ⎥
2 ⎣ ⎝ 2⎠ ⎦ 1
= 65  = 65  1 
1 1024
1
2
1023
= 65 
1024
150. Answer (1)
151. Answer (1)
Let the third side be x.
Then, x > 11 – 7 and x < 7 + 11
 4 < x < 18
 4 + 7 + 11 < x + 7 + 11 < 18 + 7 + 11
 22 < Perimeter of the triangle < 36
22 < P < 36
152. Answer (4)
Join EC.
A
ar( AEC ) 3 3x
=
ar( BCE ) 2 E
2 2x
ar(BCE) = ar( ABC ) ...(1)
5
Again, B C
4y F 3y
ar( BEF ) 4
 =
ar( CEF ) 3
4
ar(BEF) = ar( BCE ) ...(2)
7
From (1) & (2), we get
4 2
ar(BEF) =  ar( ABC )
7 5
ar( BEF ) 8
 =
ar( ABC ) 35
153. Answer (2)
Let AE = ED = x and BG = GC = y.
A E
Now, AE = AF = x [Length of tangents from an D
external point to a circle are equal] F H
BF = BG = y
AB = AF + FB = x + y ...(1)
AD = AE + ED = x + x = 2x B C
G
BC = BG + GC = y + y = 2y

(12)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions
 Sum of the parallel sides = AD + BC = 2x + 2y
Distance between the parallel sides = 2r = 8 cm
1
Area of the trapezium =  Sum of the parallel sides  Distance between the parallel sides
2
1
40 cm2 =  2( x  y )  8
2
x + y = 5 cm
AB = x + y = 5 cm
154. Answer (2)
Slant height of the cone formed, l = 2r
2(2r ) A
Circumference of the circular base of the cone = = r
4
⎛r⎞ 2r 2r
= 2 ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ h
2
r
 r = B r D
2
C
1
So, required volume = (r  )2 h 
3
2 2
1 ⎛r⎞ ⎛r⎞
= (r  )2  l 2  (r  )2 = ⎜ ⎟ (2r )2  ⎜ ⎟
3 3 ⎝ 2⎠ ⎝ 2⎠

r 2 ⎛ 1⎞ 2  15r 3
= ⎜⎝ 4  ⎟⎠ r = cm3
12 4 24
155. Answer (3)
1 1  sin  cos 
l=  sin  =
cos  cos 
 lcos = 1 – sincos ...(1)
Similarly, msin = 1 – sincos ...(2)
 msin = lcos
l
 tan =
m
lcot = m
(lcot – mtan)2 = (m – l)2
and (lcot + mtan)2 = (m + l)2
2 2
⎛ l cot   m tan  ⎞ ⎛ l  m⎞
 ⎜ = ⎜
⎝ l cot   m tan ⎠⎟ ⎝ l  m ⎠⎟
156. Answer (3)
Since the medians BE and CF intersect at P,
BP CP 2 A
 = =
PE PF 1
and FPE = CPB [Vertically opposite angles] F E
FPE ~ CPB
2 2 P
ar(FPE ) ⎛ PE ⎞ ⎛ 1⎞ 1
 = ⎜⎝ ⎟
⎠ = ⎜
⎝ ⎟
⎠ =
ar(CPB ) PB 2 4
B C
(13)
Answers & Solutions NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A)

157. Answer (4)

Let 2, 3, 5, 7, ... be the first 100 prime numbers.
Then, one of them is even and the rest are all odd.
 Average of these 100 numbers
2  (3  5  7  ... 99 such odd numbers)
=
100
2  An odd number
=
100
An odd number
= , which cannot be an integer
100
158. Answer (2)
Equation of the line passing through (3, 4) and (8, 5) is

⎛ 4  5⎞
y – 5 = ⎜⎝ 3  8 ⎟⎠ (x – 8)

5y – 25 = x – 8 5y = x + 17 ...(1)

The other equation given is y = 2x + 1 ...(2)
5(2x + 1) = x + 17
4
9x = 12 x =
3
8 11
y =  1
3 3
⎛ 4 11⎞
So, the required point is ⎜⎝ , ⎟⎠
3 3
159. Answer (3)
160. Answer (2)

SECTION-III
161. Answer (4)
162. Answer (2)
163. Answer (3)
164. Answer (3)
165. Answer (1)
166. Answer (1)
167. Answer (2)
168. Answer (3)
169. Answer (2)
170. Answer (4)
171. Answer (3)
172. Answer (2)
173. Answer (2)
174. Answer (3)
(14)
NTSE Test Series (Stage-II) - Test-2 (Code-A) Answers & Solutions

175. Answer (1)

176. Answer (2)
177. Answer (3)
178. Answer (3)
179. Answer (3)
180. Answer (3)
181. Answer (3)
182. Answer (2)
183. Answer (3)
184. Answer (2)
185. Answer (2)
186. Answer (3)
187. Answer (3)
188. Answer (2)
189. Answer (3)
190. Answer (1)
191. Answer (2)
192. Answer (2)
193. Answer (2)
194. Answer (1)
195. Answer (2)
196. Answer (3)
197. Answer (3)
198. Answer (1)
199. Answer (4)
200. Answer (2)

  

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