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Module 8 Booklet
Module 8 Booklet
Physiology of ANS: a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
1. Nervous system is divided
d. 4
functionally into
a. Somatic and central
6. All of the following is controlled
b. Somatic and peripheral
by autonomic nervous system :
c. Somatic and Autonomic
a. Heart
d. Peripheral and Autonomic
b. Viscera
c. Moving hands
2. Choose one odd out word :
d. Glands
a. Brain stem
b. Cerebrum
7. Unit of function is :
c. Cerebellum
a. Reflex action
d. Spinal cord
b. Neuron
c. All of the above
3. No of segments of spinal cord :
d. Non of the above
a. 31
b. 32 True and false Questions:
c. 33
8. Ganglia aren't surrounded by any
d. 34
capsule
9. Autonomic ganglia are arised from
4. Which parts of spinal cord has
cranial and spinal origin
most number of segments :
10. Cranio spinal ganglia are larger
a. Cervical
than Autonomic ganglia
b. Thoracic
c. Lumber
11. Ganglion cells of Craniospinal
d. Sacral
ganglia are
e. Coccygeal
a. Unipolar
b. Pseudounipolar
c. Dipolar
31. Inhibitory synapse is one in which 39. Order of spinal sacral segments
neurotransmitter hyperpolarize from which parasympathetic
postsynaptic membrane nerves originate:
32. Electrical synapse is most common a. 1st
33. Chemical synapse is specialized in b. 3rd
movement of ion from one cell to c. 5th
another d. None of the above
34. Presynaptic membrane is electron 40. In sympathetic nervous system ,
lucent preganglionic cells rely on ganglia
35. Synaptic cleft is about 20 mm near to
36. Postsynaptic membrane lies on a. Brain
target neuron b. Spinal cord
c. Effector
37. Ion responsible for mediating d. Receptor
function of chemical synapse
a. Calcium 41. Site of rely of parasympathetic
b. Phosphorous nerve fibres is :
c. Potassium a. Lateral ganglion
d. Sodium b. Collateral ganglion
c. Terminal ganglion
38. Sympathetic Nervous system d. All of the above
originate from :
a. Ventral root of Thoracic spinal 42. All of the following may be site of
segments rely for sympathetic preganglionic
b. Ventral root of lower lumber fibre except :
segments of spinal cord a. Lateral ganglion
c. Dorsal root of thoracic spinal b. Collateral ganglion
segments c. Terminal ganglion
d. Dorsal root of upper lumber d. Non of the above
spinal segments
43. Which of them in which
presynaptic nerves synapse with
more postsynaptic nerves
53. Increasing power of lens is the 57. The postganglionic fibres of the
function of……. vagus nerve innervate all of the
following except:
a. 3th cranial nerve
a. Heart
b. 7th cranial nerve
b. Lungs
c. 9th cranial nerve c. Liver
93. Which of the following has its 100. Sympathetic nerves causes
sympathetic supply directly from secretions in lacrimal glands
splanchinic nerve ? 101. Increasing heart rate and
a. Adrenal cortex vasoconstriction of coronaries are
b. Adrenal medulla one of the functions of the
sympathetic NS
c. Renal Medulla
102. Bronchodilatation intense
d. Renal cortex
vasoconstriction of the pulmonary
blood vessels are mediated by
94. What is sympathetic action on eye sympathetic NS
pupil ? 103. Innervation of the adrenal
a. Dilatation medulla is preganglionic.
b. Constriction
104. All of the following are
c. Expansion
functions of sympathetic supply to
d. Conraction
the abdominal viscera except:
a. increasing the blood glucose
95. What is sympathetic action on level by conversion of liver
palepebral fissure ? glycogen into blood glucose
a. Narrowing b. Retention of bile.
c. Vasodilatation of the blood
b. Widening
vessels of the viscera
c. Retraction
d. secretion of adrenaline and
d. Protraction noradrenaline in the blood
fibres
a. Spinal cord is responsible for the 118. Regarding what happens in the
all response of the child body during fasting state , Which
b. Spinal cord and Brain mediated of the following is True and False ?
this response a. When fasting occurs , at first
c. Medulla oblongata took part in blood pressure decrease , then
this response gradually it becomes stable at
d. This reflex action is considered to normal range
be autonomic reflex b. Decrease in level of fatty acids in
blood
116. Micturition has occurred to a c. Stimulation of glycogenesis in
young child , which of the liver
following centers is likely to have d. Stimulation of hypothalamus
mediated this action :
a. Brain 119. A worker is holding a large
b. Anterior horn cell of the spinal load in the factory , which of the
cord following can be observed in this
c. Lateral horn cell of the spinal worker :
cord a. Red face
d. None of the above b. Dry skin without sweat
c. Eye ball protruded
117. Sympathetic nerves whose d. None of the above
pregangilionic fibers originate
from all thoracic segments of the 120. If injury occurred to the
spinal cord mediate all of the autonomic nerve originated from
following except : the sacral segment , which of the
a. Inhibition to the smooth muscles following is likely to occur :
on wall of gall bladder a. Paralysis of wall of gall bladder
b. Stimulation of adrenal medulla b. Paralysis in the wall of the
c. Dilatation of eye pupil stomach
d. Inhibition to smooth muscle of c. Difficulty in the fecal discharge
the wall of urinary bladder d. Contraction of external urinary
sphincter
Answers:
1. C 37. A
2. D 38. A
3. A 39. B
4. B 40. B
5. B 41. C
6. C 42. C
7. A 43. A
8. F 44. F
9. F 45. T
10. T 46. F
11. B 47. F
12. A 48. T
13. B 49. F
14. C 50. F
15. A 51. T
16. D 52. F
17. C 53. A
18. A 54. D
19. B 55. B
20. B 56. A
21. C 57. D
22. A 58. C
23. B 59. A
24. D 60. C
25. C 61. A
26. A 62. C
27. B 63. C
28. A 64. B
29. C 65. B
30. B 66. A
31. T 67. A
32. F 68. D
33. F 69. B
34. F 70. A
35. F 71. B
36. T 72. A
73. C 111. T
74. B 112. F
75. B 113. F
76. B 114. T
77. B 115. B
78. A 116. C
79. A 117. D
80. B
118.
81. A
a. T
82. D
83. C b. F
84. D c. F
85. D d. T
86. B 119. C
87. B
120. C
88. C
121. A
89. A
122. A
90. D
91. C 123. C
92. B 124. B
93. B 125. A
94. A 126. D
95. B
127. B
96. F
128. B
97. F
98. F 129. A
99. T 130. D
100. F 131. A
101. F 132. B
102. F 133. B
103. T
134.
104. C
a. F
105. D
106. C b. T
107. E c. T
108. E d. F
109. B
110. F
a. neostigmine b. Nicotine
b. carbachol c. Acetylcholine
c. physostigmine d. Scopolamine
d. edrophonium
15. Atropine is absorbed from all sites 20. Atropine cause .......... of gastric
of administration. secretion
a. True a. Increasing
b. False b. Decreasing
c. No effect
16. Atropine blocks the muscarinic d. Non of the above
receptors by competing with
a. Muscarin
32. Hyoscine is preferred to atropine 37. ............. used to relax bladder and
in preanaesthetic medication increase its capacity in cases of
a. True urinary incontinence.
b. False a. Emepronium
b. Buscopan
33. ........... is used for For peptic ulcer c. Pirenzepine
(anti-secretory) and colics d. Eucatropine
(antispasmodic).
a. Cyclopentolate 38. Unlike atropine, ........ doesn.t
b. Tropicamide increase viscosity of bronchial
c. Oxyphenonium secretion.
d. Buscopan a. Emepronium
b. Buscopan
34. ............. Doesn.t affect the eye and c. Pirenzepine
its accommodation, therefore, may d. Ipratropium
be used in glaucoma.
a. Oxyphenonium
40. ......... is a very short acting 45. All of the following are effects of
competitive ganglion blocker and histamine release except:
is a histamine liberator. a. Bronchospasm
a. Emepronium b. Hypertension
b. Buscopan c. Excessive bronchial and gastric
c. Trimetaphan
secretion.
d. Eucatropine
d. None of the above
c. D1 a. Mode of action
d. D2 b. Chemical structure
c. Spectrum
67. Beta 2 receptor increase glucose d. Non of the above
level in the blood
a. True 72. Catecholamines are compounds
b. False that contain a catechol nucleus
and may be natural as
68. All of the following are from the a. Adrenaline
direct acting b. Noradrenaline
SYMPATHOMIMETICS except c. Dopamine
a. Noradrenaline d. All of the above
b. Isoprenaline
c. Amphetamine 73. When endogenous catecholamines
d. Phenylephrine given parenterally, they enter the
CNS in significant amounts.
69. .............. increase the concentration a. True
of catcholamines in the synapses.to b. False
inhibt the reuptake of
noradrenalin into the nerve 74. ............... is a synthetic
ending catecholamine, is similar to
a. Cocaine endogenous transmitters but not
b. Isoprenaline readily taken up into nerve
c. Amphetamine endings.
d. Phenylephrine a. Noradrenaline
b. Dopamine
70. All of the following are dual c. Isoprenaline
SYMPATHOMIMETICS except d. Adrenaline
a. Dopamine
b. Pseudoepherine 75. Non-catecholamines do not resist
c. Ephedrine MAO and COMT enzymes and so
d. Amphetamine they are active orally
a. True
71. According to ............ we can b. False
classify SYMPATHOMIMETICS
into selective and non- selective
97. using ...... infusion rates of 102. The moderate infusion rates of
dopamine, it dilates renal and dopamine (5-10
mesenteric blood vessels micrograms/kg/minute ) is called
a. low a. Renal dose
b. moderate b. Cardiac dose
c. high c. vasopressor dose
d. all of the above d. all of the above
a. Increase
b. Decrease 106. The duration of action of
c. Has no effect isoprenaline is longer than
d. Non of the above
151. the adverse effects of selective 156. ……………… blocks both beta
alfa 1 blockers don't include: & alpha receptor:
a. syncope. a. prapanolol
b. failure of ejaculation. b. atenolol
c. hypertension. c. acebutalol
d. salt and water retention. d. carvedilol
152. the antihypertensive drug chosen 157. all of the following is a lipophilc
in pregnancy is: b-blocker except:
a. dihydroergotoxine. a. atenolol
b. alpha methyl l dopa. b. pindolol
c. drazosin. c. carvedilol
d. terazosin. d. labetalol
153. …………….. has a cardio 158. all of the following is true about
selective property: propranolol except:
a. atenolol. a. it has a membrane
b. propanolol. stabilizing action
c. pinodolol. b. it has a positive chronotropic
d. all of the above. effect
c. it can cross BBB
154. all of the following is true about
ISA except: 159. the mechanisms involved in
a. help in preventing heart lowering the B.P with the use of
failure. propranolol include:
b. caused by pindolol. a. lowering the cardiac output
c. Inclued exert signs of b. reduce rennin and
sympathetic stimulation. aldosterone
d. it is a beta antagonist action. c. reducing sympathetic
outflow
155. the antiarrhymic activity of some d. all of the above
beta blocker is due to:
a. ISA
Answers: 33. C
1. C 34. C
2. D 35. A
3. D 36. B
4. A 37. A
5. D 38. D
6. A 39. A
7. B 40. C
8. C 41. C
9. D 42. A
10. A 43. D
11. C 44. B
12. C 45. B
13. D 46. C
14. B 47. D
15. A 48. D
16. C 49. C
17. B 50. B
18. C 51. B
19. A 52. D
20. B 53. B
21. C 54. B
22. A 55. B
23. B 56. A
24. A 57. B
25. C 58. B
26. D 59. A
27. C 60. B
28. D 61. C
29. B 62. B
30. D 63. B
31. C 64. D
32. A 65. B
66. A
67. A 101. A
68. C 102. B
69. A 103. B
70. D 104. B
71. C 105. A
72. D 106. B
73. B 107. B
74. C 108. C
75. B 109. B
76. D 110. D
77. B 111. A
78. A 112. D
79. C 113. D
80. B 114. A
81. B 115. E
82. D 116. E
83. A 117. B
84. A 118. E
85. B 119. D
86. A 120. B
87. B 121. D
88. A 122. D
89. A 123. E
90. B 124. D
91. A 125. B
92. C 126. A
93. C 127. B
94. C 128. B
95. C 129. B
96. C 130. A
97. A 131. D
98. B 132. B
99. A 133. E
100. B 134. C
135. C 169. F
136. A
137. E
138. D
139. A
140. D
141. A
142. A
143. C
144. B
145. D
146. C
147. B
148. A
149. A
150. D
151. C
152. B
153. A
154. D
155. B
156. D
157. A
158. B
159. D
160. C
161. D
162. B
163. C
164. D
165. C
166. F
167. T
168. T
10. Which of the following part of 18. 12th Cranial nerve merges from
skin isn’t innervated by spinal medulla oblongata
nerves ? 19. Spinal cord passes through
a. Hand foramina transversorium of
b. Foot vertebrae
c. Face 20. There are 12 cranial nerves
d. Abdomen
21. The energy of the change in external
11. Deramatome is supplied by : or internal environment of the body is
d. Baroreceptors d. Irris
25. Stretch receptors are located in the 30. The sensation perceived as a result
alveoli of the lung and .... of stimulation of a receptor is
a. Right atrium called
b. Left atrium a. Adequate stimulus
c. Both of them b. Modality of sensation
d. Aorta c. Action potential
d. Non of the above
26. The thermoreceptors that
stimulated by thermal form of 31. The method of stimulation affect
energy include warmth receptors on the type of sensation
only a. True
a. True b. False
b. False
32. ............ is the ability of the receptor
27. All of the following are chemical to respond to stimuli
receptors except a. Action potential
a. Taste receptors b. Adequate stimulus
b. Pressure receptors c. Excitabilty
c. Olfactory receptors d. All of the above
d. Glucoreceptors
33. The potential that result from
28. ............ stimulated by any form of opening of Na + channels in the
energy potent enough to cause receptor membrane is called
tissue damage a. receptor potential
a. Proprioceptors b. Generator potential
b. Barorecptors c. Graded potential
c. Stretch receptors d. All of the above
d. Nociceptors
34. An increase in the amplitude of
29. Electromagnetic receptors include the receptor potential produced by
: …….. stimulus intensity
a. Rods in retina a. Decreased
b. Cons in retina b. Increased
c. Both of them
38. Coding of sensory information is 42. when you can determine your
the ability of the brain to position , it is a
discriminate the ........ of different a. Conscious proprioceptive
stimuli sensations
a. Modality b. Unconscious proprioceptive
b. Locality sensations
c. Intesity c. Tactile sensations
d. All of the above d. Non of the above
54. Astereognosis results from lesion 58. 2nd order neurons of the dorsal
in the ………. spinocerebellar tract ascend in the
a. Dorsal column lemniscal anterolateral white column of the
pathway spinal cord reaching the medulla
b. Lateral spinothalamic tract a. True
c. Ventral spinothalamic tract
b. False
63. Which type of the following fibers
59. All of the following terminate in transmit deep pain?
the sensory cortex except: a. Non myelinated A fibers
a. Dorsal column lemniscal b. Myelinated B fibres
pathway c. Non Myelinated C fibers
b. Ventral spinothalamic tract d. Myelinated C fibers
c. Ventral spinocerebellar tract
d. Lateral spinothalamic tract 64. All of the following participates in
the muscle ischaemic pain except :
60. 2nd order neurons of the ventral a. Arterial occlusion
spinocerebellar tract pass through b. Maintained muscle relaxation
the superior peduncle to reach the c. Increase in Lewis P factor
vermis while those of the dorsal d. Trauma of the deep structures
tract pass through the inferior
peduncle 65. All of the following have fast rate
a. True of transmission of the pain except
b. False a. Parietal layer of pericardium
b. Parietal layer of pleura
61. All of the following have receptors c. Brain
to stimulate the deep pain except d. Parietal layer of peritoneum
a. Muscles
b. Tendons 66. All of the following are properties
c. Joints of the visceral pain except
d. Skin a. Dull aching
b. Radiates to the other structures
62. Ischemia of the muscle is c. Sharp
produced in the deep pain due to : d. Poorly localized
a. Prolonged muscle contraction
b. Prolonged vasoconstriction of 67. One of the following its afferent is
blood vessels vagus nerve:
c. Sympathetic effects a. Colon
d. Hypertension b. Urinary bladder
c. Rectum c. 6
d. Trachea d. 8
68. All of the following are properties 73. The somatosensory cortical areas
are located in the ....... lope
of the referred pain except :
a. Frontal
a. Can be felt in diseased viscus
b. Temporal
only
c. Parietal
b. Felt away from its original site
d. Occipital
c. Referred to somatic structure
with the same origin as viscus
74. Somatic sensory area I occupies
d. Felt in the dermatomes the brodman’s areas
c. 100 thousands
d. Non of the above 75. In somatic sensory area I all of the
following are true except
a. The foot & leg are represented
70.The cerebral cortex is composed of
medially
....... hemispheres
b. The lips & fingers occupy smaller
a. 2
areas than the trunk
b. 4
c. This area show modality
c. 6
separation of different sensation
d. 8
d. It receives sensations from the
opposite side of the body
71.The surface of each hemispheres is
formed of elevations called gyri
76. somatic sensory area I act as a
a. True
centre for the perception of the
b. False
following sensations except
a. stereognosis
72. Each hemisphere in cerebral
b. vibration sense
cortex contains........... Lobes
c. discrimination of weights
a. 2
d. pain
b. 4
116. the cells presented in the 121. the area responsible for
primary motor area are: conjugate eye movements is:
a. betz cells a. brocas area
b. martinotti cells b. head rotation area
c. horizontal cell of cajal c. frontal eye field
d. none of the above d. exners area
117. the area responsible for 122. motor apraxia is a lesion of:
initiating delicate voluntery a. brocas area
movements is; b. head rotation area
a. supplementary area c. frontal eye field
b. supressor area d. area of hand skills
c. primary motor area
d. premotor area 123. brocas area is essential for:
a. walking
118. area 4 and 6 share the b. speech
function of: c. involuntery movements
a. initiation of delicate d. muscle tone
movements
b. facilitation of spinal reflexes 124. the area lying between area 4
c. inhibition of spinal reflex and 6 is:
d. initiation of gross movements a. supplementary motor area
a. Thalamus
171. We can use dopamine is
b. Subthalamus treatment of Parkinsonism
c. Brain stem a. True
d. Striatum b. False
168. The direct circuit is ……… and 172. Sensation can be consciously
its importance is …………
perceived by the cerebellum
a. true
b. false
204. All of the following are from the 209. Output from other thalamic
pathologic causes of nystagmus nuclei passes to be regulated
except
before reaching the cortex.
a. Cerebellar diseases
a. The medial group of nuclei
b. Inner ear disorders
b. The reticular nuclei
c. Optokinetic nystagmus
c. The intralaminar nuclei
d. Defective vision
b. 2
b. Aphagia
c. Anorexia 242. Its lesions cause moderate
244. The limbic system and the 248. Which of the following
hypothalamus can play a role in statements is true regarding to
regulating our autonomic
the Beta waves?
functions
a. are seen in the parietal region
a. true
b. Are recorded in an awake
b. false
person regardless the mental
245. the following are functions of the activity.
limbic system except c. They have amplitude lower
a. Motivation than 50 mV
b. Olfaction
c. relay center for visual and d. They are not recorded during
auditory pathways sleep
d. Regulation of autonomic e. None of the above
functions
249. Which of the following
246. All the following are true statements is false about the
regarding to the alpha waves Theta waves?
recorded by the EEG except: a. They have frequency less than
a. are most marked in the that of Alpha waves
parieto-occipital lobe b. Physiologically, the occur in
b. Are recorded in an awake children
active person c. Pathologically, they are seen in
c. Occurring at frequency of 8- many brain disorders
13/sec d. They are seen during stage I of
slow wave sleep
Answers: 32. C
33. D
1. B
34. B
2. B
35. B
3. D
36. A
4. B
37. B
5. A
38. D
6. D
39. C
7. A
40. B
8. C
41. C
9. B
42. A
10. C
43. A
11. B
44. B
12. C
45. B
13. F
46. B
14. F
47. C
15. F
48. D
16. F
49. D
17. F
50. A
18. T
51. B
19. F
52. D
20. F
53. B
21. B
54. A
22. D
55. C
23. C
56. D
24. C
57. B
25. A
58. B
26. B
59. C
27. B
60. A
28. D
61. D
29. C
62. A
30. B
63. C
31. B
64. B
65. C 98. F
66. C 99. F
67. D 100. T
68. A 101. C
69. B 102. D
70. A 103. C
71. A 104. D
72. B 105. T
73. C 106. A
74. A 107. C
75. B 108. D
76. D 109. D
77. B 110. C
78. A 111. A
79. B 112. A
80. B 113. D
81. A 114. B
82. C 115. B
83. C 116. A
84. A 117. C
85. A 118. D
86. D 119. B
87. D 120. A
88. A 121. C
89. C 122. D
90. B 123. B
91. B 124. C
92. C 125. D
93. A 126. B
94. B 127. A
95. C 128. F
96. T 129. T
97. F 130. F
131. F 164. C
132. D 165. A
133. B 166. C
134. D 167. D
135. A 168. C
136. C 169. A
137. B 170. A
138. B 171. B
139. B 172. B
140. A 173. A
141. A 174. B
142. D 175. B
143. A 176. B
144. T 177. C
145. T 178. B
146. F 179. B
147. F 180. A
148. F 181. C
149. F 182. A
150. F 183. D
151. T 184. B
152. D 185. B
153. C 186. B
154. D 187. C
155. B 188. C
156. A 189. F
157. F 190. F
158. T 191. T
159. F 192. F
160. F 193. F
161. T 194. B
162. B 195. A
163. A 196. D
197. D 230. C
198. A 231. D
199. C 232. B
200. D 233. C
201. B 234. C
202. C 235. A
203. B 236. D
204. C 237. C
205. B 238. A
206. A 239. B
207. D 240. D
208. B 241. A
209. B 242. D
210. D 243. D
211. A 244. A
212. B 245. C
213. A 246. B
214. D 247. C
215. A 248. C
216. D 249. E
217. B 250. B
218. A 251. D
219. A 252. A
220. B 253. D
221. D 254. C
222. D 255. D
223. A 256. F
224. A 257. F
225. D 258. T
226. D 259. F
227. B 260. T
228. D
229. B
10. at the roof of the cavernous sinus 15. which of the following is a branch
there is ………. from the internal carotid artery:-
a. internal carotid artery a. supra orpital artery
b. Body of sphenoid b. superficial temporal artery
c. Pituitary gland c. posterior auricular artery
d. temporal lobe of the brain d. occipital artery
11. nerves found at the lateral wall of 16. the area of the scalp in front of the
the cavernous sinus are all except auricle is supplied by all of the
…….. folowing except:-
a. a.Oculomotor (III) a. supra orpital artery
b. trochlear (IV b. supra trochlear artery
c. abducent (VI) c. occipital artery
d. d.Maxillary (V2) d. superficial temporal artery
12. The dense connective tissue layer 17. the motor nerve to the
of the scalp is called:- preauricular part of the scalp is:-
a. Peripheral layer. a. posterior auricular nerve
b. Fatty layer b. temporal branch of fascial nerve
c. Vascular layer c. trigimenal nerve
d. Central layer d. maxillary nerve
13. The third layer of the scalp is the 18. the occipitofrontalis muscle is
aponeurosis of:- supplied by:
a. buccinator muscle a. temporal branch of fascial nerve
b. occipitofrontalis muscle b. posterior auricular branch of
c. masseter muscle fasial nerve
d. none of the above c. occipital nerve
22. the occipital vein ends in:- 27. which of the following musles is
a. internal juglar vein pierced by:-
b. external juglar vein a. buccinator muscle
c. suboccipital venous plexus b. orbicularis oris muscle
d. subclavian vein c. frontalis muscle
d. mentalis muscle
33. the maxillary nerve gives the 38. the common facial vein ends in
following branch except:- a. internal juglar vein
a. zygomaticotemporal b. external juglar vein
39. the lymph drainage of the medial 44. all of the following pierce the
part of the face is into investing layer of the deep fascia
a. submental L.N except:-
b. submandibular L.N a. external juglar vein
c. parotid L.N b. L.V
d. mastoid L.N c. internal juglar vein
d. supraclavicular nerve
40. the side of the neck is divided into
anterior and posterior triangles 45. the posterior triangle contain the
by:- following nerves except:-
a. platysma muscle a. spinal part of accessory nerve
b. sternomastiod muscle b. glossopharyngeal nerve
c. trapezius muscle c. roots and trunks of brachial
d. levator scabulae plexus
d. cutaneous branches of cervical
41. the posterior border of the plexus
posterior triangle is:
a. sternomastoid muscle 46. all of the following are cutaneous
b. scalenius muscle branches of the cervical plexus
c. trapezius muscle except:-
d. clavicle a. great occipital nerve
b. great auricular nerve
42. the following muscle is a part of c. lesser occipital
the roof of posterior triangle d. transverse cervical
muscle:-
a. platysma muscle 47. the nerve running paralel to rhe
b. omohyoid muscle sternomastoid muscle is:-
c. splenius capitus muscle a. great auricular nerve
d. trapezius muscle b. supra cavicular nerve
c. transverse cervical nerve
43. the following muscles form the d. lesser occipital nerve
floor of the posterior triangle
except:- 48. the supra scapular artery is a
a. semispinalis capitis branch from:-
58. The base of the submental triangle 63. The inferior root of ansa cervicalis
nerve arises from:
is :
a. c1
a. Thyroid cartilage
b. c5
b. Maxilla
c. c3
c. Hyoid bone d. c2 &c3
d. Mandible
64. Nerve to thyrohyoid arise from :
59. All of the following can be a. c2
b. c1
considered a part of the neck
c. c3
triangles except :
d. none of the above
a. Scalenus medias
b. Scalenus anterior
65. Hypoglossus and thyrohyoid form
c. Splenius capitis the floor of muscular triangle:
d. Semispinalis capitis a. true
b. false
60. All of the following are boundaries
of the carotid triangle except: 66. Inferior belly of omohyoid is one
a. anterior border of sternomastoi of carotid triangle boundaries:
b. anterior belly of digastric muscle a. true
c. superior belly of omohyoid b. false
d. posterior belly of digastric muscle
67. The floor of carotid triangle is
61. sympathetic trunk is one of the formed by:
carotid triangle contents: a. hypoglossus
a. true b. thyrohyoid
73. All of the following are branches 78. The jugular trunk in the right side
of the vagus nerve except:
drains into :
a. meningeal
a. Internal jugular vien
79. Which of the following ducts is 87. Posterior region of the scalp is
related to the brachial plexus : drained to :
a. Tubal tonsil a. Occipital lymph node
b. Upper deep cervical lymph node b. Postauricular lymph node
c. Lower deep cervical lymph nodes c. Parotid lymph node
d. Lingual tonsil d. Submadibular lymph node
80. Which of the following is one of 88. Mastoid nodes receives afferent
the tributaries of the jugulo from all of the following except :
omohyoid lymph nodes : a. Floor of the meatus
a. Back of the tongue b. Auricle
b. Tonsils c. Angle of jaw skin
c. Lower part of the pharynx d. Upper part of parotid region
d. Upper part of the pharynx
89. Parotid lymph nodes efferent is :
True and false :
a. Sub mandibular lymph node
81. Jugulo digastrics lymph nodes lie b. Sub mental lymph nodes
behind the internal jugular vein c. Jugulo digastrics node
82. Jugulo omohyoid lymph nodes lie d. Jugulo omohyoid node
behind the intermediate tendon of
omohyiod 90. All of the following drains to the
83. Thyroid gland drains directly to submandibular node except :
the jugular trunk a. Parotid nodes
84. Adenoid is one of the transverse b. Submental nodes
superficial lymph nodes c. Postauricular nodes
85. Deep cervical lymph nodes lie d. Upper part of the anterior
superficial to sternomastoid triangle of the neck
muscle
True and false :
91. Nasopharynx can drain directly to 99. All of the following can drain to
the deep lymph nodes the upper deep cervical lymph
92. Atlanto occipital joint drains to the node except :
paratracheal lymph nodes a. Occipital lymph nodes
93. Cervical part of the trachea is b. Floor of the mouth
drained to the paratracheal lymph c. Parotid of the mouth
nodes d. Mastoid lymph nodes
94. Postauricular lymph nodes lie
deep to the mastoid 100. All of the following are
95. Submental lymph nodes are considered transverse lymph
contents of the submental triangle nodes except :
of the neck a. Lower deep lymph nodes
96. Lateral column of the superficial b. Lingual tonsils
lymph nodes lies on internal c. Occipital nodes
jugular vien d. Periauricular lymph nodes
97. All of the following drain to the 101. Middle ear drains to :
submandibular nodes except : a. Mastoid lymph nodes
a. Anterior part of nasal cavityw b. Periauricular lymph nodes
b. Tip of the tongue c. Submandibular lymph nodes
c. Centre of the tongue d. Sbmental lymph nodes
d. Vessels of the gum
102. Platysma Muscle is supplied by
98. Above the vocal cord in the larynx :
drains to : a. Temporal branch of facial nerve
a. Upper deep cervical lymph b. Zygomatic branch of the facial
nodes nerve
b. Lower deep cervical lymph c. Mandibular branch of the facial
nodes nerve
c. Submandibular lymph nodes d. Cervical branch of the facial
d. Submental lymph nodes nerve
105. All of the following can end to 109. Which of the following
the confluence of sinuses except : muscles insert on the skin of eye
a. Superior sagittal sinuses borrows
b. Inferior sagittal sinuses a. Palpepral part of Orbicularis
c. Straight sinuses oculi
d. None of the above b. Frontalis
c. Orbital part of Orbicularis oculi
106. Which of the following is the d. Lacrimal part of Orbicularis
most superficial muscle : oculi
a. Semi spinalis capitis e. Both a and b
b. Splenius capitis f. Both b and c
c. Scalenus medias g. Both a , c and d
d. Levator Scapulae h. All of the above
Answers: 29. B
30. D
1. D
31. A
2. C
32. C
3. A
33. D
4. B
34. D
5. D
35. D
6. C
36. D
7. A
37. C
8. B
38. A
9. C
39. A
10. A
40. B
11. C
41. C
12. C
42. A
13. B
43. D
14. D
44. C
15. A
45. B
16. C
46. A
17. B
47. D
18. D
48. C
19. C
49. B
20. A
50. B
21. D
51. D
22. C
52. C
23. D
53. C
24. B
54. C
25. A
55. A
26. D
56. A
27. A
57. A
28. C
58. C
59. B 89. A
60. B 90. C
61. A 91. T
62. C 92. F
63. D 93. T
64. B 94. F
65. B 95. T
66. B 96. F
67. D 97. C
68. A 98. A
69. D 99. A
70. A 100. A
71. B 101. B
72. A 102. D
73. D 103. B
74. B 104. D
75. B 105. B
76. A 106. A
77. A 107. B
78. B 108. B
79. C 109. F
80. C 110. A
81. F 111. B
82. F 112. A
83. F 113. A
84. F 114. A
85. F 115. A
86. T 116. B
87. A 117. D
88. D 118. B
119. A
120. D
d. 45 cm
6. All of the following can be found
d. Cervical plexus
7. Median group in anterior grey
is : a. T1
a. 1st month b. T2
a. S1 b. C2
b. S2 c. S1
c. S3 d. C7
d. S4
9. Spinal Accessory nerve nuclei are
present in which position:
a. Medial
11. Dorsal funicular group is absent 16. Which of the following where
from all of the following xcept : longitudinal branches of posterior
a. Cervical vertebrae spinal aretery branches :
b. Thoracic vertebrae a. Ventral root
c. Lumbar vertebrae b. Dorsal root
d. None of the above c. Gray matter
d. White matter
12. One of the following can be found
in the C8 vertebrae spinal cord : 17. Radicularis magna supply origin
a. Ventromedial group of
b. Dorsomedial group a. Cervical plexus
c. Both of the above b. Pharyngeal plexus
d. Central group c. Brachial plexus
d. Lumber plexus
13. T1 has all of the following except :
a. Visceral gray 18. Anterior spinal vein passes
b. Medial group through :
c. Lateral group a. Anteromedian sulcus
d. Nucleus dorsalis b. Posteromedian septum
c. Ventral root
14. Interomediolateral is concerened d. Dorsal root
with
19. Internal venous plexus lies inside : 24. Which of the following form the
a. Dura mattar pyramid ?
b. Extra dural space a. Corticospinal nuclei
c. Periosteum b. Inferior olivary nuclei
d. Tubular sheath c. Corticospinal fibres
d. Cuneate nuclei
20. Lumber cistern is found in :
a. Subarachnoid space 25. All of the following pass through
b. Pia matar the posterolateral sulcus except :
c. Dura matar a. Hypoglossal nerve
d. Arachnoid matar b. Glossopharyngeal nerve
c. Vagus nerve
21. Linea splinders lies in : d. Cranial accessory nerve
a. Dorsal root
b. Ventral root 26. The groove found in the pontine
c. Anteromedian sulcus transwerse fibres is for
d. Posteromedial septum a. Basilar artery
b. Basal vein
22. Last process of ligamneta c. Vertebral artery
denticulata is attached to d. Superior cerebellar artery
a. L1
b. L2 27. Which of the following nerves exit
c. L3 through the junction between
d. L4 pons and pyramid :
a. Trigeminal nerve
23. Posteromedian sulcus in the b. Abducent nerve
medulla oblongata continues as : c. Facial nerve
a. Intermediate sulcus d. Vestibualr nerve
b. Anteriomedian fissure
c. Posteromedian septum 28. Cereberal penduncle is formed of
d. Dorsal root all except :
a. Crus cerebri
b. Substantia nigra
41. Which of the following lies in both 45. Which of the following is the
floor and lateral wall of the cavity of Diencephalon ?
anterior horn of lateral ventricle: a. Lateral ventricle
a. Tail of cauduate nucleus b. Third ventricle
b. Rosterum c. 4th ventricle
c. Septum pellucidum d. All of the above
d. Head of cauduate nucleus
46. All of the following are situated in
42. Which of the following is most the anterior wall of the third
medial in the floor of body of ventricle except :
lateral ventricle: a. Anterior commisure
a. Striathalamic vein b. Anterior column of the fornix
b. Stria terminalis c. Lamina terminalis
c. Body of fornix d. Habenular commisure
d. Chroid plexus
47. Lateral ventricle is connected to
43. Which part of the caudate nucleus the 3rd ventricle by
can be found in the inferior horn a. Interventricular foramen of
of Lateral ventricle: Monoro
a. Body b. Aqueduct of sylvius
b. Head c. Optic recess
c. Tail d. Pineal recess
d. All of the above
48. The upper lateral wall of the 4th
44. Amygloid nucleus lies in the roof ventricle is formed of :
of : a. Superior cerebellar peduncle
a. Anterior horn of lateral b. Inferior cerebellar peduncle
ventricle c. Cuneate
b. Body of lateral ventricle d. Gracile
c. Inferior horn of lateral
ventricle 49. The cerebellum occupy the middle
d. Posterior horn of lateral part of the roof of:
ventricle a. 3rd ventricle
52. The head of Caudate nucleus is 55. The anteroinferior part of Caudate
related to: nucleus is related to:
a. Floor & lateral wall of anterior a. Floor & lateral wall of inferior
horn of lateral ventricle horn of lateral ventricle
59. The Lentiform nucleus is divided 63. The inferior relation of The
by: Lentiform nucleus:
60. The subdivision of The Lentiform 64. The anterior relation of The
nucleus are: Lentiform nucleus:
c. Habenular commissure
d. None of the above
111. …………. Is the most anterior 116. …………. Is the fissure that
part of the superior vermis separates the nodule from the
a. Nodule uvula in the cerebellum
b. Uvula a. Fissure prima
c. Pyramid b. Horizontal fissure
d. Lingula c. Posterolateral fissure
d. Retrotonsillar fissure
112. The inferior medullary velum
forms the bed of ………. In 117. all of the following are found
cerebellum in inferior surface of cerebellum
a. Tube vermis except
b. Vermis a. Fissura secunda
c. Cerebellar tonsil b. V- shaped fissure
d. Medullary vella c. Retrotosillar
d. Posterolateral fissures
113. superior medullary vella is a
thin sheet of white matter forming 118. The components of the
the tonsillar bed diencephalon are all except :
a. True a. thalamus
b. False b. hypothalamus
c. stria habenularis
114. the cerebellum shows a wide U
shape anterior notch that lodges
119. The lateral boundary of the
the falx cerebelli
thalamus is the:
a. True
a. the posterior limb of the
b. False internal capsule
b. the cavity of the third ventricle
c. the lentiform nucleus
122. The superior white matter of 127. The blood supply of the
the thalamus is called : thalamus is the
a. external medullary lamina a. posterior cerebral artery
b. stratum zonale b. anterior cerebral artery
c. internal medullary lamina c. basilar artery
d. a and c
123. The lateral part of the
thalamus lying lateral to the
128. Epithalamus consists of all of
internal medullary stria is
the following except :
subdivided into
a. pineal body
a. dorsolateral part
b. habenular nuclei
b. ventromedial
c. habenular commissure
c. both
d. the choroid plexus
124. The function of the thalamus is
integration of the information 129. The medial geniculate body is
from the a relay nucleus in the
brain stem
d. all of the above
Answers: 32. B
33. T
1. D 34. T
2. B 35. F
3. C 36. F
4. B 37. F
5. C 38. A
6. C 39. C
7. C 40. B
8. C 41. D
9. C 42. C
10. A 43. C
11. D 44. C
12. A 45. B
13. C 46. D
14. B 47. A
15. C 48. A
16. B 49. B
17. D 50. C
18. A 51. C
19. B 52. A
20. A 53. B
21. C 54. C
22. A 55. D
23. C 56. B
24. C 57. C
25. A 58. A
26. A 59. C
27. B 60. D
28. D 61. A
29. A 62. B
30. B 63. D
31. B 64. C
65. C 98. D
66. C 99. A
67. B 100. D
68. A 101. C
69. C 102. D
70. E 103. D
71. A 104. B
72. D 105. A
73. A 106. C
74. C 107. B
75. C 108. B
76. A 109. C
77. B 110. C
78. D 111. D
79. B 112. C
80. B 113. B
81. B 114. B
82. A 115. A
83. C 116. C
84. C 117. B
85. B 118. C
86. C 119. A
87. D 120. D
88. A 121. C
89. B 122. B
90. B 123. C
91. C 124. D
92. A 125. A
93. D 126. C
94. C 127. D
95. C 128. D
96. D 129. A
97. B 130. C
e. A & B
13. Morphine indirectly stimulates the
10. An old male patient came to the Edinger-Westphal nucleus of the
hospital with cancer of bronchial oculomotor (3rd cranial nerve )
tree suffering from severe cough , and cause severe mydriasis :
the doctor took the patient’s a. True
history and figured out that he has b. False
a prostatic hypertrophy, which of
the following drugs should be 14. The indirect stimulation of the
given to the patient : Edinger-Westphal nucleus of the
a. Morphine oculomotor (3rd cranial nerve ) by
Morphine is produced by :
b. Methadone
a. Cortical inhibitory effect on
c. Codeine
the the Edinger-Westphal
d. Meperidine
nucleus of the oculomotor (3rd
cranial nerve )
11. Which of these drugs is contra-
b. Stimulation of Cortical
indicated to the previous case:
inhibitory effect on the the
a. Morphine
Edinger-Westphal nucleus of
b. Methadone
the oculomotor (3rd cranial
c. Codeine nerve )
d. Merperidine c. Inhibition of Cortical
inhibitory effect on the the
12. The reason why the doctor didn't Edinger-Westphal nucleus of
give it to the patient: the oculomotor (3rd cranial
a. It has a side effect of urine nerve )
retention more than the d. All of the above
prescribed drug
b. It’s not preferable to patient
with the bronchial tree cancer 15. One the morphine’s side effects is
constipation which is produced by
all of the following EXCEPT :
d. Both a , b b. PGE2
c. IL-1
37. NSAIDs that produce the anti – d. All of the above
inflammatory effect inhibit cyclo –
oxgenase enzyme ..... 42. Salicylates lower the elevated body
a. Centrally temperature to normal by
b. Periphery a. Inhibiting prostaglandins
c. Both of them centrally
d. Non of the above b. Inhibiting prostaglandins
periphery
38. Non selective COX inhibitors c. Inhibiting IL-1 synthesis
associated with gastrointestinal d. Both a ,c
tract upset and renal impairment
on long term use 43. All of the following are the
a. True mechanism that salicylates use to
b. False loss heat by acting on heat
regulating center except
39. salicylates act on ......... level to a. Vasoconstriction of cutaneous
produce their analgesic action blood vessels
a. Thalamus b. Increasing sweating
b. Hypothalamus c. Encouraging evaporation
c. Subcortical d. VD of cutaneous blood vessels
d. All of the above
44. Decreasing of prostaglandins and
40. Raising of the threshold to painful inhibition of chemotaxis is the
stimuli relayed from the thalamus mechanism by which salicylates
to the sensory cortex is the way by produce
which salicylates produce a. Analgesic effect
a. Analgesic effect b. Antipyretic effect
b. Antipyretic effect c. Anti – inflammatory effect
c. Anti – inflammatory effect d. All of the above
d. Both a , b
45. NSAIDs gastritis is always due to
41. During fever .there is release of .... direct irritation of gastric mucosa
by the released salicyclic acid
a. PGE1
a. True
56. Cardiac depression and serious 62. Lipid solubility enhances the
arrhythmia is one of the side a. onset
effects of b. duration of action
a. isoflurane c. intensity of the local anesthesia
b. sevoflurane
c. halothane 63. As the amount of the unionized
fragment increases the duration of
57. Malignant hyperthermia is a onset
genetic disease at which the a. increases
patient have taken b. decreases
a. succinylcholine c. remains constant
b. halothane
c. both 64. The onset of action is faster by
a. increasing
58. at which it is treated by b. decreasing the gap between
a. dantrolene the PKa and the PH of the
b. propofol tissue
b. arrhythmia
c. allergy produced by the
lignocaine
Answers: 36. D
37. B
38. A
1. E
39. D
2. B
40. A
3. C
41. D
4. B
42. D
5. B
43. D
6. E
44. C
7. E
45. B
8. E
46. C
9. E
47. B
10. C
48. C
11. A
49. C
12. A
50. D
13. B
51. B
14. C
52. B
15. C
53. C
16. A
54. B
17. E
55. B
18. D
56. C
19. E
57. C
20. D
58. A
21. D
59. A
22. D
60. A
23. E
61. B
24. B
62. A
25. E
63. B
26. C
64. B
27. D
65. B
28. C
66. A
29. D
67. A
30. D
68. A
31. E
69. B
32. D
70. A
33. D
71. B
34. D
72. A
35. B
synapses: c. 6
d. 8
a. It is a gap junction
b. providing for cells electrical 7. What is the structure that is
coupling almost absent in the Gray Matter
c. Transmission of impulse is a. nerve cells
Direct and unidirectional b. myelinated nerve fibers
d. Less commonly present in the c. neuroglia
nervous system than chemical d. capillary bed
synapses
16. One of the similarities between 20. The lateral horn cell is found in :
The Septomarginal tract and The a. Cervical level
Comma-Shaped tract is b. Thoracic level
a. Site in the spinal cord c. Lumbar level
b. Function d. All of the above
c. Side of the body it controls
21. The only tract that is absent in
17. Gracile & Cuneate tracts carry the cervical segments of the
impulses of : spinal cord is:
a. proprioceptive sensations a. Septomarginal
b. crude touch b. Olivospinal
c. pain & temperature c. Cuneate
d. simple touch d. Lateral tecto-spinal
18. One of the Tracts carrying pain 22. The central canal of the spinal
impulses, which will not reach cord is posteriorly situated at :
the cerebral cortex but end in the a. Cervical level
b. Thoracic level
23. The deep grooves that can be d. It's found in the motor cortex
46. The most medial cerebellar 50. Which of the following nerve
nucleus is : nuclei appears in upper mid
a. Nucleus Dentate brain :
b. Nucleus Fastigii a. 3rd cranial nerve
c. Nucleus emboli b. 4th cranial nerve
d. Nucleus Globosus c. 6th cranial nerve
d. 7th cranial nerve
47. All of the following can be seen
in a section of the mid brain
except :
a. 4th ventricle
b. Cerebral aqueduct
c. Tectum
d. Cerebral peduncle
Answers: 31. D
32. B
33. C
1. A
34. C
2. A
35. C
3. C
36. A
4. B
37. A
5. A
38. A
6. D
39. B
7. B
40. D
8. D
41. C
9. D
42. B
10. B
43. C
11. B
44. A
12. C
45. A
13. C
46. B
14. D
47. A
15. D
48. C
16. B
49. A
17. A
50. A
18. D
19. A
20. B
21. A
22. D
23. A
24. B
25. A
26. C
27. B
28. D
29. C
30. A
senses:
5. All of the following openings
are found in the lateral wall of
1. All of the following are related the orbit except:
to the roof of the orbit except : a. Superior orbital fissure
a. Trochlea b. Ethmoid fissure
b. Optic nerve c. Zygomatotemporal canal
c. Infra orbital vessels d. Zygomatofacial canal
d. Lacrimal gland
Answers:
1. C
2. D
3. A
4. A
5. B
6. D
7. C
8. B
9. C
10. B
11. A
12. B
13. B
14. D
15. C
16. A
17. A
18. B
19. B
20. A
21. A
22. B
23. A
24. C
25. B
26. E
27. B
28. C
4. All of the following are true 7. All of the following are factors
concerning the corneal epithelium contributing into the corneal
except: transparency except:
a. The basal cell layer shows a. The absences of blood vessels
microvilli embedded into the b. The equal spacing between el
percorneal tear film collagen bundles
b. It contains plenty of free c. The collagen bundles are
nerve endings oriented at right angles to
c. Sensitive to pain and touch each other
25. the layer of the retina that has a 29. Cells that extend from the outer to
role in Participation in restoration the inner limiting membranes. It
of photosensitivity to visual has supportive, protective and
pigments is nutritive functions.
a. Retinal Pigmented epithelium a. Horizontal cells
b. Inner plexiform layer b. Muller cells
c. The outer plexiform layer c. Amacrine cells
d. The outer limiting membrane
30. few large cells with vesicular
nucleus and basophilic cytoplasm
and The retinal blood capillaries
are present between them
Answers: 32. A
33. A
1. C 34. A
2. C 35. B
3. C 36. C
4. A 37. A
5. A 38. B
6. B 39. A
7. D 40. A
8. D
9. D
10. D
11. C
12. B
13. B
14. C
15. B
16. B
17. D
18. A
19. B
20. D
21. B
22. D
23. B
24. A
25. A
26. D
27. C
28. B
29. B
30. A
31. B
b. 1.38 b. false
c. 1.4
d. 1.33 19. The center of corneal reflex is
located in :
a. midbrain
13. The refractive power of lens is b. pons
……..diopters: c. medulla oblongata
a. 20 d. none of the above
b. 40
c. 30 20. The effector of the corneal reflex is
d. none of the above :
a. orbicularis oculi
14. The total refractive power of the b. medial rectus
human eye during accommodation c. ciliary
is 60 diopters: d. all of the above
a. true
b. false 21. The aqueous humor controls the
intraocular volume and pressure:
15. Cornea and lens are the chief a. true
refractive media of the eye : b. false
a. true
b. false 22. The lens is vascular transparent
biconvex structure :
16. The most important part of the a. a.true
refractive power of the eye is : b. b.false
a. lens
b. cornea 23. Clear gelatinous material filling
c. aqueous humor the space between the posterior
d. all of the above surface of the lens and the retina :
a. vitreous humor
b. aqueous humor
17. The refractive index of the cornea
c. all of the above
is slightly different from that of the
d. none of the above
air:
a. true
b. false 24. Blurred vision is the stimulus for
accommodation reflex:
18. Protection is the main importance a. true
of corneal reflex: b. false
a. true
a. The photoreceptors
b. bipolar cells 30. All of the following occurs
b. all the retinal and opsins in 34. The scala vestibuli and the
rods and cones are converted media are separated from each
into light sensitive pigments other by the
c. Increase in retinal sensitivity to a. Reissner's membrane
light b. basilar membrane
d. the retinal is converted into c. tympanic membrane
vitamin A d. tectorial membrane
c. the rods and cons cann't 36. The primary auditory cortex:
perform their normal a. is called broca's area
functions b. receives information from both
d. occurs due to abnormal gene cochlea
on the X-chromosome c. show no regional localization of
the cochlea
32. Exposure to light activates d. can appreciate significance of
phosphodiestrase enzyme PDE the spoken words
that breaks cGMP into 5' GMP e. present in the parietal lobe in
a. True the floor of the central sulcus
b. False
37. About the intensity of sound all
of the following is true except:
33. Dark adaptation occurs four
a. measured in decibels
times as rapidly in rods as in
b. determined by amplitude of
cons
sound waves
a. True
c. perceived as loudness of sound
b. False
b. 10 squares cm
57. Cilia of olfactory receptors:
c. 5 squares cm
a. Myelinated with 0.1µm in
d. None of the above
diameter
d. 10-20 receptors
59. Olfactory cells can't regenerate:
a. True b. by drugs
b. False c. by conditions
b. olfactory mucosa
62. adenylate cyclase cause:
c. both A & B
a. adenylate cyclase
d. olfactory bulb
b. formation cAMP
c. G-protein ( Golf )
66. adaptation of olfactory system:
d. Na+/ Ca2+ channels
a. rapid and at CNS level
a. Olfaction
70. sweet taste caused by:
b. Gustation
a. ionized salts
c. Both A & B
b. acids
d. None of the above
c. long chain organic
substances contain
68. the common character of smell
alkaloids
& taste:
d. foods containing glutamate
a. provide information
regarding the external e. Ketones & Sugars & Glycols
environment & Alcohols
b. glossopharyngeal nerve (
CN IX )
Answers: 31. B
32. A
33. B
1. B
34. A
2. B
35. A
3. B
36. B
4. B
37. D
5. C
38. C
6. A
39. D
7. B
40. A
8. D
41. B
9. D
42. A
10. A
43. A
11. B
44. B
12. C
45. C
13. A
46. A
14. B
47. B
15. A
48. C
16. B
49. A
17. B
50. A
18. A
19. B 51. B
20. A
52. C
21. A
22. B 53. A
23. A
54. C
24. A
25. C 55. B
26. E
56. B
27. C
28. B 57. C
29. C
58. D
30. D
59. B
60. A
61. C
62. B
63. A
64. C
65. D
66. D
67. C
68. D
69. E
70. A
71. B
72. C
73. D
74. A
75. D
76. C
77. A
78. B
79. C
42. Primary use for alpha-2-selective 46. Receptor system most likely
adrenergic agonists: responsible for improved
a. to manage hypotensive states myocardial contractility when
b. to increase myocardial dopamine is administered at low
contractility concentrations:
c. to reduce blood pressure a. muscarinic cholinergic
d. A & B receptors
e. A,B & C b. alpha adrenergic receptors
c. beta adrenergic receptors
43. Major mechanism of d. dopamine receptors (D1)
antihypertensive effects e. leukotriene receptors
associated with alpha-2-selective
adrenergic agonists: 47. Clinical applications of beta-
a. competitive inhibition of adrenergic antagonists:
vascular alpha receptors a. management of coronary
b. reduced sympathetic outflow vascular disease
b. treatment of arrhythmias
44. Clinical uses for c. treatment of hypertension
sympathomimetic drugs: d. all the above
a. hypovolemic shock caused
by dehydration or blood loss 48. A non-selective beta-adrenergic
b. cardiogenic shock (pump receptor blocker:
failure) a. metoprolol (Lopressor)
a. Isoproterenol d. Mydriasis
b. Dobutamine
c. Metaproterenol 91. Epinephrine is used in the
d. Epinephrine treatment of all of the following
disorders EXCEPT:
87. Which of the following a. Bronchospasm
sympathomimetics is a beta2- b. Anaphylactic shock
selective agonist? c. Cardiac arrhythmias
a. Terbutaline d. Open-angle glaucoma
b. Xylometazoline
c. Isoproterenol 92. Compared with epinephrine,
d. Dobutamine norepinephrine produces all of
the following effects EXCEPT:
88. Indicate the indirect-acting a. Similar effects on beta1
sympathomimetic agent: receptors in the heart and
a. Epinephrine similar potency at an alfa
b. Phenylephrine receptor
c. Ephedrine b. Decrease the mean pressure
d. Isoproterenol below normal before
returning to the control value
89. Epinephrine produces all of the c. Significant tissue necrosis if
following effects EXCEPT: injected subcutaneously
a. Positive inotropic and d. Increase both diastolic and
chronotropic actions on the systolic blood pressure
heart (beta1 receptor)
b. Increase peripheral resistance 93. Norepinephrine produces:
(alfa receptor) a. Vasoconstriction
c. Predominance of alfa effects at b. Vasodilatation
low concentration c. Bronchodilation
d. Skeletal muscle blood vessel d. Decresed potassium
dilatation (beta2 receptor) concentration in the plasma
90. Epinephrine produces all of the 94. Which of the following direct-
following effects EXCEPT: acting drugs is a relatively pure
a. Decrease in oxygen alfa agonist, an effective
consumption mydriatic and decongestant and
b. Bronchodilation can be used to raise blood
c. Hyperglycemia pressure?
175. Which of the following drugs 180. Indicate the drug, which is
is both a muscarinic and nicotinic rapidly and fully distributed into
blocker? CNS and has a greater effect than
a) Atropine most other antimuscarinic
b) Benztropine agents?
c) Hexamethonium a) Atropine
d) Succinylcholine b) Scopolamine
c) Homatropine
176. Indicate a muscarinic d) Ipratropium
receptor-blocking drug:
a) Scopolamine 181. The effect of the drug on
b) Pipecuronium parasympathetic function
c) Trimethaphan declines rapidly in all organs
d) Pilocarpine EXCEPT:
a) Eye
177. Which of the following agents b) Heart
is a ganglion-blocking drug? c) Smooth muscle organs
a) Homatropine d) Glands
b) Hexamethonium
c) Rapacuronium
d) Edrophonium
191. Atropine is now rarely used 195. Atropine may cause a rise in
for the treatment of peptic ulcer body temperature (atropine
because of: fever):
a) Slow gastric empting and a) In adults
prolongation of the exposure b) In pregnant women
of the ulcer bed to acid c) In infants and children
b) Low efficiency and necessity d) All of the above
of large doses
c) Adverse effects 196. The pharmacologic actions of
d) All of the above scopolamine most closely
resemble those of:
192. Which of the following a) Hexamethonium
antimuscarinic drugs is a b) Atropine
selective M1 blocker? c) Succinylcholine
a) Atropine d) Pilocarpine
b) Scopolamine
c) Pirenzepine 197. Compared with atropine,
d) Homatropine scopolamine has all of the
following properties EXCEPT:
193. Atropine causes: a) More marked central effect
a) Spasmolitic activity b) Less potent in decreasing
b) Intestinal hypermotility bronchial, salivary and
c) Stimulation of contraction in sweat gland secretion
the gut c) More potent in producing
d) Stimulation of secretory mydriasis and cycloplegia
activity d) Lower effects on the heart,
bronchial muscle and
intestines
24. pKa range for most local 28. Clearance: amide local
anesthetics anesthetic
a. 6.0-7.0 a. rapid hydrolysis
b. 7.0-8.0 b. hepatic mediation
c. 8.0-9.0 c. significant renal excretion
d. > 9.0