.

A prepared cavity is best protected from moisture by:

Cotton rolls

 Saliva ejector

 Rubber dam*

Paper napkin

2. Retentive grooves in the proximal box of a class II amalgam cavity should be:

Sharp and elongated at the dentinoenamel junction

 Round and elongated in the dentin*

 Round and short in the dentin

 Sharp and elongated in the dentin

3. Incipient caries consists of opaque, chalky white areas that appear when the tooth
surface is dried, this is referred as :

 White spot*

Hot spot

 Translucent zone

 Body of lesion

4. Smear layer consists of:

Enamel debris

 Micro organismas

 Dentinal chips

 All of the above*

5. A butt joint is a :

 70 degree joint

 90 degree joint*

 120 degree joint

 180 degree joint

6. Enameloplasty is:

 is same as prophylactic odontomy

 filling of enamel fissures with amalgam

elimination of shallow enamel fissures*

 All of the above

7. The term "primary prevention" means all of the following except :

 Planning the patient's diet

 Prophylactic odontomy

 Topical application of fluoride

 Extending cavity preparation to prevent recurrence*

8. Cavities beginning in the proximal surfaces of bicuspids and molars are?

 Class I

Class II*

Class IV

 Class VI
9. "Saucering" out of small pits tom improve self cleansing property is called :

Saucerisation

 Odontomy

Enameloplasty*

None of the above

10. Deepening of the pulpal floor during cavity preparation provides for:

 Outline form

 Retention form

 Convenience form

Resistance form*

11. In which type of the lesion "eburnation" of the dentin is seen?

 Acute Caries

 Chronic caries

 Arrested caries*

 Root caries

12. Resistance form is that shape of the cavity which:

prevents displacement of the restoration

permits the restoration to withstand occlusal forces*

allows adequate instrumentation

allows the restoration to withstand occlusal forces and prevent displacement

13. Which of the following is the commonly recommended procedure for debridement?

 Citric acid

 Hydrogen peroxide 10%

 Air and water spray*

Hydrochloric acid

14. The axiopulpal depth of the proximal box in class II cavity is:

 0.2-0.8 mm into dentin*

 0.5-1 mm into dentin

 1 to 2 mm into dentin

2 to 3 mm into dentin

15. The base of class III preparation is:

Axial wall*

Facial wall

Gingival wall

Lingual wall

16. To avoid pulpal irritation below a resistant metallic restoration, the minimum dentin
thickness which should remain is:

 0.5 mm

 1.5 mm

 1.0 mm

2.0 mm*
 17. The most common cause of fracture at the isthmus of class II dental amalgam
restoration is ?

 Delayed expansion

Inadequete depth at the isthmus area*

 Inadequete width at the isthmus area

Moisture contamination of the amalgam during placement

18.While preparing occlusal cavity for amalgam in mandibular first premolar, the bur:
 is kept absolutely vertical
 is tilted slightly bucally
is tilted slightly lingually*
 can be kept in any direction

What is the estimated global prevalence of untreated dental caries?

You did not answer the question.
Correct answer:
b) 40%
Feedback:
It is estimated that approximately 40% of the world's population have untreated dental
caries. The overall global prevalence of dental caries is significantly higher if treated (filled
and extracted) caries are included.
Page reference: 510
Question 2

From the list of oral microorganisms, which is primarily responsible for the initiation of
dental caries?
You did not answer the question.
Correct answer:
a) Mutans streptococci
Feedback:
Mutans Streptococci initiate the dental caries process and other bacteria such as
lactobacilli become involved at a later state when the plaque pH is lower. P.gingivalis is a
bacterium that causes gingival inflammation. Bifidobacteria can metabolise dietary sugars
 to acids and contribute to dental caries, but these bacteria are not responsible for initiating
caries.
Page reference: 513
Question 3

Oral bacterial synthesise extracellular glucans (dextran and mutan) from which host
dietary component?
You did not answer the question.
Correct answer:
c) Sucrose
Feedback:
Plaque glucans are synthesised from dietary sucrose by glucosyltransferase
Page reference: 514
Question 4

The critical pH below which demineralisation of tooth enamel occurs is usually around:
You did not answer the question.
Correct answer:
c) 5.5
Feedback:
Enamel hydroxyapatite usually begins to dissolve around pH 5.5 which is referred to as the
critical pH.
Page reference: 515
Question 5

A deficiency of which vitamin has been associated with enamel defects and increased risk of
dental caries?
You did not answer the question.
Correct answer:
d) Vitamin D
Feedback:
Vitamin D: a deficiency is a risk factor for enamel hypoplasia and this increases risk of
caries. Although there are limitations with some studies a systematic review has suggested
that vitamin D supplementation may decrease risk of dental caries.
Page reference: 514
Question 6
 Which of the following foods do not contain free sugars
You did not answer the question.
Correct answer:
a) Cows' milk
Feedback:
Free sugars include all mono and disaccharides that have been added to foods by
manufacturer cook or consumer plus the sugars naturally present in honey, syrups, fruit
juices and fruit juice concentrates. The classification therefore excludes the sugars that are
naturally present in milk and milk products.
Page reference: 517
Question 7

The best available evidence for an association between amount of sugars and risk of dental
caries comes from which type of study design?
You did not answer the question.
Correct answer:
d) Cohort
Feedback:
In the absence of any randomised controlled trials investigating sugars and dental caries
the best available data come from cohort studies. Cross sectional observational studies
provide weaker data as they only measure sugars and caries at one point in time and do not
provide evidence on the association between sugars and development of dental caries over
time.
Page reference: 518
Question 8

The WHO made a strong recommendation that the maximum intake of free sugars by
individuals within populations should be
You did not answer the question.
Correct answer:
c) <10%
Feedback:
The WHO Guideline on Sugars intake by Adults and Children made a strong
recommendation that the intake of free sugars by individual with population should be no
more than 10% of energy intake. WHO made a conditional recommendation that the
intake of free sugars should be no more than 5% of energy intake. Strong
recommendations indicate that "the desirable effects of adherence to the recommendation
 outweigh the undesirable consequences and this means that the recommendation can be
adopted as policy in most situations. Conditional recommendations are made when there is
less certainty about the balance between the benefits and disadvantages of implementing a
recommendation and that more debate is required before adopting as policy.
Page reference: 519
Question 9

From the options listed, which type of carbohydrate cannot be metabolised by oral bacteria
You did not answer the question.
Correct answer:
c) starch
Feedback:
Cariogenic bacteria can utilise mono and disaccharides through anaerobic metabolism to
produce acids. Evidence shows S.mutans can also uptake malto-triose. However starch
cannot be metabolised by oral bacteria. Starch needs to be hydrolysed to sugars by salivary
amylase in order to be used as a substrate for cariogenic bacteria.
Page reference: 520
Question 10

The main mechanism by which fluoride protects against dental caries is?

You did not answer the question.
Correct answer:
a) An intra oral topical effect by which fluoride is incorporated into the enamel during
remineralisation
Feedback:
The main mechanism by which fluoride protects against decay is a life-long intra oral
topical effect where fluoride is incorporated into the enamel as it is remineralised
intraorally to form fluoroapatite. Fluoride also has a systemic effect and becomes
incorporated into the structure of the enamel whilst forming but this only occurs while the
teeth are developing - and so is not lifelong. Fluoride can also inhibit bacterial sugars
metabolism but again this is not the main mechanism of protection.
# Chemico-parasitic theory of dental caries is proposed by :

 A. G.V. Black

 B. Miller*

 C. Gottlieb
  D. Schwartz

# Which of the following organisms is found in deep carious lesions rather than in incipient
lesions ?

 A. Streptococci

 B. Lactobacilli*

 C. Veillonella

 D. Bacteroides

# Pioneer bacteria in dental caries are in:

 A. Enamel

 B. Dentin*

 C. Pulp

 D. Cementum

# The most pronounced effect on the oral microflora of a reduction in rate of salivary flow
is a :

 A. Significant increase in number of oral bacteria

 B. Shift towards more acidogenic microflora*

 C. Significant decrease in number of oral bacteria

 D. shift towards more aerobic microflora

# Ammonia causes:

 A. increase in plaque formation

 B. increase in calculus formation

 C. decrease in plaque formation*

  D. precipitation of salivary proteins

# Cavity formation in a tooth, due to dental caries is due to:

 A. Destructive potential of Streptococcus mutans

 B. Destructive potential of Lactobacillus acidophilus

 C. Lateral spread of caries along DEJ and weakening of the outer covering enamel*

 D. Mastectomy force and unrelated to the extent of carious process

# Animals maintained in a germ free environment did not develop caries fed on a high
carbohydrate diet is given by:

 A. Gottlieb

 B. Miller

 C. Snyder

 D. Orland and Fizgerald*

# Which of the following factors in the Stephan's curve is related to the caries incidence
and sugar intake ?

 A. Physical form of sugar

 B. Frequency of sugar intake

 C. pH of plaque*

 D. Quantity of sugar intake

# Initiation of caries by Streptococcus mutans is by the production of the :

 A. Dextranase and soluble dextran

 B. Insoluble dextran and glycosyl transferase*

  C. Soluble dextran and glycosyl transferase

 D. None of the above

# The attachment of Actinomyces species to the tooth surface is facilitated by:

 A. Fimbriae*

 B. Cilia

 C. Flagella

 D. Pseudopodia

# Caries associated with pre-eruptive enamel hypoplasia:

 A. Secondary caries

 B. Chronic caries

 C. Occult caries*

 D. Incipient caries

# Bacteria free zone of dentinal caries is :

 A. Zone of decomposed dentin

 B. Zone of bacterial invasion

 C. Zone of decalcification

 D. Zone of dentinal sclerosis*

# The legend of worms, endogenous theories, chemical theories and parasitic theory are
early theories explaining:

 A. Dental caries*

 B. Gingivitis
  C. Periodontitis

 D. Osteomylitis

# Streptococcus mutans is involved in dental caries initiation. Other bacteria also involved
is:

 A. S. sarcinus

 B. S. macae

 C. S. sanguis*

 D.S. salivarius

# The dietary carbohydrate most likely involved in etiology of dental caries is :

 A. Glucose

 B. Sucrose*

 C. Dextran

 D. Polysaccharide

# Bacteria responsible for initiation of caries is :

 A. Actinomyces

 B. Streptococcus mutans*

 C. Lactobacillus

 D. Streptococcus viridans

# What is the pH at which initiation of caries begins?

 A. 4.3-4.5

 B. 5.2-5.5*

 C. 4.9-5.1
  D. 3.5-4.5

# Oral foci of Miller's are seen in :

 A. Dental caries*

 B. Lichen planus

 C. Herpes simplex

 D. Syphilis

# In the earliest stages of carious lesion, there is loss of :

 A. Enamel cuticle

 B. Interprismatic substance*

 C. Organic matrix

 D. Enamel lamellae

# Smooth surface caries is characterized by spread of caries in enamel and dentin as cones.
These alignment in enamel and dentin is:

 A. Base to base

 B. Apex to base*

 C. Apex to apex

 D. None of the above

# Least cariogenic among these:

 A. Raw starch*

 B. Cooked starch

 C. Sucrose
  D. Fructose

# Which tooth in the permanent dentition is the most susceptible to dental caries ?

 A. Maxillary first premolar

 B. Maxillary second molar

 C. Mandibular first molar*

 D. Mandibular second molar

# Turbid dentin in carious tooth is all EXCEPT:

 A. Zone of bacterial invasion

 B. Zone which cannot be remineralised

 C. Zone in which collagen is irreversibly denatured

 D. Zone that need not be removed before restoration*

Terms in this set (25)

A risk factor is defined as "an environmental, behavioral or biologic factor

confirmed by temporal sequence, usually in longitudinal studies, which if
present, directly increases the probability of a disease occurring and if absent or
removed reduces its probability for establishing."

A: True
B: False

Each of the following have been described as topical mechanisms of action of

fluoride when it is present at either low or high concentrations in the mouth
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A: Forms CaF2
B. Incorporates into forming enamel
C. Concentrates in incipient
D. Has bacterial effects

Dental caries is an irreversible process that once started will ultimately lead to
the destruction of the tooth unless a placed to arrest the disease activity.

A. True
B. False

A 45-year old female patient has advanced cervical caries on most of her teeth.
When reviewing her diet diary certain parts of her diet are potentially cariogenic.
Which of the following is the most significant dietary factor responsible for high
caries activity?

A. She frequently has apple pie as a dessert with her meals.

B. She chews gum that contains sugar (2 pieces per day).
C. She drinks four cups of coffee containing two teaspoons of sugar with her
dinner.
D. She drinks one can can of soft drink containing sugar, which she sips while at
her work desk throughout the day.
E. All of the above are equally cariogenic dietary factors.

In the post-fluoride era of highly industrialized countries, the introduction of

fluoride has raised the threshold, so that caries has declined without major
changes in diet.

A. True
B. False

Which of the properties of sucrose is responsible for its unique role in promoting
dental caries compared to other sugars?

A. Highly soluble in oral fluids.

B. Freely diffusable in dental plaque.
C. Readily metabolized by plaque bacteria.
D. Serves in the formation of insoluble extracellular glucan.
E. All of the above

Chewing gum after a meal has been show to:

1. Increase salivary flow rate
2. raise the pH of dental plaque.
3. eliminate Streptococcus mutans from the mouth.
4. increase the rate of food clearance from the mouth.

A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1, 2, and 4
C. 2, 3, and 4
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Which of the following descriptions are correct?

1. Enamel can heal itself by a cellular repair mechanism.
2. Demineralization is loss of minerals (calcium, phosphate, etc.)
3. Frequent consumption of fermentable carbohydrates
4. Loss of salivary
5. Immediately after eruption (immature enamel)

A. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4
C. 1, 4 and 5
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Statement one: The normal pH of the oral cavity is approximately 7.0. Statement
two: Acids produced by bacteria to sugar cause the pH to drop below 5.5 rapidly
and gradually return to resting values (approximately pH 7.0) for approximately 30
to 60 minutes.

A. Both statements are correct.

B. The first statement is correct, the second statement is incorrect.
C. The statement incorrect, the second statement is correct.
D. Both statements are incorrect.

A
When you examine enamel using transmitted light microscopy, what will be the
order of appearance of specific 2 outermost to the innermost?

A. Surface layer --> Lesion body ---> Translucent zone --> Dark zone
B. Surface layer --> Lesion body --> Dark zone ---> Translucent zone.
C. Surface layer --> Translucent zone ---> Lesion body --> Dark zone.
D. Surface layer ---> Translucent zone ---> Dark zone ---> Lesion body

Caries risk assessment determines the probability of caries incidence (that is,
number of new lesions - cavitated or i______ in a certain period. It involves the
probability that there will be a change in the size or activity of lesions in the
mouth.

A. True
B. False

All patients should receive a through prophylaxis before receiving topical fluoride
applications.

A. True
B. False

Evidence-based current recommendations state that fluoride varnishes should be

used in all patients:

A. that are not exposed to fluoridated water.

B. determined to be at a moderate and high risk for caries.
C. after treatment is completed.
D. who drink well water.

Although salivary levels of fluoride peak at 5 minutes after a fluoride varnish

application, studies have shown that ambient levels of fluoride can be observed
up to 5 months days after application.
A. True
B. False

A caries lesion that, by definition, develops at the margin of a restoration is

referred to as a(n):

A. arrested lesion
B. active lesion
C. secondary lesion
D. residual lesion

Interproximal flossing studies suggested that regular and meticulous flossing:

A. only reduces.................
B. can reduce interproximal caries risk in young children with poor oral hygeine
and low F exposure.
C. has not effect........
D. Only reduces..........

Which of the following statement is true in relation to the importance of tooth

brushing?

A. The reduction of plaque thickness facilitate the diffusion of fluoride to the

enamel surface.
B. The reduction of plaque thickness does not a.......
C. Plaque removal is only effective if a fluori.....
D. Diffusion of fluoride to the enamel surface.......

An individual is considered at _________ risk for developing caries and/or having

caries progress over time, if conditions remain unchanged and presents upon
examination with new carious lesions that are active and has had restorations
placed due to active disease since his/her last dental assessment.

A. high
B. moderate
C. low
D. None of the above

Patient with no current active lesions, no restiorations due to caries place in the
last 3 years, in which other factors are negligible and has demonstrated no
evidence of active disease over several years, however patient reported dry
mouth verified with salivary tests over the last 3 months. In this patient, new
lesions may be likely to develop or existing lesions may likely to progress over
time. This patient would be at _____________ risk for developing caries lesions.

A. high
B. moderate
C. low
D. None of the above

Which of the following best describes the role of diet in dental caries now that we
are in the post-fluoride era:

A. ingested fluoride is incorporated into teeth.......

B. the incidence of caries has declined because.....
C. diet remains an important etiologic factor in dental caries. However, the
introduction of fluoride has raised the threshold when caries occurs.
D. improved nutrition over the past 30 years in...........
E. None of the above.

Which of the properties of sucrose is responsible for its unique role in prompting
dental carries compared to other sugars?

A. Highly soluble in oral fluids.......

B. Freely diffusible in dental plaque.....
C. Readily metabolized by plaque bacteria......
D. Serves in the formation of insoluble extracellular glucan
E. All of the above

D
Which of the following meal patterns would tend to suppress the plaque pH drop
that would normally follow eating a dessert containing readily fermentable
carbohydrates?

A. Eat a piece of aged cheddar cheese immediately after the dessert.

B. Eat a piece of fresh fruit such as a pear immediately after
C. Eat an apple immediately before the dessert.
D. Eat a baloney sandwich on rye immediately before the dessert.
E. All of the above.

Which of the following properties of food may be considered as possible

cariogenic factors?

A. Highly retentive food

B. Food containing easily fermentable carbohydrates.
C. Food which greatly stimulate salivary flow.
D. Answers A and B only
E. All of the above

Statement 1: Caries is a multifactorial disease

Statement 2: Caries is a statistic process that can't be modified by protective
factors.

A. Both Statements are correct.

B. Both statements are incorrect
C. The first statement is correct, the second statement is incorrect
D. The first statement is incorrect, the second statement is corrrect.

Dental caries is a dynamic process that in its early stages can be reversed or
arrested.

A. True
B. False

A.