D.S.

S AIIMS PREPRATION TEST SERIES

D.S.S AIIMS PREPRATION

378. A person had clean non-penetrating wound four hours

Organization (WHO) in such a patient is:
back. He had a complete course of toxoid eleven years
ago. What treatment is recommended?
(a) Stop antileprosy treatment
(a) No toxoid is required
(b) Continue PB-MDT till erythema subsides
(b) Toxoid one dose
(c) Biopsy the lesion to document activity
(c) Toxoid complete course
(d) Continue Dapsone alone for another 6 months
(d) Toxoid complete course+Human tetanus Ig
387. All of the following are the mode of transmission of
379. Indicators of the Elimination of NEONATAL TETNUS
leprosy except:
includes the following Except?
(a) Breast milk (b) Insect bite
(a) Incidence rate <0.1/1000 live births
(c) Transplacental spread
(b) > 90% coverage of 3 antenatal visits
(d) Droplet infection
(c) TT2 injection coverage in pregnant mothers > 90%
(d) None 388. In the management of leprosy, Lepromin test is not
use- ful for:
380. In Tetanus communicable period is:
(a) Diagnosis (b) Prognosis
(a) 7 days (b) 10 days
(c) Confirmation of classification
(c) 14 days (d) None
(d) Evaluation of cell mediated immunity
Com
389. All of the following statements about leprosy are true
LEPROSY m
except:
un
(a) Multibacillary leprosy is diagnosed when there are
381. False about Leprosy is: more than 5 skin patches ic
(a) It has been eliminated from India (b) New case detection rate is an indicator for incidence ab
(b) It can be transmitted through breast milk of leprosy le
(c) Lepromin Test is not a diagnostic test (c) A defaulter is defined as a patient who has not taken an
(d) MDT is contraindicated during pregnancy treatment for 6 months or more d
382. Leprosy can be transmitted through all except: (d) The target for elimination of leprosy is to reduce the N
prevalence to less than 1 per 10,000 population on
(a) Mother to child (b) Breast milk 390. All of the following are tests used to detect Cell medi- -
(c) Insect vectors (d) Tattooing needles ated immunity in Leprosy except: co
383. Leprosy is considered a public health problem if the (a) Lepromin Test m
prevalence of leprosy is more than: (b) Lymphocyte Transformation Test m
(c) Leucocyte Migration Inhibition Test un
(d) FLA-ABS Test ic
(a) 1 per 10,000 (b) 2 per 10,000
391. Erythema Nodosum Leprosum (ENL) occurs: ab
(c) 5 per 10,000 (d) 10 per 10,000
le
384. In the management of leprosy, Lepromin test is most (a) Due to Lepromin test reaction Di
useful for: ] (b) In those with tuberculoid leprosy se
(a) Herd Immunity (c) As a reaction to multi drug therapy as
(b) Prognosis (d) In those with lepromatous leprosy
(c) Treatment
(d) Epidemiological investigations 392. True about leprosy in India is/are:
(a) Prevalance decreased in Orissa
385. Which of the following statements about lepromin test (b) Prevalance is 3.7/thousand
is not true? (c) Vaccine is tried in Bihar
(a) It is negative in most children in first 6 months of (d) None
life
(b) It is a diagnostic test 393. True about leprosy in India:
(c) It is an important aid to classify type of leprosy (a) Prevalence decreasing in past decade
disease (b) Incidence highest in 1-5 yrs age group
(d) BCG vaccination may convert lepromin reaction (c) Highly pathogenic
from negative to positive (d) Highly communicable
386. A patient with leprosy had slightly erythematous, 394. True about epidemiology of leprosy:
anesthetic plaques on the trunk and upper limbs. He (a) If high prevalence of cases seen in childhood, it
was treated with paucibacillary multidrug therapy means disease is under control
(PB-MDT) for 6 moths. At the end of 6 months, he had (b) Lepra bacilli cannot survive outside human body
persistent erythema and induration in the plaque. The (c) Bacterial load is high in tuberculoid variety
next step of action recommended by the World Health (d) Insect can transmit the disease
(e) Relapse rate is indictor of efficacy of the drug 327
 Review of Preventive and Social Medicine

395. Which of the following about lepromin test is not true?

405. True regarding Leprosy
(a) It is negative in most children in first six months
(a) Clofazimine included in treatment regimen
(b) It is a diagnostic test
(b) Any positive smear 1+ is MBL
(c) It is an important aid to classify type of leprosy dis-
(c) Grenz zone in Lepromatous spectrum
ease
(d) All deformity cases are MBL
(d) BCG vaccination may convert lepra reaction from
negative to positive (e) MBL recommended treatment for 12 months
duration
396. Elimination of leprosy is defined as prevalence:
Review Questions
(a) < 1 per 1000 (b) < 1 per 10000
(c) < 1 per 100,000 (d) < 1 per 100
406. Mistuda reaction is read at:
397. Leprosy is not yet eradicated because: (a) 3rd day (b) 10th day
(c) 21th day (d) 45th day
(a) No effective vaccine
(b) Highly infectious but low pathogenicity 407. Leprosy commonly spreads by:
(c) Only humans are reservoir (a) Milk (b) Droplet
(c) Water (d) Mosquitoes
Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

(d) Long incubation period

398. As per WHO, leprosy is a public health problem if 408. In multibicillary leprosy, the follow up examination
prev- alence is more than: af- ter adequate Rx should be done yearly for:
(a) 3 years (b) 5 yrs
(a) 0.1% (b) 0.01% (c) 10 years (d) 2 years
(c) 0.5% (d) 1%
409. As per WHO, leprosy is a public health problem if
399. Prevalence of leprosy in India per 10,000 is? prev- alence is:
(a) 0. 1% (b) 0. 01%
(a) >1 (b) 0.88 (c) 0. 5% (d) 1%
(c) 0.71 (d) 0.69
410. Most common nerve involved in leprosy:
400. Generation time for leprosy bacillus is: (a) Ulnar N
(b) Common peroneal N
(a) 8–10 days (b) 10–12 days (c) Median N
(c) 12–15 days (d) 15–20 days (d) Radial N
401. Erythema nodosum is seen in treatment of which type 411. Treatment of leprosy a/c to WHO is done by all drugs,
of leprosy? except:
(a) Borderline leprosy (b) Lepromatous leprosy (a) Dapsone (b) Clofazimine
(c) Tuberculoid leprosy (d) None of the above (c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Rifampicin
402. “Multibacillary” is a spectrum of disease, seen in: 412. Which of the following is true statement about
leprosy:
(a) Leprosy (b) TB (a) Two plus (2+) indicates 2 different site
(c) Tetanus (d) Trachoma (b) 7 sites are needed
403. Ridley Jopling Leprosy classification is a type of: (c) Paucibacillary leprosy bacterial index is less than 2
(d) Various sites needed
(a) Clinical, bacteriological, Immunological, epidemio- 413. In paucibacillary leprosy the single drug dapsone is
logical classification continue for:
(b) Clinical, bacteriological, Immunological, therapeutic (a) 9 days (b) 90 days
classification (c) 180 days (d) 10 days
(c) Clinical, bacteriological, Immunological,
histological 414. Lepromin test is valuable for:
classification (a) Diagnosis of disease
(d) Operational classification (b) Prognosis of disease
(c) Repsonse to treatment
404. Lepromin test is used for all of the following except: (d) To test humoral immunity

(a) Classify the lesions of leprosy patients 415. In Leprosy 1+ bacterial index indicates:
(b) Determine the prognosis of disease
(a) <100 baciHi per high power field
(c) Assess the resistance of individuals to leprsoy
(b) No bacilli in 100 high power fields
(d) Diagnosis of leprosy
(c) 1 or less than one bacillus in each hpf
(d) Bacilli in all fields
328
 D.S.S AIIMS PREPRATION

416. Live attenuated yellow fever vaccine is: 425. World AIDS day is on:
(a) RA27/3 (a) 1st May (b) 31st October
(b) 17-D (c) 1st December (d) 29th May
(c) OKA Strain
426. The first country in the South East Asian Region (SEAR)
(d) HbsAg derived
to report AIDS was:
417. Only objective way of monitoring the benefits of (a) Sri Lanka (b) India
treatment of leprosy is: (c) Thailand (d) Bangladesh
(a) Lepromin test
427. The most common mode of HIV transmission in India
(b) Morphology index
is:
(c) Histamine test
(a) Blood transfusion
(d) Bacteriological index
(b) Mother to child transmission
418. Lepromin test is used for all the following Except: (c) Sexual transmission
(a) It determines the type of leprosy (d) Use of unsterile syringes and needles
(b) It confirms diagnosis of leprosy
428. The highest number of AIDS cases in India have oc-
(c) It monitors leprosy patients is treatment with
curred in the age group of:
chemotherapy
(a) 0-14 years (b) 15-29 years
(d) It evaluates host resistance to leprosy Com
(c) 30-44 years (d) Above 45 years
419. Which of the following types of leprosy by Indian m
429. WHO Stage IV HIV includes all except un
classification of Leprosy is not included in Madrid
(a) Toxoplasmosis ic
classification?
(b) Pneumocystis carinii
(a) Indeterminate leprosy ab
(c) HIV wasting syndrome
(b) Borderline type le
(c) Tuberculoid leprosy (d) Oral thrush
an
(d) Pure neuritic type 430. Major signs for AIDS case definition according to WHO d
are: N
420. In multi bacillary leprosy, bacterial index is more than:
(a) Generalised lymphadenopathy on
(a) 1
(b) Prolong fever more than 1 month -
(b) 2
(c) Prolong cough for > 1 month
(c) 5 co
(d) Chronic diarhoea > 1 month
(d) 10 m
(e) Weight loss > 10%
421. Which of the following measurements indicates m
whether leprosy cases are being detected early or not? 431. Regarding Epidemiology of HIV True is: un
(a) Mother to Child Transmission is 25% ic
(a) New case detection rate
(b) Seminal Secretion are highly Infectious than vaginal ab
(b) Proportion of children among new cases
Secretion
(c) Proportion of new cases with disability le
(c) Infectious in window Period
(d) Prevalence rate of disease Di
(d) Southern Africa have 72% of total global burden
422. Duration of MDT (Multidrug Therapy) to resolve (e) Children rarely affected
se
pauc- ibacillary leprosy is: as
432. Which of the following is used to prevent transmission
(a) 6 month (b) 8 month
of HIV from an infected pregnant mother to newborn
(c) 9 month (d) 12 month
child?
(a) Lamivudine (b) Nevirapine
HIV (c) Stavudine (d) Didanosine
433. Risk of mother to child HIV transmission in pregnant
423. The commonest mode of transmission of AIDS in
woman at the time of delivery, and after delivery in
India (in descending order) is:
non breast feeding woman is:
(a) Transplacental, homosexual, heterosexual
(a) 5-10%
(b) Homosexual, heterosexual, transplacental
(b) 10-15%
(c) Heterosexual, transplacental, homosexual
(c) 15-30%
(d) Heterosexual, homosexual, transplacental
(d) More than 50%
424. In which of the Indian states the maximum number of
434. HIV post exposure prophylaxis should be started with-
AIDS cases has been reported till now?
in:
(a) Delhi
(a) 24 hours
(b) Kerala
(b) 48 hours
(c) Tamil Nadu
(c) 72 hours (d) 6 hours 329
(d) Bihar
 435. Criteria included in AIDS Surveillance definition in-
(b) They consist of DNA dependent DNA polymerase
clude: activity
(a) Extrapulmonary TB (b) Cryptococcosis (c) They consist of three major genes-gag, pol and env-
(c) Candidiasis (d) Leptospirosis characteristic of all retroviruses
(e) Kaposi sarcoma (d) They are most complex of human retroviruses
436. HIV transmission Mother to child can be stopped by 445. From epidemiological point of view of AIDS, which of
all except: the following states in India is put in Group I (i.e. gen-
(a) Caesarean section eral epidemiological cases of HIV > 5% high risk and
(b) Vitamin A supplementation HIV > 1% ANC)?
(c) Stopping Breast feeding (a) Assam
(d) Zidovudine to mother antenatal and newborn after (b) Mizoram
delivery (c) Nagaland
437. MC subtype of HIV in India is: (d) Tripura
(a) HIV-A (b) HIV-B 446. Detailed plan titled “3 by 5” implemented by WHO in
(c) HIV-C (d) None of the above 2003 for AIDS means:
438. HIV sentinel surveillance is used to identify/ calculate: (a) Treating at least 3 to 5 AIDS infections
Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

(b) Controlling 3 chances of infectionout of known 5

(c) Providing treatment to 3 million sufferers by year
(a) High risk population
2005
(b) Prevalence of HIV
(d) All of the above
(c) Trend finding among populations
(d) All of the above 447. Window period for HIV infection is:
(a) 3-12 weeks
439. Antiretroviral prophylaxis decrease the chance of
(b) 8-20 weeks
transmission of HIV to fetus during pregnancy of HIV
(c) 6-24 weeks
to fetus during pregnancy by
(d) None
(a) 35%
(b) 45% 448. Most common mode of HIV transmission from mother
(c) 50% to child:
(d) 65% (a) 1st trimester
(b) 2nd transmission
440. HIV virus was discovered in the year (c) Perinatal
(a) 1981 (d) Breastfeeding
(b) 1983
(c) 1986
STIS (OTHER THAN HIV)
(d) 1996
449. Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by:
Review Questions (a) Haemophilus ducreyi
(b) Calymmotabacterium granulomatis
441. In a HIV infected child which vaccine should not be (c) Treponema pertenue
given: (d) Chlamydia trachomatis
(a) DPT (b) OPV
450. All the following are causative agents of sexually
(c) Hepatitis B (d) Typhoid vaccine
trans- mitted infections except:
442. About epidemiology of AIDS all are true except: (a) Candida
(a) In India it is mainly caused by HIV-1 (b) Group B streptococcus
(b) Maternofetal transmission is the most common (c) Hepatitis B
mode of transmission (d) Echinococcus
(c) I.V. drug abuse increases the risk
451. Which of the following is not a STD agent?
(d) Medical personnel are at higher risk of getting
(a) Ureaplasma urealyticum
infection with HIV
(b) Gp. B Streptococcus
443. First case of AIDS was reported in: (c) Candida albicans
(a) 1984 (b) 1986 (d) Chlamydia psittaci
(c) 1981 (d) 1988 452. Match the treponemal disease and their causative
agents:
444. All the following statements art true for the viral A.Pinta I-T. pertenue
genome in HIV, Except: B- Endemic Syphilis II-T. carateum
(a) They are diploid C-Yaws III-T. pallidum
330
 D.S.S AIIMS PREPRATION

(a) A-I, B-II, C-III`

462. Incubation period of chancroid is:
(b) A-II, B-I, C-III
(a) Less than 7 days
(c) A-II, B-III, C-I
(b) 10-15 days
(d) A-I, B-III, C-II
(c) 2-3 weeks
453. The syndromic management of urethral discharge (d) 3-4 weeks
includes treatment of
463. Incubation period of syphilis:
(a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and herpes genitalis
(a) 9-90 days (b) 9-18 days
(b) Chalamydia trachomatis and herpes genitalis
(c) 80-90 days (d) 10 days
(c) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis
(d) Syphilis and chancroid 464. Method of case detection in control of sexually trans-
mitted diseases in which person names the persons
454. In India, syndromic approach is used for management
moving in same socio-sexual environment?
of:
(a) Contact tracing
(a) Chancroid and Chancre
(b) High risk screening
(b) Chancroid and Herpes genitalis
(c) Selective screening
(c) Chancroid, Chancre and Herpes genitalis
(d) Cluster testing
(d) Chancre and Herpes genitalis
465. Contact tracing used in the detection of: Comm
455. True about incubation periods of STDs:
(a) STD
(a) Syphilis 10-90 days un
(b) Diabetes
(b) LGV 3-10 days ic
(c) Measles
(c) Donovanosis 3-20 days ab
(d) Cancer
(d) Chancroid 21-28 days le
(e) Gonorrhea 2-14 days an
MISCELLANEOUS (COMM. DISEASES)
456. A sexually active, long distance truck driver’s wife d
comes with vaginal discharge. Under Syndromic ap- N
466. All of the following are zoonoses except:
proach, which drug should be given? on
(a) Plague
-
(b) Japanese emcephalitis
(a) Metronidazole, Azithromycin, Fluconazole co
(c) HIV
(b) Metronidazole m
(d) Tuberculosis
(c) Azithromycin m
(d) Metronidazole and fluconazole 467. Which of the following statements about Yaws is not un
true? ic
457. Case detection in STDs is done by all except:
(a) Spread by sexual transmission
ab
(b) Caused by Treponema pertenue
(a) Screening (b) Contact tracing le
(c) Has cross immunity with Syphilis
(c) Cluster testing (d) Notification
(d) Cannot be differentiated serologically from
Di
458. Drug of choice for Scabies in Pregnancy is Trepone- ma pallidum se
(a) Ivermectin as
468. Dhamendra’s Index and Jopling’s classification deals es
(b) Crotaminton
with:
(c) Benzyl benzoate
(a) TB
(d) Permethrin
(b) Leprosy
(c) Syphilis
Review Questions (d) Polio
469. The following are characteristic features of staphylo-
459. Cluster testing is useful in detecting cases of:
coccal food poisoning, except:
(a) STD
(a) Optimum temperature for toxin formation is 37°C
(b) Cancer
(b) Intra-dietetic toxins are responsible for intestinal
(c) Diabetes symptoms
(d) Measles (c) Toxins can be destroyed by boiling for 30 minutes
460. Cluster testing technique is useful in: (d) Incubation period is 1-6 hours
(a) STD (b) Poliomyelitis 470. Cluster testing is useful in detecting cases of:
(c) Measles (d) Smallpox (a) Measles
461. Scabies is caused by: (b) Sexually transmitted infections
(a) Trichophyton (b) Dermatophyten (c) Unimmunized children
(d) Completely immunized children in the age group
(c) Mycobacterium (d) Sarcoptes scabei
12-23 months
331
 471. Iceberg phenomenon is not seen in:
(a) Tuberculosis
(a) AIDS
(b) Malaria
(b) TB
(c) SARS
(c) Poliomyelitis
(d) HIV/ AIDS
(d) Measles
481. Intermediate host for Taenia saginata is:
472. All of the following diseases can be transmitted
(a) Man
during the incubation period except:
(b) Cattle
(a) Measles
(c) Pig
(b) Tuberculosis
(d) Fish
(c) Hepatitis A
(d) Pertussis 482. A synthetic “cocktail” vaccine SPf66 has shown poten-
tial for the protection against:
473. In all of the following diseases chronic carriers are
(a) Dengue/ DHF
found except:
(b) Japanese encephalitis
(a) Measles
(c) Falciparum Malaria
(b) Typhoid
(d) Lymphatic filariasis
(c) Hepatitis B
Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

(d) Gonorrhea 483. All of the following are blood-borne infections except:
(a) Hepatitis B
474. Brucellosis can be transmitted by all of the following
(b) Hepatitis C
modes, except:
(c) Hepatitis E
(a) Contact with infected placenta
(d) Hepatitis G
(b) Ingestion of raw vegetables from infected farms
(c) Person to person transmission 484. WHO vaccination strategy of catch-up, keep-up and
(d) Inhalation of infected dust or aerosol follow-up has been designed for:
(a) Measles
475. Which one of the following arbo-viral diseases has not
(b) Chickenpox
been reported in India?
(c) Polio
(a) Japanese encephalitis
(d) Diphtheria
(b) Yellow fever
(c) Chikungunya fever 485. Carriers are important in all the following except:
(d) Kyasanur forest disease (a) Polio
(b) Typhoid
476. In which of these conditions is post exposure prophy-
(c) Measles
laxis NOT useful?
(d) Diphtheria
(a) Measles
(b) Rabies 486. Chandler’s index is based on:
(c) Pertussis (a) Hookworm eggs in soil
(d) Hepatitis B (b) Hookworm eggs per gram faeces
(c) Giardia cysts in soil
477. Chandler index measure:
(d) Ascaris larva in water
(a) Hookworm
(b) Transmission of disease 487. Man in the only host for:
(c) IMR (a) Trichuris trichura
(d) GNP of nation (b) Dracunculus medinensis
(c) Onchocerca volvolus
478. “Hundred day cough” is the name of:
(d) Wuchereria bancrofti
(a) Cough due to Bordetella pertussis
(b) Cough due to haemophylus influenza 488. Which of the following is not administered by
(c) Cough due to adenovirus intrader- mal route?
(d) Cough due to respiratory syncytial virus (a) BCG
(b) Insulin
479. Which one of the following diseases CANNOT be
(c) Mantoux
erad- icated:
(d) Drug sensitivity injection
(a) Leprosy
(b) Tuberculosis 489. Disease caused by arboviruses include:
(a) Yellow fever
(c) Measles
(b) Japanese encephalitis
(d) Pertussis
(c) Trench fever
480. ‘3 by 5 Initiative’ was launched in developing countries (d) Epidemic typhus
to combat: (e) Dengue

332
 D.S.S AIIMS PREPRATION

490. Cluster testing is the term used during:

(c) Influenza-B
(a) UIP Survey for polio
(d) Influenza-C
(b) Screening for STD’s
(c) Exposing the body for hypopigmented patches 500. Animal to man transmission seen in:
(d) Testing contacts of typhoid cases (a) Rabies
(b) Japanese encephalitis
491. Incubation period less than few hours:
(c) HIV
(a) Hepatitis – A
(d) Mumps
(b) Food poisoning
(e) Tetanus
(c) Influenza
(d) Rabies 501. Vector borne diseases are:
(a) Epidemic typhus
492. Arboviral disease are:
(b) Japanese encephalitis
(a) Yellow fever
(c) Tetanus
(b) Epidemic typhus
(d) Hanta virus disease
(c) Japanese encephalitis
(e) KFD
(d) Kalaazar
(e) HIV 502. Viruses documented to cause fetal damage:
(a) Hepatitis B
493. Zoonosis is/are:
(b) Varicella
(a) Anthrax
(c) Measles
(b) Brucellosis
(d) Parvovirus
(c) Leptospirosis
(d) Caga’s disease 503. Which of the following is not transmitted by lice? Com
(e) Tularaemia (a) Trench fever m
(b) Relapsing fever
494. Post exposure prophylaxis in health care professional un
(c) Q fever
is indicated in infections with: ic
(d) Epidemic typhus
(a) HBV (b) Rabies ab
(c) Diphtheria (d) Measles 504. False about Japanese Encephalitis is: le
(e) Tetanus (a) Pigs are amplifiers for flavirirus an
(b) Overhead tanks severe as breeding sites d
495. Epidemic caused by type A arbovirus in India is: (c) Transmitted by culex mosquitoes
(a) Chikungunya N
(d) Primary doses of vaccine consists of two doses
(b) KFD on
(c) Yellow Fever 505. Mass prophylaxis is given for all except: -
(d) Dengue (a) Lymphatic filariasis co
(b) Vitamin A deficiency m
496. Subacute sclerosing pan-encephalitis is associated (c) Scabies
with: m
(d) Worm infestation un
(a) Mumps (b) Measles
(c) Rubella (d) Typhoid 506. Modes of transmission of amoebiasis are all except: ic
(e) Diphtheria (a) Faecal-oral ab
(b) Oro-rectal le
497. Karatomalacia is seen in which of the following (c) Vertical transmission Di
diseas- es: (d) Through cockroaches se
(a) Measles
(b) Diarrhea 507. Arthropod borne disease not seen in India is: as
(c) Mumps (a) West Nile Fever
(d) Rubella (b) Dengue infection
(e) Chickenpox (c) Kyasanur Forest Disease
(d) Yellow Fever
498. Keratomalacia is seen which of the following
infection: 508. Carrier state is not important in transmission of:
(a) Chickenpox (a) Typhoid
(b) HIV (b) Poliomyelitis
(c) Diarrhea (c) Measles
(d) Measles (d) Diphtheria
(e) Tuberculosis 509. All are true about Yaws except:
499. Pandemics are caused by: (a) Caused by Treponema pertenue
(a) Hepatitis-B (b) Transmitted non-venerally
(c) Secondary Yaws can involve bones 333
(b) Influenza-A
(d) Later stages involve heart and nerves