NURS1004 Practice exam

To follow are some Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ’s) and diagrams for you
to label to assist in your preparation for the exam.

1. Anatomy is to ________ as physiology is to ________.

A) function; form
B) form; structure
C) structure; function
D) structure; form
E) growth; form

2. Which of the following is arranged in correct order from the most complex
to the simplest?
A) cellular, tissue, molecular, system, organ, organism
B) molecular, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism
C) tissue, cellular, molecular, organ, system, organism
D) organ, organism, molecular, cellular, tissue, system
E) organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, molecular

3. Which organ system provides support, protection of soft tissue, mineral

storage, and blood formation?
A) integumentary
B) muscular
C) skeletal
D) nervous
E) endocrine

4. Which organ system transports nutrients, metabolic wastes, gases, and

defense cells?
A) cardiovascular
B) digestive
C) muscular
D) respiratory
E) urinary

5. When body temperature rises, a center in the brain initiates physiological

changes to decrease the body temperature. This is an example of
A) negative feedback.
B) positive feedback.
C) nonhomeostatic regulation.
D) diagnostic regulation.
E) fever.

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6. A person who is standing facing forward with hands at the sides and palms
facing forward is in the
A) supine position.
B) prone position.
C) anatomical position.
D) frontal position.
E) sagittal position.

7. The wrist is ________ to the elbow.

A) proximal
B) distal
C) lateral
D) medial
E) horizontal

8. The diaphragm muscle separates the ________ from the ________.

A) pleural cavity; mediastinum
B) thoracic cavity; abdominopelvic cavity
C) pericardial cavity; pleural cavity
D) abdominal cavity; pelvic cavity
E) pericardial sac; pericardial cavity

9. The smallest stable units of matter are

A) atoms.
B) molecules.
C) protons.
D) neutrons.
E) electrons.

10. The atomic number represents the number of

A) electrons in an atom.
B) protons in an atom.
C) neutrons in an atom.
D) protons and neutrons in an atom.
E) chemical bonds the atom may form.

11. The molecule CO2 is known as

A) carbonized oxygen.
B) carbonated oxygen.
C) carbon monoxide.
D) carbon oxide.
E) carbon dioxide.

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12. The molecule O2 is known as
A) oxide.
B) oxygen.
C) organic.
D) oxate
E) a salt

13. In hydrolysis reactions, compounds react with

A) hydrogen, causing decomposition.
B) glucose, causing decomposition.
C) water, causing decomposition.
D) carbon, causing decomposition.
E) water, causing synthesis.

14. Which pH is closest to normal body pH?

A) pH 7
B) pH 8
C) pH 4
D) pH 3
E) pH 2

15. A(n) ________ removes hydrogen ions and a(n) ________ releases
hydrogen ions.
A) acid; base
B) base; acid
C) compound; element
D) element; compound
E) molecule; acid

16. If a substance has a pH that is greater than 7, it is

A) neutral.
B) acidic.
C) alkaline.
D) a buffer.
E) a salt.

17. Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are classified as

A) organic molecules.
B) inorganic molecules.
C) acids.
D) salts.
E) bases.

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18. A polysaccharide that is formed in liver and muscle cells to store
glucose is
A) lactose.
B) cellulose.
C) glycogen.
D) sucrose.
E) fructose.

19. The most abundant high-energy compound in cells is

A) DNA.
B) adenosine diphosphate.
C) adenosine monophosphate.
D) adenosine triphosphate.
E) RNA.

20. The tough "horny" superficial layer of the epidermis is known as the
A) stratum corneum.
B) stratum lucidum.
C) stratum germinativum.
D) stratum granulosum.
E) stratum spinosum.

21. The epidermis of the skin is composed of which type of tissue?

A) keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
B) simple squamous epithelium
C) transitional epithelium
D) areolar connective tissue
E) nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium

22. Cyanosis signifies that a patient

A) has had too much sun.
B) has been kept out of the sun.
C) has an allergic reaction.
D) has oxygen-starved skin.
E) has been exposed to cyanide.

23. Exposure to ultraviolet light (sunlight) causes the skin to darken by

increasing the production of
A) hemoglobin.
B) carotene.
C) collagen.
D) keratin.
E) melanin.

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24. When the arrector pili muscles contract,
A) "goose bumps" are formed.
B) hairs are shed.
C) sweat is released from sweat glands.
D) shivering occurs.
E) the skin changes color.

25. Which of the following are not components of the skeletal system?
A) tendons
B) bones
C) ligaments
D) cartilage
E) other tissues that connect bones

26. The humerus is an example of a(n) ________ bone.

A) long
B) short
C) flat
D) irregular
E) sesamoid

27. The large proximal projection on the femur is termed the

A) ramus.
B) trochanter.
C) tuberosity.
D) tubercle.
E) condyle.

28. Mary is 50 years old and has entered menopause. During a checkup, a
bone scan reveals the beginnings of osteoporosis. Her physician suggests
nutritional therapy. What might she recommend for her patient?
A) vitamin C
B) vitamin D
C) calcium supplements
D) dairy products
E) All of the answers are correct.

29. Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton?

A) provides an attachment for muscles that move the appendicular skeleton
B) provides an attachment for muscles that move the head, neck, and trunk
C) provides an attachment for muscles involved in respiration
D) provides protection for the brain and spinal cord
E) All of the answers are correct.

30. The four curves of the adult spinal column are not all present at birth.
Which of the following are the secondary curves, those that do not appear
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 until several months later?
A) cervical and lumbar
B) thoracic and lumbar
C) sacral and lumbar
D) thoracic and sacral
E) cervical and sacral

31. Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the

presence of
A) transverse processes.
B) transverse foramina.
C) facets for the articulation of ribs.
D) notched spinous processes.
E) costal cartilages.

32. Lumbar vertebrae are ________ massive and ________ mobile.

A) least; most
B) most; most
C) least; least
D) not; excessively
E) most; least

33. Which of the following is not an upper limb bone?

A) ulna
B) radius
C) humerus
D) metatarsals
E) carpals

34. A male has a ________ pelvic outlet when compared to the woman's
pelvic outlet.
A) larger
B) longer
C) smaller
D) wider
E) deeper

35. Which of the following is NOT a lower limb bone?

A) fibula
B) ulna
C) metatarsal
D) patella
E) femur

36. Joints can be classified structurally as

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A) bony.
B) fibrous.
C) cartilaginous.
D) synovial.
E) All of the answers are correct.

37. A synovial joint is an example of a(n)

A) synarthrosis.
B) amphiarthrosis.
C) diarthrosis.
D) symphysis.
E) syndesmosis

38. A freely movable joint is a(n)

A) synarthrosis.
B) diarthrosis.
C) amphiarthrosis.
D) syndesmosis.
E) symphysis.

39. Which of the following is NOT a function of synovial fluid?

A) shock absorption
B) increases osmotic pressure within joint
C) lubrication
D) provides nutrients
E) protects articular cartilages

40. Which of these is NOT a property of articular cartilage?

A) covered by perichondrium
B) lubricated by synovial fluid
C) enclosed by an articular capsule
D) similar to hyaline cartilage
E) smooth, low-friction surface

41. A movement away from the midline of the body is termed

A) inversion.
B) abduction.
C) adduction.
D) flexion.
E) extension.

42. To pinch with a thumb and finger involves a movement called

A) rotation.
B) opposition.
C) circumduction.
D) eversion.
E) retraction.

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43. Which of the following movements is a good example of flexion?
A) opening the mouth
B) turning the hand palm upward
C) extreme bending of the head backwards
D) moving the hand toward the shoulder
E) spreading the fingers

44. The movements known as dorsiflexion and plantar flexion involve

moving the
A) hand.
B) arm.
C) foot.
D) leg.
E) hip.

45. The elbow joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint.

A) saddle
B) gliding
C) condylar
D) hinge
E) pivot

46. An extension past the anatomical position is known as

A) double-jointed.
B) extension.
C) flexion.
D) rotation.
E) hyperextension.

47. Which of the following joints is an example of a ball-and-socket joint?

A) elbow
B) knee
C) ankle
D) wrist
E) shoulder

48. The joint that permits the greatest range of mobility of any joint in the
body is the ________ joint.
A) hip
B) shoulder
C) elbow
D) knee
E) wrist

49. Muscle tissue, one of the four basic tissue groups, consists chiefly of

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 cells that are highly specialized for
A) conduction.
B) contraction.
C) peristalsis.
D) cushioning.
E) secretion.

50. Which of the following is a recognized function of skeletal muscle?

A) produce movement
B) maintain posture
C) maintain body temperature
D) guard body entrances and exits
E) All of the answers are correct

51. The bundle of collagen fibers at the end of a skeletal muscle that
attaches the muscle to bone is called a(n)
A) fascicle.
B) tendon.
C) ligament.
D) epimysium.
E) myofibril.

52. Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are
responsible for
A) muscle fatigue.
B) the conduction of neural stimulation to the muscle fiber.
C) muscle contraction.
D) muscle relaxation.
E) the striped appearance of skeletal muscle.

53. Which of the following best describes the term sarcoplasmic reticulum?
A) protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle
B) repeating unit of striated myofibrils
C) storage and release site for calcium ions
D) thin filaments are anchored here
E) largely made of myosin molecules

54. The following is a list of the events that occur during a muscle

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 contraction.
1. Myosin cross-bridges bind to the actin.
2. The free myosin head splits ATP.
3. Calcium ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
4. The myosin head pivots toward the center of the sarcomere.
5. Calcium ion binds to troponin.
6. The myosin head binds an ATP molecule and detaches from the actin.
The correct sequence of these events is
A) 1, 3, 5, 4, 6, 2.
B) 5, 1, 4, 6, 2, 3.
C) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4, 6.
D) 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2.
E) 1, 4, 6, 2, 3, 5.

55. The contraction of a muscle exerts a pull on a bone because

A) muscles are attached to bones by ligaments.
B) muscles are attached to bones by bursae.
C) muscles are attached to bones by tendons.
D) muscle fibers directly attach to the periosteum of bone.
E) muscles elongate upon contraction.

56. The type of contraction in which the muscle fibers do not shorten is
called
A) tetany.
B) treppe.
C) concentric.
D) isotonic.
E) isometric.

57. The names of the muscles can indicate all of the following, EXCEPT
A) the angle of the muscle relative to the long axis of the body.
B) the action of the muscle.
C) the location of the muscle.
D) structural characteristics of the muscle.
E) collagen content of the muscle.

58. Muscles visible at the body surface are often called

A) internus.
B) extrinsic.
C) profundus.
D) intrinsic.
E) superficialis.

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59. The sternocleidomastoid inserts on the
A) occipital bone.
B) clavicle.
C) mastoid process.
D) sternum.
E) mandible.

60. Which of the following muscles compresses the abdomen?

A) diaphragm and intercostals
B) external oblique and latissimus dorsi
C) rectus abdominis and pectoralis major
D) transverse abdominis
E) external oblique, rectus abdominis, and transverse abdominis

61. Each of the following organs is a component of the digestive tract,

EXCEPT the
A) stomach.
B) pharynx.
C) esophagus.
D) bladder.
E) colon.

62. Digestion refers to the

A) progressive dehydration of indigestible residue.
B) mechanical breakdown of food.
C) chemical breakdown of food.
D) mechanical and chemical breakdown of food.
E) All of the answers are correct.

63. Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the

digestive tract are called
A) segmentation.
B) pendular movements.
C) peristalsis.
D) churning movements.
E) mastication.

64. A feature of the digestive tract wall that increases surface area
available for absorption is the
A) transitional cells.
B) villi.
C) elastic cells.
D) rugae.
E) peritoneum.

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65. What organ is primarily responsible for water absorption?
A) pancreas
B) esophagus
C) large intestine
D) stomach
E) anus

66. Parietal cells secrete

A) pepsinogen.
B) gastrin.
C) mucus.
D) hydrochloric acid.
E) enteropeptidase

67. Each of the following is a function of the liver, EXCEPT

A) synthesis and secretion of bile.
B) antibody production.
C) synthesis of plasma proteins.
D) inactivation of toxins.
E) storage of glycogen and iron reserves.

68. Bile is stored in the

A) liver.
B) duodenum.
C) pancreas.
D) gallbladder.
E) appendix.

69. An obstruction of the common bile duct often results in

A) undigested fat in the feces.
B) a decrease in production of pancreatic juice.
C) inability to digest protein.
D) cirrhosis of the liver.
E) hepatitis.

70. Hydrochloric acid from the stomach is neutralized in the small intestine
by:
A) water that was ingested with the food
B) sodium bicarbonate from the pancreas
C) trypsin
D) bile from the liver
E) enzymes from the intestinal crypts

71. Approximately the last 15 cm of the digestive tract is the

A) anus.
B) anal canal.
C) rectum.

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D) sigmoid colon.
E) rectal column.
72. Which of the following is a function of the blood?
A) transport of nutrients and wastes
B) transport of body heat
C) transport of gases
D) defense against toxins and pathogens
E) All of the answers are correct.

73. Formed elements make up about what percentage of blood?

A) 55 percent
B) 30 percent
C) 60 percent
D) 45 percent
E) 20 percent

74. Whole blood for testing in a clinical laboratory is usually collected from
A) the heart.
B) a superficial artery.
C) a superficial vein.
D) a capillary.
E) an arteriole.

75. Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood, EXCEPT a

A) temperature of approximately 38 degrees Celsius.
B) viscosity about the same as water.
C) pH of 7.4.
D) built-in system for clotting.
E) deep red color from hemoglobin.

76. Which of these is NOT one of the formed elements of blood?

A) RBCs
B) platelets
C) antibodies
D) lymphocytes
E) basophils

77. Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the

A) albumins.
B) fibrinogens.
C) immunoglobulins.
D) metalloproteins.
E) lipoproteins.

78. A plasma protein essential for blood coagulation is

A) albumin alpha.
B) fibrinogen.
C) immunoglobulin A.

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D) metalloprotein D.
E) lipoprotein C.
79. Mary is tested for the amount of hemoglobin in her blood. The test
results indicate that her hemoglobin level is 16 g/dL of blood. This value
indicates that
A) she is suffering from anemia.
B) she has fewer red blood cells than normal.
C) her hematocrit is probably lower than normal.
D) she may be suffering from a form of leukemia.
E) her hemoglobin level is normal.

80. The average life span of a red blood cell is

A) 24 hours.
B) 1 month.
C) 4 months.
D) about 1 year.
E) many years.

81. The function of red blood cells is to

A) carry oxygen from the cells to the lungs.
B) carry carbon dioxide from the lungs to the body's cells.
C) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body's cells.
D) defend the body against infectious organisms.
E) carry oxygen to the cells and then carry away carbon dioxide.

82. In adults, red bone marrow is located in the

A) sternum and ribs.
B) proximal epiphyses of long bones.
C) iliac crest.
D) body of vertebrae.
E) All of the answers are correct.

83. The yellow color that is visible in the eyes and skin in jaundice results
from
A) excessive amounts of bilirubin in the plasma.
B) extensive breakdown of RBCs.
C) destruction of hemoglobin.
D) the recycling of hemoglobin.
E) All of the answers are correct

84. A person's blood type is determined largely by the

A) size of the RBCs.
B) volume of the RBCs.
C) chemical character of the hemoglobin.
D) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane.
E) shape of the RBCs.

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85. Type AB blood has which of the following characteristics:
A) RBCs have the Rh positive antigens and the anti-D plasma antibodies.
B) RBCs have no surface antigens and both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in
the plasma.
C) RBCs have both the A & B surface antigens and no ABO plasma antibodies.
D) RBCs have the A and the B surface antigens and the plasma has anti-A
and anti-B antibodies.
E) RBCs have the A antigen and the plasma has the anti-B antibody.

86. The most numerous WBCs in a differential count of a healthy individual

are
A) neutrophils.
B) basophils.
C) lymphocytes.
D) monocytes.
E) leukocytes.

87. Which of these descriptions best matches the function of platelets?

A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium
B) helper cells are one type
C) produce antibodies in response to antigens
D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide
E) often elevated in allergic individuals

88. ________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of

fibrinogen to fibrin.
A) Vascular spasm
B) The platelet phase
C) Retraction
D) Coagulation
E) Fibrinolysis

89. The common pathway of coagulation begins with the

A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.
B) activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen.
C) release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium.
D) conversion of Factor X to prothrombinase.
E) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.

90. Which of the following descriptions matches the term near the left fifth
intercostal space?
A) pericardial cavity
B) visceral pericardium
C) apex of heart
D) aorta
E) right atrium

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91. Blood leaves the right ventricle by passing through the
A) aortic valve.
B) pulmonary valve.
C) mitral valve.
D) tricuspid valve.
E) bicuspid valve.

92. Blood returning to the heart from the systemic circuit first enters the
A) right atrium.
B) right ventricle.
C) left atrium.
D) left ventricle.
E) conus arteriosus.

93. In the middle of the thoracic cavity is a region occupied by the heart,
great vessels, thymus, esophagus, and trachea called the
A) pleural space.
B) pericardial space.
C) mediastinum.
D) cardiac notch.
E) ventral cavity.

94. The cusps (leaflets) of atrioventricular valves attach directly to

A) papillary muscles.
B) trabeculae carneae.
C) chordae tendineae.
D) interatrial septa.
E) coronary sulci.

95. When the left ventricle contracts, the distance from the apex to the
base
A) increases.
B) decreases.
C) remains unchanged.

96. Coronary veins empty into the

A) left atrium.
B) left ventricle.
C) right atrium.
D) right ventricle.
E) conus arteriosus.

97. The right pulmonary veins carry ________ blood to the ________ .
A) deoxygenated; left atrium
B) oxygenated; right lung
C) deoxygenated; superior vena cava
D) deoxygenated; right atrium
E) oxygenated; left atrium

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98. The following is a list of vessels and structures that are associated with
the heart.

1. right atrium
2. left atrium
3. right ventricle
4. left ventricle
5. venae cavae
6. aorta
7. pulmonary trunk
8. pulmonary veins

What is the correct order for the flow of blood entering from the systemic
circulation?
A) 1, 2, 7, 8, 3, 4, 6, 5
B) 1, 7, 3, 8, 2, 4, 6, 5
C) 5, 1, 3, 7, 8, 2, 4, 6
D) 5, 3, 1, 7, 8, 4, 2, 6
E) 5, 1, 3, 8, 7, 2, 4, 6

99. The normal pacemaker of the heart is located in

A) the Purkinje fibers.
B) the sinoatrial node.
C) the atrioventricular node.
D) the wall of the left ventricle.
E) both the left and right ventricles.

100. Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles would most change the
shape of the ________ in an ECG tracing.
A) P wave
B) QRS complex
C) T wave
D) P-R interval
E) R-T interval

101. If the connection between the SA node and AV node becomes blocked,
A) the ventricles will beat faster.
B) the ventricles will beat more slowly.
C) the ventricular beat will remain unchanged.
D) cardiac output will increase.
E) the atria will contract more forcefully.

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102. The following are structural components of the conducting system of
the heart.

1. Purkinje fibers
2. AV bundle
3. AV node
4. SA node
5. bundle branches

The sequence in which excitation would move through this system is

A) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5.
B) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1.
C) 3, 5, 4, 2, 1.
D) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1.
E) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1.

103. During the T wave of the electrocardiogram, the ventricles are

A) depolarizing.
B) repolarizing.
C) contracting.
D) relaxing.
E) both repolarizing and relaxing.

104. ________ is to slow heart rate as ________ is to fast heart rate.

A) Tachycardia; bradycardia
B) Bradycardia; cardiomyopathy
C) Bradycardia; tachycardia
D) Cardiac tamponade; bradycardia
E) Angina; infarction

105. The first heart sound (“lub”) is heard when the

A) AV valves open.
B) AV valves close.
C) semilunar valves close.
D) atria contract.
E) blood enters the aorta.

106. At a heart rate of 60 beats/minute, a cardiac cycle lasts

A) 60 seconds.
B) 60 milliseconds.
C) 1 second.
D) 370 milliseconds.
E) 630 milliseconds.

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107. With each ventricular systole,
A) blood pressure remains steady.
B) the ventricles fill with blood.
C) blood pressure decreases.
D) cardiac output decreases.
E) blood pressure increases.

108. Which of the following would increase heart rate?

A) increased sympathetic stimulation of SA node
B) decreased parasympathetic stimulation of nodal fibers
C) increased levels of epinephrine
D) faster depolarization of the pacemaker potential
E) All of the answers are correct.

109. The cardioacceleratory center activates sympathetic neurons and the

cardioinhibitory center controls parasympathetic neurons.
A) The first part of the statement is true but the second part is false.
B) The first part of the statement is false but the second part is true.
C) Both parts of the statement are true.
D) Both parts of the statement are false.
E) Both parts of the statement are true and relate to brainstem control of
heart rate.

110. Cardiac output is increased by

A) sympathetic stimulation.
B) increased end systolic volume.
C) decreased end diastolic volume.
D) decreased venous return.
E) inhibiting the atrial reflex.

111. The larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles all make up the
A) upper respiratory tract.
B) lower respiratory tract.
C) internal respiratory tract.
D) alveoli of the respiratory tract.
E) respiratory mucosa.

112. The respiratory defense system is important because it

A) helps filter the air.
B) helps warm the air.
C) keeps out debris.
D) keeps out pathogens.
E) All of the answers are correct.

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113. The ________ is shared by the respiratory and digestive systems.
A) pharynx
B) esophagus
C) trachea
D) windpipe
E) right mainstem bronchus

114. The glottis is

A) the soft tissue that hangs off the end of the soft palate.
B) a flap of elastic cartilage.
C) the opening to the larynx.
D) the opening to the pharynx.
E) part of the hard palate.

115. The elastic cartilage that covers the opening to the larynx during
swallowing is the
A) thyroid cartilage.
B) cricoid cartilage.
C) corniculate cartilage.
D) cuneiform cartilage.
E) epiglottis.

116. During swallowing, the

A) intrinsic laryngeal muscles contract.
B) extrinsic laryngeal muscles contract.
C) glottis closes.
D) epiglottis is depressed.
E) All of the answers are correct.

117. Which of the following statements about the trachea is false?

A) is lined by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
B) is reinforced with C-shaped cartilages
C) contains many mucous glands
D) alters its diameter in response to the autonomic nervous system
E) is reinforced with D-shaped cartilages

118. The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are
A) bronchioles.
B) terminal bronchioles.
C) pleural spaces.
D) alveoli.
E) interlobular septa.

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119. The process by which dissolved gases are exchanged between the blood
and interstitial fluids is
A) pulmonary ventilation.
B) external respiration.
C) internal respiration.
D) cellular respiration.
E) breathing.

120. When there is no air movement, the relationship between the

intrapulmonary and atmospheric pressure is that
A) they are equal.
B) intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric.
C) atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary.
D) atmospheric pressure is more than intrapulmonary.
E) intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric

121. Which direction does carbon dioxide move during internal respiration?
A) from the blood into the tissue cells
B) from the blood into the lungs
C) from the lungs into the atmosphere
D) from the tissue cells into the blood
E) from the lungs into the blood

122. If the volume of the lungs increases, what happens to the air pressure
inside the lungs?
A) decreases
B) increases and possibly damages the lungs
C) increases twice the amount of the increase in volume
D) remains constant
E) increases

123. The term ________ describes the result from an injury that permits air
to leak into the intrapleural space.
A) pleurisy
B) pneumonia
C) pneumothorax
D) pulmonary edema
E) emphysema

124. About 70% of carbon dioxide is transported in deoxygenated blood

A) as dissolved CO2 in the blood plasma.
B) as bicarbonate ions bound to hemoglobin in red blood cells.
C) combined with hemoglobin as carbaminohemoglobin.
D) as bicarbonate ions in the blood plasma.
E) as carbonic acid in the red blood cells.

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125. The MOST important chemical regulator of respiration is
A) oxygen.
B) carbon dioxide.
C) bicarbonate ion.
D) sodium ion.
E) hemoglobin.

126. A nurse has delegated to a student nurse to obtain vital signs for a
newly admitted client. The student reports the following: temperature =
37.4C, respirations = 26, pulse = 98 bpm, and blood pressure = 200/146.
To validate the data, the best action by the nurse is:
A) reassess the vital signs
B) call the physician
C) continue with the physical assessment as soon as possible
D) report the findings to the Clinical Nurse Consultant

127. A nurse is undertaking an initial nursing assessment of a client who has

been recently admitted to the ward. The purpose of this initial assessment
is to:
A) establish a baseline database
B) evaluate a previous database
C) complete the paperwork on time
D) monitor emergency problems

128. The nurse is taking information for the client's database. The client is
not very talkative, is pale, diaphoretic, and restless in the bed and tells the
nurse to just "leave me alone." Which of the following is subjective data?
A) Pale and diaphoretic.
B) Restlessness.
C) "Leave me alone."
D) Not talkative.

129. The nurse has just completed an admission interview with a new client.
Which response by the nurse is an example of a remark used during the
closing phase of the interview?
A) "Tell me more about how you feel."
B) "Could you give examples of what types of other treatments you've had?"
C) "I'm going to set up your physical assessment now. Do you have any
questions?"
D) "Is there anything you're worried about?"

130. A nurse has been assigned a new client who cannot speak English. In
order that the client receives accurate information, the nurse should:
A) conduct the interview using hand gestures
B) use the translation services supplied by the hospital

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C) have a member of the housekeeping staff who speaks the same language
translate
D) make sure a family member who does speak English is available

131. Developmental stage theories are relevant when providing nursing care
because:
A) they provide a baseline of predictable behaviours
B) they help the nurse develop professionally
C) they provide a baseline for developing health
D) they provide a theory of basic needs

132. Which of the following positions does the RN assist the client in to best
assess respiratory status?
A) Prone.
B) Supine.
C Semi-Fowler’s.
D) Side-lying.

133. In the palpatory method of blood pressure determination, instead of

listening for the blood flow sounds, light to moderate pressure is used over
the artery as the pressure in the cuff is released. When is the pressure
read from the sphygmomanometer?
A) When the cuff is applied.
B) When the cuff is being deflated.
C) When the second pulsation is felt.
D) When the first pulsation is felt

134. When assessing a client's peripheral pulse, the health care provider is
also assessing which of the following?
A) Depth.
B) Stress.
C) Rhythm.
D) Sound.

135. A nurse is conducting a physical examination of a client who has

abdominal pain. One of the methods of assessment the nurse will use to
determine pain with pressure is:
A) palpation
B) auscultation
C) inspection
D) percussion

136. The nurse is preparing a client for an abdominal examination. Which of

the following should be performed before the examination?
A) Ask client to drink 250 mL of water.
B) Assess vital signs.

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C) Assess heart rate.
D) Ask client to urinate.

137. The nurse is preparing to assess a client's reflexes. Which of the

following equipment should the nurse gather before entering the room?
A) Percussion hammer.
B) Penlight.
C) Clean gloves.
D) Sterile gloves.

138. The nurse is caring for a client with abdominal pain. Which of the
following assessments should the nurse perform to assess this complaint?
(Select all that apply.)
A) Inspect the abdomen.
B) Auscultate the abdomen.
C) Palpate the abdomen.
D) Assess vital signs.
E) Assess peripheral pulses.

139. The nurse is preparing to conduct an assessment of the heart. On which

of the following areas would the nurse place the stethoscope for
auscultation? (Select all that apply.)
A) Aortic.
B) Pulmonic.
C) Tricuspid.
D) Abdomen.
E) Mitral.

140. A nurse is working with a school-age client who is learning how to use a
peak flow metre to monitor his asthma. The child has been frustrated at
first, but now is able to give the reason to use the metre on a daily basis.
Remembering the growth and development characteristics of the
adolescent, which of the following is an appropriate response by the
nurse?
A) "You should feel very proud for understanding and using your metre."
B) "It's too bad if you don't want to use the metre, it's just something you'll
have to do."
C) "Think of using the metre as one of your daily chores."
D) "Maybe you could make a game out of the daily use of your metre."

141. A client is being seen in the mental health clinic for antisocial
behaviour. According to Erikson's stages of development, this client is
dealing with which task of development?
A) Identity versus role confusion.
B) Intimacy versus isolation.

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C) Industry versus inferiority.
D) Initiative versus guilt.

142. A community health nurse is planning adult health education classes.

According to Erikson's stages of development, the nurse must address
which task with this age group?
A) Generativity versus stagnation.
B) Identity versus inferiority.
C) Intimacy versus isolation.
D) Identity versus role confusion.

143. A 4-year-old was hospitalised for several days with an acute illness.
Though the child had control of bowel and bladder prior to hospitalisation,
now she has been wetting the bed at night and is having incontinent
accidents during the day. The nurse addresses the parents' concerns with
the following statement:
A) "Maybe your child should be seen by a specialist, just to make sure there
are no physical problems."
B) "I'd be upset too. It must be hard to go back to using nappies."
C) "It is normal for some children to go through a stage of regression after
separation from their family or after an acute illness. Try not to be too
discouraged."
D) "You'll have to be very strict with discipline, so your child knows this
behaviour is not acceptable."

144. The parents of a newborn ask the nurse about colic pain. The nurse
correctly responds with which of the following?
A) "I'll have the paediatrician speak to you about it."
B) "Newborns' pain experience is real. Swaddling will help."
C) "Newborns can't feel pain, so don't worry about it."
D) "Not all babies have colic and it only occurs after they are 6 months old"

145. A school nurse is working with teachers in helping them address the
developmental needs of primary school students, according to Erikson's
theory of industry versus inferiority. The nurse suggests which of the
following activities?
A) Helping them develop skills needed in the adult world, like budgeting with
pocket money.
B) Presenting diversity in culture and practices as part of classroom study.
C) Allowing "pretend" time during their classes, like dress-up or role-playing.
D) Providing time for running and playing sports, such as cricket, to increase
gross motor skills.

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146. A teenage girl spends most of her free time with friends or at school.
Sharing their concerns about this behaviour with the school nurse, the
parents are worried about their child seeming to draw away from them.
The nurse's best reply is:
A)"You should really keep better track of your child. It's hard to tell what
kinds of trouble they may be getting into."
B) "Use stricter guidelines for curfew and punishment if curfew is broken."
C) "Is it possible that your child might be taking drugs?"
D) "Independence is really important for this age group. Try to be extra
attentive when your child does spend time at home."

147. A school nurse is bringing a group of students to a nursing home for a

social exchange project. Before the students arrive, the nurse reminds
them to do which of the following when speaking to the residents?
A) Speak into the residents' ears
B) Speak as loud as they can.
C) Write out what they want to say on a piece of paper.
D) Speak distinctly, while facing the residents

148. A school health nurse is working on education programs for high school
students. As part of the plan, the nurse wants to address health concerns
of this age group, but focus on other topics besides the dangers of
unprotected sex, or drug and alcohol abuse. Which class topic would be
appropriate to present?
A) Early signs of cancer and heart disease.
B) Warning signs of depression for peers to identify among their classmates.
C) Normal physiological changes of this age group.
D) Injury prevention.

149. A nurse is working with a group of middle-aged adults and has decided
to set up an educational session regarding the psychosocial development
of this age group. According to Erikson's theory, what activity would best
meet the needs of this stage?
A) Providing opportunity to mentor school-age children.
B) Assisting the group members to look at their life accomplishments.
C) Helping the members of this group find appropriate civic responsibility.
D) Giving the group handouts regarding peer socialisation.

150. A nurse is working with clients in an assisted living facility. In the past
month, there have been several deaths of some partners of the residents,
and some single members of the facility. In helping the remaining
residents deal with these deaths, the nurse understands that adjustment
may be easier for which of the following residents who just lost their
partner?
A) A resident who was not inclined to participate in any activities offered at
the facility.
B) A resident who had a wide circle of friends, besides her spouse.

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C) A resident who spent most of her days attending to her partner who is
now deceased.
D) A resident who started to become more dependent on the nursing staff at
the facility.

This is the end of the Multiple Choice Questions.

Move now to the second part of the paper and label the diagrams

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Please note in the exam there will only 5 diagrams and you
will be provided with the labels. As this is a revision
practice exam you will be required to search out the terms
from your texts.

Label the following diagram

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Label the following diagram

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Label the diagram below.

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Label the skeletal bones

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Label the diagram below

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Label the superficial muscles below

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Label the diagram below

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Label the diagram below

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Label the diagram below

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Label the diagram below

This is the end of the Practice Exam.

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