Finding the derivative of

y=a x

a x+h −a x a x a h−a x a x ( a h−1 ) x a h−1

lim =lim =lim =a ∙ lim
h→ 0 h h →0 h h →0 h h→ 0 h

A constant is found by evaluating the following limit

ah−1
c=lim
h →0 h

For simplicity, let h be an infinitely small number

a h−1
c=
h

We can observe that the constant c in the derivative is obtained by evaluating this limit. Apparently, by plugging very
small values of h, like h = 0.0001 and h = 0.0000001, and some number for a, like a = 5, we can see that c is a function of
a h−1
a, and you can check it for yourself. c is a function of a by evaluating lim .
h→ 0 h

a=5 , h=0.0001

50.0001 −1
c= =1.609567434
0.0001

a=5 , h=0.0000001

50.0000001−1
c= =1.609438000
0.0000001

Manipulating the equation of c above,

a h−1
c=
h

ch=a h−1

a h=1+ch

We get an equation containing an expression similar to a x which is an equation of a h. Their only difference is in a x , x is a
finite number, while in a h, h is an infinitely small number (or in terms of the limit in the original equation, a number that
approaches 0)

Transforming,

a h=1+ch
 x x
h h h
(a ) =(1+ch)
x
x h
a =(1+ ch)

x
If x is a finite number while h is an infinitely small number, then is an infinitely big number.
h

For simplicity, declare

x
b=
h

Now, we have
x
a x =(1+ ch) h =(1+ ch)b

x x
But sinceb= , then h= so
h b
x b
cx
a x =(1+ ch) h = 1+ ( b )

The binomial theorem says,

n
( x + y ) =∑ n x k y n−k
n

k=0 k
()
n! n ( n−1 ) ( n−2 ) … ( n−( k −2 ) )( n−( k−1 ) ) ( n−k ) … ( 3 ) (2 )( 1) n ( n−1 ) ( n−2 ) … ( n−( k −2 ) ) ( n−( k−1 ) ) ( n−k )
(nk)= k ! (n−k )! = k ! ( n−k ) !
=
k ! ( n−k ) !

Now we can express the binomial theorem as the following,

n k
n n ( n−1 )( n−2 ) … ( n− ( k−2 ) ) ( n−( k −1 ) )
( x + y ) =∑ x y n−k
k=0 k!

cx b
(
In 1+
b )
, we can use

n k n k
n ( n−1 )( n−2 ) … ( n−( k−2 ) ) ( n−( k −1 ) ) n ( n−1 ) ( n−2 ) … ( n−( k −2 ) ) ( n−( k−1 ))
( x +1 )n=∑ x 1n −k =¿ ∑ x ¿
k=0 k! k=0 k!
 b k
cx b b ( b−1 ) ( b−2 ) … ( b−( k −2 ) ) ( b−( k−1 ) ) cx
x
a = 1+
b ( =∑
k=0
) k! b ( )
Since b is an infinitely huge number, we have this infinite series

cx b b cx 0 b cx 1 b(b−1) cx 2 b ( b−1 ) (b−2) cx 3 b ( b−1 )( b−2 ) (b−3) cx 4

( 1+
b ) =
0! b
+( ) ( )
1! b
+
2! b
+
3! b
+ ( ) 4! b
+… ( ) ( )
b cx 0 n = n!
So that we can cancel out the
0! b ( ) ()
, we will use only for this term the equation
k k ! (n−k )!

cx b b! cx 0 b cx 1 b(b−1) cx 2 b ( b−1 ) (b−2) cx 3

( 1+
b ) =
0 ! ( b−0 ) ! b
+ ( ) ( )
1! b
+
2! b
+
3! b ( )
+… ( )
b! cx 0 b !
( )
0 ! ( b−0 ) ! b
= =1
b!

cx b b cx b ( b−1 ) c2 x 2 b ( b−1 )( b−2 ) c 3 x 3

x
a = 1+ ( b ) =1+
1! b
+
2! b2
+
3! b3
+…

Swapping the denominators,

cx b b cx b ( b−1 ) c 2 x 2 b ( b−1 ) ( b−2 ) c 3 x3

x
a = 1+ ( b ) =1+
b 1!
+
b2 2!
+
b3 3!
+…

cx b cx ( b−1 ) c 2 x 2 ( b−1 )( b−2 ) c 3 x 3

x
(
a = 1+
b )
=1+ +
1! b 2!
+
b2 3!
+…

b−m
We can observe that the term appears in the infinite series, where b is an infinitely large number and m is a
b
definite number. So it means that,

b−m infinitelyLarge−finiteNumber infinitelyLarge

= = =1
b infinitelyLarge infinitelyLarge

x cx c 2 x 2 c 3 x3 c 4 x 4
a =1+ + + + +…
1! 2! 3! 4!

Letting x = c = 1,

1 1 1 1
a=1+ + + + +…=e ≈ 2.718281828
1 ! 2! 3 ! 4 !

Modified from Leonhard Euler’s Introductio in Analysin Infinitorum, Vol. 1, Ch. 7, p. 184