EE All State AE JE MCQs

Environmental Engineering
SR. N0. CHAPTER NAME Number of CQs Page No.
1. WATER DEMAND, IT’S SOURCES AND CONVEYANCE 48

2. WATER QUALITY PARAMETERS 50
3. WATER TREATMENT 87
4. DISTRIBUTION SYSTEM 29
5. DESIGN OF SEWERAGE SYSTEM AND SEWER 66
APPURTENANCES
6. WASTE WATER CHARACTERISTICS 27
7. BIOLOGICAL REACTIONS IN TREATMENT OF WASTE 4
WATER
8. SEWAGE TREATMENT 73
9. DISPOSAL OF SEWAGE EFFLUENT 14
10. SOLID WASTE MANAGEMENT 11
11. AIR POLLUTION 45
12. NOISE POLLUTION 14
13. MISCELLANEOUS 47
TOTAL 515
[U.K. Combined AE Paper II 2012]

CH 01 WATER DEMAND ITS (a) Arithmetic mean Method
SOURCE AND CONVEYANCE (b) Comparative Method
(c) Graphical Method
1. Forecast of population for water (d) All the above
supply is done using.
Engineer’s PrideBy- IITian & I.E.S./Indian Railways - B CHAND SIR | Classroom/Office Address-C-225, Ganesh Marg, C-Block,
Mahesh Nagar (200 Meter from Riddhi Siddhi Tiraha), Gopal Pura Mode (between Gandhi Nagar Railway Station and Durga Pura Railway
Station), Jaipur, Rajasthan, 9660807149, 7014320833, 8078607812
P a g e 1 | 116
Sol.(d) Method of forecasting of  National board of fire under
population for water supply. writers formula.
 Arithmetic increase method
 Geometric increase method
 Incremental increase method or
NOTE: (As with the above formulas) the
Method of varying increment
fire demand ‘Q’ obtained is in liters/min
 Decreasing Rate of growth method
 Simple graphical method
 Comparative graphical method 3. For water supply to a medium
 Zoning method or Master plan town, what is the daily variation
method factor?
 The logistic curve method [UPPCL JE 2015]
(a) 2.5 (b) 1.5
2. Which of the following empirical (c) 3 (d) 3.5
formula is NOT used for Sol.(b) For water supply to a
determining the rate of fire medium town, the daily variation
demand? factor in taken as 1.5.
[MP Sub Engineer 2017 2nd
Meeting] 4. The maximum daily demand when
(a) Freeman’s Formula added to fire draft for working out
(b) Buston’s Formula total draft is known as ___.
(c) Kuichling’s Formula [MP VYAPM Sub Engineer 2017]
(d) Godrich’s Formula (a) Maximum monthly demand
Sol.(d) Empirical formulas for (b) Maximum weekly draft
determining the rate of fire demand. (c) Daily draft
 Kuichling’s formula (d) Coincident draft
Sol.(d) Coincident draft = maximum
daily demand (i.e. 1.8 × average
daily demand) + Fire demand.
 Freeman’s formula
5. Fire demand of water according to

Kuichling’s formula, in liters /
 Buston’s formula minute, i given by (where P is
population in thousands)
[UP Jal Nigam JE 2013, Uttarakhand
JE 2015]
P a g e 2 | 116
3182 7. In last three decades, the
Q
(a) Q  3182P (b) P population of a city was recorded as
3182 20000, 30000 and 40000. What will
Q
(c) Q  3182 P (d) P be the population for which a water
supply system should be designed,
Sol.(c) Kuichling’s formula Fire
if it should be adequate for next
demand
two decades?
Q(liters / min ute)  3182 p
[UP RVNL AE 2016]
Where,
P= population in thousands (a) 10000 (b) 35000
(c) 60000 (d) 75000
6. A water supply scheme is to be Sol.(c)Using Arithmetic Increase
designed for an area with over 90 % Method
population as lower income group.
What should be the water demand Decades Population Increase in
(liter per day) considered in population(x)
st
designing such system? I 20,000
10,000
[UP RVNL AE 2016] st
II
(a) 100 (b) 135 30,000
(c) 150 (d) 200 10,000
III st
40,000
Sol.(b) As per IS: 1172-1993, the
minimum domestic consumption for Total = 20,000
a town or a city,
With full flushing system ¿ 200 lpcd Average Increase per decades  x
For economically weaker sections 20, 000
and lower income group (LIG)  x   10, 000
2
¿ 135 lpcd
Population after two decades
P5th  P3rd  nx
P5th  40, 000  2  10, 000
 60, 000
8. As per Indian Standard

Specifications, the peak discharge
for domestic purposed per capita
per minute, is taken
[UP RVNL AE 2016]
P a g e 3 | 116
(a) 1.80 liters for 5 to 10 users
(b) 1.20 liters for 15 users 10. Census records indicate the current
(c) 1.35 liters for 20 users population of a city as 60000,
population 10 years ago as 55000,
(d) All option are correct
population 30 years ago as 45000.
Sol.(d) As per IS code, peak What would be the probable
discharge for domestic purposed per population after two decades (20
capita per min years), when calculated using
 For 5 to 10 users – 1.80 litres. arithmetical increase method?
For 15 users – 1.20 litres.
[LMRC AE 2017 I - Shift]
For 20 users – 1.35 litres.
(a) 65000 (b) 62500
(c) 70000 (d) 75000
9. Which of the following will least
affect the per capita demand of Sol.(c)Using arithmetic increase
water in a city? method.
[UPPCL JE 2016]
Year Population Increase in
(a) Size of the city population
(b) Type of population ( x)
(c) Climatic conditions 1990 45,000
10,000
(d) Festival celebrated
2010 55,000
Sol.(d) Factors affecting per capita
demand (major factors). 5,000
Current 60,000
 Size of the city.
year
 Climatic conditions. 2020
 Types of gentry and habits of Total =15,000
people (population).
Average increase per decade,
 Industrial and commercial
15, 000
activities. x  5, 000
3
 Quality of water supplies.
Population after 2 decade,
 Pressure in the distribution
P2040  P2020  2  x
system.
 Development of sewerage P2040  60, 000  2  5, 000
facilities.  70, 000
 System of supply.
 Cost of water. 11. The population growth curve is
 Policy of metering and method of
[HP SSCJE 2015]
charging.
(a) Circular curve
P a g e 4 | 116
(b) Parabolic curve  The logistic curve method
(c) S - Shaped Curve
(d) Straight line 13. Which of the following factors
Sol.(c)The ideal population grown affects the per capita demand of
curve is S-shaped and also known as water?
logistic curve. A. Climatic conditions of the region
B. Industrial / commercial activities
of the region
C. Population
[DFCCIL, 17-04-2016]
(a) A, B and C (b) Only C
(c) Only A (d) A and C
Sol.(a) The following factors affects
the per capita demand of water
 Size of the city
 Climatic conditions
12. Which of the following is NOT a  Types of gentry and habits of
method for forecasting populations people (population)
used for estimating the water  Industrial and commercial
requirement of a town? activities
[NPCC JE 21 Jan 2017]  Quality of water supplies
(a) Zoning method  Pressure in the distribution system
(b) Arithmetical increase method  Development of sewerage facilities
 System of supply
(c) Geometrical increase method
 Cost of water
(d) Prismoidal method
 Policy of metering and method of
Sol.(d) Methods for forecasting of charging
populations
 Arithmetic increase method
14. If P is the population (in thousands)
 Geometric increase method
of a city exceeding 50000, what will
 Incremental increase method or
be the water requirement (in Kilo
Method of varying increment
liters)?
 Decreasing Rate of growth method
 Simple graphical method [UPPCL JE 2016]
 Comparative graphical method (a) 100P2 (b) 100 P
 Zoning method or Master plan
(c) 75 P (d) P 100
method
P a g e 5 | 116
Sol.(b) For cities having populations
exceeding 50,000, the water 17. A town water supply scheme is
required (in kilo litres) commonly designed for a
Q  100 P population
Where P is population in thousands. [U.K. Combined AE Paper II 2012]
(a) At present year
15. The per capita water consumption (b) After one decade
for hospital is - (c) After two decades
[Airport Authority of India JE 2015] (d) After three decades
(a) 340 to 450 lpcd (b) 500 to 600 Sol.(d) For a town water supply
lpcd projects, under normal
(c) 650 to 750 plcd (d) 1000 to circumstances, may be designed for
1250 pcd a design period of 30 years (3
Sol.(a) decades).
Hospitals(includi Per capita water
ng laundry) consumption 18. For basic requirements of water
Number of beds 340 (per bed) supply. drainage and sanitation, as
not exceeding per the IS code, what is the
100 domestic water demand in Indian
Number of beds 450 (per bed) cities and towns?
exceeding 100
[UPPCL JE 2016]
(a) 135 liters per head / day
16. The peak demand of water in Indian
(b) 200 liters per head / day
Condition is
(c) 240 liters per head / day
[U.K. Combined AE Paper II 2012]
(d) 340 liters per head / day
(a) 2.5 to 3.0 times the average
Sol.(b) As per IS 1172 – 1993, the
(b) 1.25 to 1.50 times the average
minimum domestic consumption for
(c) 0.75 to 1.20 times the average a town or a city with full flushing
(d) 0.45 to 0.70 times the average system should be taken at 200 litres
Sol.(a) The GOI Manual on water per head / day.
supply has recommended the
following values of the peak factor.
Population Peak factor
Up to 50,000 3.0
50,000 –2,00,000 2.5
Above 2 lakh 2.0
P a g e 6 | 116
 National board of fire under
writers formula
21. For cast iron pipes of all sizes the

19. The daily per capita consumption of
joint used is mainly.
water apparently increases with:
[UPRVUNL JE 2015]
(a) Higher standard of living of
people (a) Bandage joint
(b) Availability of sewerage in the (b) Spigot and socket joint
city (c) Collar joint
(c) Metered water supply (d) Flush joint
(d) Wholesome and potable quality Sol.(b) Spigot and socket joint/Bell
of water and spigot joint - Mostly used for
Chose the correct answer below. mains and submains of cast iron or
steel pipes.
[UPPCL JE 2015]
(a) A, B and D (b) B, C and D
(c) A, C and D (d) A, B and C
Sol.(a) The daily per capita
consumption of water increases with
 Higher standard of living of people
 Availability of sewerage in the city Collar joint - This type of joint is
 Wholesome and potable water mostly used for joining big diameter
and decrease with metered water concrete and asbestos cement
supply. pipes.
20. The fire demand of a city may be
worked out by:
[UPPCL JE 2015]
(a). Kuichling’s formula
(b). Freeman formula
(c). Under Writers formula Flanged joint - Flanged joints are
made by bolting together
(d). All of the above
two flanges with a gasket between
Sol.(d) Empirical formulas for
them to provide a seal.
determining the rate of fire demand
 Kuichling’s formula
 Freeman’s formula
 Buston’s formula
P a g e 7 | 116
24. The value of peak factor considered
in the estimation of water demand
for the population of 1,00,000 is -
22. The average water consumption for [RRB JE (Shift - 1), 27.08.2015]
government offices ranges from (a) 2.25 (b) 2.50
[RRB JE (Shift - 1), 28.08.2015] (c) 2.75 (d) 3.00
(a) 45 - 90 liters per capita per day Sol.(b)
(b) 30 - 60 liters per capita per day 𝑷𝒆𝒂𝒌𝒇𝒂𝒄𝒕𝒐𝒓𝒇𝒐𝒓𝒕𝒉𝒆𝒑𝒐𝒑𝒖𝒍𝒂𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏
𝒖𝒑𝒕𝒐𝟓𝟎, 𝟎𝟎𝟎 = 𝟑. 𝟎
(c) 75 - 100 liters per capita per day
𝑷𝒆𝒂𝒌𝒇𝒂𝒄𝒕𝒐𝒓𝒇𝒐𝒓𝒕𝒉𝒆𝒑𝒐𝒑𝒖𝒍𝒂𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏
(d) 25 - 50 liters per capita per day 𝒃𝒆𝒕𝒘𝒆𝒆𝒏𝟓𝟎, 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝒕𝒐𝟐, 𝟎𝟎, 𝟎𝟎𝟎 =
Sol.(a) Water requirements of 𝟐.𝟓𝟎
individual institutions and 𝑷𝒆𝒂𝒌𝒇𝒂𝒄𝒕𝒐𝒓𝒇𝒐𝒓𝒕𝒉𝒆𝒑𝒐𝒑𝒖𝒍𝒂𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏
commercial establishments 𝒎𝒐𝒓𝒆𝒕𝒉𝒂𝒏𝟐, 𝟎𝟎, 𝟎𝟎𝟎 = 𝟐.
25. Per capita water demand is -

[RRB JE (Shift - 1), 26.08.2015]
(a) Average amount of daily water
required by one person
(b) Monthly average amount of daily
water required by one person
(c) Annual average amount of daily
water required by one person
23. The most important salt that causes (d) Weekly average amount of daily
incrustation: water required by one person
[UPPCL JE 2016] Sol.(c) Annual average rate of
(a) Sodium Chloride demand in litres per day per person
(b) Calcium carbonate (i.e. litres per capita per day or lpcd),
called per capita demand (q).
(c) Sodium carbonate
(d) Calcium chloride
26. The prescribed per capita water
Sol.(b) Calcium carbonate (in
demand for small cities and town is
soluble) gets precipitated causes
incrustation of boiler pipe. [RRB JE (Shift - 1), 26.08.2015]
(a) 135 liters per capita per day
(b) 200 liters per capita per day
P a g e 8 | 116
(c) 150 liters per capita per day Sol.(c) The prescribed water
(d) 180 liters per capita per day consumption for restaurants is
70(per seat) litres per day per capita.
Sol.(a) As per IS: 1172 – 1993, the
minimum domestic consumption for
a town or a city with full flushing 29. ____ are used for the pipes laid in
system  200l / h / d rivers with uneven bend.
For economically weaker sections [UPPCL JE 2016]
and lower income group (LIG) (a) Mechanical Joint
 135l / h / d
(b) Flexible joint
(c) Socket joint
27. ______ is the geological formation
(d) Spigot joint
that does not yield water freely to
well due to its lesser permeability. Sol.(b) Flexible joint are used for
the pipes laid in rivers with uneven
[DFCCIL, 17-04-2016]
bend.
(a) Aquifer
(b) Aquatic permeability
30. The prescribed per bed water
(c) Aquiclude
demand for hospital including
(d) Acquitard laundry facility having less than 100
Sol.(d) Aquifer – Contains water and beds -
also transmits water [RRB JE (Shift - II), 04.09.2015]
Aquitard – Contains water but can
(a) 340 liters per bed per day
transmit water at a very low rate
(b) 450 liters per bed per day
Aquiclude – Contains water but
cannot transmit it (c) 250 liters per bed per day
Aquifuge – Neither porous nor (d) 280 liters per bed per day
permeable to water Sol.(a)
Hospitals Per capita
28. The prescribed water consumption including demand
for restaurants is laundry facility
[RRB JE (Shift - 1), 29.08.2015] Number of 340 litres per
beds not bed per day
(a) 100 liters per seat per day
exceeding 100
(b) 125 liters per seat per day
(c) 70 liters per seat per day Number of 450 litres per
(d) 50 liters per seat per day beds exceeding bed per day
100
P a g e 9 | 116
31. The specific capacity of a well in an Which of the following is correct?
area of stable weather conditions is [UPPCL JE 2015]
[UK paper II JE 2015] (a) Both A and R are true, but R is
(a) A function of time after starting not a correct explanation of A
of pumping (b) A is true but R is false.
(b) Constant over time after (c) A is false but R is True
completion and commissioning.
(d) Both A and R are true, and R is
(c) May fluctuate depending on the the correct explanation of A.
type of aquifer
Sol.(d) If higher distribution
(d) Practically depends on the pressure in water supply pipes
viscosity variations due to causes more loss and waste of water
temperature corresponding increases the
Sol.(a) The specific capacity of a consumption of water.
well is defined as the well yield per
unit of draw down.
33. The volume of water, that can be
extracted by force of gravity from a
Discharge of well
sp . capacity= unit volume aquifer material is
Draw down
called
Specific capacity of the open well [U.K. Combined AE Paper II 2007]
(C’) (a) Specific storage
A s  (b) Specific capacity
  ln  1 
T  s2  (c) Specific retention
s = depression head (s1  at the (d) None of the above
time the pumping was stopped) in
Sol.(d) Specific Yield – volume of
the well
water drained by gravity per unit
s2 at time T after the pumping is
volume of aquifer.
stopped.
Specific retention – volume of water
Thus sp. capacity is the function of
retrained per unit volume of aquifer.
time after starting of pumping.
Specific storage – volume of water
released from unit volume of
32. Assertion A: The consumption of aquifer per unit decline in
water increases with increase in the peizometric head.
distribution pressure. Specific capacity – well yield per unit
Reason R: Higher distribution drawdown.
pressure causes more loss and
waste of water.
P a g e 10 | 116
34. According to Dupit, discharge of a Aquiclude – Contains water but can
well in a unconfined aquifer is : not transmit it
[UKPSC AE (Paper I)2007] Aquifuge – Neither porous nor
permeable to water
k  H12  H 22 
R
2.303log10
(a) r 36. The volume of water that can be
k  H12  H 22  extracted by force of gravity from a
R unit volume of aquifer material is
2.303log10
(b) r known as
k  H12  H 22  [Jharkhand SSC JE 2016]

r (a) Specific capacity
2.303log10
(c) R
(b) Specific yield
(d) None of the above (c) Specific retention
Sol.(b)Dupit’s formula – (d) Specific storage
For unconfined aquifer
Sol.(b) Specific Yield – volume of
 k  H12  H 2 2  water retained by gravity per unit
Q
R volume of aquifer.
2.303log10  
r
For confined aquifer
37. The water available in unit volume
2 kB  H1  H 2 
Q of an aquifer is called.
R
2.303log10   [UK paper II JE 2015]
r
(a) Specific storage
Where r is the radius of well in m
and R is the radius of influence in m. (b) Specific retention
35. The geological formation which (c) Specific yield
contains and readily yields water is (d) None of the above
called. Sol.(b) Specific retention – volume
[UK paper II JE 2015] of water retained per unit volume of
(a) Aquifer aquifer.
(b) Aquifuge (note containing water)
(c) Aquitard 38. For a well, founded in a confined
aquifer, if the draw down is
(d) Aquiclude
doubled, the discharge ‘Q’ will
Sol.(a) Aquifer – Contains water and
become:-
also transmits water
[UKPSC AE (Paper II) 201/UK paper
II JE 2015]
P a g e 11 | 116
(a) 0.5 Q (b) 1.5 Q 41. What are the devices that are
(c) 2.0 Q (d) 3.0 Q installed for drawing water from
the sources called?
Sol.(c) For confined aquifer, the
discharge [UPPCL JE 2016]
2 kBs (a) Filters (b) Aquifers
Q
2.303log10  R / r  (c) Intakes (d) Aquicludes
Q  s (Draw down) Sol.(c) Whenever the water is
If the draw down is doubled withdrawn from surface source such
as lake or a river, there must be
Q’ = 2.Q constructed intake structure at the
entrance of the conduit.
39. Permeable formations having
structures which permit appreciable 42. Which water source among the
quantity of water are known as:- following is not a surface source?
[Jharkhand SSC JE 2016] [UKPSC AE (Paper II) 2013]
(a) Aquifer (b) Aquicludes (a) Springs
(c) Aquifuges (d) Aquifuges (b) Wells
Sol.(a) Aquifer – Contains water and (c) Lakes
also transmits water (d) None of these
Sol.(a) Surface water source –
Natural ponds, Lakes, streams and
Aquiclude – Contains water but can
Rivers, impounding Reservoirs etc.
not transmit it
Ground water source – Infiltration
Aquifuge – Neither porous nor
galleries, infiltration wells, springs,
permeable to water
tube wells etc.
40. A rock formation which contains

and readily yield water to tube
wells is:
[NPCC JE 21-01-2017]
(a) Aquitard (b) Aquifuge
(c) Aquiclude (d) Aquifer
Sol.(d) Aquifer – A rock formation 43. The volume of water released from
which contains water and also a storage per unit in hydraulic head
transmits water. in the aquifer, per unit area of the
aquifer is called as:
P a g e 12 | 116
[KNRC AE 2017 I - Shift] Aquitard (sandy clay) - stores water
(a) Transmissibility and yields is insignificant.
Aquiclude (clay)- highly porous but
(b) Storativity
not permeable.
(c) Specified yield Aquifuge (Massive Compact Rock) -
(d) Specified retention neither porous nor permeable.
Sol.(b) In case of confined aquifer,
volume of water given by unit plan 46. When water is flowing through
area of aquifer when piezometric some confined aquifer, the spring
surface falls by unity is called storage formed is known as a / an __.
coefficient or storativity (S).
[MP VYAPM Sub Engineer 09-07-
 Transmissibility is defined as,
2017]
discharge per unit length of aquifer,
Transmissibility ( T )=Permeability coefficient ( k ) × (a) Surface
Entire spring
thickness of aquifer (b)
(b) Artesian spring
44. For least effect on water, only one (c) Unconfined spring
tube well should be dug in every: - (d) Gravity spring
[UKPSC AE Paper II 2013] Sol.(b) An artesian (confined)
aquifer is a confined aquifer
(a) 0.5 km2 (b) 1.0 km2
containing ground water under
(c) 1.5 km2 (d) 2.0 km2 pressure and the spring formed is
Sol.(c) One tube well should be dug known as artesian spring.
in every 1.5 km2 area for least effect 47. If it is possible for water to go
on water. through soil formation and because
of which it gives insignificant yield,
then the soil formation is termed as
45. The geologic formation which is ____.
neither porous nor permeable, and
[MP VYAPM Sub Engineer 09-07-
hence neither contains nor yields
2017]
groundwater is termed as __.
(a) Aquifer (b) Aquifuge
[MP Sub Engineer 09-07-2017 2nd
meeting] (c) Aquiclude (d) Aquitard
(a) Aquiclude (b) Aquifer Sol.(d) Aquifer (sand & gravel) -

stores water and sufficient yields
(c) Aquitard (d) Aquifuge
Aquitard (sandy clay) - stores water
Sol.(d) Aquifer (sand gravel) - stores but insignificant yields
water and yields is sufficient due to Aquiclude (clay) - highly porous but
high permeability. not permeable.
P a g e 13 | 116
Aquifuge (Rock) -neither porous nor  Typhoid fever (caused by
permeable. salmonella typhi).
 Cholera (caused by vibrio cholerae
bacterium).
48. If the coefficient of permeability of
 Bacillary dysentery (caused by
aquifer is 40 m / day and draw
shiga bacillus or Flexner – bacillus or
down at the well is 4.0 m, then the
sonne bacillus).
radius of influence will be
Virus –
[Haryana SSC JE 2015]
 Jaundice (caused by hepatitis
(a) 25.82 m (b) 258.20 m virus).
(c) 238.20 m (d) 304.24 m  Poliomyelitis (caused by polio
Sol.(b) Using sichardt’s formula virus).
Radius of influence  Diarrheal (Giardiasis) (caused by
Giardia Lambia virus).
R (m) ¿ 3000 d k
Protozoa –
Where d = draw down in the well in
 Amoebic dysentery (caused by
m.
entamoeba histolytic germ).
k = coefficient of permeability
(m/sec).
40 1 2. If lead is present in water, it
 40m / day  
24  60  60 2160
[UK Combined State AE Paper II
m/sec
2017]
 4.629 10 4 m/sec
(a) Causes alkalinity
4
R  3000  4  4.629  10 (b) Changes its color
 258.20m
(c) Causes its turbidity
CH 02 WATER QUALITY (d) None of the above
PARAMETERS Sol.(d) If lead is present in water in
larger exposures may cause seizures,
1. The water borne disease, cholera is mental retardation and behavioural
transmitted by : disorders.
[RRB SSE (Shift III) 01.09.2015]
(a) Entamoeba histolytica 3. How much is the maximum
(b) Salmonella typhi permissible fluorine content in
water for domestic supplies?
(c) Vibrio comma
[MP SUB Engineer 2016]
(d) Giardia Lambia
(a) 0.3 ppm (b) 0.03 ppm
Sol.(c) Water borne disease Bacteria
(c) 3 ppm (d) 1.5 ppm
P a g e 14 | 116
Sol.(d) (b) Minimum at noon
The max As per As per BIS (c) Maximum at midnight
permissible WHO standard(IS
(d) Same throughout the day
guidelines 10500:1991)
Fluorine Sol.(a) At noon, rate of
content in 1.5 mg/l 1.0 mg/l photosynthesis is high and hence the
domestic amount of oxygen produced exceeds
water the amount required for respiration.
supplies Therefore, the dissolved oxygen in
Higher concentration of fluorides streams is maximum at noon.
(i.e. exceeding 1.5 mg/l) may cause
mottling of teeth and fluorosis.
4. The dissolved oxygen concentration

____ with the increase in
temperature of water.
[UPSSSC JE 2015]
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Remains same 6. When a particle is suspended in
(d) Sometime increases and water, two forces are acting on it,
sometime decreases which are.
Sol.(a) The concentration of [RRB SSE Shift III 03-09-2015]

dissolved oxygen is inversely related (a) Gravity and drag force
to water temperature. (b) Gravity and buoyant force
(c) Buoyant and drag force
(d) Viscous and buoyant force
Sol.(b) When a particle is suspended
in water, two forces are acting on it
Gravity downward direction
Buoyant force upward direction
5. Dissolved oxygen in streams is

[HP SSC JE 2015 & Airport Authority
of India JE 2015]
(a) Maximum at noon
P a g e 15 | 116
(a) Pseudo (b) Permanent
(c) Alkaline (d) Temporary
7. As per Indian standard (IS 10500: Sol.(b) Total Hardeness = carbonate
2012) of drinking water hardness or temporary hardness
specification, pH value should be in (due to HCO32- of calcium and
range of magnesium) + non-carbonate
hardness or permanent hardness
[UPPSSC JE 2015/COAL INDIA
(due to sulphate, chloride and
2016/UKPSC AE (Paper II)
nitrate of calcium and magnesium)
2013/Rajasthan JE 2015]
When sodium present in higher
(a) 6.5 - 8.0 (b) 6.5 - 8.5
concentration through common ion
(c) 6.0 - 8.5 (d) 7.0 effect interface with the normal
Sol.(b) As per IS 10500:2012 of soap behaviour of soap. This leads
drinking water specification, to pseudo hardness.
pH = 6.5 -8.5
10. Which of the following parameter is
8. Which chemical indicator turns determined using Winkler’s
water into pink color, if the pH is method?
more than 8.3. [HPSSSB JE 31-04-2017]
[MP VYPAM Sub Engineer 09-07- (a) Alkalinity
2017]
(b) Hardness
(a) Bromothymol blue (b) Murexide
(c) Fluoride content
(c)Phenolphthalein (d)Methyl orange
(d) Dissolved oxygen
Sol.(c) Phenolphthalein is an
Sol.(d) Dissolved oxygen determined
indicator chemical which turn water
using Winkler’s method
into pink, if the pH is more than 8.3.
- At pH 8.3, it changes the water
from pink to colourless. 11. pH of sea water varies from ___.
 Methyl orange, it changes from [MP VYPAM Sub Engineer 09-07-
red/orange to yellow at pH 4.6. 2017]
(a) 6.5 - 7.5 (b) 8.2 - 9.3
9. The hardness caused by sulphates, (c) 6.2 - 7.1 (d) 7.5 - 8.4
chlorides and nitrates of calcium or Sol.(d) Since the pH is the log of
magnesium is termed as ________ reciprocal of H+, the higher values of
hardness. pH means lower hydrogen ion
[MP VYPAM Sub Engineer 09-07- concentrations, and thus represent
2017] alkaline solutions.
P a g e 16 | 116
Seawater pH is limited to the range (d) Colloidal particles
7.5 to 8.4 Sol.(d) Turbidity – colloidal particles
(suspended matter such as clay, silt
12. Alkalinity in water is expressed as or some other finely divided organic
mg/l in terms of:- materials)
[UKPSC AE (Paper II)2013]
(a) Calcium carbonate 15. What is the most common source of
(b) Magnesium carbonate acidity in water?
(c) Sodium carbonate [LMRC AE 2017 I - Shift]
(d) Sodium bi – carbonate (a) Oxygen (b) Sulphuric acid
Sol.(a) Alkalinity of water sample is (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Nitrogen

expressed in calcium carbonate Sol.(c) Carbon dioxide is the most
equivalent in mg/l units. common cause of acidity in water.
Photosynthesis, respiration and
decomposition all contribute to pH
13. Cavities in teeth are caused if
fluctuations due to their influences
fluoride concentration (mg/I) is less
on CO2 levels
than
C O2 + H 2 O ⇌ H 2 C O3 pH < 4.5
[UK Combined AE paper II 2012] −¿ ¿
H 2 C O3 ⇌ H +¿+ HC O ¿
3
4.5 < pH<8.3
(a) 1.5 (b) 1 +¿+ C O3
2−¿ ¿
¿
HC O 3−¿⇌ H ¿
pH >8.3
(c) 0.5 (d) 0.25
Sol.(b) Fluorides content exceeding
16. Tularemia disease is due to
1.5 mg/l - cause mottling of teeth
and fluorosis. [UK Combined AE paper II 2012]
 Fluorides content lower (a) Bacteria (b) Virus
concentrations lesser than 1 mg/l - (c) Protozoa (d) All of the
cause dental cavities(tooth decay above
due to cavity formation).
Sol.(a) Tularemia – also called rabbit
fever/ deerfly fever – is caused by
14. Turbidity in water is due to the bacterium Franscisella
[UK Combined AE paper II tularenisis.
2012/UKPSC JE & AE (Paper II)
2013/UK JE 2015] 17. The coliform organism in 100 ml of
(a) Algae drinking water should not be more
(b) Fungi than
(c) Organic salts [UK Combined AE paper II 2012]
P a g e 17 | 116
(a) 1000 (b) 450  Phenolphthalein
(c) 250 (d) 1  Methyl orange
Sol.(d) The number of coliform
organisms per standard sample 20. Water is termed as sweet, if the
which should not exceed 1 in 100 ml value of TDS is less than:
of drinking water. [UPPCL JE 2016]
MPN
≯1 where MPN is Most (a) 1000 (b) 1500
100 ML
probable number. (c) 2000 (d) 3000
Sol.(a) Water is termed as sweet,
When TDS value is less than 1000
18. For public water supply, the
mg/l.
maximum permission limit of
nitrate (N) is:
21. Which of the following is used to
[BCCL JE 30-04-2017]
determine the small color
(a) 90 mg/L (b) 45 mg/L densities?
(c) 22 mg/L (d) 10 mg/L [UPPCL JE 2016]
Sol.(b) As per IS 10500 – 2012, the OR
maximum permission limit of Nitrate
Which of the following instrument
(N) is 45 mg/l.
is used to measure small color
intensities precisely?
19. Hardness of water is directly [MP Sub Engineer 2017 2nd
measured by titration with Meeting]
ethylene-di-amine tetra acetic acid
(a) Turbidimeter (b)
(EDTA) using:
Nephelometer
[BCCL JE 30-04-2017]
(c) Tintometer (d) Hygrometer
(a) Eriochrome Black T indicator
Sol.(c) Parameter – Instrument
(b) Ferroin indicator Turbidity – Nephelometer, Jackson’s
(c) Methyl orange indicator and Baylis turbidimeter, turbidity
(d) Phenolphthalein indicator rod.
Colour – Tintometer
Sol.(a) In titration for measurement
Odour – Osmoscope
of hardness of the water with EDTA
Humidity – Hygrometer
solution.
Relative humidity – Psychrometer
Indicator used Erichrome Black T
(EBT)
For Alkalinity measurement 22. Production of incrustation and
Indicator used sediment deposits are found in:
P a g e 18 | 116
[UPPCL JE 2016] (c) Hardness (d) Nitrates
(a) Acidic water Sol.(d) Free ammonia + organic
(b) Alkaline water ammonia = kjedahl Nitrogen
Ammonia
(c) Acidic and alkaline water both
 Nitrite is highly dangerous ≯0
(d) Neither acidic nor alkaline water.
 Nitrate is not harmful as it is fully
Sol.(b) Alkaline water produced oxidized. But too much of nitrate
incrustation and sediment deposits affects infants because it causes –
in pipes. blue baby disease or
Methemoglobinemia.
23. The acceptable limit of potable
water use in India for dissolved
26. On standard silica, the turbidity in
solids content (mg/I) is:
drinking water should be limited to
[NPCC JE 21-06-2017]
[HPSSC JE 2015/UPPCL JE 2015]
(a) 2000 (b) 500
(a) 10ppm (b) 20ppm
(c) 1500 (d) 1000
(c) 30ppm (d) 50ppm
Sol.(b) Limits for drinking waters as
Sol.(a) On Standard silica, the
per Indian standard (IS 10500 –
turbidity unit is NTU and as per GOI
2012)
manual,
Limits
24. Which one of the following is not Parameters
Desirable Permissible
turbidity test on water? Turbidity (NTU) 5 10
[UPRVUNL JE 2015/UP Jal Nigam JE pH 6.5-8.5 -
2015]
Total hardness
(a) Jackson’s 300 600
CaCO3 (mg/l)
(b) Baylis
(c) Nephelometer Chlorides (mg/l) 250 1000
(d) Hohner’s method
Total Dissolved
Sol.(d) Turbidity – Nephelometer, 500 2000
solid (mg/l)
Jackson’s and Baylis turbidimeter,
turbidity rod.
Calcium (mg/l) 75 200
25. Methemoglobinemia is caused due
to drinking of water having excess
of: Sulphate (mg/l) 200 400
[UPRVUNL JE 2015]
(a) Fluorides (b) Iron Nitrate (mg/l) 45 100
Station), Jaipur, Rajasthan, 9660807149, 7014320833, 8078607812 Total Alkalinity
(mg/l) P200 600
a g e 19 | 116
 Desirable limit - 5 NTU (c) Water got strong odor
 Cause of rejection - 10 NTU (d) Water got extremely strong odor
Sol.(b) The PO value indicates the
27. Disappearance of pink color of odour intensity. 5 is the maximum
water of a well due to KMnO4 PO value and it indicates extremely
Indicates that water contains. strong odour.
[UP Jal Nigam JE 2013/HPSSC JE Osmoscope is graduated with PO
2015] value from 0 to 5 value of 0
indicates “no perceptible odour and
(a) Acidity
PO value of 5 indicates extremely
(b) Alkalinity
strong odour”.
(c) Organic Matter 3 indicates water got distinct odour.
(d) All of the above 30. Which of the following values of pH
Sol.(c) Disappearance of pink colour represents a stronger acid?
of water of a well due to KMnO 4 [DMRC JE 2015]
indicates that water contains organic
(a) 2 (b) 5
matter.
(c) 7 (d) 10
Sol.(a) PH value = 7 neutral
28. Which test is used to measure the
PH < 7 - acidic nature
resistance to the passage of light
PH > 7 - alkaline nature
through the water?
[UP Jal Nigam JE 2014/MP SUB
Engineer 2016]
(a) Turbidity test
(b) Temperature test
31. Concentration of fluorides desirable
(c) Color test
in water is:
(d) Permissible test
[DMRC JE 2016]
Sol.(a) In the turbidity test the
(a) 1 to 2 mg/ liter
resistance of the passage of light
through the water is measured. (b) Not more than 1 mg / liter
(c) 10 to 20 mg / liter
29. If the PO value is 3 which it means (d) Note more than 250 mg/liter
[MP SUB Engineer 2016] Sol.(b) Fluorides concentration in
water is desirable not more than 1
(a) Water got faint odor
mg/L.
(b) Water got distinct odor
P a g e 20 | 116
32. Excessive fluoride concentration in 35. What type of water when used
drinking water causes problems continuously for drinking would
related with cause harmful damage to teeth and
[UK Combined AE paper II 2007] bones?
(a) Bones and joints stiffness [MPYAP 2015]
(b) Kidney function (a) Water with excessive hardness
(c) Heart disease (b) Water with excessive chloride
(d) Dysentery (c) Water with excessive fluoride
Sol.(a) Excessive fluoride (d) Water with excessive Sulphur

concentration in drinking water Sol.(c) Excess value of fluoride
causes problems related with bones (greater than 1.5 to 2 ppm) results in
and joints stiffness. decolouration of teeth called
mottling of teeth.
33. Turbidity of water is expressed as

[UK Combined AE paper II 2007] 36. As per Indian standard (IS 10500
2012) if drinking water specification
[BCCL JE 30-04-2017]
concentration of iron in drinking
(a) ppm (b) Number water should not exceed.
(c) pH value (d) By color code [UPSSSC JE 2015]
Sol.(a) Turbidity of water is usually (a) 0.5 mg/L (b) 0.4 mg/L
expressed as ppm or mg/L.
(c) 0.3 mg/L (d) 0.2 mg/L
Sol.(c) Fe and Mn cause colour
34. Tintometer is used to measure problem, these concentrations are
[UK Combined AE paper II greater than 0.3 mg/l and 0.05 mg/l
2007/DMRC JE 2015] respectively.
(a) Colour (b) Odour
(c) Hardness (d) Temperature 37. The acceptable limit (mg/l) of total
Sol.(a) Tintometer is used to dissolved solids for drinking water
measure colour. is
 Osmoscope is used to measure [UPRVUNL AE 2016]
odour. (a) 250 (b) 500
 pH is measured by potentiometer.
(c) 1000 (d) 1500
 Hardness is measured by using
spectrophotometric techniques. Sol.(b) The acceptable limit of total
dissolved solids (TDS) for drinking
water is 500 mg/l.
P a g e 21 | 116
38. Which chemical affect kidney when
exceeds its value?
[Chhattisgarh professional exam
board 2016]
(a) Nitrate (b) Fluoride
(c) Copper (d) Cadmium
41. The presence of calcium and
Sol.(d) Cadmium in cumulative, magnesium chloride in water
highly toxic in humans and livestock causes
and it directly effect on kidney.
[UK Combined AE paper II 2012]
(a) Softening (b) Bad taste
39. For drinking water quantity of
(c) Hardness (d) Turbidity
fluoride required is
Sol.(c) The presence of calcium and
magnesium chloride in water causes
board 2016]
hardness in water.
(a) zero (b) 0.3
(c) 0.8 (d) 2.0
42. The maximum permissible limit for
Sol.(c) Acceptable limit of fluoride fluoride in drinking water is
concentration is up to 1 mg/l and
[HPSSSB JE 03-07-2016]
greater than 1.5 mg/l is cause for
(a) 0.1 mg/liter (b) 1.5 mg/liter
rejection.
(c) 5 mg/liter (d) 10 mg/liter
Sol.(b) The maximum permissible
40. Temporary hardness is caused due
to the following in water: limit for fluoride in drinking water is
not more than 1.5 mg/l.
[UP Jal Nigam JE 2015/MPYAP
2015]
43. Jaundice is a disease of
(a) Presence of Calcium Bicarbonate
[MPYAP 2015]
(b) Presence of Magnesium sulphate
(a) Kidney (b) Pancreas
(c) Presence of Calcium Nitrate
(c) Liver (d) Duodenum
(d) Presence of Calcium Chloride
Sol.(c) Jaundice is a disease of build-
Sol.(a) Due to presence of calcium
up of bilirubin, a waste material, in
bi carbonate (CaHCo3) is caused
the blood. An inflamed liver or
temporary hardness in water.
obstructed bile duct can lead to
jaundice.
P a g e 22 | 116
sulphate, chloride and nitrate of
44. Fluoride pollution mainly affects: calcium and magnesium.
[RRB JE Chennai Red paper 14-12-

2014] 47. The major portion of the alkalinity
(a) Teeth (b) Kidney in natural waters is caused by
(c) Brain (d) Heart [RRB SSE Shift III 03-09-2015 & RRB
SSE Shift I 03-09-2015]
Sol.(a) Fluoride mainly effects the
teeth of human body. (a) Hydroxide, carbonate and
bicarbonate
(b) Hydroxide, phosphate and
45. In natural rainwater, the formation
bicarbonate
of carbonic acid takes place due to
dissolution of CO2 in water which (c) Silicate, ammonia and
bicarbonate
causes reduction of pH -
(d) Hydroxide, ammonia and
[RRB JE Shift III 30-8-2015]
carbonate
(a) 5.6 at 200 C temperature Sol.(a) The major portion of the
(b) 5.6 at 250 C temperature alkalinity in natural waters is caused
by hydroxide (OH-), carbonate (CO32)
(c) 6.6 at 200 C temperature and bicarbonate (HCO3-).
(d) 6.6 at 200 C temperature
Sol.(a) The pH of pure water is 7 at
25 ℃. The pH of rain water is 5.6.
This is due to gaseous substances
dissolved (CO2) in water, forming a
weak carbonic acid solution. As
temperature increases the pH of
water decreases.
At 20 ° temperature pH = 5.6 48. The hardness that is equivalent to
alkalinity is known as
46. Which of the following is not a source [RRB JE Shift III 30-8-2015]
of permanent hardness in water? (a) Total hardness
[HPSSSB JE 31-04-2017] (b) Carbonate hardness
(a) Chlorides (b) Carbonates (c) Non-carbonate hardness
(c) Sulfates (d) Nitrates (d) Pseudo hardness
Sol.(b) Permanent hardness or non-
carbonate hardness – due to
P a g e 23 | 116
Sol.(b) Total hardness = Carbonate
hardness + Non-carbonate hardness
 Carbonate hardness = Alkalinity
Hardness min
 Non-carbonate hardness = Total
hardness – Alkalinity CH 03 WATER TREATMENT
 If its value is negative, then takes
non-carbonate hardness is zero.
1. A grit chamber of dimensions 12.0
m × 1.50 m × 0.80 m liquid depth
has a flow of 720 m3 / hr. Its
surface loading rate and detention
time are respectively.
[UPRVUNL AE 2015]
(a) 4000 m3/hr/m2 and 1.2 minute
(b) 40000 Lph/m2 and 40 minute

49. Bio-chemical Oxygen Demand
[B.O.D.] of safe drinking water is (c) 40 m3/hr/m2 and 40 minute
[Uttarakhand Combines State AE (d) 40000 Lph/m2 and 1.2 minute

Paper II 2017/Haryana SSC JE 2015] Sol.(d) Surface loading rate
(a) Zero (b) 5 Discharge∨flow of waste water
¿
planarea
(c) 10 (d) 15
720 103 l / hr
Sol.(a) Bio – chemical oxygen  ¿ 40,000 l
12 1.5 /hr/m2
demand (BOD) of a safe drinking
Detention time
water should be zero value.
volume of grit chamber
¿ chabmer ¿
flow ¿
50. Sphere shaped bacteria are called 12 1.5  0.80

[RRB JE Shift III 2015] 720  0.02hr
(a) Spirilla (b) bacilli = 1.2 minute
(c) cocci (d) Trichobothria
Sol.(c)Bacteria ̶ Shape 2. The aeration of water is done for
Coccus ̶ Spherical the removal of ___.
Bacillus ̶ Rod– shaped
[MP VYPAM 08-07-2017 2nd
Spirilla ̶ Twisted
meeting]
(a) Turbidity (b) Color
P a g e 24 | 116
(c) Hardness (d) Dissolved gases (c) Ion exchange
Sol.(d) Aeration is used to remove (d) Both lime soda process and ion
undesirable gases dissolved in water exchange
like Co2, H2s. Sol.(d) Hardness in water is
removed by both lime-soda process
3. For controlling the growth of algae, and ion exchange
the chemical generally used is  LIME-SODA PROCESS: In this method, the
[Haryana SSC JE 2015] soluble calcium and magnesium salts in
water are chemically converted in to
(a) Alum
insoluble compounds, by adding
(b) Bleaching powder
calculated amount of Lime and Soda
(c) Lime  ION EXCHANGE usually describes a
(d) Copper sulphate processes of purification of aqueous
Sol.(d) For controlling the growth of solutions using solid polymeric ion
algae using copper sulphate (CuSO4 . exchange resin More precisely, the term
7H2O) encompasses a large variety of
processes where ions are exchanged
between two electrolytes.
4. A water treatment works treats
5000 cubic meters of water per day.
If it consumes 20 kg chlorine per 6. As compared to lime soda process,
day, then the chlorine dosage the zeolite process:
would be [Coal India 2016]
[UK Combined AE paper II 2007] (a) Leads to large quantity of sludge
(a) 10 mg/l (b) 4 mg/ l formation
(c) 0.4 mg / l (d) 0.25 mg/l (b) Requires careful and skilled
Sol.(b) Chlorine dosage = supervision
chlorine consumption per day (c) Is bulky
water sup ply per day (d) Is costlier
20 106 Sol.(d) As compared to time soda
  4 mg / L
5000  103 process, the zeolite process is
costlier.
5. Hardness in water is removed by:
[Chhattisgarh professional exam 7. The major disadvantage of lime
board 2016] soda process of water softening is
(a) Lime - soda process that
(b) Heating [HP SSC JE 2015]

P a g e 25 | 116
(a) It is unsuitable for turbid and [LMRC AE 2015]
acidic water (a) A, B, C, D and E (b) B, C and D
(b) Huge amount of precipitate is (c) A, C and E (d) A, B and D
formed which creates a disposal
Sol.(b) Excessive salinity (seawater
problem
or brackish water ) can only be
(c) The effluent cannot be reduced reduced by using the reverse
to zero hardness osmosis or electrodialysis membrane
(d) It is unsuitable for softening the techniques or by distillation.
water of excessive hardness.
Sol.(b) The major disadvantage of 10. Permanent hardness cannot be
lime soda process of water softening removed by
is that it produces huge amount of
precipitate which creates a disposal
(a) Boiling
problem
(b) Soda alkali process
(c) Lime soda process
8. Compared to Lime soda process,
Zeolite process has advantages in (d) Zeolite process
terms of the following, except. Sol.(a) To removal of permanent
[UPRVUNL JE 2015] hardness ( water softening )
- Lime-soda process
(a) Better removal of hardness
-Base exchange process
(b) Plant is compact and small
-Demineralization process
(c) Skilled supervision is not required
(d) Economy
11. The treatment of water with
Sol.(d) As compared to lime soda bleaching powder is known as
process, the zeolite process is
[HPSSSB JE 03-07-2016]
costlier.
(a) Prechlorination
(b) Super chlorination
9. From the list of treatments given
(c) Dichlorination
below, which treatments reduce
salinity of water? (d) Hypo chlorination
A. Flash mixing and sedimentation Sol.(d) The treatment of water with
bleaching powder is known as hypo
B. Electrodialysis
chlorination.
C. Reverse osmosis
D. Freezing
12. Disinfection of drinking water is
E. Filtration
done to remove:
P a g e 26 | 116
[RRB JE Bilaspur Red paper 14-12- Which of the following is the
2014] correct sequence of processes in
(a) Odor (b) Bacteria water treatment?
(c) Turbidity (d) Color [UPPCL JE 2015]
Sol.(b) Disinfection of drinking (a) A, B, E, C, D (b) D, E, C, A, B

water is done to remove bacteria. (c) A, B, C, D, E (d) B, C, A, E, D
Sol.(b) Sequence of process in water
13. What is the main disadvantage of treatment
Aeration process? Screening → Plain sedimentation→
coagulation with flocculation→
[DFCCIL, 17-04-2016]
sedimentation→ Filtration→
(a) Excessive aeration absorbs too Disinfections
much carbon dioxide and water
becomes corrosive.
15. A water treatment plant treats 6000
(b) It effectively removes volatile
gases which is harmful for water m3 of water per day. If it consumes
(c) Excessive aeration causes too 20 kg chlorine per day, then the
much oxygen and thus water chlorine dosage would be
becomes corrosive [Haryana SSC JE 2015]
(d) It removes oils and decomposes (a) 3.00 mg/l (b) 3.75 mg/l
algae and other aquatic product (c) 4.25 mg/l (d) 3.33 mg/l
from water. Sol.(d) Treated Water = 6000 m3/d
Sol.(c) Disadvantage of aeration Consumption of chlorine per day =
process – 20 kg
This process increases the acidity of Thus, the chlorine dosage
water due to
20 106 10
4 Fe2+¿+O +10 H O →4 Fe(OH ) ↓ +8 H ¿
2 2 3
+ ¿¿
  l
+ ¿¿
6000 10 3
3 = 3.33 mg/
2 M n2 +¿+O +2 H → 2 Mn O ↓+4 H ¿
2 2 2
14. The various treatment processes in 16. The coarse screen in normally kept
a water treatment plant are listed inclined at about 45 ° −60° to the
below. horizontal, so as to:
A. Filtration B. Chlorination [MP VYPAM Sub Engineer 2017]
C. Sedimentation D. Coagulation (a) Decrease the opening area to

reduce the flow velocity.
E. Flocculation
(b) Decrease the opening area to
increase the flow velocity.
P a g e 27 | 116
(c) Increase the opening are to Perforated plate aerator
reduce the flow velocity. lattice aerator or cascade aerator
(d) Increase the opening area to
increase the flow velocity.
Sol.(c) The coarse screens are also
kept inclined at about 45 ° −60° to
the horizontal, so as to increase the
opening area to reduce the flow
velocity, and thus, making the
screening more effective.
18. Which of the following methods is

NOT a part of purification?
[Jharkhand SSC JE 2016]
(a) Disinfection (b) Coagulation
(c) Evaporation (d) Filtration
17. Following design represents which Sol.(c) The following methods is
gravity aerators? taken for purification of drinking
[MP VYPAM Draftsman 2016] water
Screening → plain sedimentation→
aided with coagulation→ filtration→
Disinfection
19. The water treatment plants are

generally designed for a period of:
[RRB Mumbai Shift II 27-8-2015]
(a) Tower aerator
(a) 50 years (b) 30 years
(b) Cascade Aerator
(c) 40 years (d) 25 years
(c) Inclined Aerator
Sol.(b) Design period of water
(d) Stack of perforated pans treatment plant is 30 years.
Sol.(a) Type of Aerators – gravity
Aerators, Fountain aerators, diffused
20. In surface waters the presence of
aerators and mechanical aerators.
taste and odor due to dissolved
Types of gravity aerators
gases may be removed by -
Packed Tower column aerator
P a g e 28 | 116
[RRB JE Shift III 29-8-2015] [MP Sub Engineer 2017 2nd
(a) Filtration (b) Coagulation Meeting/UPRVUNL JE 2015]
(c) Aeration (d) Disinfection (a) Increasing the depth of the tank
Sol.(c) In Surface waters the (b) Increasing the surface area of the
removal of colours, odours and tank
tastes due to dissolved gases may be (c) Decreasing the depth of the tank
removed by aeration. (d) Decreasing the surface area of
the tank
21. Alum is a Sol.(b) Displacement efficiency (ɳd)
[UK paper II JE 2015/UK Combined
AE paper II 2012] Flow through period
¿ ×100
Theoretcal detention time
(a) Coagulant (b) Flocculant
(c) Catalyst (d) Disinfectant Generally value of ɳd> 30%
Sol.(a) Coagulants added in water
are – Alum, coppers, chlorinated,
24. The ratio of flow through period to
sodium aluminate, Lime.
the detention period in
sedimentation tank is termed as
22. When alum is added in the form of _____.
a coagulant then it? [MP VYPAM 09-07-2017]
[LMRC JE 2016] (a) Treatment efficiency
(a) Reduces the value of pH (b) Displacement efficiency
(b) Basicity is not required for energy (c) Combined efficiency
generation in water.
(d) Over flow rate efficiency
(c) Does not affect the pH value of
Sol.(b) The ratio of flow through
water
period to the detention period in
(d) Increases the pH value of water sedimentation tank is termed as
Sol.(a) Alum (Al2(SO4)3.18H2O) reacts displacement efficiency.
with HCO3 Alkalinity to from
gelatinous precipate of Al(OH)3 . It
25. Settling velocity of the particle is
reduces the value of pH because
given by :
Alum requires alkalinity in water.
board 2016]
23. For a given discharge, the efficiency
Or
of sedimentation tank can be
The settling velocity of inorganic
increased by:
particles in a sedimentation tank of
P a g e 29 | 116
the water treatment plant is (c) 15 - 30 cm / hr
governed by (d) None of these
[I.S.R.O. 2015] Sol.(b) Data for sedimentation tanks
(a) Darcy’s law Overflow rate for plain
(b) Dupuit’s Law sedimentation – 15,000 – 30,000 l
/m2/d
(c) Stoke’s Law
For sedimentation with coagulation
(d) None of the above – 30,000 – 40,000 l/m2/d
Sol.(c) The setting velocity of Horizontal velocity (Vf) = 0.15m/min.
inorganic particle (dia <0.2 mm) in a – 0.30 m/min.
sedimentation tank of the water
treatment plant is governed by
28. In primary sedimentation, 0.2 mm
stoke’s law.
inorganic solids get separated if
validity of stoke’s law for particle
specific gravity is
size (0.2μm to 0.2 mm)
Reynold’s number Re<1 [UK Combined AE paper II 2017]
Setting velocity, (a) 2.25 (b) 2.50
( s   w )d 2
(c) 2.55 (d) 2.65
Vs 
18 Sol.(d) In primary sedimentation -
Inorganic particle size (0.2 μm to
26. What is the Uniformity coefficient 0.2mm) Specific gravity G = 2.65
of filter sand?
[UKPSC AE (Paper II) 2013] 29. With the increase in temperature,
(a) D50/D5 (b) D50/D10 the rate of settling of particles.
(c) D60/D5 (d) D60/D10
(a) Decreases (b) Increases
Sol.(d) (c) Remains unchanged (d) None of
D60 the above
Cu 
Coefficient of uniformity D10 Sol.(b)Setting velocity
vs 
 rs  rw  d 2
27. The velocity of flow of water in a 18
sedimentation tank may normally 1
vs 
be kept between  
[Haryana SSC JE 2015] 1
∵ Dynamic viscosity ( μ ) ∝
(a) 15 - 30 cm / sec temperature
(b) 15 - 30 cm / min
P a g e 30 | 116
Thus, the rate of setting of particle Length – L Width - B
increases as increase in Depth – D Discharge - Q
temperature.
Settling velocity of a particle is
30. If the flow rate is 100 cum / h and if
Q Q
the length, width and depth of a (a) BD (b) LD
detention tank are respectively 15,
Q Q
6 and 3m, the detention period (h) L BL
(c) (d)
will be
Sol.(d) Setting velocity (Vs)
[UPRVUNL JE 2016]
Discharge(Q) Q
(a) 0.33 (b) 1.25 ¿ ¿
Plan Area(B × L) B × L
(c) 2.70 (d) 3.30
Sol.(c) Detention period
33. Assertion A: Alum is the most
volume of tank commonly used coagulant in water
¿
flow rate treatment.
15  6  3
  2.7 Reason R: Alum is very effective in
100
killing pathogens present in the
water. Which of the following is
31. A rectangular tank of length 15 m. correct?
width 6 m and depth 3 m is used for [UPPCL JE 2015]
treating 3.6 × 106 l/day. What (a) Both A and R are true, but R is
would be the detention period of not a correct explanation of A.
the tank?
(b) A is true but R is false
[LMRC AE 2017]
(c) Both A and R are true, but R is
(a) 1 hr 32 min (b) 2 hr correct explanation of A.
(c) 1 hr 48 min (d)2hr 10min (d) A is false but R is true.
Sol.(c) Detention period Sol.(b) Alum acts as on electrolyte
volume of tank and helps settle suspended matter in
¿
flow rate water. This process is called
coagulations.
15  6  3

3.6 106 10 3  0.075 Days
34. The most common coagulant used
= 1.8 hr or 1hr 48 min
for treating water is:-
32. In a sedimentation tank
(a) Aluminum sulphate
P a g e 31 | 116
(b) Aluminum chloride 37. ... is built for preliminary settlement
(c) Both (a) and (b) of solids where the water obtained
from a canal or a river in muddy.
(d) None of the above
[MP Draftsman JE 2017]
Sol.(a) The most common coagulant
used for treating water is alum (a) Chlorination chamber
(Aluminum sulphate, Al2(SO4)3.18H2O (b) Sedimentation tank
). (c) Flash mixer
(d) Sterilization
35. The ratio of flowing through period Sol.(b) For surface water obtained
to detention period in a from (canal, river etc) in muddy,
sedimentation tank, is called - sedimentation tank is built for
[Airport Authority of India JE 2015] preliminary settlement of solids.
(a) Surface loading
(b) Displacement efficiency 38. For a simple sedimentation Tank
(c) Theoretical efficiency the ultra flow rate is approx :-
(d) Settling velocity [LMRC JE 2016]
Sol.(b) Displacement efficiency (ɳd) (a) 500 to 750 l / h / m2
(b) 1250 to 1500 l / h / m2

flowing through period
¿
Theortical detention period (c) 1000 to 1250 l / h / m2
(d) 1500 to 2000 l / h / m2
36. In the design of sedimentation tank
Sol.(a) Overflow rate for simple
the essential factor to below
considered is sedimentation tank – 15,000 –
30,000 l/m 2 /d
[UPRVUNL JE 2015]
(a) Depth of tank ≈ 500−750 l/hr /m 2
(b) Turbidity of water

39. If about 90% of suspended solids
(c) Concentration of suspended
are to be removed by coagulation.
solids in the water
Then which of the following
(d) Surface loading of tank
coagulant should be preferred?
Sol.(d) In the design of
[UPRVUNL JE 2015]
sedimentation tank the major factor
(a) Alum
considered is surface loading rate.
(b) Chlorinated copperas
(c) Ferric chloride
P a g e 32 | 116
(d) Ferric sulphate The correct order of these in a
Sol.(b) Chlorinated copperas water treatment plant:
coagulant = Ferric sulphate + Ferric [HPSSSB JE 31-04-2017]
chloride. (a)PS → RM → F → SS → RSF →C
40. for a given discharge, the efficiency (b¿ PS → RSF → F → RM → SS →C
of sedimentation tank can be
(c)PS → F → RM → RSF → SS →C
increased by
(d) PS → F → SS → RSF → RM →C
[HPSSSB JE 31-04-2017]
Sol.(a) Treatment sequence of a
(a) Increasing the depth of tank
water treatment plant primary
(b) Decreasing the depth of tank sedimentation (PS) → Rapid Mixing
(c) Increasing the surface area of (RM) → Flocculation(F) → secondary
tank sedimentation(SS) → Rapid sand
(d) Decreasing the surface area of Filtration(RSF) → chlorination(C)
tank
Sol.(c) Efficiency of sedimentation 43. For effective use of alum as
tank (η) coagulant for turbid water, the pH
1 should be in the range of ____.
(η)∝
Overflow rate
[MP VYPAM 08-07-2017 2nd
meeting]
η ∝ plan area(Surface area)
(a) 6.5 - 8.0 (b) 6.5 - 8.5
(c) 6.0 - 8.5 (d) 7.0
41. Alum is chemically known as:
Sol.(b) As per IS 10500:2012 of
[MP Draftsman JE 8-7-2017]
drinking water specification, For
(a) Aluminum sulphate effective use of alum as coagulant
(b) Ferrous sulphate for turbid water, the pH should be in
(c) Ferric sulphate the range of
pH = 6.5 -8.5
(d) Copper sulphate
Sol.(a) Alum = Aluminium sulphate
(Al2(SO4)3.18H2O) 44. What is indicated by valve 6 of
rapid sand filter?
[MP SUB Engineer 2016]
42. Following process used in a water
treatment are Rapid Mixing (RM), (a) Wash water storage tank value
Flocculation (F), Primary (b) Inlet value
Sedimentation (PS), Secondary (c) Filtered water storage tank value
Sedimentation (SS), Chlorination
(d) Compressed air value
(C), Rapid Sand Filtration (RSF),
P a g e 33 | 116
Sol.(a) Rate of application of wash Dual media filter > slow sand filter >
water is approximately 6 – 16 times Rapid sand filter > pressure filter
the rate of filtration.
47. Air binding in rapid sand filter

occurs due to ___.
[MP VYPAM Sub Engineer 09-07-
2017/UPRVUNL JE 9-11-2016]
(a) Cracking of the filter sand
(b) Low temperature
(c) Mud ball formation
45. The period of cleaning of slow sand (d) Excessive negative head
filter is usually - Sol.(d) Operational troubles in Rapid
[UPPCL JE 2013] Sand Filter (RSF)
 Air binding – Excessive
(a) 30 day to 90 days
negative head.
(b) 120 day to 180 days
 Mud balls formations =
(c) 90 days to 120 days Mud deposited on the top sand
(d) 15 days to 30 days surface.
Sol.(a) Cleaning period of Slow sand  Cracking of filter – Fine
filter = 30 – 90 Days. sand in top layers shrinks forming
Washing period of Rapid sand filter shrinkage cracks.
= 24 – 48 hrs.
48. In slow sand filter, the re-sanding
46. Which of the following filters will work is done reducing the sand to a
produce water of higher permissible level of:
bacteriological quality? [Chhattisgarh professional exam
[LMRC JE 2015] board 2016]
(a) Slow sand filter (a) 1 to 2 m (b) 2 to 3 m
(b) Rapid sand filter (c) 0.5 to 0.6 m (d) 0.1 to 0.3 m
(c) Pressure filter Sol.(c) As per WHO guidelines for

resanding. Depth of filtering material
(d) Dual media filter
will have dropped to its minimum
Sol.(d) Efficiency for higher designed level (usually about 0.5 –
bacteriological quality of filtered 0.8 m)
water.
P a g e 34 | 116
49. The process of purifying water by [RRB JE Shift I 28-8-2015]
passing it through a bed of fine
(a) 30 - 500 with the horizontal
granular material is known as:
[UPRVUNL JE 2015/UP Jal Nigam JE (b) 45 - 600 with the horizontal
2015] (c) 50 - 700 with the horizontal
(a) Screening (b) Sedimentation
(d) 45 - 800 with the horizontal
(c) Filtration (d) Coagulation
Sol.(b) The manual screens/coarse
Sol.(c) Process in which water
screens are kept inclined at an angle
passing through a bed of fine
of 45 ° −60° with the horizontal for
granular material is known as
attaining larger surface area.
filtration.
52. Bleaching powder is

50. On which of the following
[Jharkhand JE 2015]
parameters are the slow sand filters
better than rapid sand filters? (a) Ca(OH)2 (b) C/O2
[Coal India 2016] (c) CaCl2 (d) CaCl(OCl)
OR
Sol.(d) Calcium hydroxide – Ca(OH)2
For which of the following Calcium chloride – CaCl2
consideration, slow sand filters are Bleaching powder – Ca(OCl)2
better than rapid sand filters used
for water purification?
53. The spacing between two bars in
[NPCCJE 21-6-17]
medium size screen range from –
(a) Ease of construction
[RRB JE Shift I 26-8-2015]
(b) Land requirement for
(a) 20 - 50 mm (b) 20 - 40 mm
construction a unit
(c) 10 - 20 mm (d) 10 - 30 mm
(c) Flexibility in meeting the demand
Sol.(b) Fine screening – spacing of
(d) Rate of filtration
bars < 10 mm
Sol.(a) For ease of construction of
Medium screening – spacing of bars
slow sand filters are better than,
10 – 40 mm
rapid sand filters used for water
Coarse screening – spacing > 40 mm
purifications.
54. Match List I with List II and select

51. In water treatment, the manual
the correct answer using the codes
screens are kept inclined at an
given below the lists
angle of -
[DMRC JE 2016]
P a g e 35 | 116
(a) A - 1, B - 4, C - 2, D - 4
List I List II
(b) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4
A. Plain 1. Hydraulic loading
(c) A - 3, B - 2, C - 4 D - 1 reduce
Sedimentation
(d) None of these
Sol.(c) B. Ion Exchange 2. Exhaust of bad
List I List II(important
parameter)
C. Flocculator 3. Settling velocity
Plain Settling velocity
sedimentation
Ion –Exchange Exhaust of bad D. Rapid sand 4. Velocity gradient
Flocculator Velocity gradient filter
Rapid sand filter Hydraulic Loading
reduce against pathogenic bacteria is
about:-
[UKPSC AE Paper II 2013]
(a) 0.01 to 0.05 ppm
55. Which one of the following
methods is most commonly used in (b) 0.05 to 0.50 ppm
rural for defluorination? (c) 0.50 to 1.00 ppm
[MP Sub Engineer 2017 2nd (d) 1.00 to 5.00 ppm
Meeting] Sol.(b).As per IS 10500 – 2012, the
(a) Activated sludge treatment amount of residual chloride left in
(b) Lime soda process public water supply should be in
range of 0.05 to 0.50 ppm.
(c) Nalgonda technique
(d) Co-precipitation.
57. According to IS 10500 - 2012, what
Sol.(c) Defluoridation (Removal of
is the desirable limit for residual
fluorine)
chlorine in mg/L is?
 Prashanti Technology or
Absorption by activated alumina [MP Sub Engineer 09-7-2017 2nd
 Nalgonda technique (mainly used meeting]
in rural areas, ground water (a) 0.3 (b) 0.4
containing excess fluoride) (c) 0.1 (d) 0.2
 Ion exchange adsorption method
Sol.(d) As per IS 10500 – 2000,
 Reverse osmosis process desirable limit for residual chlorine is
0.2 mg/l .
56. The amount of residual chlorine left
in public water supply for safety
P a g e 36 | 116
58. The most common disinfectant
used for disinfecting well water in
rural areas is
60. A rural water supply scheme serves
(a) Lime a population of 10,000 at the rate of
(b) Iodine 50 liters per capita per day. For the
(c) Ozone chlorine dose of 2ppm, what will be
the required amount of bleaching
(d) Potassium permanganate
with 20% available chlorine?
Sol.(d) Potassium permanganate
[UPPCL JE 2015]
(KMnO4) is a popular disinfectant for
well water supplies in rural areas (a) 15 kg (b) 5 kg
which are contaminated with lesser (c) 10 kg (d) 0.5 kg
amount of bacteria. Sol.(b) Water supply required for a
rural  10, 000  50
59. What is the optimum range of pH  5  105 l/ d
for chlorination in water?
Amount of chlorine needed
 5 105  2  106
board 2016]
 1 Kg/d
(a) 6 - 5 (b) 6.5 - 8.5
∵ The amount of bleaching powder
(c) 6 - 7 (d) 6.5 - 7.5 containing 20% available chlorine.
Sol.(d) In the usual chlorine For produce 20 unit of chlorine
treatment, in which pH is kept required bleaching powder is 100
slightly less than 7, dichloramine is units.
most predominant. 1 unit of chlorine is equal to 5 units
NH3+HOCl of bleaching powder.
N H 2 Cl+ H 2 O 1 Kg per chlorine is equal to = 5Kg/d
pH ˃ 7.5
→ (monochloramine) bleaching powder.
NH2Cl+HOCl 61. What is the name of the process in

NHC l 2 + H 2 O which reducing chemical such as
pH (5−6.5)
→ ( Dichloramine) Sulphur dioxide (SO2), sodium
thiosulphate (Na2S2O3) and sodium
sulphite (Na2SO3) is added to
remove unwanted residual of
chlorine from water?
[DFCCIL, 17-4-2016]
P a g e 37 | 116
(a) Sulphurification which is removed by activated
(b) Hydrogenation carbon.)
 It’s over dose is not harmful.
(c) Dichlorination
(d) Chlorination
63. Chlorine is added to water for
Sol.(c) Dechlorinating agents are –
 Sodium thiosulphate (Na2S2O3)- [UK Combined AE paper II 2007]
(Cheapest of all) (a) Disinfection
 Sodium sulphite (Na2SO3) (b) Improving flow of water
 Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
(c) Improving taste of water
 Activated carbon
(d) None of the se
Sol.(a) Chlorine is added to water
62. An activated carbon is specially for disinfection which is the process
treated carbon which has the of destruction or inactivation of
property of absorbing and harmful micro – organism in water
attracting impurities. Which of the either by physical or chemical
following points is/are not among process.
the advantages of activated
carbon?
64. Alum is added to water to remove.
A. It minimizes the chlorine demand
of treated water. [UK Combined AE paper II 2012]
B. It accelerates the coagulation (a) Dissolved particles
C. Its overdose is harmful. (b) Colloidal particles
[DFCCIL, 17-4-2016] (c) Gases like H2S
(a) A and C (b) Only A (d) None of these
(c) Only C (d) Only B Sol.(b) Alum is used as coagulant to

water to remove colloidal particles.
Sol.(c) Advantages of activated
carbon treatment
 It remove taste, colour and odour 65. The application of chlorine beyond
due adsorption property. the stage of break point is known
 It accelerates the coagulation. as:
 It is added before or after [NPCC JE 21-01-2017]
coagulation but before filtration. (a) Super Chlorination
 It reduces chlorine demand of
(b) Pre chlorination
water (because some amount of Cl2
is used to oxidise organic matter (c) Double chlorination
(d) De- chlorination
P a g e 38 | 116
Sol.(a) When excess chlorine (5 to Sol.(a) At break point chlorination
15mg/l) is added in water during the residual chlorine is zero.
epidemic such that it gives a residual
of 1 to 2 mg/l beyond break point is
called super chlorination.
Plain chlorination
Only chlorination and no other
treatment is given to water.
Pre chlorination
Chlorine is added before filtration
or rather before sedimentation and
coagulation. 68. The chlorine demand of a water
Post chlorination sample was found to be 0.2 mg/l.
The amount of bleaching powder
Chlorine at the end added when all
containing 30% available chlorine to
treatment is completed.
be added to treat one liter of such a
Double chlorination
water sample is.
Pre chlorination and post –
chlorination combinedly added. [UK Combined AE paper II 2012]
(a) 0.67 mg (b) 0.06 mg
66. The recommended detention time (c) 1.33 (d) 0.14 mg
of a grit chamber is less than___. Sol.(a) Given that, The amount of
[MP Sub Engineer 09-07-2017 2nd bleaching powder containing 30%
meeting] available chlorine.
For produce 30 unit chlorine
(a) 20 seconds (b) 60 seconds
requires 100 units bleaching powder
(c) 60 minutes (d) 20 minutes
1 units chlorine requires
Sol.(b) Detention time for grit 100
chamber is 40-60 sec. 
30 units bleaching powder
For 0.2 mg/l chlorine demand
67. In break point chlorination the 100
  0.2  0.67 mg
residual chlorine 30 per litre
(a) Is zero
69. __ is application of chlorine beyond
(b) Is minimum the stage of break point up to 2
(c) Is maximum ppm.
(d) Reappears [MP SUB Engineer 2016 &Airport
Authority of India JE 2015]
P a g e 39 | 116
(a) Super Chlorination [UK Combined AE paper II 2007]
(b) Break point chlorination (a) Absorption
(c) Double chlorination (b) Boiling
(d) Plan chlorination (c) Aeration followed by coagulation
Sol.(a) When excess chlorine (5 to (d) Chlorination
15mg/l) is added in water during Sol.(c) In the Aeration process, Iron
epidemic such that it gives a residual and manganese are soluble in Fe2+
of 1 to 2 mg/l beyond break point is and Mn2+ form, They are oxidised to
called super chlorination. Fe(ox)3 and MnO2 which are
precipitates.
70. The usual values of detention Hence to remove Iron(Fe) and
period for flocculation tank ranges manganese(Mn) Aeration followed
from___ by coagulation process developed.
[MP Sub Engineer 09-07-2107 2nd

meeting] 73. The process of killing pathogenic
(a)20to60 minutes (b)1to2 minutes bacteria from water is called
(c) 2 to 3 hours (d) 2 to 8 hours [UPRVUNL JE 2015]
Sol.(a) Detention period for (a) Sedimentation (b) Filtration

flocculation tank ranges from 20 to (c) Coagulation (d) Disinfection
60 minutes. Sol.(d) Disinfection is defined as the
process of destruction or
71. The application of chlorine after all inactivation of harmful micro –
the treatments of purification of organism (like pathogenic bacteria)
water are completed is termed as in water either by physical process
or chemical process.
[UPRVUNL AE 2016]
Sedimentation – remove suspended
(a) Pre - chlorination solids
(b) Post chlorination Filtration – remove dissolved solids
(c) Double chlorination
(d) Super – chlorination 74. The process of dechlorination is
Sol.(b) Post chlorination followed by?
Chlorine at the end added when all [UPRVUNL JE 2015]
treatment is completed. (a) Pre chlorination
(b) Post chlorination
72. Iron and manganese can be (c) Super chlorination
removed from water by
P a g e 40 | 116
(d) Double chlorination Sol.(d) In general practice chlorine is
Sol.(c) The process of de added beyond break point to ensure
chlorination is followed by super a residual of 0. – 0.3 mg/l as free
chlorination. chlorine. This residual takes care of
future recontamination.
75. What happens when lime is added
It helps in killing bacteria.
to water or waste
[M.P. sub Eng. 3 April Morning
2016] 77. Dichlorination of water is achieved
by adding
(a) Destabilize colloidal oil and
organic emulsion [UP Jal Nigam JE 2015/[LMRC JE
2015 & 16/DMRC JE 2015]
(b) Assist precipitation of metals as
hydroxides by lowering their pH (a) Sodium thiosulphate
(c) Remove calcium hardness (b) Sodium sulphate
(d) Convert calcium carbonate to (c) Sodium hexametaphosphate

calcium bicarbonate (d) Sodium bisulphate
Sol.(a) Lime destabilize colloidal, oil Sol.(a) Dechlorinating agents are –
and organic emulsion in water or  Sodium thiosulphate (Na2S2O3)
waste water.  Sodium sulphite (Na2SO3)
 Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
76. Consider the following statement  Activated carbon
Some amount of chlorides is

allowed in drinking water because 78. The chlorine dosage in water
A. It helps in killing bacteria treatment depends upon
B. Small quantity of chlorides adds to 1. pH of water

the taste 2. CO2
C. It is not injurious to human health 3. Organic matter
D. It is not economical to remove it [DMRC JE 2015]
completely. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Which of these statements are (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct? Sol.(c) The chlorine dosage in water
[UPRVUNL JE 2015] treatment depends upon
(a) Only A, B and D (b) Only A, B  pH of water
and C  Organic matter
(c) Only B, C and D (d) Only A, C
and D
P a g e 41 | 116
79. Under water treatment chlorination 82. Which chemical is used as
conducted for disinfectant in municipal water
[UPSSSC JE 2016] supply?
(a) Removal of hardness [MPYAP 2015]
(b) Destroy of pathogenic bacteria (a) Liquid Bromine
(c) Turbidity of water (b) Fluorine
(d) None of these (c) Potassium permanganate
Sol.(b) Disinfection- Destruction or (d) Liquid Chlorine

inactivation of harmful micro – Sol.(d)
organism (pathogenic bacteria). Disinfectant Used for
 Liquid chloride Municipal
water supply
80. Mostly used coagulant in treatment
 Potassium Rural water
of water is:
permanganate supply
[DMRC JE 2016]
 Liquid Bromine Treating small
(a) Chlorine water supplies
(b) Alum for army
(c) Lime troops, private
plants,
(d) Bleaching powder
swimming
Sol.(b) Mostly used coagulant in pools
treatment of water is Alum
(Al2(SO4)3. 10H2O – Aluminum
83. Activated carbon is used for:-
sulphate)
[UKPSC AE (Paper II)2013/UP Jal
Nigam JE 2015/Airport Authority of
81. The quantity of chlorine added in
India JE 2015/LMRC JE 2016]
super chlorination is:-
(a) Disinfection
(b) Removing hardness
(a) Equal to break point
(c) Removing odor
(b) Beyond break point
(d) Removing corrosiveness
(c) Less than break point
Sol.(c) Activated carbon removes
(d) 100 ppm
taste, odour and colour due
Sol.(b) Super chlorination excess adsorption property.
chlorine is added beyond break
point.
84. Disinfection efficiency is
[HPSSSB JE 31-04-2017]
P a g e 42 | 116
(a) Increased at higher pH values of plant, it should have following units
water in a sequence:-
(b) Reduced at higher pH values of [UKPSE AE Paper II 2013]
water (a)Aeration, coagulation, flocculation
(c) Unaffected at pH value of water and chlorination
(d) highest at pH value equal to 7 (b) Rapid sand filter and chlorination
Sol.(b) (c)Zeolite treatment and chlorination
1 (d) Rapid mixing, flocculator, setting
Disinfection efficinecy ∝
pH value of water tank and filter
So it is reduced at higher pH value Sol.(d) In case of water treatment
 The effectiveness of chlorine is plant for removal of turbidity only
controlled by then process will be first rapid
pH – Contact time – Temperature – mixing, flocculator, setting tank and
dose – type and concentration of filtration.
organisms in water to be
disinfected.
86. For a grit chamber, if the
 If the pH of the water is too low (pH
recommended velocity of flow is 0.2
< 6.0), chlorine will escape as a gas,
m/ sec and detention period is 2
decreasing effectiveness and
minutes, the length of the chamber
increasing equipment corrosion.
is :-
 At higher pH value (i.e. alkaline
water), the amount of hypochlorous
acid formed will be greatly reduced (a) 16 m (b) 20 m
and efficiency of disinfection will be (c) 24 m (d) 30 m
reduced. L
At lower pH At higher pH Sol.(c) Velocity of flow Vf = td
Less Hypochlorite More Hypo - length of tank L = (vf)  (td)
ions & higher chlorite ions & less L = 0.2  2  60 = 24 m
hypochlorous acid hypochlorous acid
87. The grit and slit of a the grit

→ Hypochlorous acid is the most
chambers may not be used for
effective form of free chlorine
residual. [I.O.F. JE 2015]
(a) Raising low lying areas by
dumping
85. If turbidity removal is the only
objective of a water treatment (b) Concreting
(c) Both (a) and (b)
P a g e 43 | 116
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) Pumping
Sol.(b) The grit and silt of the grit (i) pump house 30
chambers may not be used for (ii) Electric 15
concreting purpose. motors and
pumps.
Water
CH 04 DISTRIBUTION SYSTEM Treatment 15
units
1. Elevated water tanks are used to Distribution 30
supply at required water pressure: system
[UKPSC AE (Paper I)2007]

(a) To remote areas
3. The most commonly used pump for
(b) To all areas lifting water in water supply mains
(c) For fire fighting is ........
(d) To cleaning sewers [MP Draftsman JE 8-7-2017 AM]
Sol.(b) Elevated water tanks are (a) Reciprocating pump
used for all types of topographical (b) Rotary type pump
area.
(c) Centrifugal pump
(d) Axial flow pump
Sol.(d) The most commonly used
pump for lifting water in water
supply main is axial flow type pump.
2. The water distribution networks are

normally designed for a period of -
[RRB JE (Shift - 1), 28.08.2015] 4. The purpose of providing a
(a) 40 years (b) 30 years balancing reservoir in a water
(c) 25 years (d) 50 years supply distribution system is to:
Sol.(b) [LMRC AE 2017]
Design period (a) Address the frequent fluctuations
Item in years in the rate of consumption
Intake works 30
P a g e 44 | 116
(b) Equalize the pressure heads in of flow
the distribution system
Air relief value Pressure release
(c) Store additional water for
is water pipes.
contingency
Ball value Used to maintain
(d) Store water for mitigating constant level of
drought water.
Sol.(a) Balancing reservoir Provided
when there is frequent fluctuations 6. The following sketch shows a water
in the rate of consumption. supply main from a storage
reservoir provided with a sluice
value
5. Which of the following type of
valve allows water to flow in one
R e s e rv o ir M a in
direction but prevents in reverse V Sad e q[ k
direction?
The type of valve most suitable for
Or this pipe line is :
The value which allows [LMRC JE 2015]
unidirectional flow of water in a
(a) Air valve
pipe is called ____.
(b) Scour Valve
[MP VYPAM 08-07-2017 2nd
meeting] (c) Pressure relief valve
Or (d) Check valve
In order to prevent water flowing Sol.(c) Water hammer phenomenon

back to pumps, when pumps are will cause considerable damage to
stopped, we use? pipe when sluice valve is suddenenly
opened.
[UPRVUNL JE 2015]
Used where gravity
(a) Sluice valve Air inlet valve flow is required
(b) Air relief valve through pipe line.
(c) Reflux valve To remove silt in a
(d) None of the above Scour valve pipe line
Sol.(c)
Pressure relief Pressure/to release
Sluice value Used for isolating
valve/Air Scour the accumulated
Check Allows valve air
valve/Reflux valve Unidirectional
flow of water
used for reversal
P a g e 45 | 116
7. Which one of the following Sol.(d) Method of distribution
methods is generally used for  Gravitational system
design of water distribution  Direct pumping
system?  Combined system or pumped
[UKPSC AE (Paper II)2013] storage supply
(a) Manning’s equation
(b) Darcy Weisbach relation 10. The four major water supply
(c) Hardy cross method distribution systems are:
(d) None of the above [HPSSSB JE 03-0702016]
Sol.(c) Hardly cross method is used (a) Dead end, tree, grid iron and
for design of water supply reticulation
distribution system. (b) Dead end, tree, grid iron and
 Equivalent pipe method is also circular
used for this. (c) Tree, grid iron, ring and radial
(d) Tree, reticulation, circular and
8. Which of the following methods of ring
analysis of water distribution Sol.(c) Layouts of distribution
system is most suitable for long and system
narrow pipe system?
(a) Circle method
(b) Equivalent pipe method
(c) Hardy cross method
(d) Electrical analysis method
Sol.(b) Equivalent pipe method
Most suitable for long and narrow
pipe system.
9. Method of distributing water are

(a) Gravity supply
(b) Pumped supply 11. Method generally employed for
(c) Pumped storage supply design of distributed network are
(d) All the above [UK Combined AE paper II 2012]
P a g e 46 | 116
(a) Hard Cross method 13. The purpose of providing a
(b) Equivalent Pipe method balancing reservoir in a water
supply distribution system is to
(c) Both (a) and (B)
[UPRVUNL AE 2015]
(d) None of above
(a) Equalize pressure in the
Sol.(c) Design of water supply
distribution system
distribution
System – (b) Store adequate quantity of water
I. Equivalent pipe method to meet requirement in case of
II. Hardy cross method breakdown of inflow
(c) Store adequate firefighting
reserve
12. Which of the following valves is
used in water distribution system (d) Take care of fluctuations in the
because of high head loss rate of consumption
characteristics? Sol.(d) Balancing reservoir
[UPPCL AE 2015] Regulating the continuous supply or
take care of fluctuations in the rate
(a) Sluice (b) Butterfly
of consumption.
(c) Globe (d) Plug
 It is a small reservoir constructed d/s
Sol.(d) Plug valve has high head loss of the main reservoir for holding
characteristics. water released from the main
reservoir.
14. In context with Water Supply,

working head is generally taken as
____ of the critical depression head.
[UPPCL JE 2016]
(a) Three times (b) One third
 Sluice valve Used in solving large
network of pipes. (c) Two times (d) Half
 Globe valve Flow direction changes Sol.(b) In well yield of water supply
through 90 ° twice, thus resulting in depends on the critical depression
high head losses. head which is the critical value of
 Butterfly value Used to regulate and head at which the percolation
stop the flow especially in large size velocity is critical.
conduits. Normally the depression head is
kept equal to 1/3 of the critical
depression head.
P a g e 47 | 116
15. Which statement is correct with 17. The air relief valve provided at ....
reference to “Grid Iron” water [MP Draftsman JE 8-7-2017 AM]
distribution system?
(a) Junction point
(b) Higher point
(a) Suitable for well-planned towns
(c) None of the above
& cities
(d) Lower point
(b) Requires less number of sluice
Sol.(b) The air relief valve/air valve
valves
is provided at the summit (at higher
(c) Cost of construction is low
point) of the pipe line to release the
(d) All of the above air pressure.
Sol.(a) “Grid Iron” water supply
distribution system suitable for a
planned city where roads and streets
are provided in planned rectangular
and square grid patterns.
16. For an area developed in haphazard

way, the type of layout of water
distribution system preferred is 18. In pumping station the types of
[UPRVUNL JE 2015] joints generally used is:
(a) Dead end system [HPSSSB JE 03-07-2016]
(b) Grid iron system (a) Socket and spigot joints
(c) Ring system (b) Flanged joints
(d) Radial system (c) Expansion joints
Sol.(a) (d) Flexible joints
Tree system For irregularly Sol.(b)
developed
towns
Grid iron For town with
system rectangular
roads layout
Ring System Well – planned
sector of city
Radial System Satisfactory
water supply
P a g e 48 | 116
Joints Used in
Flanged joints - In pumping station
19. The suitable layout of a water
pipes (cast irons &
supply distribution system for an
steel pipes).
irregularly grown town is called as
____ system.
Socket and -spigot Mostly mains and
[MP VYPAM 08-07-2017 2nd joints submains of C.I.
meeting/UPRVUNL JE 2015] pipes.
(a) Dead end (b) Radial Expansion joints Take into account
(c) Grid iron (d) Ring the charge in pipe
length due to
Sol.(a) Dead end/ tree system
temp. variations
For an area developed in haphazard
way or irregularly grown town.
Flexible joints Places where
settlement of the
20. The type of valve, which is pipe line may
provided on the suction pipe in a occur.
tube well is: Which of the work automatically?
[HPSSC JE 2015] [LMRC JE 2015]
(a) Air relief valve (a) A. C and D (b) B, D and E
(b) Sluice valve (c) C, D and E (d) A, B and C
(c) Pressure relief valve Sol.(d) Valves which are working
(d) Reflux valve automatically – check valve,
Sol.(d) Reflux valve/ check pressure reducing valve, Air relief
valve/Non- Returning valve valve
Used for unidirectional flow
Provided on the suction pipe in a 22. A type of valve which is provided at
tube well. the corner of roads to control the
Automatic device flow of water at the cross section of
the distribution system is called?
21. Consider the following valves in a [LMRC JE 2016]
water distribution system. (a) Safety valve (b) Scour valve
A. Check valve (c) Sluice valve (d) Check valve
B. Pressure reducing valve Sol.(c) Sluice valve Provided to
C. Air relief valve regulate the flow of water through
D. Scour valve the pipe and are essential to divide
the main line into several sections.
E. Sluice valve
P a g e 49 | 116
23. The water meter, which is installed  Stop cock(provided before the
on individual house connection, on water meter)
municipal supply is:  water meter
[I.S.R.O. 2015]
(a) Velocity meter 25. Air valves are provided at
(b) Inferential meter [UK Combined AE paper II 2012]
(c) Displacement meter (a) Saddles (b) Summits
(d) Speedometer (c) Dead end (d) Regularly
Sol.(c) Velocity or inferential meters at 1 km interval
used by industries for measuring Sol.(b) The air relief valve/air valve
large supply is provided at the summit of the pipe
 Positive or displacement meters – line to release the air pressure.
installed on individual house
connection, on municipal supply.
26. Consider the following statements,
in a water supply system
24. In house water connection, ferrule A. Drain valves are provided at
is provided, which is a: elevated or higher points to remove
[UPRVUNL JE 2015] accumulated air
(a) Small sized curved pipe made of a B. Reflux valve allows flow in one
flexible material direction only.
(b) Right angled sleeve made of C. Drain valves are provided at low
brass or gun metal points to remove silt and other
(c) Galvanized iron pipe of size less deposits.
than 50 mm diameter. Which of these statements are
(d) Flexible connection between the correct?
water main and the service pipe. [UPRVUNL JE 2015]
Sol.(b) Appurtenances in plumbing (a) Only C (b) Only B
system (c) Only B and C (d) All three
 Ferrules (right – angled sleeve
Sol.(c)
made of non – ferrous metal mostly
Air relief Provided at elevated or
of brass or gun metal).
valve higher points to
 Goose neck – small curved flexible
remove accumulated
pipe for making connection b/w
air.
ferrule and service pipe.

 Service pipe – (GI pipe of normal
Reflux valve Allows flow in one
size)
direction only.
P a g e 50 | 116
Drain valve  Provided at low points (b) 0.016 to 0.020 N/mm2
to remove silts and
(c) 0.031 to 0.035 N/mm2
other deposits.
(d) 0.026 to 0.030 N/mm2
27. The least thickness of class B cast Sol.(c) The range of the ideal
iron (spun) pipe, is: residual pressure at the farthest
[HPSSC JE 2015] consumer’s trap in a properly
(a) 7.2 mm (b) 7.9mm designed water distribution system
is 0.031 to 0.035 N/mm2.
(c) 8.6 mm (d) 10 mm
Sol.(c) Class B cast iron(Spun) pipe –
least thickness is 8.6 mm. CH 05 DESIGN OF SEWERAGE
SYSTEM AND SEWER
28. In house plumbing system, the APPURTANCES
leakage of different pipes is tested
by 1. For a country like India, where
[HPSSSB JE 03-07-2016 & rainfall is mainly confined to one
Uttarakhand JE 2015/HP SSC JE season, the suitable sewerage
2015] system will be:-
(a) Smoke test (b) Air test [UKPSC AE (Paper II)2013]
(c) Water test (d) All of these (a) Separate system
Sol.(d) In house plumbing system, (b) Combined system
the leakage of pipes is tested by (c) Partially combined system
smoke test, air test and water test.
(d) Partially separate system
For detection of leakage, in the
Sol.(a) When the drainage is taken
underground distribution pipes by
along with sewage, it is called a
direct observations, by using
combined system.
sounding roads, by plotting
hydraulic gradient line and by  When the drainage and sewage
using waste detecting meters. are taken independently of each
other through two different sets of
conduits, it is called a separate
29. What is the range of the ideal system. Fur India, where rainfall is
residual pressure at the farthest mainly confined to one season,
consumer’s trap in a properly hence suitable of sewerage system
designed water distribution system is separate type.
[UPPCL JE 2015]  When the do mastic sewage
(a) 0.021 to 0.025 N/mm2 coming out from the residences or
P a g e 51 | 116
institutions, etc, is allowed to be (b) Hydraulic mean depths are the
admitted into the drains, the same
resulting system is called a (c) Discharge velocities are the same
partially separate system.
(d) Discharge is the same
Sol.(d) Two sewers of different
2. For a circular sewer running shapes are said to be hydraulically
partially full, the proportionate equivalent when they discharge at
wetted perimeter is given by : the same rate, while flowing full, on
[MP Sub Engineer 2017 2nd the same grade.
Meeting] For an example, for circular
p D p  section and square section (sides =
 
p 4 p 3600 b)
(a) (b)
(Dia. = D)
p  p 
  2/3
p D p 1800 1   D 
(c) (d) Qcircular     D2    s
N 4  4 
Sol.(b) P = perimeter (wetted) 2/3
1 b 
under partial flow Qsquare   b 2     s
p = perimeter under full flow N 4
condition = TTD Equating for equivalent section.
p  D8/ 3  1.272b8/ 3

P 3600 Dia. of circular section sewer
D  1.094b
4. The purpose of providing

ventilation in sewer is to avoid: -
(a) Asphyxiation of sewer
maintenance employees
(b) Odorous gases
(c) Explosive mixture of sewer gases
(d) All of the above
3. Non-circular and circular sewers are
hydraulically equal when Sol.(d) Various poisonous and
explosive gases which are generally
found present is sewers are:
(a) Cross sectional areas of the two hydrogen sulphide (H2s), Co2, and
are the same methane (CH4) along with petrol
vapours.
P a g e 52 | 116
 In order to avoid the large scale
presence of these gases inside the
sewers, ventilation of sewers is
generally adopted. Also in case to
avoid Asphyxiation of sewer
maintenance employees. - Circular sewer sections are most
widely used for separate sewerage
system.
5. Self-cleansing velocity is:
7. The minimum recommended
(a) Velocity at dry weather flow
diameter of sewer is
(b) Velocity of water at flushing
[UK Combined AE paper II
(c) Velocity at which no 2007/UPPCL JE 2013]
accumulation remains in the drain
(a) 50 mm (b) 100 mm
(d) Velocity of water in a pressure
(c) 150 mm (d) 200 mm
filter.
Sol.(c) AS per IS 1742: 1983 (code of
Sol.(c) The velocity which will even
practice for building drainage)
scour the deposited particles of a
recommended the minimum
given size, must be developed in the
diameter of sewer is about 150 mm.
sewers, at least once a day, so as not
to allow any deposition in the
sewers in called self-cleansing 8. The gas generally found in sewers
velocity. [UK Combined AE paper II 2007/UK
Combined AE paper II 2012/[UKPSC
AE (Paper II)2013]
6. Which one of the following sewers
is preferred for combined system of (a) Hydrogen sulphide (H2S)
sewage? (b) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
(c) Methane (CH4)
(a) Circular (b) Egg shaped
(c) Rectangular (d) Square (d) All of the above
Sol.(b) Generally for combined Sol.(d) Gases generally found in

system of sewage, It is preferably sewer lines are –
egg shaped sewer section. Hydrogen sulphide (H2S), carbon
dioxide (co2) and methane (CH4).
9. Cement concrete sewers are only

suitable for non-scouring velocity of
P a g e 53 | 116
[UK Combined AE paper II 2007] (a) Septic tank
(a) 2.5 to 3.0 m /sec (b) Sanitary landfill
(b) 3.0 to 4.0 m/sec (c) Aerated lagoons
(c) 4.0 to 4.5 m/sec (d) Compost plants
(d) 4.5 to 5.0 m/sec Sol.(b) Leachate is a liquid than
Sol.(a) comes from sanitary land fill. It may
be defined a liquid that has
percolated through solid waste and
has extracted dissolved or
suspended materials from it.
12. Which statement is not correct with

reference to sewerage system of
India?
10. Manholes covers are made circular [UKPSC AE Paper II 2013]
[UK Combined AE paper II (a) Self cleansing velocity is 1.0 to

2007/UKPSC AE Paper II 2013] 1.2 m/s
(a) For architectural reason (b) Circular system is most suitable

for separate sewerage system.
(b) To strengthen the cover
(c) Velocity of flow depends on the
(c) To prevent falling of cover into
length of the sewer.
the manhole
(d) To make the entry convenient
Sol.(c) Self cleansing velocity is
Sol.(c) A round manhole cover
range b/w 1.0 to 1.2 m/s.
cannot fall through its circular
 Circular sewer section is most
opening, whereas a square manhole
suitable for separate sewerage
cover could fall in if it were inserted
system.
diagonally in the hole.
 Velocity of flow depends on the
Circular covers don’t need to be
cross section of sewer pipe,
rotated or precisely aligned when
materials of pipe, flowing
placing them on the opening.
condition either partially or full.
11. Leachate is a liquid that comes

13. The minimum diameter of an
from:
opening of a manhole should be :-
[Bihar SSC JE 2016/SSC JE 2008]
board 2016]
(a) 100 cm (b) 50 cm
P a g e 54 | 116
(c) 75 cm (d) 25 cm 15. Minimum diameter for siphon pipe
Sol.(b) Minimum internal in inverted sanitary siphon sewer
dimensions for man hole chambers appurtenance is
as per IS 1742 – 1983 [Jharkhand SSC JE 2016]
(a) 200 mm (b) 100 mm
(c) 250 mm (d) 300 mm
Sol.(a) The minimum diameter of
the siphon pipe is taken as 15 to 20
cm.
16. The pipe meant to carry overflow

 In any case, it is not less than 50 cm.
from baths, wash basins and sinks
to the drain are called:
14. S.W. pipes are generally not used [UK Combined AE paper II 2012]
for sewer mains because they are:
(a) Soil pipes
(b) Ventilation pipes
(a) Weak in compression
(c) Waste water pipes
(b) Weak in tension
(d) Anti - siphonage pipes
(c) Hydraulically less efficient
Sol.(c) In plumbing system of
(d) Less resistance to organic building –
corrosion  The pipe meant to carry overflow
Sol.(b) Vitrified clay or stone ware from baths, wash basins and sinks
or salt – glazed sewers to the drain area called waste
 These are widely used for carrying water (WW) or sullage pipes.
sewage and drainage, as house  The pipes of the first set carrying
connections as well as lateral night soil are called soil pipes.
sewers.  When the traps of the water
 Highly resistant to sulphide closets are separately ventilated
corrosion by a separable vent pipe called
 Hydraulically very efficient relief vent pipe or Anti – siphon
 They are, though weak in tension, age pipes.
cannot be used as pressure pipes
so generally cannot used for sewer
17. The design discharge for the
mains.
combined sewer system shall be
taken as:
P a g e 55 | 116
(a) Equal to rain fall (b) Slope of sewer X must be equal
(b) Rainfall + 1 DWF to slope of sewer Y
(c) Rainfall + 2 DWF (c) Attractive force intensity

generated in sewer x must be same
(d) Rainfall + 6 DWF
as that in sewer Y.
Sol.(c) The rain run-off i.e. drainage
(d) The roughness coefficient of X
discharge, which is produced during
sewer material should be same as
monsoon season is generally very
that of Y sewer material.
high, say 20 to 25 times that of the
sew age discharge, called dry Sol.(c) The degree of self- cleansing
weather flow(DWF). will be same in a particular sewer
The design discharge for the when the attractive force intensity
combined sewerage system shall generated in sewer x must be same
be taken as = Rainfall + 2 DWF as that in sewer Y.
(Dry Weather Flow)
20. An egg shaped section of sewer
18. For large sewer maximum distance [HPSSC JE 2015]
between manhole may be: (a) Is economical than circular
[UK Combined AE paper II 2012] section
(a) 50 m (b) 100 m (b) Provides self-cleansing velocity at
(c) 200 m (d) 300 m low discharges
Sol.(d) Manhole spacing as per IS : (c) Is more stable than circular

size of sewer section
(d) Is easy to construct.
Sol.(b) Egg shaped sewer in which
smaller circular portion will be
effective during dry weather and full
section is effective during maximum
rain water flow.
 It provides self cleansing velocity
19. If the sewer X is to be designed to at 10 w discharges.
generate equivalent self-cleaning
action as in sewer Y, then: 21. The following is not a section for
[UPRVUNL JE 2015] design of sewer system?
(a) Velocity in sewer X must be equal [UK Combined AE paper II 2012]
to velocity in sewer Y (a) Semicircular (b) Elliptical
(c) Horse shoe (d) Circular
P a g e 56 | 116
Sol.(b) Section of sewer for (d) None of these
designing – Circular shaped sewer Sol.(a) For cleaning small sewers
- Standard Egg Shaped sewer which can not be entered into by
- Horse shoe shaped sewer manual labour, flushing operations
- Parabolic shaped sewer are essential.
- Semi – Elliptical section
 Medium sized sewers are generally
- U – shaped section
cleaned by using scraping
- Rectangular shaped section
instrument, which are dragged
- Semi – circular shaped sewer
through the sewer. Using cleaning
(out –dated)
road called cane road ding.
- Basket handle shaped sewer (out –  Large sized sewers which can be
dated) entered into by men are generally
cleaned by manual labour.
24. Consider the following statements.

A. Avoid building up to sewer gases.
B. Ensure atmospheric pressure in
the waste water surface.
C. Ensure the safety of sewer
maintenance people.
D Provide oxidation facility to
sewage.
22. For design of sewers, percentage of
Which of these statements correctly
sewage discharge is assumed.
suggest why ventilation of sewer
[IOF JE 2015]
lines is necessary?
(a) 65 to 70 % (b) 70 to 75 %
[UPCL JE 2015]
(c) 75 to 80 % (d) more than 85%
(a) Only A, B and C (b) Only A, C
Sol.(c) For design of sewers, sewage and D
discharge is generally assumed 75 to
(c) Only B, C and D (d) Only A, B
80% of water supply.
and D
Sol.(a) Avoid building up to sewer
23. The small sewers are cleaned by gases because if H2s in sewer
[IOF JE 2015] presence. It gets oxidised to H2so4
(a) Flushing with air. Hence, corrosion of
concrete sewers due to biological
(b) Can rodding
reaction.
(c) Wooden pills
P a g e 57 | 116
 Full aeration of sewer line to 27. Separate soil pipe and waste pipe
insure atmospheric pressure in the system is known as
waste water surface. [Uttarakhand JE 2015]
(a) Single stack system
25. Which type of sewer is represented (b) One pipe system
by the figure given below?
(c) Single syphon system
[UPCL JE 2015]
(d) Two pipe system
Sol.(d) Systems of house hold
plumbing
D
Two pipe system – separate soil
d pipe and waste pipe or sullage
pipe + ventilation pipe
One pipe system – only one main
pipe which collects the night soil
(a) Horse hoe shaped sewer as well as the sullage water +
(b) Parabolic shaped sewer ventilation pipe.
Single stack system – without
(c) Standard egg shaped
ventilation pipe only single pipe
(d) U - Shaped sewer which collect sewage as well as
Sol.(c) Standard egg shaped may be sullage water.
preferred for combined sewers. Partially ventilated single stack or
single pipe system – using
26. The velocity of flow of sewage in a antishipo-nated pipes or relief
combined sewer should not be less vent pipes.
than:
[Uttarakhand JE 2015] 28. In small town, the most appropriate
(a) 0.3 m/s (b) 0.75 m/s system of sewerage is:
(c) 1.0 m/s (d) 6.0 m/s [Uttarakhand JE 2015]
Sol.(b) Minimum velocity of 0.75 (a) Separate system

m/s 0.8m/s at design peak flow (b) Combined system
and 0.6 m/s current peak flow is (c) Conservancy system
recommended in sanitary sewer. (d) Partially separate system
Minimum dia. of sewer = 150 mm,
Sol.(d) In small town i.e. the
However in hilly area, 100mm may
domestic ravage coming out from
be adopted.
the residences or institutions etc., is
allowed to be admitted into the
P a g e 58 | 116
drains, the resulting system is called [UKPSC AE Paper II 2013/LMRC JE
a partially separate system. 2005/UPRVUNL JE 2015]
(a) Circular brick sewer
29. The effect of increasing diameter of (b) Circular cast iron sewer
sewer on the self-cleansing velocity (c) Semi elliptical sewer
is : -
(d) Horse shoe type sewer
Sol.(a) The most commonly used
(a) To decrease it (b) To increase it sewer under culverts is circular brick
(c) Fluctuating (d) No effect sewer.
Sol.(d) self-cleansing velocity is
given by shields formula 32. The minimum and maximum
1
Vs  R1/ 6  K s  GS  1 d p 
1/ 2
diameter of sewers, generally
n adopted in design, may be: -
Dp = particle size, GS = Sp graving
[HPSSSB JE 03-07-2016]
of particle
KS = 0.04 to start motion of (a) 15 cm and 100 cm
granular particle (b) 15 cm and 300 cm
0.04 for adequate self-cleansing of (c) 25 cm and 450 cm
sewer. (d) 60 cm and 300 cm
8g
kd '  G  1 Sol.(b) The minimum diameter for
Or Vs = f plain and rolling terrain sewers
generally adopted in the design may
be 150 mm and for hilly area it is
30. Which type of sewer carries the
taken 100 mm.
domestic and storm water?
The maximum diameter of sewers
[MP SUB Engineer 2016] is adopted in design as 300 cm.
(a) Combined sewer
(b) Storm sewer 33. Assertion (a) : The design of all non-
(c) Sanitary sewer circular sections is based upon
(d) House sewer getting a hydraulically equivalent
Sol.(a) Combined sewer = Domestic section.
sewage + Storm water Reason (R): The chart of hydraulic
elements is very useful in sewer
design.
31. The most commonly used sewer
under culverts is: - [UPRVUNL AE 2015]
P a g e 59 | 116
(a) Both A and R are true, but R is (a) A hole made by man in sewer line
not a correct explanation of A in case of blockage
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is (b) Maintenance of sewer line
the correct explanation of A. (c) A chamber of provide control
(c) A is true but R is false. valves
(d) A is false but R is True (d) None of the above
Sol.(b) In the design of all non- Sol.(b) In sanitation manhole is
circular sections (i.e. Egg shaped apparatus for maintenance of sewer
combined sewer etc) is based upon line.
getting a hydraulically equivalent
section.
36. Drop manholes at the junction of
The chart of hydraulic elements
sewer line are provided if: -
(r/R ratio) of circular sewer is very
useful in sewer design.
(a) Invert level of a branch sewer is
60 cm more than that of the branch
34. In case of sewer design, on which of
sewer.
the following the velocity of flow
(b) Sewer line runs along a main
does not depend?
road
[Coal India 2016]
(c) Ordinary manhole cannot be built
(a) Length of the sewer
(d) Two sewer lines intersect
(b) Hydraulic mean depth
Sol.(a) Drop manholes are used
(c) Roughness of sewer material
when a branch sewer enters a
(d) Grade of the sewer manhole by more than 0.5 to 0.6 m
Sol.(a) Velocity of flow (Vf) in sewer above the main sewer.
As manning is formula
1
 R 2 / 3  S 1/ 2 37. The asbestos cement sewers are
V= n
It depends on – Hydraulic mean
depth (R) (a) Light in weight
- Roughness of sewer material (n) (b) Not structurally strong
- Grade of sewer (s) (c) Susceptible to corrosion by
sulphuric acid
35. In sanitation man hole is apparatus (d) All of the above

for ___ Sol.(d) The asbestos cement sewers
[Draughtsman - B Time 27-11-2016] are light in weight, not structurally
P a g e 60 | 116
strong and susceptible to corrosion 41. In order to keep the solid matter in
by sulphuric acid. suspended from, aeration minimum
velocity of flow is required,
otherwise the solid particles will
38. Blocking of sewers is caused by
settle in the sewer, resulting in its
[UK Combined AE paper II 2007] clogging, such a minimum velocity
(a) Excess flow is known as
(b) Hot weather [UK Combined AE paper II 2012]
(c) Silting and domestic waste (a) Critical velocity
(d) None of the above (b) Limiting velocity
Sol.(c) Blocking of sewers is mainly (c) Self-cleaning velocity
caused by silting and domestic (d) None of the above
waste.
Sol.(c) Self-cleansing velocity is the
minimum velocity at which no solid
39. The self-cleansing velocity for all gets deposited at the bottom of
sewer in India is usually - sewer.
(a) 1.0 to 1.2 m/sec 42. In hilly towns normally ___
(b) 1.5 to 2.0 m/sec manholes are provided
(c) 3.0 to 3.5 m/sec [UK Combined AE paper II 2012]
(d) None of the above (a) Gully (b) Drop
Sol.(a) The range of self-cleansing (c) AC (d) None of the above
velocity for all sewer in India is Sol.(b) In hilly towns normally the
usually 1.0 m/sec to 1.2 m/sec. steep gradients to avoiding a lot of
earth work excavation for ordinary
40. The sludge does not contain waste manhole, the drop manholes are
water from provided.

(a) Bathroom (b) Wash basin
(c) Toilet (d) Kitchen sink
Sol.(c) Sullage is waste water from
house hold sinks, showers and
baths.
P a g e 61 | 116
43. A manhole is generally provided at Sol.(c) Laying of sewers is usually
each: done by reference line method and
[SSC JE 2015/UPSSSC JE 2015] by sight rail and boning Rod method.
(a) Bend
(b) Junction 46. What causes the corrosion in
concrete sewers
(c) Change of gradient
[UKPSC AE (Paper II) 2013/HPSSC JE
(d) All the above
2015]
Sol.(d) A manhole is generally
(a) Septic conditions
provided in joining of sewer lengths
and also help in their inspection, (b) Dissolved oxygen
cleaning and maintenance at each (c) Chlorine
bend, junction and change of (d) Nitrogen
gradient.
Sol.(a) Corrosion of concrete sewers
due to occurrence of septic
44. The slope of a sewer will be conditions (i.e. produced by
[UPRVUNL JE 2015] bacteriological reduction of
sulphates into H2S gas which is react
(a) Given the direction of natural
with air and oxidised to H2So4).
slope of ground
(b) Given in the direction opposite to
natural slope of ground 47. Discharge from washing places is
termed as
(c) Zero
[UKPSE AE Paper II 2013]
(d) Steeper than 1
(a) Sewage (b) Garbage
Sol.(a) Flow in sewer is gravity flow,
hence the slope of a sewer will be (c) Rubbish (d) Sullage
given the direction of natural slope Sol.(d) Sullage discharging water
of the ground. from washing place (i.e. bathrooms,
sink etc.) of building sanitary system.
45. Laying of sewers is usually done

with the help of: 48. Cowl is provided at:
[HPSSC JE 2015] [UPSSSC JE 2015]
(a) A theodolite (a) Bottom portion of ventilating
(b) A compass column
(c) Sight rails and boing rods (b) Top portion of ventilating column
(d) A plane table (c) Top portion of manhole

(d) At sewer joint
P a g e 62 | 116
Sol.(b) Cowl is provide at top Sol.(b) Sewer should be designed to
portion of ventilating column which carry peak discharge i.e. Maximum
consists of a vertical shaft. hourly discharge and should be
Cowl allows the escape of sewer checked to ensure that at min.
gases into the atmosphere. Discharge (i.e. min. Hourly discharge
= 1/3  avg. daily discharge) velocity
generated should be greater than
self cleansing velocity.
51. In sewer line, at 12 o’ clock of day,

flow is approximately ____ of
average flow.
[UPSSSC JE 2015]
49. Sewers should have designed with (a) Half (b) Equal
self-cleaning velocity : (c) Two times (d) Three times
[LMRC JE 2015] Sol.(c) In sewer line, at 12 0’clock of
(a) The bottom is silted day or max daily discharge, flow is
(b) The bottom is scoured approximately two times of average
(c) Both silting and scouring occur at daily flow discharges.
the bottom
(d) Neither silting nor scouring 52. To sustain high external and
occurs at the bottom internal pressures, the most
Sol.(d) Sewers should be designed appropriate sewer material is:
with self – cleansing velocity for [Uttarakhand JE 2015]
neither silting nor scouring occurs at (a) C.I. pipe
the bottom. (b) Steel pipe
(c) Vitrified clay pipe
50. A sewer is commonly designed to (d) R.C.C. pipe
attain self-cleaning velocity at: -
Sol.(a) To sustain high external and
[UPPCL JE 2015] internal pressures under special
(a) Average hourly rate of flow circumstances – For out fall sewers,
(b) Minimum hourly rate of flow under heavy traffic loads, me most
(c) Sewer running half full appropriate sewer material is C.I.
pipe.
(d) Peak hourly rate of flow
P a g e 63 | 116
53. The sewerage system originates Dia. upto 0.9m - 90m
from Dia. upto 1.2 m - 120m
[Uttarakhand JE 2015] Dia. upto 1.5m - 250m
Maximum Dia.> 1.5m – 300m
[DMRC JE 2015/UPSSC JE 2015]
(a) Main sewer (b) House sewer
56. A combined system will be
(c) Outfall sewer (d) Sub main sewer
favorable when -
Sol.(b) The sewerage system
[UPRVUNL JE 2015]
originates from house sewer then
lateral sewer to branch sewer then (a) The sewers are to be laid in rocks
after main trunk sewer. Last of main (b) The finances are limited
sewer is the out fall sewer which is (c) The topography is flat
designed to run full under pressure necessitating deep excavation for
condition. combined sewers
(d) The locality to be served has
54. Sewerage system is usually narrow streets
designed for a projected period of Sol.(d) A combined system will be
[UK Combined AE paper II 2007] favourable when the drainage is
(a) 5 years (b) 25 years taken along with sewage in case of
locality to be served has narrow
(c) 50 years (d) 100 years
streets.
Sol.(b) The sewerage system is
usually designed for a projected
period of 25 years. 57. The cross section of sewer which is
suitable for both combined and
separate system is :-
55. For a sewer line of 50 cm diameter,
the spacing of manhole along
straight run would be (a) Circular sewer
approximately. (b) Egg shaped sewer
[UPSSSC JE 2015] (c) Horse shoe type sewer
(a) 10 m (b) 100 m (d) Semi elliptical sewer
(c) 500 m (d) 1000 m Sol.(b) Egg. Shaped sewers used for
Sol.(b) Manhole spacing as per IS: low discharges maintain hydraulic
1742-1960 depth nearly uniform and give 2 to
Size of sewer Recommended 15 % higher velocities than provided
spacing by hydraulically equivalent circular
Dia. upto 0.3m - 45m sections carrying the same low
Dia. upto 0.6 m - 75m
P a g e 64 | 116
discharges, are therefore, pre ferried are narrow and topography of city is
for combined sewers. flat.
58. Bottom circle diameter in oval 61. Which one of the following is not a
sewers is formula for determining quantity of
[Jharkhand SSC JE 2016] storm water?
1 1 [Jharkhand SSC JE 2016]
D D
(a) 3 (b) 4 (a) Fuller’s formula
1 (b) Fanning’s formula
D
(c) 2 (d) 1 D
(c) manning’s formula
Sol.(c) Bottom circle diameter in
(d) Talbolt’s formula
oval shaped in egg shaped sewer is
Sol.(c) Empirical formulae for
half of the upper circle diameter (D).
determining quantity of stream
water
59. Preferable diameter of sewer pipes  Burkli – Ziegler’s formula (used in
[Jharkhand SSC JE 2016] Switzerland)
(a) 150 mm (b) 50 mm  MC. Math’s formula (used in
U.S.A.)
(c) 400 mm (d) 500 mm
 Fuller’s formula
Sol.(a) The minimum dia of sewer in
 Fanning’s formula
plain terrain is preferably 150 mm
 Talbot’s formula
and for hilly terrain it is 100 mm.
62. Which of the following sewers

60. It is better to provide separate
collects the discharge from a
system of sewerage if?
collecting system and delivers it to a
[UPRVUNL JE 2015] treatment plant?
(a) Rain fall is throughout the year [UPPCL JE 2015]
and intensity is less
(a) Outfall sewer (b) Branch sewer
(b) Streets are narrow.
(c) House sewer (d) Lateral sewer
(c) Topography of city is flat
Sol.(a) Outfall sewer collects the
(d) City is in rocky area. discharge from a collecting system
Sol.(d) Separate system of sewerage and delivers it to a treatment plant
is preferred for city in rock area and
combined sewerage system is 63. Combined sewage obtained from
provided for rainfall is throughout water closets urinals and business
the year and intensity is less, streets establishments town, is called:
P a g e 65 | 116
[UK Combined AE paper II 2007] The basic difference between water
(a) Industrial sewage (b) Sullage pipes and sewer pipes is :
(c) Septic sewage (d) Sanitary A. In the material used for the pipes
sewage B. In the pressure of the liquid flow
Sol.(d) Sanitary sewage or combined C. In the suspended solids they
sewage = (Sewage from water carry
closets urinals) + business Which of these statements are
establishments domestic sewage correct ?
or
[UPRVUNL JE 2015]
Sanitary sewage = Domestic
(a) Only A and C (b) Only A
sewage + Industrial sewage
Sullage = waste water from house (c) Only B and C (d) Only three
hold sinks, showers and baths. Sol.(c)
Water pipes Sewer pipes
64. The self-cleaning velocity in a sewer
It carry pure water It carry particles in
depends on without Containing suspension, and
A. BOD [soluble] any kind of solid the heavier of
Particles. these Particles may
B. Slope of the sewer
settle down at the
C. Ratio of depth of flow sewage to bottom of the
sewer diameter ration sewers.
Which of these statements are It carry water It carry sewage as
supply under gravity Conduits
correct?
Pressure. (or open channels).
[UPRVUNL AE 2015]
(a) All three
(b) Only A and B 66. The temperature affects the
(c) Only B and C [Uttarakhand Combined State AE
(d) Only A and C Paper II 2007]
Sol.(c) Self – cleansing velocity in a (a) Biological activity in sewers
sewer depends on (b) Solubility of gases in sewers
1
V  R1/ 6  k s  Gs  1 d p 
1/ 2
(c) Viscosity of sewage
n
(d) All of the above
- Depends on slope of the
sewer Sol.(d) The temperature effects on
- Hydraulic radius R the biological activity in sewers,
solubility of gases in sewers and
viscosity of sewage.
65. Consider the following statements :
P a g e 66 | 116
Sol.(b) Resistance to corrosion of
CH 06 WASTE WATER concrete sewer due to sulphate
attack due to develops H2S gas.
CHARACTERISTICS
Most commonly pipe is used for
resist corrosion from H2S is glazed
1. What does the high COD to BOD wire pipe.
ration of an organic pollutant
represent? 3. In an industrial area, the industrial
[UPPCL JE 2015] sewage has a 5-day BOD of 800 kg
(a) Presence of toxic material in the per day at 20 degree Celsius. If the
aerobic decomposition average population equivalent per
capita per day is 80 g of 5-day BOD
(b) Presence of free oxygen for
at 2 degree Celsius, then the
aerobic decomposition
equivalent population [persons] for
(c) High bio-degradability of the
which the industry can be charged
pollutant
will be:
(d) Low bio-degradability of the
[UP RVNL AE 2016]
pollutant
(a) 10000 (b) 15000
Sol.(d) The high BOD to COD ratio
(c) 20000 (d) 25000
represents high bio degradability
Sol.(a) Equivalent population
BOD
BOD5 day in kg per day
 If COD = 0.6 sewage is said to
Avg. population equivalent
be easily bio degradable.
BOD = per capita per day
 If COD is very small (  0)
800 1000 gm
sewage is treated as toxic sewage.  10, 000
= 80 gm
2. Which of the following pipe is

commonly used to resist corrosion 4. Under Indian conditions, the
from H2S ? average per capita contribution of
B.O.D. is:-
[UKPSC AE E Paper II 2013]
(a) Asbestos cement pipe
(a) 10-20 gm/day (b) 20-35 gm/day
(b) Glazed wire pipe
(c) 35-50 gm/day (d) 50-70- gm/day
(c) R.C.C pipe
Sol.(d) Under Indian conditions, the
(d) None of the above average per capita contribution of
BOD is about 50-70 gm/day.
P a g e 67 | 116
8. If 1% solution of a sewage sample is
5. The characteristics of fresh and incubated for five days at 200C and
septic sewage respectively are:- depletion of oxygen was found to
[UKPSL A E Paper II 2013] be ppm., B.O.D. of the sewage is
(a) Acidic and alkaline [HPSSSB JE 31 April 2017]
(b) Alkaline and acidic (a) 7 ppm (b) 70 ppm
(c) Both acidic (c) 700 ppm (d) .07 ppm
(d) Both alkaline Sol.(c)
Sol.(b) The alkalinity of fresh waste BOD5=  DO final  DOinitial   dilution factor
water sample is alkaline bur as time 100
 7  700 ppm
passes it become acidic, because of 1
the bacterial action in anaerobic
process. 9. A 2% solution of a sewage sample is
kept at an incubation temperature
6. Standard BOD5, at 200C, when of 200C, if initial Dissolved Oxygen
[DO] and final DO values after 5
compared to ultimate BOD, is
days’s incubation period are 8.5
about.
mg/L and 5.5 mg/L respectively,
[HPSSSB JE 03-07-2016] then the BOD will be
(a) 58% (b) 68% [UPRVUNL AE 2015]
(c) 98% (d) None of these (a) 50 mg/L (b) 150 mg/L
Sol.(b) Standard BOD = BOD for 5 (c) 250 mg/L (d) 350 mg/L
days at 200c and it is about 68% of
Sol.(b)
ultimate BOD .
BOD5=  DO final  DOinitial   dilution factor
100
7. Environmental attributes of water  8.5  5.5  
= 2
are[Jharkhand SSC JE 2016]
 3  50  150 mg / l
(a) BOD only
(b) DO only
10. In which one of the following tests
(c) Acid and alkali only
is the organic matter in the waste
(d) BOD, DO, Acid and alkali water used as food by micro-
Sol.(d) Environmental attributes of organisms?
water are BOD, DO, acid and alkali. [UPRVUNL AE 2015]
(a) BOD
(b) Most probable number
P a g e 68 | 116
(c) COD oxygen demand [mg/L] of the
(d) Chlorine demand sample will be.
Sol.(a) In BOD test, organic matter in [UPRVUNL JE 09-11-2016]

the waste water is used as food by (a) 3800 (b) 475
micro-organisms. (c) 271 (d) 190
Sol.(c) BOD5 = 190 mg/L

11. Biochemical Oxygen Demand [BOD]
k D  0.105d 1
is a measure of
[RRB JE Guwahati Yellow Paper

Lt  L0 1  10 kDt 
14.12.2014] 190  L0  1  100.1055 
(a) Oxygen utilized during oxidation L0  270.86  271 mg / L
of organic mattes
(b) Suspended particles in water 14. The amount of oxygen required for
(c) Suspended particles in air biological decomposition of
(d) Noise level in air dissolved organic solids under
aerobic conditions for five days at
Sol.(a) Biochemical oxygen demand
20 degree Celsius is termed is:
(BOD) is a measure of oxygen
utilized during oxidation of organic [NPCE JE 21 jan 2017]
matters. (a) Chemical Oxygen Demand
(b) Reduction Demand
12. BOD5 at 200C should not be more (c) Biological Oxygen Demand [BOD]
than_____ for discharging the (d) Chlorination Demand

treated effluent into inland surface Sol.(c) standard biological oxygen
water. demand (BOD)
[MP Sub Engineer 09-07-2017 2nd = BOD for 5 days at 200c
meeting]
(a) 30 mg/L (b) 600 mg/L 15. To test the C.O.D. of sewage,
(c) 100 mg/L (d) 14 mg/L organic matter is oxidized by
KMnO4 in the presence of
Sol.(a) BOD5 at 200 c should not
more than 30 mg/l for discharging [UK Combined State AE Paper II
the treated effluent into in land 2017]
surface water (a) H2SO4 (b) HCl
13. The 5 day BOD of a waste water
(c) Nitric acid (d) Citric acid
sample is obtained as 190 mg/L
[with K=0.105 d-1] The ultimate
P a g e 69 | 116
Sol.(a) To test the C.O.D. of sewage, biodegradable organic content is
organic matter is oxidised by KMnO 4 usually done is terms of:
in the presence of H2SO4 acid. [Coal India 2016]
(a) Dissolved oxygen
16. For determining a d-day BOD,
(b) Chemical oxygen demand
sewage has been diluted to a ratio
(c) Total oxygen demand
of 100. If the contents of the
dissolved oxygen at the beginning (d) Biological oxygen demand
and end of the test are respectively Sol.(b) COD = Non-biodegradable
15 and 7.5 ppm, the 5-day BOD organics + BOD4
[mg/l] will be:
[UP RRVNL AE 2016] 19. Why is BOD test not well suited to
(a) 150 (b) 750 industrial wastes?
(c) 1000 (d) 1500 [M.P.Sub. Eng. 3 April, Evening
Sol.(b) 2016]
BOD5   DO inital  DO final   dilution factor (a) It is a slow process
=  15-7.5   100 (b) Toxic chemicals produce wrong
results
 750 mg / l
(c) The waste lacks in nutrients
(d) Oxidation is incomplete
17. The 5-day Biological oxygen
demand [BOD] of sewage is found Sol.(b) In Industrial wastes which is
to be 325 mg/l. This sewage will be toxic chemicals produce wrong
classified as: results on BOD test.
[UP EVNL AE016]

(a) Strong sewage (b) Average 20. Why is light excluded in BOD
incubator?
(c) Weak (d) Standard
[M.P. Sub. Eng. 3 April, Evening
Sol.(b)
2016]
BOD (mg/l) strength of sewage
100 Weak (a) To encourage anaerobic
200 Medium conditions
325 Average (b) To prevent growth of algae
400 Strong
(c) To control aerobes
(d) To encourage growth of fungi
18. In regard to waste water treatment,
the characterization of non-
P a g e 70 | 116
Sol.(d) To encourage growth of 23. The standard B.O.D. of water is
fungi, the light is excluded in BOD taken for
incubator. [UK Combined State AE Paper II
2017]
21. In a B.O.D. Test, a 1.0 ml Raw (a) 5 days (b) 3 days
sewage was diluted to 100 ml. (c) 2 days (d) 1 days
sewage In the beginning the
Sol.(a) The standard BOD of water
concentration of dissolved oxygen is
is taken for 5 days. It is about of 68%
the diluted sample was 6 ppm and
of ultimate BOD.
after the end of fifth day
concentration was 4 ppm at 2000c
24. BOD A measure of organic
heat Temperature. What will be the
impurities stands for :
B.O.D. of the Raw sewage?
[BCCI JE 30 April 2017]
[LMRC JE 2016]
(a) Biodegradable oxygen demand
(a) 400 ppm (b) 200 ppm
(b) Bio resisting oxygen demand
(c) 100 ppm (d) 300 ppm
(c) Biological oxygen demand
Sol.(a) Dilution factor =
(d) Biochemical oxygen demand
diluted volume 100
  100 Sol.(d) BOD = Bio-chemical oxygen
raw swage volume 1
demand.
BOD5   DO initial  DO final   dilution factor
= 2*100 =200 ppm 25. BOD- 5 represents days biochemical

oxygen demand at a temperature
of-
22. BOD [Bio Chemical Oxygen
Demand] of safe drinking water [Airport Authority of India JE 2015]
must be: (a) 00C (b) 200C
[RRB JE Bilaspur Red Paper
(c) 300C (d) 1000C
14.12.2014]
Sol.(b) BOD5 is the bio-chemical
(a) 0 (b) 50 ppm
oxygen demand of organic waste
(c) 100 ppm (d) 200 ppm water at 200C.
Sol.(a) Bio-chemical oxygen demand
(BOD) of safe drinking water must be
26. Standard B.O.D. is measured at
zero
[UPSSSC JE 2015]
(a) 200c - 1 day (b) 250c - 3 day
(c) 200c - 5 day (d) 300 c - 5 day
P a g e 71 | 116
Sol.(c) Standard BOD is measured at (a) Sulphur (b) Methane
200c for 5 days in cubation. (c) Oxygen (d) Fluorine
27. The rate of BOD exerted at any time Sol.(b) Methane gas develops
is[H.P. SSC JE 2015] explosive tendency in waste water.
(a) Directly proportional to BOD
remaining
2. Eutrophication of water bodies is
(b) Directly proportional to BOD
caused by:
satisfied
(c) inversely proportional to BOD
(a) Discharge of heavy metals
satisfied
(b) Excessive discharge of nutrients
(d) inversely proportional to BOD
remaining (c) Excessive discharge of suspended
solids
(a) The rate of BOD exerted at
Sol. (d) Excessive discharge of chlorides.
dLt Sol.(b) The enrichment of waters by
any time = dt in organic plant nutrients is called
eutrophication. This phenomenon
can be caused by various sources,
both artificial and natural.
3. The gas from sludge digesting tank

is mainly composed of:
[H.P. SSC JE 2015]
dLt (a) Nitrogen (b) Carbon dioxide
 Lt
dt (BOD remaining) (c) Hydrogen sulphide (d) Methane
dL t
  kLt Sol.(d) Methane gas is mainly
dt
composed gas in the sludge
digesting tank. Methane (65%), CO2
CH 07 BIOLOGICAL REACTIONS IN (30%) and other gas (5%)
TREATMENT OF WASTE
WATER 4. Shallow ponds in which dissolved
oxygen is present at all depth are
called
1. Which of the following gas develops
explosive tendency in water? [UPPCL JE 2016]
[UPPCL JE 2016] (a)Aerobic lagoon (b) Aerobic

ponds
P a g e 72 | 116
(c)Facultativelagoons (d)Facultative (a) More (b) Less
ponds (c) Equal (d) No
Sol.(b) Shallow ponds in which Sol.(a) Standard rate filter required
dissolved oxygen is present at all more land area as compared to high
depth are called Aerobic ponds. rate filter.
CH 08 SEWAGE TREATMENT 3. Which of the following statement is

true for trickling filter sludge?
1. Effluent from a high rate Trickling [UPPCL JE 2015]

filter is (a) It is more difficult to dewater
[UK Combined AE paper II 2012] than activated sludge
(a) Black and highly oxidized (b) it is bulky
(b) L:ightly and oxidized (c) it has a comparatively low

concentration of sludge solids.
(c) Brown and not fully oxidized
(d) It has a comparatively low sludge
(d) Well nitrified and free from odors
volume index
Sol.(c) Effluent form a high rate
Sol.(d) For trickling filter sludge
tricking filter is brown colored and
volume index is lesser than activated
not fully oxidized.
sludge process.
4. The term sludge age is associated

with
[Airport Authority of India JE 2015]
(a) Sedimentation (b) Aeration
(c) Sludge drying (d) Digestion
Sol.(d) Sludge digestion is a
biological process in which organic
solids are decomposed into stable
substances.
 Sludge age is the amount of time, in
days, that solids or bacteria are
2. As compared to high rate filter,
under aeration and it is directly
standard rate required ___ land
related to digestion of sludge.
area.
[UPPCL JE 2016]
5. Most of the bacteria in sewage are:
P a g e 73 | 116
[Airport Authority of India JE Sol.(b) The rate of sludge
2015/HPSSC JE 2015] accumulation in a septic tank is 30
(a) Parasitic (b) Saprophytic litter per person per year.
(c) Pathogenic (d) Anaerobic 8. The presence of free ammonia in

sewage is detected by :
Sol.(b) Bacteria from sewage are
pathogenic,non-pathogenic, [UKPSC AE (Paper II) 2013]
saprophytes autotrophic, hetrophic, (a) Boiling
saprophytes etc. (b) Adding potassium permanganate
 Saprophytic bacteria devour dead
(c) Adding sulphuric acid
organic substances, which helps to
(d) Adding phenyl
break down waste into inorganic
and organic by products. These Sol.(a) Presence of nitrogen – by
bacteria are harmless and play a means of
critical role in the treatment of  Free ammonia – Simply boiling of
sewage. the sewage and measuring the
ammonia gas.
 Organic or Albuminoidal nitrogen
6. The solid content of sewage is
– By adding of potassium
usually:
permanganate (kmno4)
[UPSSC JE 2015]  Nitrites – by adding sulphonilic
(a) 99 % (b) 80 % acid and naphthamine.
(c) 15 % (d) 0.1 %  Nitrates – by adding phenol-di-
sulphuric acid and potassium
Sol.(d) Sewage consists of
hydroxide.
approximately 99% water and 1%
inorganic and organic matter in
suspended and soluble forms. 9. Find the septic tank capacity for a
small colony of 400 persons with
average daily sewage flow is 150
7. The rate of sludge accumulation in a
liters per head per day.
septic tank is generally of the order
of [MP VYPAM Draftsman 2016]
[U.K. Combined A E Paper II 2012] (a) 55 m3 (b) 60 m3
(a) 10 lit/person/year (c) 65 m3 (d) 70 m3
(b) 30 lit/person/year
Sol.(b) We know that, detention
(c) 100 lit/person/year
time of septic tank is 12 -36 hours
(d) 25 lit/person/year Average value takes = 24 hrs = 1
days.
P a g e 74 | 116
Capacity of septic tank = avg. Daily specific gravity of sewage is slightly
sewage flow  Detention time greater 1 (i.e. 1.002).
= 150  400  1
= 60,000 litres 12. For the same solid content, if the
= 60 m3 quantity of sludge with a moisture
content of 98% is X, then the
10. The length, width and depth of a quantity of sludge with moisture
rectangular settling tank are 25m, content of 96 % will be:
6m and 4 m respectively, IF 2 hour [HPSSSB JE 31-04-2017]
detention period for tank is (a) 2X (b) X
recommended, then the rate of X X
flow of sewage per hour is :- (c) 2 (d) 4
[UKPSC AE (Paper II)2013] Sol.(c) V(100 –p) = V1 (100-P1)
(a) 600 m3 (b) 400 m3 V = volume of sludge’s of moisture
content p (in %)
(c) 300 m3 (d) None of V1 = Volume of sludge’s at
the above moisture content p1 (in %)
Sol.(c) Rate flow of sewage = X(100-98) = V1 (100-96)
Volume of tank X
detention time 2
1=
25  6  4 V
 300m3
= 2 per hour
13. The underground structure in the
11. What is the specific gravity of form of a circular or rectangular
sewage? tank for the proposes of admitting
[UP Jal Nigam JE 2015/UPSSSC JE sewage into it from the intercepting
2015/UKPSC AE (Paper II) chamber is called
2013/Haryana SSC JE 2015] [UPRVUNL JE 2015]
(a) Zero (a) Septic tank (b) Cess pool
(b) Slightly less than 1 (c) Pricy pit (d) Soak pit
(c) Equal to 1 Sol.(b) Cess pool or septic tank is the
(d) Slightly greater than 1 underground structure in the form
of a circular or rectangular tank for
Sol.(d) Sewage consists of
the proposes of admitting sewage
approximately 99% water and 1%
into it from the intercepting
inorganic and organic matter in
chamber.
suspended and soluble forms. So,
P a g e 75 | 116
14. What is partly or completely [MP VYPAM 8-7-2017 2nd meeting]
treated sewage flowing out of a (a) Aerator (b) Grit remover
sewage treatment tank or plant
(c) Digester (d) Comminutor
called?
Sol.(d) Comminution and
[UPCL JE 2015]
maceration are installed before fine
(a) Treated sewage screen. They shed materials to size
(b) Discharged sewage 6-20 mm,
(c) Sewage water Comminution has cutting teeth
whereas macerator have grinding
(d) Effluent
wheels.
Sol.(d) The partly or completely
treated sewage flowing out of a
sewage treatment tank or plant is
called “Effluent.”
15. The rate of accumulation of sludge

per person per year is:
[UPPCL JE 2013]
(a) 25 liters (b) 10 liters 18. A septic tank is a water resistant
(c) 15 liters (d) 20 liters tank where the following operation
Sol.(a) For septic tank, the rate of takes place:
accumulation of sludge per person [U.K. Combined A E paper II 2012]
per year is 30 litres or 25 litres. (a) Sedimentation
(b) Sedimentation and digestion
16. Septic tank CANNOT be constructed (c) Digestion
by
(d) Decomposition of organic and
[Jharkhand SSC JE 2016] inorganic matter
(a) RCC (b) Masonry Sol.(b) In septic tank sedimentation
(c) Steel (d) Wood and digestion operation takes place.
Sol.(d) Septic tank can not be
constructed by wood, it is a
decaying material.
17. The device which is used for

breaking large sized sewage solids
to less than 6 mm size is called as_
P a g e 76 | 116
(d) Fit for discharge into any open
drains
19. The probable width of septic tank is Sol.(d) The effluent of a septic tank
is fit for discharge into any open
[MP VYPAM 08-07-2017]
drains like soak pit and discharge
(a) 60 × 10-2m (b) 75 × 10-2m trench.
(c) 20 × 10-2m (d) 15 × 10-2m 22. Assertion A : The determination of
pH value of sewerage is important
Sol.(b) The probable width of septic
tank is 65 cm. Reason R: The efficiency of certain
treatment methods depends upon
the availability of the pH value
20. The minimum suggested distance
Which of the following is correct?
between the bottom of cess pool
and the highest ground water table [UPPCL JE 2015]
is (a) A is true but R is false
[UK combines state AE paper II (b) Both A and R are true. and R is
2007] the correct explanation of A
(a) 0.5 m/0.5 eh (b) 1.5 m/1.5 eh (c) A is false but R is true
(c) 3.0 m/3.0 eh (d) 6.0 m/6.0 eh (d) Both A and R are true. but R is
Sol.(c) Cess pool - an underground not a correct explanation of A.
container for the temporary strange Sol.(b) The determination of PH
of liquid waste and sewage. value is very important, as it gives an
The minimum suggested distance idea about certain treatments which
between the bottom of cess pool depends upon PH value.
and the highest ground water table
leave is 3.0 m to prevent mixing of
23. Presence of nitrogen is waste water
waste water with G.W.T. before it
sample is due to the decomposition
get treated in it.
of
[UPRVUNL JE 2015]
21. The effluent of a septic tank is......
(a) Carbohydrates (b) Proteins
[MP Draftman JE 08 july 2017 AM]
(c) Fats (d) Vitamins
(a) As good as that from a complete
Sol.(b) Presence of nitrogen in
treatment
waste water sample is due to the
(b) Unfit for discharge into any open
decomposition of proteins.
drains
(c) Foul and contains dissolved and
suspended solids
P a g e 77 | 116
24. A household septic tank, [UK Combined State AE Paper II
constricted under Indian conditions, 2017/MP SUB Engg. 3 april Morning
has a detention time of Shift 2]
[Uttarakhand Combines State AE (a) Acidic (b) Neutral
Paper II 2007] (c) Alkaline (d) None of the above
(a) 5 to 6 hours Sol.(b) PH = 7,it is natural condition
(b) 24 to 48 hours PH < 7 , Acidic
(c) 20 to 30 hours PH > 7 , Alkaline
(d) 30 to 60 hours 28. In every first stage of

decomposition of the organic
Sol.(b) Detention time for a house
matter in sewage
hold septic tank, can striated under
Indian conditions is from 24 to 48 [UK Combined State AE Paper II
hours. 2017]
(a) NH3 is formed (b) CO2 is
25. Waste stabilization ponds can be:- formed

[UKPC AE Paper ii 2014] (c) Nitrates are formed (d) Nitrites
are formed
(a) Aerobic (b) Anaerobic
Sol.(a) – Free ammonia or ammonia
(c) Facultative (d) any one
nitrogen (Indicate recent pollution)
of the above
 Organic nitrogen (indicates quantity
Sol.(d) Waste stabilization ponds
of nitrogen before decomposition
can be treated as aerobic, anaerobic
has started)
and facultative process.
 Nitrites (indicates partly
decomposed condition)
26. The average temperature of sewage  Nitrates (indicates old pollution –
in India is filly oxidised)
2017] 29. In the oxidation ditch, the excess
sludge is taken to:-
(a) 150c (b) 200c
(c) 350c (d) 400c
(a) Anaerobic digester
Sol.(b) The average temperature of
(b) Aerobic digester
sewage in India is about 200C.
(c) Drying beds
(d) Incinerator
27. If the pH value of sewage is 7, it is
P a g e 78 | 116
Sol.(c) In the oxidation ditch, the [I.O.F. JE 2015]
excess sludge is taken to drying (a) Acid fermentation (b) Acid
beds. regression
(c) Alkaline fermentation (d)
None of these
Sol.(a) Sludge digestion process (an
aerobic reaction)
30. The permissible biochemical oxygen

 Intermediate products
+
demand [mg/lit] limit for a sewage
treatment plant is: Methane forming bacteria
board 2016]
More
End products (CH4 , H2S, bacteria
CO2)
(a) Not more than 1 mg/l
(b) Not more than 20 mg/l
(c) Not more than 5 mg/l
33. The time interval of cleaning of
(d) Zero
septic tank should not be more than
Sol.(b) The permissible BOD for a [UK JE 2015]
domestic sewage treatment plant is
(a) 5 years (b) 1 year
not more than 20 mg/l.
(c) 6 months (d) 2 years
Sol.(d) The time interval of cleaning
31. The fresh sewage is generally..........
of septic tank is 6 month – 1 year
in nature
and it should not be more than 2
[Airport Authority of India JE 2015] year.
(a) Acidic (b) Alkaline
(c) Neutral (d) Acidic or neutral 34. Sludge volume index is defined as
Sol.(b) The alkalinity of fresh waste the ratio of:
water sample is alkaline but as time [UPPCLJE 2015]
passes it becomes acidic, because of
(a) Percentage of sludge by volume
the bacterial action in anaerobic or
to the percentage of total solids by
nitrification process.
weight
(b) Percentage of sludge by volume
32. The first stage of natural process of to the percentage of suspended
sludge digestion is: solids by weight
P a g e 79 | 116
(c) Percentage of suspended solids Sol.(c) A free-board of about 0.3-
by weight to the percentage of 0.5 m may be provided above the
sludge by volume top sewage line in the tank.
(d) Percentage of total solids by
weight to the percentage of sludge 37. The rate of flow of sewage is
by volumes generally assumed to be:
Sol.(b) Sludge volume index [UPPCL JE 2015]
(ml/gm.) =
(a) More than the rate of water
Percentage of sluge by volume
supply
Percentage of suspended solids
by weight (b) Less than the rate of water
It is also defined as volume occupied supply
in ml by 1 gm of solid in the mixed (c) Equal to the rate of water supply
liquor after settling for 30 minutes.
(d) At 150 litres per capita
Sol.(b) It is assumed that almost
35. ______something become septic
80% of water supply reaches sewer.
due overloading or unfavorable
However sewer should be designed
cloudy season.
to a minimum of 100 l/c/d of
[M.P SUB engineer 2016] discharge.
(a) Refuse (b) Sewage
(c) Sullage (d) Oxidation pond
38. What is the septic tank area for
Sol.(d) Oxidation pond becomes every 10 people?
septic due overloading or
[MP Draftman JE 08 july 2017 AM]
unfavourable cloudy season
because of sunlight prevent into the (a) 0.82m2 (b) 10m2/10eh2
pond. (c) 0.1m2/0.1eh2 (d) 82m2/82eh2
Sol(a). The septic tank area for every
36. In the design aspects of septic tank
10 people will be 0.82 m2.
what should be about 0.3 to 0.5m
[M.P SUB engineer 2016]
39. The impact of sewage outfall into a
(a) Capacity
river can be assessed by monitoring
(b) Detention period
[D.M.R.C. JE 2016]
(c) Free board
(a) Ammonical nitrogen,
(d) Shape phosphorous, fluoride & hardness
(b) DO, BOD, Coliform MPN nitrate -
N
P a g e 80 | 116
(c) Chloride, alkalinity, hardness Sol.(d) Anti-bacterial soap is made
&sulphate to kill bacteria of septic tank ,
(d) pH, turbidity, conductivity and however inside your septic tank,
colour pH bacteria is essential to breaking
down solid waste.
Sol.(b) The impact of sewage outfall
into a river can be assessed by
monitoring DO, BOD, Coliform, MPN, 42. For a colony of 10,000 persons
nitrate etc. having sewage flow rate of 200 L/
40. If 75% of water supplied is available capita/day, BOD of applied sewage
for disposal on a sewage farm of 300 mg/L organic loading of 300
constructed for a population of kg/day/hectare, the area of an
25000 and the water is supplied at a oxidation pond required offer
rate of 200 per head per day, then treating the sewage of the colony is:
the net area [in hectare] of the [L.M.R.C JE 2015]
required farm will be [assume the (a) 0.2 hectares (b) 1hectares
farm land is capable of consuming (c) 2 hectares (d) 6 hectares
25000 lt. per hectare]
Sol.(c) Sewage flow
[UP RVNL AE 2016]
= 200 10, 000  2 10 L / day
6
(a) 50 (b) 100

BOD applied sewage
(c) 150 (d) 200  2 106 L / day  300 10 6 / L
Sol.(c) Water supply (Q)  600 kg / day
= 200  25000 The area of an oxidation pond
 5000000 l/d Required
0.75  Q 600 kg / day
Sewage discharge = 
300 kg / day / hectare
 0.75  5000000  3750000 l/d
 2 hectares
Required farm for sewage treatment
plant
43. The bacteria which survive in the
3750000
 150 presence as well as absence of
= 25000 hectare per day oxygen, are called
41. Which of the following is NOT (a) Anaerobic (b) Facultative
suitable for septic tank functioning?
(c) B-coli (d) E-coli
Sol.(b) The bacteria which survive in
(a) Lime (b) Alum
the presence as well as absence of
(c) Cow dung (d) Soap solution
P a g e 81 | 116
oxygen, are called facultative oil which forms a scum in
bacteria. sedimentation tanks.
44. From the following sewage

treatment options, the largest land
for a given discharge will be needed
for:2-
[UKPSL A E Paper II 2013]
(a) Trickling filter (b) Anaerobic
pond
(c) Oxidation ditch (d) Sol.(d)
The largest land required for a given 46. Which of the following processes
discharge will be needed oxidation takes place in trickling filters?
pond. [UP Jal Nigam JE /L.M.R.C JE 2015]
Each unit should be 0.5-1 hac.
(a) Filtration (b) Oxidation
(c) Disinfection (d)Biological action
Sol.(d) Biological action processes
takes place in tricking filters.
47. The gases which are generally

evolved during anaerobic
decomposition of sewage are ___
[MP VYAPM Sub Engineer9 July
2017]
45.______are employed if the sewage (a) CO2+NH3+SO2+CH4
contains grease and fatty oil which
(b) CO2+NH3+SO2
forms a scum in sedimentation tanks
[UPPCL JE 2013] (c) CO2+NH3+H2S
(a) Sedimentation (d) CO2+NH3+H2S+CH4
(b) Chemical precipitation
Sol.(d) Anaerobic digestion - end
(c) Grit settling
product are NH3, H2S, CO2, CH4
(d) Skimming
Sol.(d) Skimming are employed if
48. When there is no recirculation of
the sewage contains grease and fatty
treated sewage in high rate
trickling, the recirculation factor is
P a g e 82 | 116
[MP VYAPM Sub Engineer9 July 50. The unit in which both
2017] sedimentation and digestion
(a) Unity (b) Infinity processes of sludge take place
simultaneously is called:-
(c) Greater than unity (d) Zero
[UKPSE AE Paper II 2013/UK
Sol.(a) Recirculation factor
Combined AE paper II 2012]
1 R
(a) Detritus tank (b) Skimming
 1  0.1R 
2
F= tank
Q
R R  if QR  0 , then F  1 (c) Digestion tank (d) Imhoff
Q0 tank
Sol.(d) Imhoff tank is an
49. Facultative bacteria are those improvement over septic tank in
which: which both sedimentation and
[MP VYPAM 08-07-2017 2nd digestion process takes place
meeting] simultaneously.
(a) Can survive with or without free

oxygen
(b) Flourish and thrive in the
absence of free oxygen
(c) Require oxygen for their survival
OR
Facultative bacteria are able to
work in
[H.P. SSC JE 2015]
51. The biochemical treatment of
(a) Presence as well as in the sewage effluents is a process of
absence of oxygen
[LMRC AE 2017 I-Shift]
(b) Absence of oxygen only
(a) Dehydration (b) Carbonation
(c) presence of oxygen only
(c) Oxidation (d) Reduction
(d) presence of water
Sol.(c) The biochemical treatment of
Sol.(a) Facultative heterotrophs or sewage effluents is a process of
bacteria is capable of functioning oxidation.
both in the presence as absence of
oxygen.
52. The main liberated from an anaerobic
sludge digester is:
P a g e 83 | 116
[Coal India 2016] 55. Which of the following process take
(a) Ammonia place during biochemical treatment
(b) Carbon dioxide of sewage effluents?
(c) Carbon monoxide [NPCC JE 21 Jan 2017]
(d) CH4 Methane (a) Oxidation (b) Carbonation
Sol.(d) The main liberated from an
(c) Hydration (d) Reduction
anaerobic sludge digester is
Sol.(a) Oxidation process take place
methane (CH4).
during biochemical treatment of
sewage effluents.
53. If the pH of sewage goes down
below 5, which of the following
56. Sewage treatment units are
processes is severely affected?
generally designed for-
[ UP RVNL AE 2016]
[Airport Authority of India JE
(a) Sedimentation
2015/UK Combined AE paper II
(b) Coagulation 2012/Uttarakhand JE 2015]
(c) Anaerobic treatment OR
(d) Dilution What value of flow is usually
Sol.(c) The alkalinity of fresh waste considered for designing sewage
water sample is alkaline but as time treatment units?
passes it become acidic , become of [Coal India 2016]
the bacterial action in anaerobic or
(a) Maximum flow only
nitrification processes generally PH <
(b) Minimum flow only
5.
(c) Average flow only
(d) Both maximum and minimum
54. Fully oxidized sewage, contains
flow
nitrogen is the form of
Sol.(c) Sewage treatment units are
generally designed for average flow.
2017]
(a) Nitrites (b) Nitrates
57. In a sewage treatment plant, the
(c) Ammonia (d) None of the above
process of removing oil and grease
Sol.(b) Fully oxidized sewage,
from sewage is called-
contains nitrogen is the form of
 [Airport Authority Of India AE 2015]
nitrates ( NO3 ).
(a) Skimming (b) Screening
(c) Filtration (d) Sedimentation
P a g e 84 | 116
Sol.(a) In a sewage treatment plant, 61. A detritus tank is provided in the
the process of removing oil and primary treatment of sewage to
grease from sewage is called remove;
skimming. [UPPCL JE 2015]
(a) Suspended solids (b) Stones
58. The minimum width of a septic tank (c) Grit (d) Oil and
is taken as greases
[Jharkhand SSC JE 2016] Sol.(c) A detritus tank is provided in
(a) 35 cm (b) 75 cm the primary treatment of sewage to
(c) 100 cm (d) 90 cm remove inorganic particles i.e. grit.
Sol.(b) The minimum width of a

septic tank is taken as 75 cm.
59. What is the detention time for the

domestic septic tank?
[UKPSC AE Paper ii 2013]
(a) 2 hours (b) 12 hours
(c) 24 hours (d) 28 hours
Sol.(c) Range of detention time of
septic tank is 12-36 hours, generally
62. Which coagulant is widely used for
it is taken as 24 hours.
sewage treatment?
[UPPCL JE 2015]
60. The bacteria which require oxygen
(a) Lime (b) Alum
for their survival is known as
(c) Ferric chloride (d) Ferric sulphate
[UPRVUNL JE 2015]
Sol.(c) Ferric chloride forms a
(a) Anaerobic bacteria
dense heavy floc, which settles
(b) Pathogenic bacteria rapidly. The sludge formed is also
(c) Aerobic bacteria not so bulky and can be digested or
(d) Non-pathogenic bacteria dewatered easily, this coagulant is
widely used for sewage treatment.
Sol.(c) The bacteria which require
oxygen for their survival is known as
aerobic bacteria. 63. If the efficiencies of BOD removal of
first stage and second stage trickling
filters are each 65% then what is
P a g e 85 | 116
the overall BOD removal efficiency Sol.(a) Septic tanks working purely
of these filters? on anaerobic conditions.
[UPPCL JE 2015]
(a) 87.75% (b) 77.25% 66. The bacteria which can survive with
(c) 92.6% (d) 65% or without free oxygen is
Sol.(a) Overall efficiency of trickling [HPSSSBJE 03.07.2016/I.S.R.O.2015]

filter (a) Aerobic bacteria
  1   1  n1   1  n2   100 (b) Anaerobic b bacteria
  1   1  0.65   1  0.65   100 (c) Faculative bacteria
  1  0.1225  100 (d) Coliform bacteria
 87.85 % Sol.(c) The bacteria which can

survive with or without free oxygen
64. Which of the following sewage is known as facultative bacteria.
treatment units has a parshall
flume?
67. The maximum efficiency of the BOD
[UPPCL JE 2015]
removal is obtained in
(a) Trickling filter (b) Oxidation ditch
[LMRC JE 2017/ I.S.R.O. 2015]
(c) Grit chamber (d) Aerated lagoon
(a) Oxidation ditch (b) Oxidation
Sol.(c) Grit chamber units has a pont
parshall flume flow section.
(c) Aerated lagoon (d) Trickling filter
Sol.(a) The maximum efficiency of
the BOD removal is obtained in
oxidation ditch.
Pathogenic bacteria removal
efficiency in oxidation pond and is
about 99.9% .
68. A septic tank represents an..............

[MP VYPAM 08-07-2017 2nd
65. A unit working purely on an meeting]
aerobiosis is [D.M.R.C.JE 2016]
(a) Anoxic system (b) Anaerobic
(a) Septic tanks system
(b) Tricking filter (c) Aerobic system (d) Oxide
(c) Constant bad system
(d) Activated sludge process
P a g e 86 | 116
Sol.(b) Units based on aerobic (c) Rich in inorganic matter and
treatment are micro organisms
 Trickling filter, activated sludge (d) Rich in bigger inert solids
process, oxidation pond etc.
Sol.(b) Sludge contains of rich in
 Units based on anaerobic treatment
organic matter and bacteria from a
are
biological treatment units.
 Septic tank, imhoff tank, UASB
reactor etc.
71. Which one of the following is NOT a
hazardous waste?
69. Activated sludge process is based
on:
(a) Arsenic waste
board 2016] (b) Sludge from water treatment
plant
(a) Suspended growth process
(c) Cadmium arsenic waste
(b) Aerobic attached cultivation
(d) Industrial toxic waste
(c) Anaerobic process
Sol.(b) Hazardous waste - Arsenic
(d) None of the other option
waste, cadmium arsenic waste,
Sol.(a) Suspended growth process - industrial toxic waste.
Activated sludge process
Attached growth system - tricking
filter, rotating biological contractor 72. Which of the following sewage
(RBC) treatment method has inherent
problem of odour, ponding and fly
nuissance?
[UKPSE AE Paper II 2013]
(a) UASB systerm
(b) Activated sludge process
(c) Trickling filter
(d) Stabilization ponds
70. What does sludge from a Biological
Sol.(c) Operational trouble in
treatment unit contain?
standard rate trickling filter
[SSE JE 2012]
 Filter media ponding and clogging
(a) Harmful inorganic sediments  Excessive fly breeding
(b) Rich in organic matter and  Odour
bacteria  Upflow anaerobic sludge blanket
(UASB) technology, normally referred
P a g e 87 | 116
to as UASB reactor, is a form of Sol.(b) Up to primary treatment
anaerobic digester that is used for physical forces predominant hence it
wastewater treatment is also called physical treatment.
CH 09 DISPOSING OF SEWAGE
EFFLUENT
1. The algae die out in the zone of

(a) Degradation
 A trickling filter is a type of (b) Active decomposition
wastewater treatment system. It (c) Recovery
consists of a fixed bed of rocks, coke,
(d) Cleaner water
gravel, slag, polyurethane foam,
sphagnum peat moss, ceramic, or Sol.(a) The algae die out in the zone
plastic media over which sewage or of degradation. In zone of clear
other wastewater flows downward water, the pathogens may remain in
and causes a layer of microbial slime river stream.
(biofilm) to grow, covering the bed of
media. 2. The zone in which of dissolve
oxygen may fall down to zero
causing anaerobic condition in the
river is:
board 2016]
(a) Zone of degradation
(b) Zone of active decomposition
73. Primary treatment of sewage is (c) Zone of recovery
called
(d) Zone of clean water
Sol.(b) Zones of pollution in river
(a) Biological treatment stream are:
(b)Physical treatment  Zone of degradation – DO reduce to
(c) Chemical treatment up to 40% of saturation value.
 Zone of active decomposition – DO
(d) Domestic treatment
may fall down to zero.
P a g e 88 | 116
 Zone of recovery – DO content rises It is the variation of oxygen with
above 40% of saturation value. length of a water reservoir or with
 Zone of clear water – DO will rise time of flow from point of pollution.
upto its saturation value.
3. Which of the following is NOT a

preventive measure for sewage
sickness?
[MP VYAPM Sub Engineer 9 July
2017]
(a) Use of sandy or loamy lands
(b) rotation of crops
5. Which of the following retards the
(c) Providing under drainage
self-purification of stream?
(d) Applying in larger depths
Sol.(d) Applying in larger depths is a
(a) Higher temperature
preventive measure for sewage
sickness. (b) Sunlight
(c) Satisfying oxygen demand
(d) None of these
4. Sag curve describes change of:
Sol.(d) Various factors on which
[BCCL JE 30-04-2017]]
natural force of purification depends
(a) Biomass growth with depth of a
 Self purification of stream
water reservoir
increases with increase in
(b) Oxygen with depth of a water temperature. Thus increase in rate
reservoir of reaction.
(c) Oxygen with length of a water  It proportional to sunlight
reservoir (increase photosynthesis process)
(d) Concentration of organic  It proportional to satisfying oxygen
pollutants with depth of a water demand
reservoir.
Sol.(c) The resultant oxygen deficit 6. When waste water is disposed off
cure or oxygen sag curve can be into a running stream, four zones
obtained by algebraically adding the are formed. In which of the
de–oxygenation and re–oxygenation following zones will the minimum
curves. level of dissolved oxygen be found?
[L.M.R.C. JE 2015]
P a g e 89 | 116
(a) Zone of degradation directly discharged into the volume
(b) Zone of active decomposition of water
(c) Zone of recovery

(d) Zone of clear water 9. Which of the following is the wrong
statement about land treatment of
Sol.(b) If D.O. concentration falls
sewage disposal?
down to zero in a natural drainage
system, it clearly indicates zone of [UPRVUNL JE 2015]
active decomposition. (a) A disposal of sewage is done
without natural courses
(b) The land is irrigated and receives
7. If D.O. concentration falls down to
high value fertilizing substance
zero in a natural drainage, it
indicates (c) Less area of land is required
[UK Combined State AE Paper II (d) The method is cheap
2017] Sol.(c) Land treatment of sewage
(a) Zone of degradation disposal is required a large area of
land.
(b) Zone of active decomposition
(c) Zone of recovery
10. For sewage disposal in a water body
(d) Zone of cleaner water
with out any treatment, the
Sol.(b) If D.O. concentration falls
minimum available dilution level
down to zero in a natural drainage
should be 1 in:
(river stream), it clearly indicates
[Coal India 2016]
zone of active decomposition.
(a) 200 (b) 500
(c) 300 (d) 150
8. No treatment of sewage is done if
the dilution factor is:- Sol.(b) Dilution factor above 500 -
No treatment biological activity in
[Uttarakhand Combined State AE
swears
paper II 2017/ UKPSC A E Paper II
2013]
(a) Between 150 to 200/150 - 200 11. Disposal of sewage in large cities, in
done in:
(b) Between 200 to 300/200 - 300
[UPCL JE 2015]
(c) Between 400 to 500/400 – 500
(a) Irrigation (b) Dilution
(d) More than 500/500
(c) Oxidation (d) Putrifaction
Sol.(d) If dilution factor greater than
above 500 then no treatment is Sol.(b) Methods of disposing of the
required. Raw sewage can be sewage effluents are
P a g e 90 | 116
 Dilution (disposal in water) for (d) Voids of soil clogged due to
large cities continuous application of sewage on
 Disposal on land (small cities) a piece of land
Sol.(d) Sewage sickness occurs when
12. If the dilution factor of sewage is voids of soil clogged due to
found to be 100, then which of the continuous application of sewage on
following treatments are required? a piece of land.
[UP RVNL AE 2016]

(a) No treatment 14. When sewage enters a flowing
(b) Complete treatment river, the rapid depletion of
dissolved oxygen is due to:
(c) Extensive treatment to bring BOD
below 20 ppm and SS below 30 [UPPCL JE 2015]
ppm/ BOD (a) The respiratory activity of aquatic
(d) Chemical precipitation plants in the river
Sol.(c) (b) The suspended particles in the

Dilution Standards of purification river and the waste
factor required (c) The change in temperature of the
Above 500 No treatment is required. river water
Primary treatment is required,
(d) The microbial activity
300 to 500 suspended solids < 150 ppm.
Treatments such as Sol.(d) When sewage enters a
sedimentation, screening and flowing river the rapid depletion of
chemical dissolved oxygen is due to the
150 to 300 Precipitation are required. microbial activity.
Suspended solids < 60 ppm.
Complete thorough treatment
Less than Suspend solids < 30 ppm CH 10 SOLID WASTE
150 BODs < 20 ppm .
MANAGEMENT
13. Sewage sickness occurs when? 1. In general, the total solids

destroyed (%) during the anaerobic
[UPRVUNL AE 2015]
digestion of solid waste range
(a) Sewage contains pathogenic between
organisms
[UPRVNL AE 2016]
(b) Sewage enters the water supply
(a) 20 - 40 (b) 40 - 60
system
(c) 60 - 80 (d) 80 -100
(c) Sewers get clogged due to
accumulation of solids
P a g e 91 | 116
Sol.(b) The total solids destroyed in 4. Which of the following solid was
anaerobic digestion of solid waste disposal method is ecologically
range of 40-60%. acceptable:-
[UKPSC AE Paper ii 2013]
2. In the physical composition of solid (a) Incineration (b) Composting
wastes following is considered: (c)Sanitary landfill (d) All of the
[UK Combined AE paper II 2012] above
(a) Density of solid waste Sol.(b) Compositing of solid waste is
(b) Moisture content an ecologically acceptable method.
(c) Particle size analysis

(d) All above 5. Non-disposal of the solid waste may
cause the spread of
Sol.(d) Solid waste includes all those
solid and semi – solid materials that [UK Combined State AE Paper II
discarded by a community. 2017/UKPSC AE Paper II 2013]
Thus, In the physical composition (a) Malaria
of solid wastes (b) Rodent-related plague
- Density of solid waste
(c) Typhoid
- Moisture content
(d) Dysentery
- Particle size analysis
Sol.(b) Non – disposal of the solid
waste may cause the spread of
3. Solid waste reduction cannot be
rodent – related plague.
done by the following:
6. The amount of water retained in
(a) Reducing useful life of product
solid waste, which after saturation
(b) Less use of material to is allowed to drain freely is termed
manufacture product as:
(c) Reducing use of packaging [UP RVNL AE 2016]
material
(a) Ambient moisture (b) Field
(d) All the above capacity
Sol.(a) The solid waste reduction by (c) Natural yield (d)Retained
following the three R’s :- ‘Reduce , moisture
Reuse and Recycle:
Sol.(d) The amount of water
retained in solid waste, which after
saturation is allowed to drain freely
is termed as retained moisture.
P a g e 92 | 116
ecological method for solid waste
7. The end product after separation disposal.
and anaerobic bacterial digestion of
organic municipal solid wastes is 10. The term 'Refuse' generally does
called not include
[U.K. Combined A E Paper II 2012] [UPRVUNL AE 2015]
(a) Compost (b) Humus (a) Putrescible solid waste
(c) Leachate (d) Ashes (b) Excreta
Sol.(a) The end product after (c) Non-putrescible solid waste
separation and anaerobic bacterial
(d) Ashes
digestion of organic municipal solid
Sol.(b) Refuse – It represents the
waste is called humus.
dry wastes or solid wastes of the
8. A municipality is searching for
society. It can be garbage, ashes and
landfill cover material. Which of the
rubbish based on the type of wastes.
following soil types, in general,
should be used in
11. The density in kg/cum [in situ] of
[UP RVNL AE 2016]
well compacted municipal solid
(a) Clean gravel (b) Clean sand
waste in landfill is in the range of
(c) Silt (d) Clay
[U.K. Combined A E Paper II 212]
Sol.(d) The use of clay liners or
(a) 100 to 300 (b) 310 to 500
synthetic liners like geotextiles has
(c) 550 to 850 (d) 900 to 1100
been the most method favourable
method for reducing and eliminating Sol.(b) The density of well
the percolation of leachate. compacted municipal solid waste in
landfill is in the range of 310 to 500
kg/m3.
9. Which of the following solid waste
disposal methods is ecologically
most acceptable? CH 11 AIR POLLUTION
[UPRVUNL AE 2015]
(a) Sanitary landfill (b) Incineration 1. Which of the following air
(c) Composting (d) Pyrolysis pollutants is/are responsible for
Sol.(c) The leachate from sanitary photochemical smog?
landfill tend to pollute ground water (1) Nitrogen oxides
incineration and pyrolysis causes air (2) Ozone
pollution Compositing does not
(3) Unburnt hydrocarbons
have any harmfull effect so it is an
P a g e 93 | 116
(4) Carbon monoxide
Select the correct answer using
code given below
(a) 1 alone 3. Ozone acts as a pollutant when
(b) 2 3 and 4 resides in
(c) 1 3 and 4 [IOF JE 2015]
(d) 1 and 3 (a) Troposphere
Sol.(d) Nitrogen oxide and unburnt (b) Stratosphere
hydrocarbon are the most significant
(c) Mesosphere
constituents of photochemical smog.
(d) Thermosphere
2. Cyclone separator is used to
Sol.(a) The ozone layer is found in
separate -
the upper regions of the
stratosphere where it protects the
(a) Sand particles from water earth from the harmful ultraviolet
(b) Suspended material from sewage rays of the. The layer closet to the
(c) Fatty acids from sludge earth’s surface is the troposphere.
Here, ground – level or “bad” ozone
(d) Particulates from the polluted
is an air pollulant.
gas
Sol.(d) Control devices for
particulates 4. Which of the following pollutants is
 Gravitational setting chambers responsible for depletion of ozone
 Centrifugal gas layer?
Cyclone collectors (or separators) [UKPSC AE (Paper II)2013]
Dynamic precipitations (a) Unburnt hydrocarbons
 Wet scrubbers (or collectors) (b) UV rays
Spray towers
(c) Chlorofluorocarbons
Wet cyclone scrubbers
(d) Oxides of nitrogen
 Venturi scrubbers
 Electrostatic precipitators Sol.(c) Primary reason for ozone
 Fabric filters layer depletion is CFC (chlorofluoro
carbon) or freons.
5. Acid rains are caused by the

following pollutants:-
P a g e 94 | 116
[UKPSC AE (Paper II)2013/LMRC JE (a) H2SO4 (b) HCFCs
2017]
(c) Methyl bromide (d) CFCs
(a) SO2 and O3 (b) SO2 and NOx
Sol.(a) Causes of ozone layer
(c) NOx and O3 (d) CO and SO2 depletion are
- Holocarbon refrigerants, solvents,
Sol.(b) Acid rain (or acid deposition) propellants and foam – blowing
results when gaseous emissions of agents.
sulphur oxides (SOx) and nitrogen (chloro fluoro carbons (CFCs),
oxides (NOx) interact with water HCFCs, halons, Methyl bromide
vapour and sunlight and are
chemically converted to strong
8. Depletion of ozone layer in the
acidic compounds (H2SO4and HNO3).
stratosphere is likely to increase the
6. Electrostatic precipitator is a device incidence of:
to control:-
(a) Lung Cancer
(a) SO2 emissions
(b) Skin Cancer
(b) Particulate emission (c) Bronchitis
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
(d) Precipitation of AL (OH) 3 in water Sol.(b) Ozone process serves as a
coagulation protective shield to human life
Sol.(b) Electrostatic precipitators against the adverse effect of UV like
remove of particulates emission. burn and some types of skin cancer.
9. What is the major pollutant present

in photochemical smog?
[Coal India 2016]
(a) Nitrogen oxide (b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Hydrocarbon (d) Sulphur dioxide
Sol.(a) Major pollutant present in
photochemical smog is Nitrogen
oxide.
7. Which of the following does NOT

cause depletion of ozone layer?
[Coal India 2016]
P a g e 95 | 116
Sol.(c) The Ringelmann’s scale is a
scale for measuring the apparent
density or opacity of smoke.
10. Secondary pollutant is:
12. Which of the following is not having
board 2016/UKPSC AE (Paper
adverse effect on plant as air
II)2013]
pollutant?
(a) Sulphur dioxide
(b) Ozone
(a) SO2
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Hydrogen sulphide (b) CO2
Sol.(b) (c) Hydrogen cyanide

Primary air Secondary (d) None of the above
pollutants pollutants Sol.(b) CO2 is beneficial for plant life.
 Oxides of  Sulphuric acid
Sulphur SO2 (H2SO4)
 Oxides of  Ozone(O3) 13. Longer exposure to NO2 even in
carbon CO,CO2 small concentration may cause
 Oxides of diseases pertaining to:
Nitrogen(NO,  Formaldehydes [Chhattisgarh professional exam
NO2,NO3,NOx) (HCHO) board 2016]
 Volatile (a) Lever (b) Lungs
organic  Peroxy-acyl-
(c) Heart (d) Kidney
compounds nitrate(PAN)
Sol.(b) Longer exposure of NO2 even
(HC)
in small concentration may cause
 Suspended
diseases pertaining to lungs.
particulate
matter (SPM)
14. If the temperature of the
11. Ringelmann’s Scale is used to atmosphere falls at a rate greater
[UPRVUNL JE 2015] than the lapse rate, then it is:-
(a) Measure CO [Chhattisgarh professional exam

board 2016]
(b) Measure SO2
(a) Unstable
(c) Grade Density of smoke
(b) Stable atmosphere
(d) Grade automobile exhaust gas
(c) Neutral atmosphere
(d) Sub adiabatic condition
P a g e 96 | 116
Sol.(a) When the ambient lapse rate [NPCC JE 21-01-2017]
(ELR) exceeds the adiabatic lapse (a) Eyes (b) Skin
rate (ALR), the ambient lapse rate is
(c) Nose (d) Heart
said to be super adiabatic and the
Sol.(d) Carbon monoxide has a
atmosphere is said to be highly
strong affinity for combining with
unstable.
the haemoglobin of the blood to
form carboxy haemoglobin (COHb).
This reduces the ability of the
haemoglobin to carry oxygen to the
body tissues and directly affected on
heart.
18. Which of the following is an air

15. Which of the following is primarily
pollutant?
responsible for acid rains?
[Coal India 2016]
(a) Nitrogen
(a) P2O5 (b) SO2
(b) Oxygen
(c) CO (d) CO2
(c) Carbon mono oxide
SOL.(b) Acid raid → Gaseous (d) None of the above
emissions of sulphur oxides (SOx) Sol.(c) Air pollutant – carbon
and nitrogen oxides (NOx). monoxide (CO), SOx, NOx, PAN etC.
16. One of the main effects of 19. Atmosphere consists of 78%

greenhouse is: Nitrogen and 21% Oxygen by
[LMRC AE 2017 I - Shift] [UK Combined AE paper II 2012]
(a) Reduced vegetation (a) Weight
(b) Increased vegetation (b) Volume
(c) No effect on vegetation (c) Density
(d) Depletion of vegetation (d) None of the above
Sol.(b) The main beneficial effects of Sol.(b) By volume, dry air contains
greenhouse is increased vegetation. 78.09% nitrogen, 20.95% oxygen,
0.93% argon, 0.04% carbon dioxide
17. The presence of intolerable levels of and small amount of other gases.
Carbon mono oxide in the air
impacts:
P a g e 97 | 116
20. The largest reservoir of nitrogen on (a) Eyes (b) Hair
planet earth is: (c) Heart (d) Ears
[UK Combined AE paper II 2007] Sol.(c) Carbon monoxide has a
(a) Atmosphere strong affinity for combining with
(b) Ocean the haemoglobin of the blood to
form carboxyhaemogolobin (COHb).
(c) Fossil fuel
This reduces the ability of the
(d) None of the above haemoglobin to carry oxygen to the
Sol.(a) The largest reservoir of body tissues and directly affected on
nitrogen on planet earth is heart.
atmosphere.
23. Killing of tissuses from air pollutant

21. Which of the following is used in is called
removing the dust particles from a [M.P. sob Eng. 3 April Morning
gaseous medium using electrostatic 2016]
forces?
(a) Necrosis (b) Chlorosis
[Coal India 2016]
(c) Abscission (d) Epinasty
(a) Filter
Sol.(a) Killing of tissues from air
(b) Cyclone scrubber pollutant is called as Necrosis.
(c) Dust collector
(d) Electrostatic precipitator 24. To control vehicular pollution from
Sol.(d) In Electrostatic precipitations exhaust of vehicles, following is
the emitted gas (flue gas) is passed fitted;
through a highly ionised atmosphere [UPSSSC JE 2015]
(high-voltage field), and there is that
(a) Electrostatic precipitator
zone particulate get electrically
charged with the result that they get (b) Catalytic converter
separated out from the gaseous (c) Bag filter
stream with the help of electrostatic (d) Cyclone separator
forces.
Sol.(b) To control vehicular pollution
from exhaust of vehicles, catalytic
22. Which of the following human converter is fitted to the vehicles
organs is badly impacted with exhausts.
unbearable levels of Carbon
monoxide in air?
[Coal India 2016]
P a g e 98 | 116
 Sunburn
 Inactivation of RNA and DNA
25. if Carbon monoxide is 1.3% in air, 28. As per National Ambient Air Quality
then which of the following may be standards, maximum permissible
caused? concentration of NO2 (24 hr.
[UPRVUNL JE 2016] average) in ambient air in
(a) Death in less than 3 min residential area is:
(b) Dizziness [UPSSSC JE 2015]
(c) Frontal headache (a) 100 μg/m3 (b) 80 μg/m3

(d) No effect (c) 60 μg/m3 (d) 40 μg/m3
Sol.(a) At a concentration of carbon Sol.(b) National Ambient air quality
monoxide 1.3% in air, it causes
standards (24 hr. average)
unconsciousness after a few breaths
Industrial,
(i.e. death in less than 3 mm). Residential,
Pollutant
Rural & other
areas( μg/m 3 ¿
26. Which type of air pollutant is
Ethylene?
1. Sulphur Dioxide 50 – 80
[UPRVUNL JE 2016] (SO2)
(a) Solid (b) Liquid 2. Nitrogen Dioxide 40 – 80
(NO2)
(c) Hydrocarbons (d) Aldehydes
3. PM(particulate 60 – 100
Sol.(c) Hydrocarbons – Ethylene, matter) size less
Aldehydes etc. than 10μm (PM10)
4. PM2.5 40 – 60
5. Ozone(O3) 100 – 180
27. Thinning of ozone layer in 6. Lead(Pb) 0.50 – 1.0
stratosphere will cause:- 7.Carbon 2-4
[UPSSSC JE 2015] monoxide(CO
(a) Blindness
(b) Sunburn
(c) Inactivation of RNA and DNA 29. Electrostatic precipitators are used
(d) All of the above to remove
Sol.(d) Effects of ozone layer [Jharkhand SSC JE 2016]
depletion – (a) NO2
 Blindness
P a g e 99 | 116
(b) SO2 gases to flow up against a falling
water (liquid) stream.
(c) Dry particulate matter from gas
streams
(d) CO
Sol.(c) Electrostatic precipitators
To remove dry PM (particulate
matter) from gas streams by means
of electrostatic forces.
30. Which one of the following is NOT

32. The pollutant lead present in the
included in the Natural air pollutant
atmosphere may cause –
category?
A. Respiratory disease
(a) Hydrocarbon
B. Asthmatic disease
(b) Ammonia
C. Cardiovascular disease
(c) Sulphur dioxide
D. Pulmonary edema
(d) Peroxyacetyl nitrate
Sol.(c) Lead pollutants ← emitted
Sol.(d) PAN (Peroxy acetyl nitrate),
from vehicles.
Ozone, Formaldehyde,
Lead causes of cardiovascular
photochemical smog, Formation of
disease.
acid mists (H2SO4), these are
examples of secondary air
pollutions. 33. Pollution by depletion of ozone
layer, in the environment, is caused
due to the reaction of ozone with:
31. The water distribution is used for
[UPRVUNL AE 2015]
the removal of particulates as well
as gaseous pollutants? (a) Carbon monoxide
[RRB Shift I 28-8-2015] (b) Chlorine
(a) Catalytic converters (c) Sulphur dioxide
(b) Wet scrubbers (d) Nitrous oxide
(c) Electrostatic precipitators Sol.(b) Ozone is destroyed due to

the photolytic reaction of CFC
(d) Fluidized bed absorbers
(chloro fluoro carbon)
Sol.(b) Wet scrubbers remove the CFC l3 UV Cl +other substances
particulates from the incoming →
Cl+ O3 → ClO+ O2
gaseous stream by allowing the flue
P a g e 100 | 116
effectiveness are CO2, CH4, N2O and
34. Carbon dioxide in atmospheric air CFC.
amounts to about:
[RRB JE Ahmedabad Yellow Paper 37. Which out of the following is not a
14.12.2014] Green House Gas?
(a) 0.03% (b) 0.003% [RRB JE Shift III 26-8-2015]
(c) 0.3% (d) 3% (a) Carbon Dioxide
Sol.(a) CO2 in atmosphere air (b) Nitrogen
amounts is about 0.03%by volume.
(c) Sulphur Dioxide
(d) Nitrous Oxide
35. The continuous exposure of high
Sol.(b) GHG (Green House Gases)
concentration of carbon monoxide
CO2 – carbon dioxide, SO2 – sulphur
may cause -
dioxide, Methane (CH4), Nitrous
[RRB JE Shift III 26-8-2015] oxide N2O, chloro floro carbon (CFC).
(a) Damage of alveoli
(b) kidney damage 38. The air pollution control device,
(c) Failure of respiratory system cyclone is used for the removal of -
(d) Coma followed by death [RRB JE Shift I 26-8-2015]
Sol.(d) The continuous exposure of (a) 100 μm particles
high concentration of carbon (b) 10 μm particles
monoxide (CO) may causes coma
(c) 50 μm particles
followed by death.
(d) 2.5 μm particles
Sol.(b) The cleaning efficiency of
36. The greenhouse gases as per their
cyclone collector units may be as
decreasing order of effectiveness
high as 90% for particulates in the 5
are -
to 10 μm range.
[RRB JE Shift III 26-8-2015] Size of PM that can be removed in
(a) CO2, CH4, N2O and CFC μm =5 – 25
(b) CH4, CO2, N2O and CFC

39. The percentage contribution of CO2
(c) N2O, CH4, CO2 and CFC
to greenhouse effect is -
(d) CFC, CH4, CO2 and N2O
[RRB JE Shift I 26-8-2015]
Sol.(a) The greenhouse gases as per (a) 60 (b) 30
their decreasing order of (c) 18 (d) 10
P a g e 101 | 116
Sol.(a) Carbon dioxide is considered sun. A layer of ozone molecules
to be the major greenhouse gas, as it absorbs solar radiation, which heats
is responsible for about 60% of the the stratosphere.
total greenhouse caused by all
greenhouse gases. Other
42. In case of air pollution, the most
greenhouse gases (GHG) are – CH4,
affected part of vegetation is -
NOx, CFC, Sulphur hexafluoride.
(a) Stems of vegetation
40. The exposure of gaseous pollutant
(b) Roots of vegetation
Sulphur dioxide may cause -
(c) Leaves of vegetation
[RRB SSE Shift II 02-09-2015]
(d) Fruits of vegetation
(a) Bronchitis and pulmonary
emphysema Sol.(c) The most affected part of
vegetation is leaves of vegetation in
(b) Lungs failure and kidney damage
case of air pollution.
(c) Gastrointestinal problem
(d) The irritation in alveoli of the
43. In troposphere gaseous mixture
lungs.
containing oxygen, nitrogen and
Sol.(a) SO2 is an irritant gas, and
carbon dioxide cycle in nature
when inhaled, affects out mucous
through:
membranes.
[RRB SSE Shift I 03-09-2015]
The exposure of this pollutant may
cause of Bronchitis and pulmonary (a) Biogeochemical cycle
emphysema. (b) Physic-chemical cycle
(c) Bio decomposition
41. In stratosphere the temperature (d) Biological cycle
increases with altitude due to Sol.(a) In troposphere gaseous
pressure of mixture containing (O2, N2, and CO2)
[RRB SSE Shift II 02-09-2015] cycle in nature through
(a) Radicals Biogeochemical cycle or substance
turnover or cycling of substances is a
(b) Chlorofluorocarbons
pathway by which a chemical
(c) HCFCs
substance moves through biotic
(d) Ozone (biosphere) and a biotic(lithosphere,
Sol.(d) In the stratosphere, atmosphere and hydrosphere)
temperature increases with altitude. compartments of earth.
The reason in that the direct heat
surface for the stratosphere is the
P a g e 102 | 116
44. The anthropogenic sources of air CH 12 NOISE POLLUTION
pollution in well planned city is:
[RRB SSE Shift I 03-09-2015]
1. Which one is the intensity level of
(a) Construction activities, road noise?
traffics, rail traffic, fugitive
[IOF JE 2015]
emissions.
(a) Meter (b) Candle
(b) Construction activities road
traffics, domestic burning (c) Decibel (d) Newton
(c) Construction activities, road Sol.(c) Intensity level of noise

traffic bursting of crackers, dust measured in Decibel.
storms. unit of measurement for luminous
extensity is candle.
(d) Construction activities, road
traffics, domestic burning, industrial
emissions, dust storms. 2. Aircraft noise is measured through
Sol.(b) Anthropogenic (man- made [IOF JE 2015]
sources) sources of air pollution –
(a) L10 (18 hrs.) index / L10
construction activities road traffics,
domestic burning etc. (b) Decibel
Other examples are – Burning of (c) LePn / LePn
fossil fuels, deforestation, mining,
sewage, industrial effluent, (d) Lep / Lep
pesticides, fertilizers etc. Sol.(b) Sound level is measured in
decibel.
45. The global warming is caused by
greenhouse gases, which are : 3. The reference pressure for
[RRB SSE Shift I 01-09-2015] calculation of sound pressure level
(a) CO, N2O, CH4 and CFC is:
(b) CO2, NO2, CH4 and H2O
board 2016]
(c) CO, N2O, CH4 and H2O (a) 10 micro pascals
(d) CO2, N2O, CH4 and CFC (b) 20 micro pascals
(c) 30 micro pascals
Sol.(d) GHG (Green House Gases)
are CO2, CH4, N2O, CFC, Sulphur (d) 40 micro pascals
hexafluoride Sol.(b) Sound pressure level
P rms
L p=20 log 10 (
20 μPa )
P a g e 103 | 116
The reference pressure level = (dB(A))
20 μPa  Rural areas 25 – 35
 Sub – urban areas 30 – 40
4. What is the threshold of audibility  Urban Residential 35 – 45
in decibel? areas
 Residential and 40 – 50
[LMRC AE 2017 I - Shift]
business urban
(a) 20 (b) 40  City areas 45 – 55
(c) 66 (d) 92  industrial areas 50 - 60
Sol.(a) Threshold of audibility is 20
decibel 7. Allowable noise level in residential
areas is
5. Decibel is the unit of: [Jharkhand SSC JE 2016]
[RRB Mumbai Shift II 27-8-2015] (a) 40 dB (b) 75 dB
(a) Speed of light (c) 90 dB (d) 55 dB
(b) Intensity of heat Sol.(d) Acceptable outdoor noise
level in residential areas
(c) Intensity of sound
Noise
(d) Quantum of mass
Location levels
Sol.(c) (dB(A))
Parameters Units  Rural areas 25 – 35
Sound Intensity Decibel (dB)  Sub – urban areas 30 – 40
Speed of light m/sec (3×108  Urban Residential 35 – 45
Intensity of Watts per square
areas
heat meter (w.m-2)
 Residential and 40 – 50
business urban
 City areas 45 – 55
 industrial areas 50 – 60
6. The acceptable outdoor noise level
(dB) in urban residential area is :
8. The summation of 50 dBA noise
[UPRVUNL JE 2016] level with another 50 dBA noise
(a) 25 - 35 (b) 30 - 40 level is equal to -
(c) 35 - 45 (d) 40 – 50 [RRB Shift I 28-8-2015]
Sol.(c) Acceptable outdoor noise (a) 100 dBA (b) 50 dBA
level in residential areas (c) 53 dBA (d) 56 dBA
Location Noise
Sol.(c) Sound Pressure level
levels
P a g e 104 | 116
 P  Q0  reference standard quanitiy
Lp  20 log10  rms 
 20  pa 
 Prms   50  10. Noise pollution in a road side
   anti log  
 20  pa   20  building can be reduced by :
 Prms  [UPRVUNL AE 2015]
   316.227  Prms  6324
 20 pa  (a) Providing a ditch around the
50 decibel + 50 decibel in r.m.s. building and filling it with water.
(b) Providing a steel mesh around
 6324    6324 
2 2

the building.
 8944.26  Pa
(c) Providing a thick bush around the
Resultant sound pressure level
building.
 8944.26 
 20 log10    53 dB (d) Planting tall trees around the
 20 
building and fencing them with
barbed wires.
9. The unit of sound pressure level, Sol.(c) The noises produced by
dBA is defined as - automobiles and trains can be
[RRB JE Shift III 27-8-2015] abated by construction of walls on
(a) Summation of measured and both sides of roads and railway lines.
reference sound pressure level Raising of such obstructions and
(b) Ratio of measured to reference barriers in between the noise
sound pressure levels sources and residences for reducing
the noise levels reaching the
(c) Ratio of measured to reference
residences.
sound pressure levels in logarithmic
scale.
11. Which one of the following is the
(d) Product of measured to
correct sound intensity expression
reference sound pressure levels.
with usual notations?
Sol.(c) Sound pressure level is the
[UPRVUNL AE 2015]
ratio of measured to reference
2
sound pressure levels in logarithmic  I
dB  10log10  
scale. (a)  I0 
Sound pressure (Lp) level I

(b)dB= 10 log 10
2 I
 P 
 10  log10  rms  dB dB  10log10  I  I 0 
2
 20 Pa  (c)
Q dB  10 log10  I  I 0 
L  10.log10   dB (d)
 Q0  Sol.(b) Sound pressure (Lp) level
P a g e 105 | 116
2 (c) 20 to 20000 Hz (d) 20 to
 P 
 10  log10  rms  dB 2000 Hz
 20 Pa 
Sound power level (Lw) Sol.(c) The frequency range of
2 audibility of a healthy person with
W 
 10  log10   dB perfect hearing is 20 to 20000 Hz
 W0 
W 0  1012 watts 
14. The prescribed permissible noise
Sound Intensity level level, Leq for commercial area at
I  day time is:
 LI   10  log10   dB
 I0  [RRB SSE Shift I 01-09-2015]
I 0  1012 w/m 2  (a) 75 dBA (b) 50 dBA
(c) 55 dBA (d) 65 dBA
12. What will be the resultant decibel Sol.(d)

level when two sources make noise Areas Day Time Night Time
Industrial 75 dB 70 dB
of equal decibels?
Commercial 65 dB 55 dB
[UPRVUNL AE 2015]
Residential 55 dB 45dB
(a) Decibel level will the same
(b) Decibel level will increase by 3 “Silent Zone” – In this category,
decibels areas that lie which 100 m of the
premises of schools, colleges,
(c) Decibel level will decrease by 3
hospitals & courts.
decibels
Day Time Night
(d) Decibel level will be equal to the
Silent Time
sum of decibels of the two sources. 50 dB 40 dB
Zone
Sol.(b) The resultant decibel level of
two sound sources of having equal
describes sound level is equal to CH 13 MISCELLANEOUS
decibel level will increase by 3
decibels.
1. Sources of thermal pollution?
13. The frequency range of audibility of
(a) Cooling tower
a healthy person with perfect
hearing is - (b) Minerals
[RRB JE Shift III 26-8-2015] (c) cosmic rays
(a) 200 to 10000 Hz (b) 2000 to (d) None of these

5000 Hz
P a g e 106 | 116
Sol.(a) Thermal pollution – cooling (b) Environmental standards
tower (c) Economic status
(d) Social structure
2. In EIA, project activities are Sol.(b) Environmental standards are
correlated environmental attributes administrative regulations or civil
by.... law rules implemented for the
[BCCL JE 30-04-2017]] treatment and main tenace of the
(a) Formulating a matrix environment. Proposed projects are
compared on scale of environmental
(b) Public participation
standards.
(c) Supervisory staff
(d) Project manager
5. On our planet earth, the land under
Sol.(a) In Environmental Impact forest cover should ideally be:
Assessment (EIA), project activities
are correlated environmental
attributed by formatting matrix. (a) 20%
(b) 33%
3. EIA stands for: (c) 50%
[BCCL JE 30-04-2017]] (d) None of the above
(a) Eco - Environmental Impact Sol.(b) Ideally on our planet earth,

Assessment the land under forest cover should
be about 33% of the total earth
(b) Environmental Impulse
surface.
Assessment
(c) Environmental impact
Assessment 6. Increase in fauna and decrease in
flora would be harmful due to
(d) Eco Environmental impulse
increases in
Assessment
Sol.(c) EIA = Environmental Impact
Assessment (a) Water
(b) Radioactive pollution
4. To assess the impacts, the projected (c) Oxygen

quality of the environment due to (d) Carbon dioxide
the proposed project is compared Sol.(d) Increase in fauna and
with the: decrease in flora would be harmful
[BCCL JE 30-04-2017]] due to increase is carbon dioxide
(a) Base line data (CO2).
P a g e 107 | 116
Fauna → all of the animal life Sol.(d) Air conditioning involves
present in a particular region & control of surrounding temperature,
corresponding term for plants is humidity and air circulation.
flora.
9. Water uses are classified by the

7. The part of earth and its term DBU as:
atmosphere in which organisms
[BCCL JE 30-04-2017]]
live, is called
(a) Designated best Uses
(b) Design for best uses
(a) Biomass
(c) Design Before Uses
(b) Biosphere
(d) Designated Before Uses
(c) Biome
Sol.(a) DBU = Designated best uses.
Sol.(b) Biosphere is that particular
10. The total requirement of water is
zone on earth, where the
arrived by using the following code :
lithosphere, the hydrosphere, and
the atmosphere come into contact [U.K. Combined AE Paper II 2012]
with one another. (a) IS 1171 – 1963
(b) IS 1172 – 1963
(c) IS 1173 – 1962
(d) IS 1172 – 1962
Sol.(b) IS 1172 -1963  Code of
basic requirements for water supply,
drainage and sanitation.
11. Source of radioactive pollution is -

[UPSSSC JE 31-07-2016]
(a) Fuel (b) Medical use
8. Air conditioning involves control of (c) Collars (d) None of these
[Rajasthan JE 2015] Sol.(b) Sources of Radioactivity in

the environment
(a) Surrounding temperature
Natural sources Man – made
(b) Humidity sources
(c) Air Circulation  Cosmic rays  Nuclear
(d) All of the above explosions
P a g e 108 | 116
 Radioactive rocks  Nuclear 14. Energy flow in eco system is always
and minerals power plants [UKPSC AE (Paper II)2013]
 Radionuclides Medical use
(a) Cyclic
present within the
(b) Reversible
bodies of the
organisms. (c) Unidirectional
(d) Multi directional
Sol.(c) Energy flow is always
12. The water (Prevention and Control unidirectional is ecosystem. Energy
of Pollution) Act was enacted by flows progressively from one trophic
Indian Parliament in the year. level to another and cannot revert
[U.K. Combined AE Paper II back. In most of the natural
2012/[UP RVNL AE 2016]/U.K. AE ecosystems, energy comes from the
Paper II 2012] sun, it is trapped by producers and
(a) 1972 (b) 1974 then pass on to successive trophic
levels in the form of food.
(c) 1986 (d) 1994
Sol.(b) The water act (1974) the act
was introduced and incorporated
into the constitution of India in
1974.
13. An eco-system may not undergo

changes because: -
15. The ventilation of public halls, by
(a) It is in a state of homeostasis means of air coolers and exhaust
(b) It has plants and animals both fans, is known as:-
(c) It gets solar energy continuously [UKPSC AE (Paper II)2013]
(d) The decomposers are present in (a) The extraction plenum system
it. (b) The vacuum system
Sol.(a) An eco-system may not (c) The A.C. system
under go change over time , but in
the short term they should more up
and down in cycler around an Sol.(a) Ventilation – (i) Natural
average value . ventilation – occurs primarily
When eco-system is in a state of through open windows and doors.
homeostasis, it does not change. (ii) Mechanical ventilation
P a g e 109 | 116
 Exhaust (extractor/vacuum) (a) Nitrogen
system – Fans draw air out of the (b) Carbon di oxide
building in openings.
(c) Sulphur
 Pressure (plenum/propulsion)
(d) Sulphur di oxide
system – by means of air coolers
and exhaust fans. Sol.(b) Presence of CO2 (Carbon
 Balanced system – (Combined of dioxide) in water enhance the
exhaust & pressure system) process of leaching.
16. Biodegradable pollutants are 19. A nahni trap is provided at the ___
[RRB JE Guwahati Yellow Paper [MP VYPAM 08-07-2017 2nd

14.12.2014] meeting & UK Combined AE paper II
2012]
(a) Quickly degraded by natural
means (a) Outfall end o each house drain
(b) Cannot be degraded (b) Head of each house drain
(c) can be degraded by burning only (c) Junction of house drain and
municipal sewer
(d) Disposed in flowing water only
(d) Junction of two house drains
Sol.(a) Biodegradable pollutants
Quickly degraded by natural mean Sol.(b) A floor traps or a Nahni traps
(oxidation and reduction) (patented name of a floor trap) are
used to admit waste water (sullage)
from the floors of rooms, kitchens,
17. Which of the following is the main baths etc at head of each house
factor of water pollution? drain.
[RRB JE Chennai Red Paper
14.12.2014]
(a) Smoke
(b) Industrial waste
(c) Ammonia
(d) Detergents
20. Water seal in gully traps is usually
Sol.(b) Water pollution → major from __.
sources is form industrial waste.
[MP VYPAM 08-07-2017 2nd
meeting]
18. Presence of ............. in water (a) 50 mm to 75 mm (b) 100 mm
enhance the process of leaching, to 150 mm
[UPPCL JE 2016]
P a g e 110 | 116
(c) 10 mm to 20 mm (d) 150 mm (a) Sullage pipe and floors of kitchen
to 200 mm and bath
Sol.(a) The water seal in gully traps (b) House sewer and municipal
is usually from 50 mm to 75 mm. sewer
(c) Ventilating column and lateral
sewer
(d) Room or roof drain and the other
drain coming from bath and kitchen.
Sol.(b) Intercepting traps – provided
at the junction of a house sewers
and a municipal sewers.
21. A deep seal trap which is provided

on external face of wall for
disconnection the wastewater
flowing from kitchen form, bath
form, etC., is called as ___.
[MP VYPAM 08-07-2017 2nd
meeting]
(a) Intercepting (b) Gully trap 23. All traps should be provided with
(c) Silt trap (d) Grease trap the deep-water seal of not less
Sol.(b) Gully traps – provided at the than:
junction of a room or a roof drain [UP Jal Nigam JE 2016]
and the other drain coming from (a) 3.5 cm (b) 7.5 cm
both, kitchen etc. It is a deep seal
(c) 5.5 cm (d) 9.5 cm
trap.
Sol.(b)The efficiency and
Intercepting traps – provided at the
effectiveness of a trap will depend
junction of a house sewers and a
upon the depth be. This water seal
municipal sewer.
generally varies from 25 mm to 75
Grease trap – to remove oils, grease
mm,
in house hold drainage.
24. Water seal is provided in

22. Intercepting traps are often
provided at the junction of: [UK Combined AE paper II 2007]
[MP Sub Engineer 2017 2nd (a) Wash basin (b) Urinal
Meeting]
P a g e 111 | 116
(c) Water closet (d) None of 27. The depth of water seal in practice
the above varies from
Sol.(d) Water seal is provided in [Haryana SSC JE 2015]
traps. This water depth does not (a) 25 mm to 100 mm (b) 100 mm
allow gases to escape to the outside to 150 mm
of the pipe.
(c) 150 mm to 200 mm (d) None of
the above
25. If it is a combined bath and water Sol.(a) The depth of water seal
closet, its floor area shall not be less generally varies from 25 mm to 75
than mm, 50 mm being quiet in most of
[UK Combined AE paper II 2007] the traps.
(a) 2.80 m2 (b) 3.20 m2

(c) 3.60m2 28. The cost does not include ___ in
(d) 4.00 m2
case of laying gullies, siphons, and
Sol.(a) If bath and water closet are intercepting traps.
combined, its floor area shall not be [NMRC JE 2017]
less than 2.8 sq.m with minimum
(a) Connection to drains
side width of 1.2m
(b) Bed concreting
(c) Setting and laying
26. Anti siphonage pipe is fitted :
(d) Site clearance
[UPPCL JE 2016]
Sol.(d) The cost does not include of
(a) With a W.C. trap.
site clearance in case of laying
(b) At the end of septic tanks. gullies, siphons and intercepting
(c) On manholes. traps it includes only connection to
(d) At the beginning of sewer line drains, bed concreting and setting
and laying.
Sol.(a) Anti – siphonage pipe is fitted
with a w.c. trap for supplied air to
the short branch pipe of the lower 29. What is the trap used for a water
fixture, at the time of suction. closet called?
[UKPSC AE Paper 2013/UPPCL JE
2015/Uttarakhand JE 2015]
(a) Gully trap
(b) P - trap
(c) Intercepting trap
(d) Anti - siphon trap
P a g e 112 | 116
Sol.(d) Anti – siphonage pipe is fitted
with a w.c. trap for supplies air to
the short branch pipe of the lower
fixture, at the time of suction.
30. The function of Vent pipe in house

drainage system is ___.
[Draughtsman - B Time 27-11-2016]
(a) To protect the water seal of traps
(b) To provide ventilation to
bedroom 32. The pipe which is used to carry the
discharge from sanitary fittings like
(c) To supply the water to toilet
bathrooms, kitchens etC., it called
(d) To interconnect the drainage
[HPSSSB JE 03-07-2016]
pipes
(a) Waste pipe(b) Soil pipe
Sol.(a) The function of vent pipe in
house drainage system is to protect (c) Vent pipe (d) Antisiphonage pipe
the water seal of traps. Sol.(a) The pipe which is used to
carry the discharge from sanitary
fittings like bathrooms, kitchens etc.
is called waste pipe.
33. When did the Indian Government

adopt the first National Water
Policy?
31. Traps are used in household [Jharkhand SSC JE 2016]
drainage systems to:
(a) 2004 (b) 1997
[LMRC JE 2015]
(c) 2000 (d) 1987
(a) Prevent entry of fond gases in the
Sol.(d) First national water policy
houses
adopted in 1987.
(b) Restrict the flow of water
(c) Provide partial vacuum
34. Global environmental temperature
(d) Trap the solid wastes is likely to increase due to
Sol.(a) Traps are used in household [UK Combined AE paper II 2007]
drainage systems to prevent entry of
(a) Soil erosion
foul gases in the houses.
(b) Water pollution
P a g e 113 | 116
(c) Use of fossil fuels oxygen than that contained in fresh
(d) None of the above water of a river stream.
Sol.(c) Greenhouse effect of global

environmental temperature is likely 38. Wet latrine is also known as :
to increase due to use of fossil fuels. [Uttarakhand JE 2015]
(a) Earth privy
35. Percentage of earth covered by (b) bore hole privy
water is
(c) Aqua privy
(d) Can privy
(a) 80 % (b) 76 %
Sol.(c) Wet larine is also known as
(c) 71 % (d) 67 % aqua privy which is more useful
Sol.(c) About 71 percent of the where water carriage system is
earth’s surface is water – covered, absent and availability of water is
and the oceans hold about 96.5 limited.
percent of all earth’s water.
39. Which bacteria is used convert

36. If the quantity of water available in ammonia to Nitrate?
the biosphere, the percentage of
[I.O.F. JE 2015]
water available in the oceans in
(a) Coliphage (b) Nitrosomonas
about:
(c) Nitrobacter (d) E-Coli
[DMRC JE 2017, shift II]
Sol.(b)
(a) 97.3 (b) 93.7
NH 3 
Nitrosomonos
 NO2 
Nitro bacter
 o2
(c) 73.9 (d) 79.3 bacteria bacteria
Sol.(a) The oceans hold about 97.3 (Nitrate)

percentage of water available in the
biosphere. 40. Which of the following is a non-
renewable resource?
37. Fill the gap [UK Combined AE paper II 2012]7y
Sea water contains ................. of (a) Coal (b) Water
oxygen contained in fresh water
(c) Sunlight (d) None of the above
stream.
Sol.(a)
[UP PSC AE Paper II 2013]
Renewable Non-Renewable
(a) 60% (b) 70% resources resources
(c) 75 % (d) 80 % Solar energy, Coal, crude oil,
Sol.(d) As compared to fresh river wind energy, fossil fuels
water, sea water contains 20% less hydropower, natural gas and
P a g e 114 | 116
geothermal uranium etc. Epicenter
energy and Epicenter distance
biomass E
energy.
41. According is IS:1893 - 1962 how

many seismic zones are there - Hypocentral
Focus or
or
Hypocenter(F)
[UPSSSC JE 2015] focal distance
(a) Five (b) Four
(c) Six (d) Three 43. The height of Tsunami’s wave
Sol.(a) Civil Engineering division depends upon ....
council has approved a draft, IS [UPSSSC JE 2015]
1893:1962 which was revised in (a) Monography
2002 after Gujarat earthquake. The
(b) Seismography
seismic zone is revised with four
zones, instead of five zones. Zone -1 (c) Local Topography
has been merged in zone -2. (d) None of above
Sol.(c) The height of Tsunami’s wave
42. Point area from which the seismic depends upon local topography
waves develop is - features.
[UPSSSC JE 2016]
(a) Epicenter 44. During earthquake which wave
(b) Focus reaches first on seismograph?
(c) Focal depth [UPSSSC JE 31-07-2016]
(d) None of these (a) P - waves
Sol.(b) The point at which rupture (b) S-waves

begins and the first seismic waves (c) Both P & S waves
originate is called the focus, or (d) None of these
hypocenter, of the earthquake. The
Sol.(a) Seismic wave
focus is located at some focal depth
Primary waves (P – waves) reaches
(or hypocentral depth) below the
first on seismograph.
ground surface.
Secondary waves (S-waves )
The point on the ground surface
directly above the focus is called the
epicentre. 45. Hydrophobia is a feature of which
disease?
P a g e 115 | 116
[RRB JE Chennai Red paper 14-12-
2014]
(a) Polio (b) Measles
(c) Rabies (d) Hepatitis
Sol.(c) Someone who is scared of
the water is hydrophobiC. A term
once commonly used for rabies
because in the later stages of that
disease, the animal (or human) has
difficulty swallowing and so fears a
drink of water.
46. Which is NOT a cause of water

pollution.
[IOF JE 2015]
(a) Bacteria
(b) Inorganic chemicals
(c) Oil spills from industry
(d) High decibels of automobiles
Sol.(d) Water pollution due to cause
of Bacteria, inorganic chemicals, oil
spills from industry noise pollution
due to cause of high decibels of
automobiles.
47. Most commonly used section in

grade aqueducts, is
[IOF JE 2015]
(a) Circular (b) Rectangular
(c) Parabolic (d) Horseshoe section
Sol.(b) Rectangular section is the
most commonly used section in
grade aqueducts.
P a g e 116 | 116

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Environmental Engineering

SR. N0. CHAPTER NAME Number of CQs Page No.

1. WATER DEMAND, IT’S SOURCES AND CONVEYANCE 48

[U.K. Combined AE Paper II 2012]

5. Fire demand of water according to

8. As per Indian Standard

21. For cast iron pipes of all sizes the

25. Per capita water demand is -

k  H12  H 22  [Jharkhand SSC JE 2016]

40. A rock formation which contains

(a) Aquiclude (b) Aquifer Sol.(d) Aquifer (sand & gravel) -

4. The dissolved oxygen concentration

Sol.(a) The concentration of [RRB SSE Shift III 03-09-2015]

5. Dissolved oxygen in streams is

(c) Sodium carbonate [LMRC AE 2017 I - Shift]

(d) Sodium bi – carbonate (a) Oxygen (b) Sulphuric acid

Sol.(a) Alkalinity of water sample is (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Nitrogen

(c) Organic salts [UK Combined AE paper II 2012]

(a) Bones and joints stiffness [MPYAP 2015]

(b) Kidney function (a) Water with excessive hardness

(c) Heart disease (b) Water with excessive chloride

(d) Dysentery (c) Water with excessive fluoride

Sol.(a) Excessive fluoride (d) Water with excessive Sulphur

33. Turbidity of water is expressed as

[RRB JE Chennai Red paper 14-12-

(a) 4000 m3/hr/m2 and 1.2 minute

(b) 40000 Lph/m2 and 40 minute

[Uttarakhand Combines State AE (d) 40000 Lph/m2 and 1.2 minute

(b) Heating [HP SSC JE 2015]

(c) Turbidity (d) Color [UPPCL JE 2015]

Sol.(b) Disinfection of drinking (a) A, B, E, C, D (b) D, E, C, A, B

A. Filtration B. Chlorination [MP VYPAM Sub Engineer 2017]

C. Sedimentation D. Coagulation (a) Decrease the opening area to

18. Which of the following methods is

19. The water treatment plants are

(d) Settling velocity [LMRC JE 2016]

Sol.(b) Displacement efficiency (ɳd) (a) 500 to 750 l / h / m2

(b) 1250 to 1500 l / h / m2

(b) Turbidity of water

47. Air binding in rapid sand filter

(a) Slow sand filter (a) 1 to 2 m (b) 2 to 3 m

(c) Pressure filter Sol.(c) As per WHO guidelines for

52. Bleaching powder is

54. Match List I with List II and select

NH2Cl+HOCl 61. What is the name of the process in

B. It accelerates the coagulation (a) Dissolved particles

C. Its overdose is harmful. (b) Colloidal particles

[DFCCIL, 17-4-2016] (c) Gases like H2S

(a) A and C (b) Only A (d) None of these

(c) Only C (d) Only B Sol.(b) Alum is used as coagulant to

[MP Sub Engineer 09-07-2107 2nd

(c) 2 to 3 hours (d) 2 to 8 hours [UPRVUNL JE 2015]

Sol.(a) Detention period for (a) Sedimentation (b) Filtration

(c) Remove calcium hardness (b) Sodium sulphate

(d) Convert calcium carbonate to (c) Sodium hexametaphosphate

Some amount of chlorides is

B. Small quantity of chlorides adds to 1. pH of water

(a) Removal of hardness [MPYAP 2015]

(b) Destroy of pathogenic bacteria (a) Liquid Bromine

(c) Turbidity of water (b) Fluorine

(d) None of these (c) Potassium permanganate

Sol.(b) Disinfection- Destruction or (d) Liquid Chlorine