ALL INDIA PRELIMS TEST SERIES - 2017

CSAT-6 (VERBAL ABILITY + REASONING +

DATA INTERPRETATION)
_________________________________________________
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Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
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4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Qs). Each item is printed in English only. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item. More
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7. All items carry equal marks.
8. For each Q for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one third (-0.33 %) of the
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AIPTS-CSAT-6 Byju’s Classes:-9873643487

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Directions for the following 5 (Five) items:
Read the following two passages and answer the items
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE -1
On the banks of the Thames it is a tremendous chapter
of accidents - the London-lover has to confess to the
existence of miles upon miles of the dreariest, stodgiest
commonness. Thousands of acres are covered by low
black houses, of the cheapest construction, without
ornament, without grace, without character or even
identity. In fact there are many, even in the best
quarters, in all the region of Mayfair and Belgravia, of so
paltry and inconvenient and above all of so diminutive a
type, that you wonder what peculiarly limited domestic
need they were constructed to meet. The great
misfortune of London, to the eye (it is true that this
remark applies much less to the City), is the want of
elevation. There is no architectural impression without a
certain degree of height, and the London street-vista has
none of that sort of pride. All the same, if there be not
the intention, there is at least the accident, of style,
which, if one looks at it in a friendly way, appears to
proceed from three sources. One of these is simply the
general greatness, and the manner in which that makes
a difference for the better in any particular spot, so that
though you may often perceive yourself to be in a shabby
corner it never occurs to you that this is the end of it.
Another is the atmosphere, with its magnificent
mystifications, which flatters and super fuses, makes
everything brown, rich, dim, vague, magnifies distances
and minimizes details, confirms the inference of vastness
by suggesting that, as the great city makes everything, it
makes its own system of weather and its own optical
laws. The last is the congregation of the parks, which
constitute an ornament not elsewhere to be matched and
give the place a superiority that none of its ugliness’s
overcome. They spread themselves with such a luxury of
space in the centre of the town that they form a part of
the impression of any walk, of almost any view, and,
with an audacity altogether their own, make a pastoral
landscape under the smoky sky. There is no mood of the
rich London climate that is not becoming to them - I
have seen them look delightfully romantic, like parks in
novels, in the wettest winter - and there is scarcely a
mood of the appreciative resident to which they have not
something to say. The high things of London, which here
and there peep over them, only make the spaces vaster
by reminding you that you are after all not in Kent or
Yorkshire; and these things, whatever they be, rows of
'eligible' dwellings, towers of churches, domes of
institutions, take such an effective gray-blue tint that a
clever watercolorist would seem to have put them in for
pictorial reasons.
The view from the bridge over the Serpentine has an
extraordinary nobleness, and it has often seemed to me
that the Londoner twitted with his low standard may
point to it with every confidence. In all the town-scenery
of Europe there can be few things so fine; the only
reproach it is open to is that it begs the Q by seeming -
in spite of its being the pride of five millions of people -
not to belong to a town at all. The towers of Notre Dame,
AIPTS-CSAT-6
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as they rise, in Paris, from the island that divides the
Seine, present themselves no more impressively than
those of Westminster as you see them looking doubly far
beyond the shining stretch of Hyde Park water.
Q1) It can be inferred that James would be less likely
than Lawrence to-
i) Complain about the weather
ii) Rejoice on leaving the city
iii) Find the English countryside dull
Choose the correct answer from the following given
options-
(a) i and ii (b) i and iii
(c) ii and iii (d) i, ii and iii
Q2) The contrast between James and Lawrence revealed
by the passages involves all of the following except-
(a) Appreciation of quiet places and scenic walks versus
need for excitement
(b) Concern with visual impact versus effect on an
individual’s state of mind
(c) Concern with architectural impression versus
apparent indifference to architecture
(d) Taste for the quaint and limited in scale versus
dislike of dreariness and pokiness
Q3) To counter Lawrence’s charge of ‘one vast complex of
dullness’, James would most likely point out that
London-
(a) Is bright and vast
(b) Offers vistas unmatched in the rest of Europe
(c) Is always romantic and pastoral
(d) Juxtaposes the ugly and the visually attractive
PASSAGE – 2
At the heart of the enormous boom in wine consumption
that has taken place in the English-speaking world over
the last two decades or so is a fascinating, happy
paradox. In the days when wine was exclusively the
preserve of a narrow cultural elite, bought either at
auctions or from gentleman wine merchants in wing
collars and bow-ties, to be stored in rambling cellars and
decanted to order by one's butler, the ordinary drinker
didn't get a look-in. Wine was considered a highly
technical subject, in which anybody without the
necessary ability could only fall flat on his or her face in
embarrassment. It wasn't just that you needed a refined
aesthetic sensibility for the stuff if it wasn't to be
hopelessly wasted on you. It required an intimate
knowledge of what came from where, and what it was
supposed to taste like. Those were times, however, when
wine appreciation essentially meant a familiarity with
the great French classics, with perhaps a smattering of
other wines-like sherry and port. That was what the wine
trade dealt in. These days, wine is bought daily in
supermarkets and high-street chains to be consumed
that evening, hardly anybody has a cellar to store it in
and most don't even possess a decanter. Above all, the
wines of literally dozens of countries are available on our
market. When a supermarket offers its customers a
couple of fruity little numbers from Brazil, we scarcely
raise an eyebrow. It seems, in other words, that the
commercial jungle that wine has now become has not in
the slightest deterred people from plunging
adventurously into the thickets in order to taste and see.
Consumers are no longer intimidated by the thought of
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needing to know their Pouilly-Fumé from their Pouilly-
Fuissé, just at the very moment when there is more to
know than ever before. The reason for this new mood of
confidence is not hard to find. It is on every wine label
from Australia, New Zealand, South Africa and the
United States: the name of the grape from which the
wine is made. At one time that might have sounded like
a fairly technical approach in itself. Why should native
English-speakers know what Cabernet Sauvignon or
Chardonnay were? The answer lies in the popularity that
wines made from those grape varieties now enjoy.
Consumers effectively recognize them as brand names,
and have acquired a basic lexicon of wine that can serve
them even when confronted with those Brazilian
upstarts.
In the wine heartlands of France, they are scared to
death of that trend–not because they think their wine
isn't as good as the best from California or South
Australia (what French winemaker will ever admit that?)
but because they don't traditionally call their wines
Cabernet Sauvignon or Chardonnay. They call them
Château Ducru-Beaucaillou or Corton-Charlemagne,
and they aren't about to change. Some areas, in the
middle of southern France, have now produced a
generation of growers using the varietal names on their
labels and are tempting consumers back to French wine.
It will be an uphill struggle, but there is probably no
other way if France is to avoid simply becoming a
specialty source of old-fashioned wines for old-fashioned
connoisseurs. Wine consumption was also given a
significant boost in the early 1990s by the work of Dr.
Serge Renaud, who has spent many years investigating
the reasons for the uncannily low incidence of coronary
heart disease in the south of France. One of his major
findings is that the fat-derived cholesterol that builds up
in the arteries and can eventually lead to heart trouble
can be dispersed by the tannins in wine. Tannin is
derived from the skins of grapes, and is therefore present
in higher levels in red wines, because they have to be
infused with their skins to attain the red colour. That
news caused a huge upsurge in red wine consumption in
the United States. It has not been accorded the
prominence it deserves in the UK, largely because the
medical profession still sees all alcohol as a menace to
health, and is constantly calling for it to be made
prohibitively expensive. Certainly, the manufacturers of
anticoagulant drugs might have something to lose if we
all got the message that we would do just as well by our
hearts by taking half a bottle of red wine every day !
Q4) What according to the author should the French do
to avoid becoming a producer of merely old-fashioned
wines?
(a) Follow the labeling strategy of the English-speaking
countries.
(b) Give their wines English names.
(c) Introduce fruity wines as Brazil has done.
(d) Produce the wines that have become popular in the
English-speaking world.
Q5) The development which has created fear among
winemakers in the wine heartlands of France is the
(a) Tendency not to name wines after the grape varieties
that are used in the wines.
AIPTS-CSAT-6
3
(b) Education' that consumers have derived from wine
labels from English-speaking countries.
(c) New generation of local winegrowers who use labels
that show names of grape varieties.
(d) Ability of consumers to understand a wine's qualities
when confronted with "Brazilian upstarts".
Directions: the following two Qs are based on the
following information-
P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting round the circle and
are facing the centre:
1. P is second to the right of T who is the neighbour of
R and V.
2. S is not the neighbour of P.
3. V is the neighbour of U.
4. Q is not between S and W. W is not between U and
S.
Q6) Which two of the following are not Neighbors ?
(a) RV (b) UV
(c) RP (d) QW
Q7) Which one is immediate right to the V ?
(a) P (b) U
(c) R (d) T
Q8) At what time between 5.30 and 6 will the hands of a
clock be at right angles?
(a) 43 5/11 min. past 5 (b) 43 7/11 min. past 5
(c) 40 min. past 5 (d) 45 min. past 5
Directions for the following two Qs: Read the following
information and answer accordingly:
A young girl Rachna leaves home with x flowers, goes to
the bank of a nearby river. On the bank of the river,
there are four places of worship, standing in a row. She
dips all the x flowers into the river. The number of
flowers doubles. Then she enters the first place of
worship, offers y flowers to the deity. She dips the
remaining flowers into the river, and again the number
of flowers doubles. She goes to the second place of
worship, offers y flowers to the deity. She dips the
remaining flowers into the river, and again the number
of flowers doubles. She goes to the third place of
worship, offers y flowers to the deity. She dips the
remaining flowers into the river, and again the number
of flowers doubles. She goes to the fourth place of
worship, offers y flowers to the deity. Now she is left with
no flower in hand.
Q9) If Rachna leaves home with 30 flowers; the number
of flowers she offers to each deity is-
(a) 30 (b) 31
(c) 32 (d) 33
Q10) The minimum number of flowers that could be
offered to each deity is-
(a) 0
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) Cannot be determined
Q11) Which symbol will be on the face opposite to the
face with symbol * ?
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(a) @ (b) $
(c) 8 (d) +
Q12) Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives
that would complete the figure matrix
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
Directions for the following 7 (Seven) items:
Read the following two passages and answer the items
that follow each passage. Your answers to these items
should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE -1
The stubborn resistance of child malnutrition in India is
one of the tragedies of our time. Many of us have long
agonized over this preventable problem and we continue
to ask- why do half of our children not get enough or the
right food or adequate care? Even in Sub-Saharan
Africa, only 30 percent of the children are malnourished,
versus fifty percent in South Asia. And this gap exists
despite our higher levels of per capita income, education
and even safer water access. One-third of the babies in
India are born with low birth weight compared to one-
sixth in Sub-Saharan Africa. This is heartbreaking given
the dramatic improvements in agriculture, advances in
literacy and great strides in economic growth. For more
than 20 years India has even sustained the greatest
effort in history to improve nutritional standards
according to UNICEF, through its Integrated Child
Development Services (ICDS) Programme. So it is not for
lack of effort nor is it due to poverty which has been
steadily declining by a percent a year for two decades.
What accounts for this puzzle? In 1996, India’s famous
physician nutritionist wrote a ground-breaking article on
this called ‘The Asian Enigma’. After considering
different factors, including access to food and income
and our vegetarianism, he concluded that the lower
status of women might be the reason. The link between
women’s status and child nutrition seems plausible. In
many Indian homes, men eat first; women have to make
do with left over. This is perhaps why 83 percent of
women in India suffer from iron-deficiency-anemia
versus forty percent in Sub-Saharan Africa. A
malnourished mother will give birth to a baby with low
birth weight. Moreover, domestic work often forces a
mother to delegate the chore of feeding solid food to her
AIPTS-CSAT-6
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baby to other siblings. If women had more control over
family income and decisions, they would devote them to
better pre and post natal care and to their children.
So far this was the theory. But now a study by the
International Food Policy Research Institute and Emory
University seems to confirm this hypothesis. It brought
together data from thirty-six developing countries,
spanning over one hundred thousand children under the
age of three and an equal number of women. It
measured a woman’s position in the home-whether she
works for cash her age at marriage and the difference in
age and education between spouses. The study
concludes that the lowly position of women in the family
is the single most important reason for the gap in
children’s nutrition between South Asia and Sub-
Saharan Africa, followed by sanitation and urbanization.
Q13) According to the author-
(a) Child malnutrition can be reduced with the help of
child nutrition schemes
(b) Increased family income would result in better pre
and post-natal care
(c) Men should play more involved role in children’s well-
being
(d) India has not put sustained efforts to improve
nutritional standards
Q14) Consider the following-
i) Women are not getting sufficient food
ii) More women eating only vegetarian food
iii) Women not eating balanced food
iv) Lack of proper medical check-up
Which of the above is the major reason for a large
number of women in India suffering from iron-
deficiency?
(a) Only i (b) Only ii
(c) Only iii (d) Only iv
Q15) According to the author, the crux is-
(a) Women have lower status everywhere as compared to
men
(b) Improvement of sanitation and slum conditions
(c) That in India, the per capita income and education
level of women is very low
(d) Low status of women has horrifying result on child
nutrition
Q16) Consider the following statements-
i) Child development schemes indicate that there was no
lack of efforts in India for the last two decades to
improve the situation.
ii) A hypothesis related to low birth weight has now
confirmed that the major reason for this state is status
of women.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correctly stated?
(a) Only i (b) Only ii
(c) Both i and ii (d) Neither i nor ii
PASSAGE -2
All the sound reasons ever given for conserving other
natural resources apply to the conservation of wildlife –
and with three-fold power. When a spendthrift
squanders his capital it is lost to him and his heirs; yet
it goes somewhere else. When a nation allows any one
kind of natural resource to be squandered it must suffer
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a real, positive loss; yet substitutes of another kind can
generally be found. But when wildlife is squandered it
does not go elsewhere, like squandered money; it cannot
possibly be replaced by any substitute, as some
inorganic resources are: it is simply an absolute, dead
loss, gone beyond even the hope of recall.
The public still has a hazy idea that Nature has an
overflowing sanctuary of her own, somewhere or other,
which will fill up the gaps automatically. The result is
that poaching is commonly regarded as a venial offence,
poachers taken red-handed are rarely punished, and
willing ears are always lent to the cry that rich
sportsmen are trying to take the bread out of the poor
settler's mouth. The poor settler does not reflect that he
himself, and all other classes alike, really have a
common interest in the conservation of any wildlife that
does not conflict with legitimate human development.
Q17) The author of paragraph one probably uses the
expression ‘three-fold power’-
(a) Because there are three-times as many reasons for
conserving wildlife
(b) To be more dramatic that saying “double-power”
(c) To emphasize the contrast between loss of money,
loss of other resources, and loss of wildlife
(d) To stress the need for saving money, resources and
time
Q18) From the context, the word ‘venial’ most nearly
means-
(a) Major (b) Criminal
(c) Frequent (d) Trivial
Q19) Both paragraphs apparently imply that-
(a) There is no source from which wildlife, once
exterminated, can be replaced
(b) Poachers must be punished
(c) Wildlife has much in common with other natural
resources
(d) Conservation is in conflict with human development
Q20) A boat having a length 3 m and breadth 2 m is
floating on a lake. The boat sinks by 1 cm when a man
gets on it. The mass of the man is:
(a) 12 kg (b) 60 kg
(c) 72 kg (d) 96 kg
Directions for Qs 21-24:
Read The Following Information And Answer The 4
(Four) Items That Follow:
 Sixteen teams have been invited to participate in
the ABC Gold Cup cricket tournament.
 The tournament is conducted in two stages. In
the first stage, the teams are divided into two
groups.
 Each group consists of eight teams, with each
team playing every other team in its group
exactly once.
 At the end of the first stage, the top four teams
from each group advance to the second stage
while the rest are eliminated.
 The second stage comprises of several rounds. A
round involves one match for each team. The
winner of a match in a round advances to the
next round, while the loser is eliminated.
AIPTS-CSAT-6
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 The team that remains undefeated in the second
stage is declared the winner and claims the Gold
Cup. The tournament rules are such that each
match results in a winner and a loser with no
possibility of a tie.
 In the first stage a team earns one point for each
win and no points for a loss.
 At the end of the first stage teams in each group
are ranked on the basis of total points to
determine the qualifiers advancing to the next
stage.
 Ties are resolved by a series of complex tie-
breaking rules so that exactly four teams from
each group advance to the next stage.
Q21) What is the total number of matches played in the
tournament?
(a) 28 (b) 55
(c) 63 (d) 35
Q22) The minimum number of wins needed for a team in
the first stage to guarantee its advancement to the next
stage is-
(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) 7 (d) 4
Q23) What is the highest number of wins for a team in
the first stage in spite of which it would be eliminated at
the end of first stage?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
Q24) What is the number of rounds in the second stage
of the tournament?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
Q25) There is a shift in our economy from a
manufacturing to a service orientation. The increase in
service sector will require the managers to work more
with people rather than with objects and things from the
assembly line. The passage best supports the statement
that-
(a) Managers should have a balanced mind
(b) Assembly line will exist in service organizations
(c) Interpersonal skills will become more important in the
future work place
(d) Manufacturing organization ignore importance of
people
Direction: The Q given below has a problem and two
statements numbered I and II giving certain information.
You have to decide if the information given in the
statement is sufficient for answering the problem.
Indicate your answer as-
(a) If data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the
Q;
(b) If data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer
the Q;
(c) If data in statement I and II both are required to
answer the Q; and
(d) If data in statement I and II both are insufficient to
answer the Q
Q26) A, B, C, D and E are sitting in the row. B is
between A and E. Who among them is in middle?
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I. A is left of B and right of D
II. C is at the right end
Q27) What is the area of a right-angled triangle?
i) The perimeter of the triangle is 30 cm
ii) The ratio between the base and the height of the
triangle is 5 : 12.
iii) The area of the triangle is equal to the area of a
rectangle of length 10 cm
(a) i and ii only
(b) ii and iii only
(c) i and iii only
(d) iii, and either i or ii only
Directions: The following five Qs (28-32) are based on the
following Q:
In an Exhibition seven cars of different companies -
Cadillac, Ambassador, Fiat, Maruti, Mercedes, Bedford
and Fargo are standing facing to east in the following
order:
1. Cadillac is next to right of Fargo.
2. Fargo is fourth to the right of Fiat.
3. Maruti car is between Ambassador and Bedford.
4. Fiat which is third to the left of Ambassador is at
one end.
Q28) Which of the cars are on both the sides of cadillac
car?
(a) Ambassador and Maruti
(b) Maruti and Fiat
(c) Fargo and Mercedes
(d) Ambassador and Fargo
Q29) Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Maruti is next left of Ambassador
(b) Bedford is next left of Fiat
(c) Bedford is at one end
(d) Fiat is next second to the right of Maruti
Q30) Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Fargo car is in between Ambassador and Fiat
(b) Cadillac is next left to Mercedes car
(c) Fargo is next right of Cadillac
(d) Maruti is fourth right of Mercedes
Q31) Which of the following groups of cars is to the right
of Ambassador?
(a) Cadillac, Fargo and Maruti
(b) Mercedes, Cadillac and Fargo
(c) Maruti, Bedford and Fiat
(d) Bedford, Cadillac and Fargo
Q32) Which one of the following is the correct position of
Mercedes?
(a) Next to the left of Cadillac
(b) Next to the left of Bedford
(c) Between Bedford and Fargo
(d) Fourth to the right of Maruti
Directions for the following 3 (Three) items:
Read the following passage and answer the items that
follow after passage. Your answers to these items should
be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE -1
AIPTS-CSAT-6
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Neo-tropical coastal mangrove forests are usually
“zonal,” with certain mangrove species found
predominantly in the seaward portion of the habitat and
other mangrove species on the more landward portions
of the coast. The earliest research on mangrove forests
produced descriptions of species distribution from shore
to land, without exploring the causes of the
distributions. The idea that zonation is caused by plant
succession was first expressed by J. H. Davis in a study
of Florida mangrove forests. According to Davis’ scheme,
the shoreline is being extended in a seaward direction
because of the “land-building” role of mangroves, which,
by trapping sediments over time, extend the shore. As a
habitat gradually becomes more inland as the shore
extends, the “land-building” species are replaced. This
continuous process of accretion and succession would
be interrupted only by hurricanes or storm flushings.
Recently the universal application of Davis’s succession
paradigm has been challenged. It appears that in areas
where weak currents and weak tidal energies allow the
accumulation of sediments, mangroves will follow land
formation and accelerate the rate of soil accretion;
succession will proceed according to Davis’s scheme. But
on stable coastlines, the distribution of mangrove
species results in other patterns of zonation; “land
building” does not occur. To find a principle that
explains the various distribution patterns, several
researchers have looked to salinity and its effects on
mangrove. While mangroves can develop in fresh water,
they can also thrive in salinities as high as 2.5 times
that of seawater. However, those mangrove species found
in freshwater habitats do well only in the absence of
competition, thus suggesting that salinity tolerance is a
critical factor in competitive success among mangrove
species. Research suggests that mangroves will normally
dominate highly saline regions, although not because
they require salt. Rather, they are metabolically efficient
(and hence grow well) in portions of an environment
whose high salinity excludes plants adapted to lower
salinities. Tides create different degrees of salinity along
a coastline. The characteristic mangrove species of each
zone should exhibit a higher metabolic efficiency at that
salinity than will any potential invader, including other
species of mangrove.
Q33) The primary aim of the purpose of the passage is
to-
(a) Refute the idea that the zonation exhibited in
mangrove forests is caused by adaption to salinity
(b) Describe the pattern of zonation typically found in
Florida mangrove forests
(c) Argue that Davis’ succession paradigm cannot be
successfully applied to Florida mangrove forests
(d) Discuss hypotheses that attempt to explain the
zonation of coastal mangrove forests
Q34) According to the passage, the earliest research on
mangrove forest produced which of the following?
(a) Data that implied random patterns of mangrove
species distribution
(b) Descriptions of species distributions suggesting
zonation
(c) Descriptions of the development of mangrove forests
over time
(d) Reclassification of species formerly thought to be
identical
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 Qualification Unemployed
Q35) It can be inferred from the passage that Davis’ Men Women
paradigm does NOT apply to which of the following? Doctors 12.5% 15%
(a) The shoreline of Florida mangrove forests first studies Engineers 20% 7.5%
by Davis Trained Teachers 15% 22.5%
(b) A shoreline in an area with weak currents Post-Graduates 22.5% 25%
(c) A shoreline in an area with weak tidal energy Graduates 30% 30%
(d) A shoreline in which few sediments can accumulate On the basis of the above table what is the difference in
the number of unemployed men and women doctors?
Q36) How many dots lie opposite to the face having (a) 20 (b) 30
three dots, when the given figure is folded to form a (c) 40 (d) None of these
cube?
Q41) In Arun's opinion, his weight is greater than 65 kg
but less than 72 kg. His brother doest not agree with
Arun and he thinks that Arun's weight is greater than 60
kg but less than 70 kg. His mother's view is that his
weight cannot be greater than 68 kg. If all are them are
correct in their estimation, what is the average of
different probable weights of Arun?
(a) 67 kg. (b) 68 kg.
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 69 kg. (d) Data inadequate
(c) 5 (d) 6
Directions: In the following Q given below, a statement
Q37) Choose the box that is similar to the box formed
followed by three assumptions numbered I, II and III are
from the given sheet of paper (X).
given. You have to consider the statement and the
assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is
implicit in the statement. Then decide which of the
answers is the correct one and indicate it on the answer
sheet.

Q42) Statement: To make the company commercially

viable there is an urgent need to prune the staff strength
and borrow money from the financial institutions-
Opinion of a consultant.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Assumptions:
(c) 3 only (d) 4 only i) The financial institutions lend money for such
proposals.
Q38) Which number is on the face opposite to 6? ii) The product of the company has a potential market.
iii) The employees of the company are inefficient.
(a) Only i is implicit
(b) Only ii is implicit
(c) i and ii is implicit
(d) ii and iii are implicit

Q43) Six children A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a

(a) 4 (b) 1 straight line. E and D have two children between them.
(c) 2 (d) 3 There are three children between B and F. A is to the left
of E. Fis to the left of D. C is not on either extreme ends.
Q39) Which one will replace the Q mark ? Which one of them are on the extremes?
(a) EF (b) BD
(c) DC (d) AB

Q44) In a group of five persons, A, B, C, D and E, one is

farmer, one is physicist, one is a journalist, one is an
industrialist and one is doctor. A, C and the one who is
doctor, prefer tea to coffee and two of them, B and
Journalist prefer coffee to tea. Industrialist, D and A are
friends but two of these prefer tea to coffee. The farmer is
C's brother. Who is a farmer?
(a) L10 (b) K15
(a) A (b) B
(c) I15 (d) K8 (c) C (d) D

Q45) Consider the following matrix-

Q40) According to the survey of 2000 educated
unemployed persons in which 1200 were men and 800
were women, the following data were collected:
AIPTS-CSAT-6 BYJU’s Classes:-9980837187
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 (a) P and Q together get at least four coins. (b) Q and S
together get at least four coins.
(c) R and S together get at least five coins. (d) P and R
together get at least five coins.

Q50) Consider the following matrix-

Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that

would complete the figure matrix-

Q46) The petrol consumption rate of a new model car

'Palto' depends on its speed and may be described by the Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that
graph below would complete the figure matrix-

Directions for the following 5 (Five) items:

Examine the information given and answer the items
that follow.

Number of Different Types of Batteries Sold by a

Company Over the Years (Numbers in Thousands)

Mansi makes the 200 km trip Mumbai to Pune at a Types of Batteries

steady speed of 60 km per hour. What is the amount of Year
petrol consumed for the journey? 4AH 7AH 32AH 35AH 55AH Total
(a) 12.5 litres (b) 13.33 litres
1992 75 144 114 102 108 543
(c) 16 litres (d) 19.75 litres
1993 90 126 102 84 126 528
Directions: Qs 47-49 are based on the situation given
below- 1994 96 114 75 105 135 525
Ten coins are distributed among four people P, Q, R, S
such that one of them gets one coin, another gets two 1995 105 90 150 90 75 510
coins, the third gets three coins and the fourth gets four
coins. It is known that Q gets more coins than P and S 1996 90 75 135 75 90 465
gets fewer coins than R.
1997 105 60 165 45 120 495
Q47) If the number of coins distributed to Q is twice the 1998 115 85 160 100 145 605
number distributed to P then which one of the following
is necessarily true?
(a) R gets an even number of coins. Q51) What was the approximate percentage increase in
(b) R gets an odd number of coins. the sales of 55AH batteries in 1998 compared to that in
(c) S gets an even number of coins. 1992?
(d) S gets an odd number of coins. (a) 28% (b) 31%
(c) 33% (d) 34%
Q48) If R gets at least two more coins than S, then which
one of the following is necessarily true? Q52) The total sales of all the seven years is the
(a) Q gets at least two more coins than S. maximum for which battery?
(b) Q gets more coins than P. (a) 4AH (b) 7AH
(c) P gets more coins than S. (c) 32AH (d) 35AH
(d) P and Q together get at least five coins.
Q53) What is the difference in the number of 35AH
Q49) If Q gets fewer coins than R, then which one of the batteries sold in 1993 and 1997?
following is not necessarily true? (a) 24000 (b) 28000

AIPTS-CSAT-6 BYJU’s Classes:-9980837187

8
(c) 35000 (d) 39000
Q54) The percentage of 4AH batteries sold to the total
number of batteries sold was maximum in the year?
(a) 1994 (b) 1995
(c) 1996 (d) 1997
Q55) In case of which battery there was a continuous
decrease in sales from 1992 to 1997?
(a) 4AH (b) 7AH
(c) 32AH (d) 35AH
Q56) Three candidates contested an election and
received 1136, 7636 and 11628 votes respectively. What
percentage of the total votes did the winning candidate
get?
(a) 57% (b) 60%
(c) 65% (d) 90%
Directions for the following 5 (Five) items:
Examine the information given in the following
paragraph and answer the items that follow.
To sum up the whole, we should say that the aim of the
Platonic philosophy was to exalt man into a God. The
aim of the Baconian philosophy was to provide man with
what he requires while he continues to be a man. The
aim of Platonic philosophy was to raise us far above the
vulgar wants. The aim of Baconian philosophy was to
supply our vulgar wants. The former aim was noble; but
the latter was attainable. Plato drew a good bow; he
aimed at the stars; and therefore, though there was no
want of strength or skill, the shot was thrown away. His
arrow was indeed followed by a track of dazzling
radiance; but it struck nothing. Bacon fixed his eye on a
mark which was placed on earth and hit it in the white.
The philosophy of Plato began with words and ended in
words, noble words indeed, words such as were to be
expected from me finest of human intellects exercising
boundless dominion over the fittest of languages.
Q57) The above passage presents Platonic philosophy as-
(a) Giving rise to vulgar wants
(b) Too idealistic in terms of a realistic assessment of a
man
(c) No more than mere words
(d) Being pragmatic
Q58) The author in the above passage-
(a) Praises Platonic philosophy
(b) Explains the drawbacks of Baconian philosophy
(c) Balances opposite views in order to arrive at a just
definition of each
(d) Compares and contrasts two systems towards which
he is impartial
Q59) Which one of the following best reflects the
underlying tone of the passage’?
(a) All ideas regarding man are couched in noble words
(b) Man when exalted into a God comes to nothing.
(c) It is better for man to continue to the man
(d) It is the image of man conceived differently that
makes the basic distinction between different systems
Q60) Which of the following words in the passage
confirm the exalted notions of man according to Plato-
(a) Exercising boundless dominion
AIPTS-CSAT-6
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(b) He aimed at the stars
{c) Fixed his eye on the mark and hit it in the white’
(d) There was no want of strength or skill, the shot was
thrown away’
Q61) The reference to a bow and an arrow in the
passage-
(a) Serves as an example of Platrfs strength
(b) Teaches us to stay focused on target
(c) Shows us a track of dazzling brilliance in 1nan’s
history
(d) Shows us the comparative strengths and weaknesses
of Platonic and Baconian systems
Q62) In the following Q, there are three sentences given
as 1, 2 and 3. Find out whether any two/three sentences
convey the same meaning or they are different. Choose
your answer from the given options-
i) The Judge remarked that not all the accused were
guilty.
ii) The Judge remarked that some of the accused were
guilty and some were not.
iii) The Judge remarked that all those who were accused
include some who are not really guilty.
(a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii
(c) i, ii and iii
(d) All the statements are different
Direction: The following Q is followed by three
statements. You have to study the Q and the statements
and decide which of the statement/s is/are necessary to
answer the Qs. Choose the correct answer from the given
options-
Q63) How many workers are required for completing the
construction work in 10 days?
i) 20% of the work can be completed by 8 workers in 8
days
ii) 20 workers can complete the work in 16 days
iii) One-Eighth of the work can be completed by 8
workers in 5 days
(a) i and iii (b) ii and iii
(c) i and ii (d) Either i or ii or iii
Q64) Two numbers are in the ratio 3:5. If 9 is subtracted
from each, the new numbers are in the ratio 12:23. The
smaller number is:
(a) 27 (b) 33
(c) 49 (d) 55
Q65) Choose the box that is similar to the box formed
from the given sheet of paper (X).
(a) i and ii only (b) ii and iii only
(c) ii and iv only (d) i, ii, iii and iv only
Directions for the following 8 (Eight) items:
BYJU’s Classes:-9980837187
The following eight items (Qs 66 to 73) are based on
three passages in English to test the comprehension of
English language. Read each passage and answer the
item that follows.
PASSAGE -1
Economic liberalization and globalization have put
pressures on Indian industry, particularly on the service
sector, to offer quality products and services at low costs
and with high speed. Organizations have to complete
with unequal partners from abroad. It is well recognized
that developing countries like India are already behind
other countries technologically in many areas, although
some of them, particularly India, boast of huge scientific
and technical manpower. In addition to this, if an
entrepreneur or industrialist has to spend a lot of his
time, money and energy in dealing with unpredictable
services and in negotiating with the local bureaucracy, it
can have a significant dampening effect on business.
Q66) Foreign companies are more equipped than
domestic companies to provide quality service in good
time.
(a) The inference is ‘definitely true’, i.e., it properly
follows from the statement of facts given
(b) The inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely
true’, in light of the facts given
(c) The ‘data is inadequate’ i.e., to from the facts given
you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true
or false
(d) The inference is ‘probably false’ though not ‘definitely
false’ in the light of the facts given
Q67) Official formalities are less cumbersome in almost
all the countries except India.
(a) The inference is ‘definitely true’, i.e., it properly
follows from the statement of facts given
(b) The inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely
true’, in light of the facts given
(c) The ‘data is inadequate’ i.e., to from the facts given
you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true
or false
(d) The inference is ‘probably false’ though not ‘definitely
false’ in the light of the facts given
Q68) India at present is to some extent on par with
developed countries in terms of technological
development.
(a) The inference is ‘definitely true’, i.e., it properly
follows from the statement of facts given
(b) The inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely
true’, in light of the facts given
(c) The ‘data is inadequate’ i.e., to from the facts given
you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true
or false
(d) The inference is ‘probably false’ though not ‘definitely
false’ in the light of the facts given
PASSAGE -2
Piqued by some philistine, who thought of him as an
arrogant literary bloke of no use to anybody, Oscar Wilde
uttered the epigram "All Art is useless". In this phrase he
summed up the whole quarrel of more than a century in
western Europe, when the middle classes were busy
making money and regarded everything which did not
bring back profits as useless. In most of the early
AIPTS-CSAT-6
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civilizations when man had hardly any tools for the
making of things, the primitive would go and splash
colour on the walls, draw the contours of the beats he
haunted, including himself in the picture as a successful
hunter. He would make lovely terracotta toys for his
children and shape the posts, delicately into coherent
forms and engrave lyrical lines on them. How is it
primitive man did something which was not merely
functional, but he put 'something of so' into making of
an object?
Q69) What does the author mean when he uses the word
'philistine' in the context of the passage?
(a) A member of a people opposing Israelites in ancient
Palestine
(b) An uncultured person
(c) A person who thinks himself to be superior
(d) None of the above
Q70) What would be an appropriate title for his passage?
(a) Art and Essence: Life’s richness lost under utilitarian
microscope
(b) Art and Soul: The hidden connection
(c) Art today: The domain of sycophants
(d) Art: Its evolution over the ages
Q71) What does the author mean when he says that pre-
historic man put ‘something of his soul’ in making an
object?
(a) It is a pun on the word ‘soul’ and is actually referring
to the souls of pre-historic man’s feet which were used to
make objects.
(b) It refers to the instinct and inclination that the pre-
historic man had towards art and although he wasn’t
refined he could still incorporate art in his day-to-day
life.
(c) It shows the effect that the pre-historic man put in to
everything he made, i.e. he used not only his body but
also his soul.
(d) It was his way of venting his frustration and
highlighting the lack of extra-curricular activities.
PASSAGE -3
Under Reservation in India a percentage of seats are
reserved in the public sector units, union and state civil
services, union and state government departments and
in all public and private educational institutions, except
in the religious/ linguistic minority educational
institutions, for the socially and educationally backward
classes of citizens or the Scheduled Castes and Tribes
who were inadequately represented in these services and
institutions. The reservation policy is extended for the
SC and STs in representing the Parliament of India &
state legislative assemblies. Caste is the predominant
factor used for reservation in India, though reservation is
also offered based on other parameters like religion,
state of domicile, etc. The central government of India
reserves 27% of government jobs and proposes to do
similarly in higher education but certain Indian states
like Tamil Nadu, which currently reserves 69% seats,
have followed caste-based reservations since 1921.In
2006, Indian education minister Arjun Singh announced
extension of reservation benefits to the "Other Backward
Castes" (OBCs) in central government educational
institutions. There are ongoing disputes about statistical
data used by Government of India and Indian states for
BYJU’s Classes:-9980837187
offering reservation benefits to the socially and (d) These people live a dignified life like others along with
economically backward communities as identified by 'A'.
caste.
Consider the following Qs related with the above passage Q76) You are on an official tour to a remote village.
and answer them accordingly: Suddenly you saw that a villager’s house get fire. The
immediate action of yours under such circumstance
Q72) Reservations are intended to – should be-
(a) Mean of accommodating certain groups in the system (a) Inform the fire station
(b) Another method of political parties to gain stronghold (b) Ask and help the villagers to throw water on the fire
among the lower classes. (c) Grant some financial help
(c) Increase the social diversity in campuses and (d) Set up an enquiry after the incident
workplaces
(d) A form of affirmative action Q77) You meet with an accident while you were going to
accomplish a very important task for your Administrative
Q73) Consider the following Qs and accordingly choose Office. Inspite of this, your office insists that you
your answer – complete the task. You would-
i) The framers of the Constitution believed that, due to (a) Ask for some more days for the completion of the
the caste system, SCs and the STs were historically task.
oppressed and denied respect and equal opportunity in (b) Inform Administrative Office of your inability to
Indian society and were thus under-represented in finish on time.
nation-building activities. (c) Suggest some other person to Administrative Office
ii) The stipulated time limit for reservations was not who may complete the task.
revisied for the fear of losing votes. (d) Stay away from the Administrative Office till you
iii) It is a well-known fact that the so-called backward recover.
communities are active in politics and their people vote.
iv) The majority of highly educated Indians do not vote Direction: The following 2 (items) are based on the
during the general elections. following information.
Which of the above statements are correct in regard to Study the following table and answer the Qs based on it.
the paragraph given- Expenditures of a Company (in Lakh Rupees) per
(a) i, ii and iv (b) i, ii and iii Annum Over the given Years.
(c) ii, iii and iv (d) All of the above
Item of Expenditure
Directions for the following 4 (Four) items:
Given below are seven items. Each item describes a Year Interest
situation and is followed by four possible response. Fuel and
Salary Bonus on Taxes
Indicate the response you find most appropriate. Choose Transport
Loans
only one response for each item. The response will be
evaluated based on the level of appropriateness for the 1998 288 98 3.00 23.4 83
given situation.
1999 342 112 2.52 32.5 108
Q74) Suppose your friend has just left the home on a
scooter along with his son, immediately you hear the 2000 324 101 3.84 41.6 74
news that they met a road accident. What will you do in
2001 336 133 3.68 36.4 88
this case?
(a) You will mock at him because you have poor relations 2002 420 142 3.96 49.4 98
with him
(b) You will rush immediately and extend all possible
help keeping in mind that this is not the time of personal Q78) What is the average amount of interest per year
enmity which the company had to pay during this period?
(c) You will leave the place immediately so that nobody (a) Rs. 32.43 lakhs
can blame you latter on (b) Rs. 33.72 lakhs
(d) You will visit them next day and give an impression (c) Rs. 34.18 lakhs
that you knew it just now from neighbourhood. (d) Rs. 36.66 lakhs

Q75) Now-a-days the Government has given priority to
social welfare schemes, therefore it has launched various
schemes like Old-age pensions scheme, Widow Pension
scheme etc. Your personal opinion towards all these
schemes is-
(a) These schemes are fruitful to raise the standard and
support the economy of backward sections of the society.
(b) It is a kind of governmental obligation for the weaker
sections
(c) These schemes deprive the beneficiaries from social
sympathy
AIPTS-CSAT-6
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Q79_ If a quarter kg of potato costs 60 paise, how many
paise will 200 gm cost?
(a) 48 paise
(b) 54 paise
(c) 56 paise
(d) 72 paise
Q80) The Company's coffee crop for 1998-99 totalled
8079 tons, an all-time record. The increase over the
previous year’s production of 5830 tons was 38.58%.
The previous highest crop was 6089 tons in 1970-71.
The company had fixed a target of 8000 tons to be
realized by the year 2000-01, and this has been achieved
BYJU’s Classes:-9980837187
two years earlier, thanks to the emphasis laid on the key
areas of irrigation, replacement of unproductive coffee
bushes, intensive refilling and improved agricultural
practices. It is now our endeavour to reach the target of
10000 tons in, the year 2001-02. Which one of the
following would contribute most to making the target of
10000 tons in 2001-02 unrealistic?
(a) The potential of the productivity enhancing measures
implemented up to now has been exhausted.
(b) The total company land under coffee has remained
constant since 1969 when an estate in the Nilgiri Hills
was acquired.
(c) The sensitivity of the crop to climatic factors makes
prediction about production uncertain.
(d) The target-setting procedures in the company have
been proved to be sound by the achievement of the 8000
tonne target.

AIPTS-CSAT-6 BYJU’s Classes:-9980837187

12