B.

TECH/CE/EVEN/SEM–8/CE802C/2019-2020
YEAR: 2020
NAME OF THE PAPER: ADVANCED TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING
PAPER CODE: CE802C

Answer the following:

.
1. The rail is designated by its
a)    Length
b)    weight
c)    cross-section
d)    weight per unit length

2. Two important constituents in the com-position of steel used for rail are
a)    carbon and silicon
b)    manganese and phosphorous
c)    carbon and manganese
d)    carbon and sulfur

3. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge and Meter Gauge are respectively
a)    12 m and 12 m
b)    12 m and 13 m
c)    13 m and 12 m
d)    13 m and 13 m

4. The  following tests  are  conducted  for rails:

i)    falling weight test
ii)   tensile test
iii) hammer test
The compulsory tests are
a)    only (i)
b)    (i)and(ii)
c)    (ii) and (iii)
d)    (i) and (iii)

5. Largest dimension of a rail is its

a)    height
b)    foot width
c)    head width
d)    any of the above

6.    Largest percentage of material in the rail is in its

a)    head
b)    web
c)    foot
d)    head and foot both

7.    The purpose of providing fillet in a rail section is to

a)    increase the lateral strength
b)    increase the vertical stiffness
c)    avoid the stress concentration
d)    reduce the wear
8.    The cross-sectional area of 52 kg flat footed rail is
a)    6155 mm2
b)    6615 mm2
c)    7235 mm2
d)    7825 mm2

9.    52 kg rails are mostly used in

a)    Broad Gauge
b)    Meter Gauge
c)    Narrow Gauge
d)    both (a) and (b)

10.    Tensile strength of steel used  in rails should not be less than
a)    450 MPa
b)    500 MPa
c)    700 MPa
d)    850 MPa

11.    Head width of 52 kg rail section is

a)    61.9 mm
b)    66.7mm
c)    67mm
d)    72.33 mm

12.     60 R rails are mostly used in

a)    Broad Gauge
b)    Meter Gauge
c)    Narrow Gauge
d)    none of the above

13.    Ordinary rails are made of

a)    mild steel
b)    cast iron
c)    wrought iron
d)    high carbon steel

14.    The main function of a fish plate is

a)    to join the two rails together
b)    to join rails with the sleeper
c)    to allow rail to expand and contract freely
d)    none of the above

 
15.    Number of fish bolts per fish plate is
a)    2
b)    4
c)    5
d)    6

16.    Fish plate is in contact with rail at

a)    web of rail
b)    fishing plane
c)    head of rail
d)    foot of rail
17.    Gauge is the distance between
a)    center to center of rails
b)    running faces of rails
c)    outer faces of rails
d)    none of the above

18.    Which of the following factors govern the choice of the gauge?
i)    Volume and nature of traffic
ii)    speed of train
iii)    physical features of the country
The correct answer is
a)    only (i)
b)    both (i) and (ii)
c)    both (ii) and (iii)
d)    (i), (ii) and (iii)

19.    For developing thinly populated areas, the correct choice of gauge is
a)    Broad Gauge
b)    Meter Gauge
c)    Narrow Gauge
d)    any of the above

20. Due to battering action of wheels over the end of the rails, the rails get bent down and are
deflected at ends. These rails are called
a)    roaring rails
b)    hogged rails
c)    corrugated rails
d)    buckled rails

21.    The slipping of driving wheels of locomotives on the rail surface causes
a)    wheel burns
b)    hogging of rails
c)    scabbing of rails
d)    corrugation of rails

22.    The width of foot for 90 R rail section is

a)    100 mm
b)    122.2 mm
c)    136.5 mm
d)    146.0 mm

23.    The height of the rail for 52 kg rail section is

a)    143 mm ,
b)    156 mm
c)    172 mm '
d)    129mm

24.    The formation width for a railway track depends on the

i)    type of gauge
ii)   number of tracks to be laid side by side
iii)  slope  of sides of embankment or cutting The correct answer is
a)    only (i)
b)    both (i) and (ii)
c)    both (i) and (iii)
d)    (i), (ii) and (iii)

25.    The formation width for a single line meter gauge track in embankment as adopted on
Indian Railways is
a)    4.27 m
b)    4.88 m
c)    5.49 m
d)    6.10 m

26.    The side slope of embankments for a railway track is generally taken as
a)    1:1
b)    1.5:1
c)    2:1
d)    1:2

27.    The formation width for a double line Broad Gauge track in cutting (excluding drains) as
adopted on Indian Railways is
a)    6.10 m
b)    8.84 m
c)    10.21m
d)    10.82 m

28.    The total gap on both sides between the inside edges of wheel flanges and gauge faces of
the rail is kept as
a)    10mm
b)    13mm
c)    16mm
d)    19 mm

29.    Creep is the

a)    longitudinal movement of rail
b)    lateral movement of rail
c)    vertical movement of rail
d)    difference in level of two rails

30.    Anti creep bearing plates are provided on

a)    bridges and approaches
b)    joints
c)    both (a) and (b)
d)    none of the above

31.    Study the following statements regarding creep.

i)    Creep is greater on curves than on tangent railway track,
ii)   Creep in new rails  is more than that in old rails,
iii) Creep is more on steep gradients than on level track. The correct answer is
a)    only (i)
b)    (i)and(ii)
c)    (ii) and (iii)
d)    (i), (ii) and (iii)

32.    The maximum degree of curvature for Meter Gauge is limited to

a)    10°
b)    16°
c)    30°
d)    40°
 

33.    Staggered joints are generally provided

a)    on curves
b)    on straight track
c)    when two different rail sections are required to be joined
d)    none of the above

34.    When the rail ends rest on a joint sleeper, the joint is termed as
a)    supported rail joint
b)    suspended rail joint
c)    bridge joint
d)    base joint

35.    Which of the following types of sleepers is preferred on joints?

a)    CST-9 sleeper
b)    steel trough sleeper
c)    wooden sleeper
d)    concrete sleeper

36. Minimum depth of ballast cushion for a Broad Gauge wooden sleeper of size 275x25x13 cm
with 75cm sleeper spacing is
a)    15 cm
b)    20 cm
c)    25 cm
d)    30cm

37.    Sleeper density in India is normally kept as

a)    M + 2 to M + 7
b)    M to M+2
c)    M + 5 to M+10
d)    M
where M is the rail length in meters.

38.    For a Broad Gauge route with M+7 sleeper density, number of sleepers per rail length is
a)    18
b)    19
c)    20
d)    21

39. Standard size of wooden sleeper for Broad Gauge track is

a)    275x25x13cm
b)    180x20x11.5 cm
c)    225x23x13 cm
d)    250x26x12 cm
 

40.     Composite sleeper index is the index of

a)    hardness and strength
b)    strength and toughness
c)    toughness and wear resistance
d)    wear resistance and hardness
41. Minimum composite sleeper index for a track sleeper is
a)    552
b)    783
c)    1352
d)    1455

42.    Dog spikes are used for fixing rail to the

a)    wooden sleepers
b)    CST-9 sleepers
c)    steel trough sleepers
d)    concrete sleepers

43.    Number of dog spikes normally used per rail seat on curved track is
a)    one on either side
b)    two outside and one inside
c)    one outside and two inside
d)    two outside and two inside

44.    The type of bearing plate used in all joints and on curves to give better bearing area to the
rails is
a)    flat mild steel bearing plate
b)    mild steel canted bearing plate
c)    cast iron anti creep bearing plate
d)    none of the above

45.    Flat mild steel bearing plates are used

a)    for points and crossings in the lead portion
b)    with wooden sleepers at locations where creep is likely to be developed
c)    on all joints and curves
d)    on all the above

46.    The nominal size of ballast used for points and crossings is
a)    25 mm
b)    40 mm
c)    50 mm
d)    10mm

47.    At points and crossings, the total number of sleepers for 1 in 12 turnouts in Broad Gauge is
a)    51
b)    62
c)    70
d)    78

48.    Width of ballast section for Broad Gauge is

a)    1.83 m
b)    2.25 m
c)    3.35 m
d)    4.30 m

49.    The type of spike used for fixing chairs of bull headed rails to wooden sleepers is
a)    dog spike
b)    rail screw
c)    elastic spike
d)    round spike

50.    The sleepers resting directly on girder are fastened to the top flange of girder by
a)    hook bolts
b)    dog spikes
c)    fang bolts
d)    rail screws

51.    Number of keys used in CST-9 sleeper is

a)    2
b)    3
c)    4
d)    none of the above

52.    Loose jaws of steel trough sleepers are made of

a)    cast steel
b)    mild steel
c)    cast iron
d)    spring steel

53.    Number of cotters used in CST-9 sleepers is

a)    2
b)    3
c)    4
d)    5

54.    Pandrol clips cannot be used with

a)    wooden sleepers
b)    concrete sleepers
c)    CST-9 sleepers
d)    steel trough sleepers

55.    The  desirable  rate  of change  of cant deficiency in case of Meter Gauge is
a)    20 mm/sec
b)    35 mm/sec
c)    55 mm/sec
d)    65 mm/sec

56.    The limiting value of cant excess for Broad Gauge is

a)    55 mm
b)    65 mm
c)    75 mm
d)    l00 mm

57.    The limiting value of cant gradient for all gauges is

a)    1 in 360
b)    1 in 720
c)    1 in 1000
d)    1 in 1200

58.    Normally the limiting value of cant is

a)    G/8
b)    G/10
c)    G/12
d)    G/15
where G is the gauge.

59.    Vertical curves are provided where algebraic difference between grades is equal to or
a)    less than 2 mm/m
b)    more than 2 mm/m
c)    less than 4 mm/m
d)    more than 4mm/m

60.    The limiting value of cant deficiency for Meter Gauge routes is
a)    40 mm
b)    50mm
c)    75mm
d)    100mm

61.    The steepest gradient permissible on a 2.5° curve for Broad Gauge line having ruling
gradient of 1 in 200 is
a)    1 in 250
b)    1 in 222
c)    1 in 235
d)    1 in 275

62.    Normally maximum cant permissible in Meter Gauge is

a)    75 mm
b)    90 mm
c)    140 mm
d)    165 mm
 

63. Cant deficiency occurs when a vehicle travels around a curve at

a)    equilibrium speed
b)    speeds higher than equilibrium speed
c)    speeds lower than equilibrium speed
d)    booked speed

64.    The compensation for curvature on gradient for Meter Gauge is given by
a)    70/R
b)    52.5/R
c)    35/R
d)    105/R
where R is radius of curve.

65.    The shape of transition curve used by Indian Railways is

a)    cubic parabola
b)    spiral
c)    sine curve
d)    lemniscate of Bernoulli

66.    A Broad Gauge branch line takes off as a contrary flexure from a main line If the super
elevation required for branch line is 10 mm and cant deficiency is 75 mm, the super elevation to
be actually provided on the branch line will be
a)    10 mm
b)    64 mm
c)    85 mm
d)    65 mm

67.    One degree of curve is equivalent to

a)    1600/R
b)    1700/R
c)    1750/R
d)    1850/R
where R is the radius of curve in meters.
 

68.    Switch angle is the angle between

a)    the gauge face of the stock rail and tongue rail
b)    the outer face of the stock rail and tongue rail
c)    the gauge face of the stock rail and outer face of the tongue rail
d)    the outer face of the stock rail and the gauge face of the tongue rail

69.    Switch angle depends on

i)    heel divergence
ii)    length of tongue rail
iii)    flange way clearance
iv)    throw of switch
The correct answer is
a)    (i) and (ii)
b)    (ii) and (iii)
c)    (iii) and (iv)
d)    (i)and(iv)

70.   Maximum value of 'throw of switch' for Broad Gauge track is

a)    89 mm
b)    95 mm
c)    100 mm
d)    115mm

71.    Stretcher bar is provided

a)    to permit lateral movement of the tongue rail
b)    to maintain the two tongue rails at the exact distance
c)    to ensure exact gauge at the toe of the switch as well as the nose of crossing
d)      to prevent any vertical movement between the wing rail and nose of crossing

72. Which of the following methods of designation of crossing is mostly used in India?
a)    center line method
b)    right angle method
c)    isosceles angle method
d)    none of the above

73. If a is the angle of crossing, then the number of crossings 'N' according to right angle method
is given by
a)    Vi cot(cc/2)
b)    cot(oc/2)
c)    cot(a)
d)    Vi cosec(a/2)

74.    Which of the following turnouts is most commonly used for goods train on Indian
Railways ?
a)    1 in 8'/2
b)    1 in 12
c)    1 in 16
d)    1 in 20

75.    Lead of crossing is the distance from the

a)    heel of the switch to the toe of the switch
b)    heel of the switch to the theoretical nose of the crossing
c)    toe of the switch to the theoretical nose of crossing
d)    toe of the switch to the actual nose of crossing

76. Number of switches provided on a Gaunt-letted track is

a)    1
b)    2
c)    3
d)    none of the above

77. The correct relation between curve lead (CL), switch lead (SL) and lead of cros¬sing (L) is
given by
a)    CL = L - SL
b)    L =CL-SL
c)    SL = L + CL
d)    L = (CL+SL)/2
 

78.    In a scissors cross-over, the crossings provided are

i)    2 obtuse angle crossings
ii)   4 obtuse angle crossings
iii)  4 acute angle crossings
iv)   6 acute angle crossings The correct answer is
a)    (i) and (iii)
b)    (i)and(iv)
c)    (ii) and (iii)
d)    (ii) and (iv)

79.    The distance through which the tongue rail moves laterally at the toe of the switch for
movement of trains is called
a)    flange way clearance
b)    heel divergence
c)    throw of the switch
d)    none of the above

80.    Flange way clearance is the distance

a)    between the adjoining faces of the running rail and the check rail near the crossing
b)    between the gauge faces of the stock rail and the tongue rail
c)    through which the tongue rail moves laterally at the toe of the switch
d)    none of the above

81.    Heel divergence is

a)    always less than flange way clearance
b)    equal to flange way clearance
c)    always greater than flange way clearance
d)    sometimes greater than flange way clearance

82.    Which of the following mechanical devices is used to ensure that route cannot be changed
while the train is on the point even after putting back the signal?
a)    Detectors
b)    point lock
c)    lock bar
d)    stretcher bar

83.    The treadle bar is provided

a)    in the middle of the track a little in front of the toes of the tongue rail
b)    near and parallel to inner side of one of the rails
c)    at right angle to the rail
d)    near and parallel to inner side of both the rails

84.    The object of providing a point lock is

a)    to ensure that each switch is correctly set
b)    to ensure that the point may not be operated while the train is on it
c)    to detect any obstruction between and tongue rail
d)    none of the above

85.    Which of the following devices is used to transfer the wagons or locomotives to and from
parallel tracks without any necessity of shunting?
a)    Triangle
b)    turntable
c)    traverser
d)    scotch block

86.    A triangle is used for

a)    changing the direction of engine
b)    transferring wagons to and from parallel tracks without shunting
c)    separating all the sidings and shunting lines from main lines
d)    preventing the vehicles from running off the track

87.    The height of the center of arm of a semaphore signal above the ground is
a)    5.5m
b)    6.5 m
c)    7.5 m
d)    8.5m

88.    The reception signal is

i)    outer signal
ii)   home signal
iii)  starter
iv)   advanced starter The correct answer is
a)    (i) and (ii)
b)    (ii) and (iii)
c)    (iii) and (iv)
d)    (i)and(iv)

89.    Yellow light hand signal indicates

a)    stop
b)    proceed
c)    proceed cautiously
d)    none of the above
 

90.    When semaphore and warner are installed on the same post, then the stop indication is
given when
a)    both arms are horizontal
b)    semaphore arm lowered but warner arm horizontal
c)    both semaphore and warner arms lowered
d)    none of the above

91.    In a shunting signal if the red band is inclined at 45° it indicates
a)    stop
b)    proceed
c)    proceed cautiously
d)    none of the above

92.    For the purpose of track maintenance, the number of turn out equivalent to one track km
are
a)    1
b)    2
c)    5
d)    10

93.    A train is hauled by 4-8-2 locomotive.

The number of driving wheels in this locomotive is
a)    4
b)    8
c)    12
d)    14

94.    To ensure exact gauge, the gauge tie plates are provided at
a)    toe of the switch
b)    nose of crossing
c)    both (a) and (b)
d)    none of the above

95.    On a single rail track, goods trains loaded with heavy iron material run starting from
A to B and then empty wagons run from B to A. The amount of creep in the rails.
a)    will be more in the direction of B to A
b)    will be more in the direction of A to B
c)    will be maximum at the middle of A and B
d)    cannot be determined from the given data.

 
96.    For laying the railway track, materials required are
A)    Rails
B)    Fish Plates
C)    Fish Bolts
D)    Bearing Plates
The quantities required for one kilometer of Broad Gauge track will be
 

97.    Metal sleepers are superior to wooden sleepers with respect to

a)    cost
b)    life
c)    track circuiting
d)    fastening

98.    Which one of the following rail failures is caused by loose fish bolts at expansion joints?
a)    Crushed head
b)    angular break
c)    split head
d)    transverse fissures

99. For a 8° curve track diverging from a main curve of 5° in an opposite direction in the layout of
a broad gauge yard, the cant to be provided for the branch track for maximum speed of 45 km/h
on the main line and 'G' = 1.676 m is (Permitted cant deficiency for the main line = 7.6 cm)
a)    0.168 cm
b)    -0.168 cm
c)    7.432 cm
d)    7.768 cm

100.    Consider the following statements:

Automatic signaling system results in
1.    Greater risk
2.    Higher efficiency
3.    Avoidance of block instruments
4.    higher operating cost Of these statements
a)    I and 2 are correct
b)    3 and 4 are correct
c)    1 and 4 are correct
d)    2 and 3 are correct

101.    Wear of rails is maximum in weight of _________.

a)    Tangent track
b)    sharp curve
c)    tunnels
d)    coastal area

102. A train is hauled by 2-8-2 locomotive with 22.5 tones and on each driving axle. Assuming the
coefficient of rail-wheel friction to be 0.25, what would be the hauling capacity of the locomotive?
a)    15.0 tones
b)    22.5 tones
c)    45.0 tones
d)    90.0 tones

103.    A treadle bar is used for

a)    interlocking points and signal
b)    setting points and crossings
c)    setting marshalling yard signals
d)    track maintenance

104.    Consider the following statements about concrete sleepers.

1.    They improve the track modulus.
2.    They have good scrap value.
3.    They render transportation easy.
4.     They maintain the gauge quite satisfactorily. Of these statements
a)    1 and 2 are correct
b)    2 and 3 are correct
c)    3 and 4 are correct
d)    1 and 4 are correct

105. What will be the curve lead for a 1 in 8.5 turnout taking off from a straight broad gauge
track?
a)    28.49 m
b)    21.04 m
c)    14.24 m
d)    7.45 m

106.    Consider the following surveys.

1.    Reconnaissance survey
2.    Preliminary survey
3.    Traffic survey
4.    Location survey
the correct sequence in which these surveys are conducted before the alignment of a track is finalized is
a)    1,3,2,4
b)    1,3,4,2
c)    3,1,4,2
d)    3,1,2,4

107.    The load on each axle of a locomotive is 22 tones. If the coefficient of friction is 0.2, then
the hauling capacity due to 3 pairs of driving wheels will be
a)    26.41
b)    19.81
c)    13.21
d)    6.61

108. In a B.G. railway track, the specified ruling gradient is 1 in 250. The horizontal curve of 3° on
a gradient of 1 in 250 will have the permissible gradient of
a)    1 in 257
b)    1 in 357
c)    1 in 457
d)    1 in 512

109. For a sleeper density of (n+5), the number of sleepers required for constructing a broad
gauge railway track of length 650 m is
a)    975
b)    918
c)    900
d)    880

110. If 'A' is the angle formed by two gauge faces, the crossing number will be
a)    tan A
b)    cot A
c)    sec A
d)    None of these.

111. For supersonic transport aircraft, the minimum turning radius of taxiway is
(A) 60 m
(B) 120 m
(C) 180 m
(D) 240 m
112. The width and interval of transverse center line bars along the extended center line of
runway, in approach lighting system are
(A) 3 m and 30 m
(B) 4.2 m and 30 m
(C) 4.2 m and 50 m
(D) 3 m and 45

113. In an airport, if 4 groups of 5 gates each located well separated are considered for traffic
and the future to present traffic ratio is 3, then the total requirement of future gates will be
(A) 32
(B) 36
(C) 44
(D) 68
114. The runway length after correcting for elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If the
effective gradient on runway is 0.5 percent then the revised runway length will be
(A) 2845 m
(B) 2910 m
(C) 3030 m
(D) 3130 m
115. As per ICAO recommendation, the rate of change of longitudinal gradient per 30 m
length of vertical curve for A and B type of airports is limited to a maximum of
(A) 0.1 %
(B) 0.2 %
(C) 0.3 %
(D) 0.4 %
116. According to ICAO, all markings on the runways are
(A) Yellow
(B) White
(C) Black
(D) Red
117. The length of runway under standard conditions is 2000 m. The elevation of airport site is
300 m. Its reference temperature is 33.05°C. If the runway is to be constructed with an effective
gradient of 0.25 percent, the corrected runway length will be
(A) 2500 m
(B) 2600 m
(C) 2700 m
(D) 2800 m
118. Which of the following is used for servicing and repairs of the aircraft?
(A) Apron
(B) Hanger
(C) Terminal building
(D)Holding Apron
119. The minimum width of clearway is
(A) 50 m
(B) 100 m
(C) 150 m
(D) 250 m
120. The cruising speed of the aircraft is 500 kmph. If there is a head wind of 50 kmph,
then the air speed and ground speed of the aircraft respectively will be
(A) 450 kmph and 500 kmph
(B) 500 kmph and 450 kmph
(C) 450 kmph and 450 kmph
(D) 500 kmph and 500 kmph
121. The size of landing area for multi-engine helicopters operating under 1 FR conditions is
(A) 22.5 m × 22.5 m
 (B) 30 m × 30 m
(C) 22.5 m × 30 m
(D) 60 m × 120 m
122. The slope of the transitional surface for A, B and C type of runway shall be
(A) 1: 5
(B) 1: 7
(C) 1: 10
(D) 1:12
123. Castor angle is defined as the angle
(A) Formed by the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the direction of movement of the
nose gear
(B) Between the direction of wind and the longitudinal axis of the runway
(C) Between the true speed of the aircraft and the crosswind component
(D) Between the horizontal and the fuselage
axis.
124. Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is:
(A) Equal to empty operating weight
(B) Equal to maximum landing weight
(C) Less than empty operating weight
(D)Equal to sum of empty operating weight
and the maximum pay load.
125. If the monthly mean of average daily temperature for the hottest month of the year is 25°C
and the monthly mean of the maximum daily temperature of the same month of the year is
46°C, the airport reference temperature is
(A) 32°C
(B)35.5°C
(C) 48°C
(D) 25°C
126. Wing loading of an aircraft is
(A) Load of the wings
(B) Gross total weight of the aircraft/ load of the wings
(C) Gross total weight of the aircraft/ wing area
(D)Gross total weight of the aircraft/total available H.P of engines
127. The main disadvantage of angle nose out parking configuration of aircraft is that the
(A) Aircraft rear loading door is far away from terminal building.
(B) Hot blast is directed towards the terminal building
(C) Overall apron area required is more
(D)All the above
128. The air is blowing at a speed of 75 knots in the direction of the aircraft flying at a ground
speed of 775 knots. The air speed of the aircraft, is
(A) 775 knots
(B) 75 knots
(C) 850 knots
(D) 675 knots
129. Maximum gross takeoff weight of an aircraft is
(A) Equal to the maximum structural landing weight
 (B) Less than the maximum structural landing weight
(C) More than the maximum structural landing weight
(D)Equal to the empty operating weight plus the payload
130. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Minimum turning radius of aircrafts decides the size of the apron and the radius
of the curves at taxi-ends
(B) Takeoff and landing distances for an aircraft, determine the minimum runway length
(C) The length of the normal haul of the air craft decides the frequency of operation
(D)All the above
131. As per ICAO, the minimum basic runway length for A and E type of airport will be
(A) 1500 m and 600 m
(B) 2100 m and 750 m
(C) 1500 m and 750 m
(D) 2100 m and 600m

132. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(A) Runway edge from the landing side, is called threshold
(B) Localizer indicates to the pilot his position with respect to the proposed alignment
(C) The glide slope indicates the correct angle of descent
(D)All the above.

133. Assertion A: The ratio of arriving and departing aircrafts influences the airport
Capacity.
Reason R: Landing operation is generally given priority over the taking off operation. Select
your answer based on the coding system given below:
(A) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D)A is false but R is true.
134. A gradient of + 0.08% is followed by a gradient of - 0.07%. If the permissible rate of
change of grade is 0.003 per 30 metres, the length of the transition curve, is
(A) 150 m
(B) 140 m
(C) 160 m
(D) 175 m
135. The total length of a runway is 1000 m. The elevation at distance 0,200 m, 400 m, 600 m,
800 m and 1000 m are 100.0 m, 99.2 m, 101.0 m, 101.8 m, 101.4 m and 101.0 m respectively. The
effective gradient of runway will be.
(A) 0.10 %
(B) 0.26 %
(C) 0.43 %
(D) 0.65 %

136. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

(A) L.O.M. is installed at 7.2 km from the threshold
(B) L.M.M. is installed at 1.0 km from the threshold
 (C) Localizer antenna is installed at 300 m from the other end of the runway
(D) Glide slope antenna is installed at the center of the runway about 150 m on one side
137. As per UK design criteria, if LCN of aircraft is between 1.25 to 1.5 times the LCN of
pavement, then the number of movements allowed are
(A) Zero
(B) 300
(C) 3000
(D) Unrestricted
138. Effective length of a runway is the distance between
(A) Ends of the runway
(B) Point of intersection of the obstruction clearance line and the extended plane of the
runway surface, and the other end of the runway
(C) Point of intersection of the glide path and the extended plane of the runway surface and
the other end of the runway
(D)Ends of the clear way on either side
139. Consider the following statements: Wind rose diagram is used for the purposes of
1. Runway orientation
2. Estimating the runway capacity
3. Geometric design of holding apron of these statements
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 1 and 3 are correct
(D) 1 alone is correct.
140. The length of a runway under standard atmospheric conditions is 1800 m. If the actual
reduced level of the site is 1200 m, the design length of the runway is
(A) 2360 m
(B) 2460 m
(C) 2560 m
(D) 2660 m
141. Calm period is the percentage of time during which wind intensity is less than
(A) 4.8 kmph
(B) 6.4 kmph
(C) 8.0 kmph
(D) 9.6 kmph

142. For the proposed airport, the survey project provides

(A) Master plan
(B) Topographic plan
(C) Grading plan
(D)All the above
143. An airport has 4 gates. If the weighted average gate occupancy time is 30 minutes
and gate utilization factor is 0.5, then the capacity of the gate will be
(A) 1 aircraft per hour
(B) 2 aircrafts per hour
(C) 4 aircrafts per hour
(D) 16 aircrafts per hour
144. The strength of winds is measured with the help of
(A) Beaufort scale
(B) Wind indicator
(C) Barometers
(D)None of these
145. As per ICAO recommendation, minimum width of safety area for instrumental runway should
be
(A) 78 m
(B) 150 m
(C) 300 m
(D) 450 m
146. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) F.I.R. stands for flight information regions
(B) Radius of control area is 160 km
(C) Radius of control zone is 40 km
(D) All the above
147. For determining the basic runway length, the landing case requires that aircraft should come
to a stop within p % of the landing distance. The value of p is
(A) 40 %
(B) 50 %
(C) 60 %
(D) 75 %
148. According to the International Civil Aviation Organization (I.C.A.O.) the strength of runway
pavements, have been coded by
(A) Seven English alphabets
(B) Last Seven English alphabets
(C) First Seven English alphabets
(D)First seven numbers
149. Which of the following is an example of failure in flexible pavements?
(A) Alligator cracking
(B) Mud pumping
(C) Warping cracks
(D)Shrinkage cracks
150. For night landing, the thresholds are lighted
(A) Green
(B) Red
(C) White
(D)Yellow

151. In approach areas of runways equipped with instrumental landing facilities any object
within 4.5 km distance from runway end shall be considered as an obstruction if its height is
more than
(A) 20 m
(B) 30 m
 (C) 45 m
(D) 51 m
152. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Tar concrete pavements are suitable if fuel spillage occurs
(B) Rubberized tar concrete hot blast as well as spillage
(C) Epoxy asphalt concrete sets in very small time
(D)All the above
153. The engine failure case for determining the basic runway length may require
(A) Only clearway
(B) Only stop way
(C) Either a clearway or a stop-way
(D)Either a clearway or a stop-way or both
154. The maximum value of the angle of turning of the nose gear large jet aircrafts, is limited to
(A) 20°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 60°
155. Assertion A: Airport capacity during IFR conditions is usually less than that during VFR
conditions.
Reason R: During clear weather condition (VFR), the aircrafts on final approach to runway
can be spaced closer during poor visibility conditions.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
(A) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D)A is false but R is true
156. The landing and takeoff of the air craft is made against the direction of wind. In no case the
center line of the runway should make an angle with the wind direction exceeding
(A) 10°
(B) 20°
(C) 30°
(D) 40°
157. Consider the following statements regarding ICAO recommendation for correction to basic
runway length
1. The basic runway length should be increased at the rate of 7 percent per 300 m
rise in elevation above the mean sea level.
2. The basic runway length after having been corrected for elevation should be
further increased at the rate of 1 percent for every 1°C rise in airport reference
temperature above the standard atmospheric temperature at that elevation.
3. The runway length after having been corrected for elevation and temperature
should be further increased at the rate of 20% for every 1 percent of effective
gradient.
Of these statements
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
 (B) 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 1 and 3 are correct
(D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
158. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) Channelization of pavement is caused by constant use of tri-cycle gears of aircraft
(B) Blast pads are used over cohesion less soils to resist erosion due to tremendous
speed of the jet blast
(C) Over-run areas of at least 300 m length on either side of the runway are provided
(D)None of these
159. As per ICAO, for A, B, and C type of airports, maximum effective, transverse and
longitudinal grades in percentage respectively are
(A) 1.0, 1.5 and 1.5
(B) 1.0, 1.5 and 2.0
(C) 1.5, 1.5 and 2.0
(D) 2.0, 2.0 and 2.0
160. The meteorological condition which influences the size and location of an airport is
(A) Atmosphere pressure
(B) Air density
(C) Reduced level
(D)All the above
161. The length of clear zone for none instrument runway of a small aircraft is
(A) 150 m
(B) 300 m
(C) 600 m
(D) 750 m
162. To cope up high temperature of 196°C, the taxi ways and aprons are constructed with
(A) Asphaltic concrete
(B) Rubberized tar concrete
(C) Plain concrete
(D)All the above
163. Runway threshold is indicated by a series of parallel lines starting from a distance of
(A) 3 m from runway end
(B) 6 m from runway end
(C) 10 m from runway end
(D) 15 m from runway end
164. The reduced level of the proposed site of an airport is 2500 m above M.S.L. If the
recommended length by I.C.A.O. for the runway at sea level is 2500 m, the required length of
the runway is
(A) 2500 m
(B) 3725 m
(C) 3000 m
(D) 3250 m
165. The capacity of parallel runway pattern depends upon
(A) Weather conditions and navigational aids available
 (B) Lateral spacing between two runways and weather conditions
(C) Lateral spacing between two runways and navigational aids available
(D)Lateral spacing between two runways, weather conditions and navigational aids
available
166. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Approximate geometric center of the landing area, is called airport reference
point
(B) The boundaries of horizontal surface and conical surface are marked with
reference to airport reference point
(C) The location of the airport on a map is the position of airport reference point
(D) All the above

167. As per ICAO, for airports serving big aircrafts, the crosswind component should not exceed
(A) 15 kmph
(B) 25 kmph
(C) 35 kmph
(D) 45 kmph

168. The threshold markings are

(A) 4 m wide
(B) 1 m clear space between adjacent
(C) Placed symmetrically on either side of the runway center line
(D)All the above
169. Assertion A: The width of a taxiway is smaller than the runway width.
Reason R: The speed of the aircraft on a taxiway is greater than that on runway.
Select your answer based on coding system given below
(A) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D)A is false but R is true
170. An aircraft is flying in an atmosphere of 30°C with a speed of 1260 km ph. Its speed is known as
(A) Subsonic
(B) Sonic
(C) Super-sonic
(D)Mach
171. Conical surface of the approach area rises outwards
(A) 1 in 10
(B) 1 in 15
(C) 1 in 20
(D) 1 in 25
172. The maximum length and pavement strength of the runway is that of
(A) A 1
(B) B 2
(C) B 3
 (D) G 7
173. Total correction for elevation, temperature and gradient for a runway should not be more than
(A) 15 %
(B) 20 %
(C) 25 %
(D) 35 %
174. In instrument landing system
(A) L.O.M. and L.M.M. are installed on one side and Localizer antenna on the other
side
(B) L.O.M. and Localizer are installed on one side and L.M.M. on the other side
(C) Localizer and L.M.M. are installed on one side and L.O.M. on the other side
(D)None of these
175. In Instrumental landing system, the middle markers are located
(A) Along the extended center line of runway end
(B) About 1 km. ahead of the runway threshold
(C) At the runway threshold
(D) About 7 km. ahead of the runway threshold
176. The bearing of the longest line of a wind rose is S 45° E, the bearing of the runway
will be numbered
(A) 135°
(B) 31
(C) 13
(D)Both (c) and (d)
177. Two single runways may be arranged so as to have
(A) L-shape
(B) T-shape
(C) X-shape
(D)All the above
178. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Air screw converts the energy given by the engine into speed
(B) The propellers which are driven by turbine engines, are technically called
turboprops
(C) The aircrafts which obtain the thrust directly from turbine engine, are called
turbo-jets
(D)All the above

179. Which of the following factors are taken into account for estimating the runway length
required for aircraft landing?
1. Normal maximum temperature
2. Airport elevation
3. Maximum landing weight
4. Effective runway gradient
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes:
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4

180. The bearing of the runway at threshold is 290°, the runway number is
(A) N 70° W
(B) 290°
(C) 29°
(D) W 20° N

181. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(A) The speed of the aircraft relative to the ground, is called cruising speed
(B) The speed of the aircraft relative to wind, is called air speed
(C) When wind is blowing the direction of the flight, air speed is less than cruising
speed
(D)All the above

182. The center to center spacing of heliport lighting along the periphery of landing and takeoff area
should be
(A) 2.5 m
(B) 5.0 m
(C) 7.5 m
(D) 10.0 m
183. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Approach zone survey is carried out to determine the elevations of the
protruding obstructions above horizontal, conical and transitional
surfaces
(B) The wind data of an airport is depicted in the form of a chart known as wind rose
(C) The landing and takeoff of the air craft is made against the wind direction
(D)All the above
184. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The basic length of a runway is increased at a rate of 7% per 300 m of elevation of
M.S.L.
(B) The standard temperature at the site is obtained by reducing the
standard sea level temperature of 15°C at the rate of 6.5°C per 1000 m
rise in elevation
(C) The aerodrome reference temperature is the monthly mean of the mean daily
temperature for the hottest month of the year
(D)All the above
185. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The center line of the approach area coincides with that of the runway
(B) Approach areas are measured in horizontal surfaces
(C) Obstruction clearance surface and approach surface are same
(D) All the above
186. According to I.C.A.O. all markings on the runways are painted white and on taxiways
 (A) Black
(B) Red
(C) Yellow
(D)Green
187. The slope of the obstruction clearance line from the boundary of the heliport should be
(A) 1: 2
(B) 1: 5
(C) 1: 8
(D) 1:40
188. If lift off distance of a craft is 2000 m, the clear way at the end of the runway should not be
less than (in meter)
(A) 145
(B) 152.5
(C) 162.5
(D) 172.5
189. The height of the pilot's eye above the runway surface is assumed
(A) 1 m
(B) 3 m
(C) 4 m
(D) 5 m
190. The coordinates of the ends of a runway are (5000, 5000) and (8000, 7000). The co-
ordinates of another runway are (4600, 5100) and (7000, 5300). The co-ordinates of the A.R.P.
are
(A) (6500, 6000)
(B) (5800, 5200)
(C) (61500, 5600)
(D) (8000, 7000)
191. The fuse large includes
(A) Passengers chamber
(B) Pilot's cabin
(C) Tail of aircraft
(D) All the above
192. According to I.C.A.O. the recommended length of air ports is decided on
(A) Sea level elevation
(B) Standard sea level temperature (15°C)
(C) Effective gradient percentage
(D)All the above
193. The lift off distance is the distance along the center of the runway between the starting point
and
(A) End of the runway
(B) End of stop-way
(C) Point where air craft becomes air borne
(D)Point where air craft attains a height of 10.7 m
194. For the proposed runway stated in if the aerodrome reference temperature is 17°.2, the
net designed length of the runway is
(A) 2716 m
(B) 2816 m
(C) 2916 m
(D) 3016 m
195. The length of runway is increased per 300 m rise above M.S.L.
(A) 3 %
(B) 4 %
(C) 5 %
(D) 7 %
196. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) Landing speed is directly proportional to the wing loading
(B) Wing loading remaining constant, the takeoff distance is directly proportional to
the powder loading
(C) Neither (A) nor (B)
(D) Both (A) and (B)
197. From the end of an instrumental runway, the approach surface rises outwards
(A) 1 in 20
(B) 1 in 30
(C) 1 in 40
(D) 1 in 50
198. Pick up the component not applicable to aero planes
(A) Wings
(B) Engines
(C) Air screw
(D)None of these
199. Airport elevation is the reduced level above M.S.L. of
(A) Control tower
(B) Highest point of the landing area
(C) Lowest point of the landing area
(D)None of these
200. According to the International Civil Aviation Organization (I.C.A.O.), the runway
lengths of aerodromes, have been coded by
(A) Seven English alphabets
(B) Last Seven English alphabets
(C) First Seven English alphabets
(D)First seven natural numbers
201. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
(A) The distance between the points of intersection of the extreme tangents to the
transition curve is kept greater than 7500 m × sum of grade changes at the
point of intersection
(B) The rate of change of grade is limited to 0.3% per 30 m length of the curve
(C) According to I.C.A.O. the maximum longitudinal gradient along a runway is limited
to 1.5%
(D)All the above
202. The runway orientation is made so that landing and takeoff are
(A) Against the wind direction
(B) Along the wind direction
(C) Perpendicular to wind direction
(D)None of these
203. According to I.C.A.O. the slope of transitional surface at right angles to the center line of
runway, is kept
(A) 1 in 4
(B) 1 in 5
(C) 1 in 6
(D) 1 in 7
204. The depressions and undulations in the pavement, are caused due to
(A) Improper compaction of sub-grade
(B) Impact of heavy wheel loads
(C) Punching effect
(D)All the above
205. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) In single engine aero planes, the engine is provided in the nose of the aircraft
(B) In double engine aero planes, one engine on either wing is placed symmetrically
(C) In three engine aero planes, two engines are placed on both wings and one
engine is placed in the tail
(D)None of these
206. The thickness design of the pavement, is decided on the load carried by
(A) Main gears
(B) Nose wheel
(C) Tail wheel
(D)All the above
207. Beaufort scale is used to determine
(A) Strength of winds
(B) Direction of winds
(C) Height of air-crafts
(D)None of these
208. The distance between main gears is 10 m, and the distance of nose gear from centre of main
gears is 30 m. If the angle of turning is 60°, the distance of centre of rotation from the nearer main
gear, is
(A) 12.30 m
(B) 11.30 m
(C) 10.30 m
(D) 9.30 m
209. Pick up the correct abbreviation from the following:
(A) L.M.M. (low powered middle marker)
(B) V.H.F, (very high frequency)
(C) L.O.M. (low powered outer marker)
(D)All the above
210. The best direction of a runway is along the direction of
 (A) Longest line on wind rose diagram
(B) Shortest line on the wind rose diagram
(C) Line clear of wind rose diagram
(D)None of these
211. International Civil Aviation Organization (I.C.A.O.) was set up at Montreal (Canada), in
(A) 1929
(B) 1939
(C) 1947
(D) 1950
212. For the taxiways, the following statement is true
(A) The maximum longitudinal grade is 3%
(B) The permissible rate of change of grade is 1%
(C) The permissible transverse grade is 1.5%
(D)All the above
213. If the width of the approach area near the runway end is 150 m, the width of the approach
area at a distance of 3 kilometer from runway end will be
(A) 1500 m
(B) 1200 m
(C) 1000 m
(D) 800 m
214. The reduced levels of the ends A and B of a runway are 3025 m and 3035 m and that of its
mid- point is 3015 m. The reduced level of the horizontal surface, is
(A) 3070 m
(B) 3060 m
(C) 3075 m
(D) 3015 m
215. The branch of engineering that deals with improvement of traffic performance,
traffic studies and traffic network is called ___________
a) Highway engineering
b) Railway engineering
c) Traffic engineering
d) Traffic management
216.  In India for design of roads pedestrian is considered as ___________
a) Element of traffic
b) Intruder in traffic
c) Essential part of traffic
d) Controller of traffic
217. The basic objective of traffic engineering is to achieve ___________
a) Efficient, free and rapid flow of traffic with least priority given to accidents
b) Efficient, free and rapid flow of traffic with fewer accidents
c) Efficient and rapid flow of traffic
d) Rapid flow of traffic

218. The study of traffic engineering is divided into how many major categories?
a) Five
b) Six
c) Seven
d) Eight
219. The “3-Es” of traffic engineering stand for?
a) Enforcement, empowerment and eradication
b) Engineering, education and expulsion
c) Engineering, education and enforcement
d) Engineering, education and enthusiasm
220. In traffic engineering, the elements are classified into how many categories?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
221. Which of the following roads are congested during peak hours?
a) Rural roads
b) urban roads
c) Highways
d) Express ways
222. The traffic survey is conducted during ___________
a) Harvest season
b) Harvest and lean season
c) Rainy season
d) summer season
223. Design of road intersections is a part of ___________
a) Highway engineering
b) Railway engineering
c) Traffic engineering
d) Harbour engineering
224. What is the most important objective of traffic engineering?
a) To consider pedestrians as obstruction
b) to reduce the accidents
c) To increase the traffic
d) to provide a high speed road without any other priority
225. The difference in between the set of front axle and rear axle while negotiating a
horizontal curve is called ___________
a) Psychological widening
b) Off tracking
c) Skidding
d) Slipping
226. A wheel base of 6.5m negotiates a 35m curve find the off tracking?
a) 0.5m
b) 0.6m
c) 0.62m
d) 0.7m
227. In a braking test, a vehicle was moving with a speed of 45kmph and was
stopped by applying brakes, the skid marks were 10.0m in length. Determine the
skid resistance.
a) 0.78m
b) 0.69m
c) 0.71m
d) 0.72m
228.  The pollutant mostly released by automobiles is ___________
a) CO
b) CO2
c) O3
d) CH4
229. The most likely cause of accidents is ___________
a) Impatience in driving
b) slow speed of vehicle
c) Pedestrians crossing the road
d) Cattle crossing the road
230. What is the first stage in traffic engineering studies?
a) Traffic volume studies
b) Spot speed studies
c) Speed and delay studies
d) Origin and destination studies
231. The traffic volume is usually expressed in __________
a) LMV
b) PCU
c) LCV
d) HCV
232. The number of vehicles that pass through a transverse line of road at a given
time in a specified direction is called __________
a) Traffic studies
b) Traffic flow
c) Traffic origin
d) Traffic destination
233. HCV stands for __________
a) Heavy commercial vehicle
b) Heavy cash vehicle
c) Heavy consolidated vehicle
d) hard commercial vehicle
234. The traffic flow is __________
a) Static
b) Dynamic
c) Static and dynamic
d) May be static or dynamic
235. What is the first objective of traffic volume studies?
a) To decide priority for improvement of roads
b) For geometric design
c) For computing roadway capacity
d) To plan traffic operation
236.  Pedestrian data is used for planning __________
a) Highway
b) Sidewalks and cross-walks
c) Kerb
d) Camber
237. Which of the following method is more accurate for traffic analysis?
a) Manual count
b) Automatic count
c) Average of manual and automatic
d) Past records
238.  The outgoing and incoming traffic are counted at __________
a) Traffic intersections
b) Highway
c) Urban roads
d) Traffic symbols
239. The traffic that is prepared based on 365 days of the year is called?
a) Yearly traffic
b) Annual average daily traffic
c) Average daily traffic
d) Average yearly traffic
240. The charts showing the variation of the traffic is called __________
a) Traffic chart
b) Trend chart
c) Variation chart
d) Traffic flow maps
241. The traffic design in India is based on __________
a) 10th hourly volume
b) 20th hourly volume
c) 30th hourly volume
d) 45th hourly volume
242. The 5 minute count at a traffic junction is 15 find the hourly count?
a) 50
b) 100
c) 120
d) 180
243. If the traffic volume count on a road is 150 and daily factor is 1.1 and seasonal
factor is 1.2 then ADT is __________
a) 196
b) 197
c) 198
d) 199
244.  The ratio of seven day average for 24 hours and 24 hours count on any
particular day is __________
a) Daily factor
b) Seasonal factor
c) Annual factor
d) Weekly factor
245. The annual average daily traffic is calculated by which of the formula?
a) ADT*DF*WF
b) ADT*DF*WF*SF
c) ADT*WF
d) ADT*SF
246. Running speed of a vehicle is equal to __________
a) Travel speed+ delay
b) Travel speed
c) Travel speed-delay
d) Average of travel speed and delay
247. The speed at any instant of time is called __________
a) running speed
b) Travel speed
c) Spot speed
d) Space speed
248. Which of the following relationship is correct?
a) Travel speed= running speed
b) Travel speed< running speed
c) Travel speed>running speed
d) Travel speed=1.5 times of running speed
249. Peak hour factor is expressed in percentage of __________
a) ADT
b) AADT
c) PCU
d) DF
250. If the distance of a vehicle moved is 25m and the observed travel time is 15 sec
then space mean speed is?
a) 4m/s
b) 5m/s
c) 6m/s
d) 7m/s
251. If space mean speed of a vehicle is 50kmph, then the time mean speed will be
__________
a) less than 50kmph
b) Greater than 50kmph
c) Equal to 50kmph
d) depends on the vehicle
252.  If the instantaneous speed of 4 vehicles are 35, 40, 45 and 50 then the time
mean speed will be __________
a) 40kmph
b) 41 kmph
c) 41.5kmph
d) 42.5kmph
253. The geometric design in India are designed for __________
a) 85th percentile speed
b) 15th percentile speed
c) 98th percentile speed
d) 100 percentile speed
254.  The weaving man oeuvres is a type of __________
a) Merging
b) Diverging
c) Intersection
d) Crossing
255.  Which of the following does not affect traffic flow?
a) Vehicles travelling at speed
b) Length of the vehicle
c) Weather conditions
d) Geometric design
256. The speed at which the value of time headway is lowest represents the
__________
a) Optimum speed
b) Maximum speed
c) Maximum headway
d) Minimum headway
257. When the gap of the vehicle changes to a smaller lane then it is called
__________
a) Lane change
b) Forced lane change
c) Simultaneous lane change
d) Voluntary lane change
258. The vehicles per unit length at any instant of time is called as __________
a) Density
b) Jam density
c) Maximum density
d) Traffic flow
259.  The distance between the two consecutive vehicles is called __________
a) Space headway
b) Time headway
c) Jam density
d) Traffic flow
260. The maximum jam density occurs at __________
a) Zero speed
b) 15th percentile speed
c) 30th percentile speed
d) 98th percentile speed
261.  If the space headway is 7m, then the jam density in vehicle/km is __________
a) 142
b) 144
c) 145
d) 146
262. The minimum space headway increases with __________
a) Increase in length of vehicle
b) Increase in width of vehicle
c) Increase in weight of vehicle
d) Increase in width of pavement
263.  Which of the following equation is correct?
a) Q=KV
b) K=qv
c) K=qv2
d) V=kq
264. The maximum jam density occurs at __________
a) Ki
b) Ki/2
c) Ki/3
d) Ki/4
265. If the jam density is 145vehicles/km, and velocity is 60kph then the capacity
flow is __________
a) 2175
b) 2200
c) 2375
d) 2500
266. The equivalency factor for the car recommended by IRC is?
a) 0.5
b) 1.0
c) 1.5
d) 2.0
267. The maximum theoretical capacity is __________
a) 1000V/S
b) 1000S/V
c) 1000S
d) 1000V
268. The diameter of the small size information board is?
a) 600mm
b) 900mm
c) 1200mm
d) 1500mm
269. Give way sign is of __________
a) Triangular shape
b) Circular shape
c) Octagonal shape
d) Hexagonal shape
270. The specifications for road signs are specified by __________
a) IRC 6
b) IRC 21
c) IRC 67
d) IRC 97
271. To reduce the conflict points which method is preferable?
a) Restricting the entry in one side
b) Widening of the roads
c) Use of traffic signals
d) Diverting the traffic
272.  If the number of cycles in trial cycle method is 20, for traffic of 170 on one road
and 160 on other road, then calculate the total green time in sec.
a) 38
b) 39
c) 40
d) 41
273.  There is a traffic flow of 250 vehicles on road A and 200 vehicles on road B, if
the green signal time on road A is 15 sec, then the green signal time of road B is?
a) 10sec
b) 11sec
c) 12sec
d) 13sec
274. Which of the traffic signal method is based on saturation flow?
a) Trial cycle method
b) Webster method
c) IRC method
d) approximate method
275. On a 2 phase road, the saturation flow on road A is 1000 and normal flow is
250,whereas on road B the saturation flow is 1500 and normal flow is 500,the total
red time is 10 sec, find optimum cycle length.
a) 35sec
b) 36sec
c) 37sec
d) 38sec
276. The indicators that may be marked for visible outline of the road is called
__________
a) Roadway indicator
b) Roadway delineator
c) Roadway line
d) Roadway markings
277. The guide posts are usually of height?
a) 0.6m
b) 0.7m
c) 0.8m
d) 2.0m
278. Which of the following is not an intersection at grade?
a) Un-channelized
b) Channelized
c) Rotary
d) Different level intersections
279. An intersection that is provided for different levels of road is called __________
a) Intersection at grade
b) Grade separated intersections
c) Channelized intersection
d) Rotary intersection
280.  If the velocity of a vehicle is 60kmph and the other vehicle velocity is 20kmph,
then the relative velocity is?
a) 80kmph
b) 40kmph
c) 20kmph
d) 60kmph
281.  If the angle of merging is low, then the relative speed will be __________
a) Low
b) High
c) Medium
d) Depends on width of pavement
282.  If an additional pavement is provided for lane change, then that intersection is
called __________
a) Tee intersection
b) Rotary intersection
c) Flared intersection
d) Skewed intersection
283. Which of the following is not a requirement for the intersection at grade?
a) Area of conflict should be large
b) adequate visibility
c) Avoiding sudden change of path
d) sufficient radius should be provided
284. The most complex type of intersections for traffic operation is __________
a) Un-channelized
b) Channelized
c) Rotary
d) Grade separated
285. The minimum radius for rotary recommended by IRC is?
a) 1.3 times of entry radius
b) 1.33 times of entry radius
c) 1.5 times of entry radius
d) 1.7 times of entry radius
286.  If the average width of the entry section is 3m and the exit is 6m then the
average width is?
a) 4m
b) 4.5m
c) 5.0m
d) 5.5m
287. The PCU value near rotary is highest for __________
a) Cars
b) Bus
c) Cycle
d) Animal drawn vehicles
288. In a traffic lane the traffic moving extreme left is 250 PCU and in extreme right it
is 240 PCU, the sum of the weaving traffic crossing left and right is 500 PCU, find
proportion of weaving traffic.
a) 0.5
b) 1.5
c) 2.5
d) 3.0
289. he capacity of rotary in PCU per hour for a proportion of weaving traffic 0.5 and
the width of weaving section is 12m, average width of entry is 0.4m and length of the
weaving section is 7.2m.
a) 1088 PCU
b) 1100PCU
c) 1200 PCU
d) 1300PCU
290. The best type of interchange can be provided with __________
a) Rotary
b) Diamond
c) Partial cloverleaf
d) Full cloverleaf
291. The capacity of an uncontrolled intersection is __________
a) 1000 to 1200 vehicles /hour
b) 1100 to 1200vehilces/hour
c) 1200 to 1400 vehicles/hour
d) 1400 to 1600 vehicles/hour
292. The ramps in the grade separated intersections do not include __________
a) direct
b) Semi direct
c) Indirect
d) Cloverleaf
293. The product of fast moving vehicles and number of trains should exceed by
how much to justify the bypass road construction?
a) 25000
b) 5000
c) 50000
d) 250000
294.  The type of parking in which the vehicles are parked along the kerb is called
__________
a) Kerb parking
b) Off-street parking
c) Parallel parking
d) Angle parking
295. Which type of parking facility is convenient for all types of users?
a) Kerb parking
b) Off-street parking
c) Parallel parking
d) 90 degree parking
296. The maximum number of cars can be parked in __________
a) Kerb parking
b) Off-street parking
c) Parallel parking
d) 90 degree parking
297. The number of parking spaces for a kerb of 59m and having the length of car as
5.0m is?
a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12
298. The parking facility in which elevators are required to change to a different level
is called __________
a) Parking lot
b) Multi storied building
c) Clover leaf junction
d) Ramp
299. In 90 degree parking the length of kerb is 25m, the parking spaces are
__________
a) 10
b) 11
c) 12
d) 13
300.  The most inconvenient method for parking is __________
a) 30 degree parking
b) 45 degree parking
c) 90 degree parking
d) Parallel parking
301. Which of the following is not a consequence of pedestrian using roadway?
a) Reduction in effective roadway
b) Reduction in running speed
c) Reduction in capacity of road
d) Increase of zebra crossings
302. What is the main objective of the pedestrian facility?
a) To minimize the pedestrian conflicts
b) To minimize the traffic conflicts
c) To minimize the traffic on road
d) To maximize the pedestrians on road
303. What is the minimum width of side walk?
a) 1.0m
b) 1.5m
c) 1.75m
d) 2.0m
304. Which of the following is a controlled type of pedestrian crossing?
a) Pavement marking
b) Studs
c) Warning signs
d) Pedestrian signals
305.  If the object appears darker than the road surface it is called __________
a) Discernment
b) Partial discernment
c) Silhouette
d) Reverse silhouette
306. Which of the pavement is better for highway lighting?
a) Black top surface
b) Cement concrete
c) WBM
d) Gravel roads
307. The objects adjacent to the pavement are seen by __________
a) Silhouette
b) Reverse silhouette
c) Lamps
d) Head lights
308. The intensity of highway lighting is measured in __________
a) Lux
b) Candela
c) Lumen
d) Diopters
309. The minimum amount of highway lighting to be provided on urban roads is
__________
a) 10 Lux
b) 15 Lux
c) 30 lux
d) 40 Lux
310. Which of the design factors considered in roadway lighting provide all the
necessary features?
a) Lamps
b) Luminaire distribution of light
c) Spacing of lighting
d) Lateral placements
311. Which lamps are preferred at intersections?
a) Sodium-vapour
b) Mercury
c) Filament
d) Fluorescent
312.  The ratio of average illumination recommended by IRC is?
a) 0.3
b) 0.4
c) 0.5
d) 0.6
313. The clearance recommended by IRC for poles in urban roads is?
a) 0.3m
b) 0.4m
c) 0.5m
d) 0.6m
314. The spacing between the highway lamps is __________
a) 10 to 15m
b) 15 to 30m
c) 30 to 45m
d) 30 to 60m
315. The maintenance factor of highway is assumed as __________
a) 0.5
b) 0.6
c) 0.7
d) 0.8
316. What is the main cause of accidents in urban areas?
a) Improper planning
b) Extra wide roads
c) Additional thickness of the pavement
d) Traffic congestion
317.  Traffic forecast is not influenced by __________
a) GDP
b) Industrial output
c) Population
d) Weather
318. Demographic factors do not include __________
a) GDP
b) Population in urban cities
c) Population in rural areas
d) Overall population
319.  The NHDP are being undertaken by private companies on the basis of
__________
a) Profit
b) Revenue
c) BOT
d) Commission basis
320.  Land use, transportation and road network plans are __________
a) Inter linked
b) Intra linked
c) Not linked
d) Depends on the network