VBR NEET ACADEMY & PU COLLEGE

KARNATAKA – BANGALORE
KCET GRAND TEST- 5 - PCMB
EXAM DATE: 22-07-2020
TIME DURATION: 3 HR MAX MARKS: 180 M
PHYSICS
1. The dimensional formula of the constant a in Vander Waal’s gas equation.
 a 
P 2  (V  b)  RT is:
 V 
1) [ ML4T 1 ] 2) [ ML2T 2 ] 3) [ ML5T 3 ] 4) [ ML5T 2 ]
2. From a balloon moving upwards with a velocity of 12 ms 1 , a packet is released when it is at a
height of 65m from the ground. The time taken by it to reach the ground is (g=10 ms 2 )
1) 5s 2) 8s 3) 4s 4) 7s
3. A projectile can have the same range R for two angles of projection. If t1 and t2 be the times of
flights in the two cases, then the product of the two time of flights is proportional to
1 1
1) 2) R 2 3) R 4)
R2 R
4. A gun fires a bullet of mass 50g with a velocity of 30m/s. Due to this, the gun is pushed back
with a velocity of 1m/s, then the mass of the gun is:
1) 1.5kg 2) 5.5kg 3) 0.5kg 4) 3.5kg
5. If the kinetic energy of the body becomes four times of its initial value, then the new
momentum will :
1) become twice its initial value 2) remain constant
3) become four times its initial value 4) become three times its initial value
6. The motion of planets in the solar system is an example of the conservation of :
1) mass 2) linear momentum
3) angular momentum 4) energy
7. If v0 be the orbital velocity of a satellite in a circular orbit close to the earth’s surface and ve is
the escape velocity from the earth, then relation between the two is
1) ve  2v0 2) ve  3v0 3) ve  v0 2 4) v0  ve 4
8. According to Hook’s law of elasticity, if stress is increased, then the ratio of stress to strain :
1) becomes zero 2) remains constant
3) decreases 4) increases
9. Bernoulli’s principle is based on the law of conservation of :
1) mass 2) energy
3) angular momentum 4) linear momentum
10. The surface temperature of a body is 727°C and that of another body is 327°C. The ratio of total
energies radiated by them is :
1) 625 : 81 2) 125 : 27 3) 8 : 27 4) 9 : 25
11. In an adiabatic change, the pressure and temperature of a monoatomic gas are related as P  T C
, where C equals
2 5 3 5
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 2 5 3
12. The figure shows the volume V versus temperature T graphs for a certain mass of a perfect gas
at two constant pressures of P1 and P2. What inference can you draw from the graphs?

1) P1 > P2 2) P1 < P2 3) P1 = P2
4) No inference can be drawn due to insufficient information.
13. The period of oscillation of a mass M suspended from a spring of negligible mass is T. If along
with it another mass M is also suspended, the period of oscillation will now be
1) T 2) T / 2 3) 2T 4) 2 T
14. The wave equation is y = 0.30 sin (314t – 1.57x) where t, x and y are in second, metre and
centimeter respectively. The speed of the wave is
1) 400 m/s 2) 100 m/s 3) 200 m/s 4) 50 m/s
15. The air column in a pipe which is closed at one end will be in resonance with a vibrating
tuning fork at a frequency 260 Hz. The length of the air column is
1) 12.5 cm 2) 35.75 cm 3) 31.92 cm 4) 62.5 cm
16. Let Ea be the electric field due to a dipole in its axial plane distant l and Eq be the field in the
equatorial plane distant l', then the relation between Ea and Eq will be :
1) Ea = 4Eq 2) Eq = 2Ea 3) Ea = 2Eq 4) Eq = 3Ea
17. The point charges Q and –2Q are placed at some distance apart. If the electric field at the
location of Q is E. The electric field at the location of Q is E. The electric field at the location of –
2Q will be
3E E
1)  2) –E 3)  4) -2E
2 2
18. Two parallel large thin metal sheets have equal surface charge densities (  = 26.4 × 10–12 c/m2)
of opposite signs. The electric field between these sheets is :
1) 1.5 N/C 2) 1.5  10-10N/C 3) 3 N/C 4) 3  10-10N/C
19. The spatial distribution of the electric field due to two charges (A, 2) is shown in figure. Which
one of the following statements is correct ?

1) A is +ve and B –ve; | A || B | 2) A is –ve and B +ve; | A || B |

3) Both are +ve but A > B 4) Both are –ve but A > B
20. If the separation between the plates of a capacitor is 5 mm, then the area of the plate of a 3F
parallel plate capacitor is :
1) 4.259  109 m 2 2) 1.964  106 m2 3) 12.81  109 m2 4) 1.964  109 m2
21. Two materials having the dielectric constants K1 and K2 are filled between two parallel plates
of a capacitor, which is shown in figure. The capacity of the capacitor is :
 A 0 ( K1  K 2 ) A 0 ( K1  K 2 ) A 0 K1 K 2 A 0 ( K1  K 2 )
1) 2) 3) 4)
d ( K1  K 2 ) d ( K1  K 2 ) d
22. Two charges of magnitude + q and – 3q are placed 100 cm apart. The distance from + q
between the charges where the electrostatic potential is zero is :
1) 25 cm 2) 50 cm 3) 75 cm 4) 80 cm
 
23. If a dipole of dipole moment p is placed in a uniform electric field, E , then torque acting on it
is given by
           
1)   p.E 2)   p  E 3)   p  E 4)   p  E
r
24. A wire of radius r has resistance R. If it is stretched to a radius , its resistance will be :
2
1) 16 R 2) 2 R 3) 4 R 4) zero
25. In the given figure, the equivalent resistance between two points A and B will be

1) 4  2) 2  3) 8  4) 6 
26. The cell has an emf of 2V and the internal resistance of this cell is 0.1  , it is connected to a
resistance of 3.9  . The voltage across the cell will be :
1) 1.95 V 2) 1.5 V 3) 2 V 4) 1.8 V
27. Cyclotron cannot be used to accelerate
1) Electron 2) Positive ion 3) Negative ion 4) alpha particle
28. An electron is travelling along the x-direction. It encounters a magnetic field in the y-direction.
Its subsequent motion will be :
1) straight line along the x-direction 2) a circle in the xz-plane
3) a circle in the yz-plane 4) a circle in the xy-plane
29. What is the magnetic field at a distance R from a coil of radius r carrying current I?
0 IR 2 0 Ir 2 I I
1) 3
2) 3
3) 0 4) 0
2r 2R
2( R 2  r 2 ) 2 2( R 2  r 2 ) 2
30. The magnetic field due to a square loop of side a carrying a current I at its centre is
i 0i i i
1) 0 2) 3) 0 4) 2 0
2a 2 a 2 a a
31. The magnetic susceptibility of an ideal diamagnetic substance is
1) –1 2) 0 3) +1 4) 
32. Curie temperature is the temperature above which
1) a ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic
2) a paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
3) a ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
4) a paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic
33. The materials suitable for making electromagnets should have
1) high retentivity and low coercivity 2) low retentivity and low coercivity
3) high retentivity and high coercivity 4) low retentivity and high coercivity
34. In a coil of self inductance of 5 henry, the rate of change of current is 2 ampere per second, the
e.m.f. induced in the coil is :
1) 5 V 2) – 5V 3) – 10 V 4) 10 V
35. According to Lenz’s law there is a conversion of:
1) momentum 2) collision 3) voltage 4) energy
36. The flux linked with a coil at any instant 't' is given by
  10t 2  50t  250 The induced emf at t = 3s is
1) –190 V 2) –10 V 3) 10 V 4) 190 V
37. In an AC generator, a coil with N turns, all of the same area A and total resistance R, rotates
with frequency w in a magnetic field B. The maximum value of emf generated in the coil is
1) N.A.B.R.  2) N.A.B. 3) N.A.B.R. 4) N.A.B. 
38. In a circuit, the current lags behind the voltage by a phase difference of  /2, the circuit will
contain which of the following :
1) only R 2) only C 3) R and C 4) only L
39. The coefficient of mutual inductance, when magnetic flux changes by 2 × 10–2 Wb and current
changes by 0.01 A is
1) 8 henry 2) 4 henry 3) 3 henry 4) 2 henry
40. A 50 Hz a.c. source of 20 volt is connected across R and C as shown in figure. The voltage
across R is 12 volt. The voltage across C is :

1) 8 V 2) 16 V 3) 10 V
4) not possible to determine unless values of R and C are given
41. With the decrease of current in the primary coil from 2 amperes to zero value in 0.01s the emf
generated in the secondary coil is 1000 volts.The mutual inductance of the two coils is
1) 1.25 H 2) 2.50 H 3) 5.00 H 4) 10.00 H
42. According to Maxwell’s hypothesis, changing of electric field give rise to :
1) magnetic field 2) pressure gradient 3) charge 4) voltage
43. The energy of electromagnetic wave in vacuum is given by the relation
E2 B2 1 1 E 2  B2 1 B2
1)  2)  0 E 2  0 B 2 3) 4) 0E2 
2 0 2 0 2 2 c 2 2 0
44. An equilateral prism is made of a material of refractive index 3 . The angle of minimum
deviation for the prism is
1) 90° 2) 60° 3) 45° 4) 30°
45. A lens is made of flint glass (refractive index = 1.5). When the lens is immersed in a liquid of
refractive index 1.25, the focal length:
1) increases by a factor of 1.25 2) increases by a factor of 2.5
3) increases by a factor of 1.2 4) decreases by a factor of 1.2
46. A fish looking up through the water sees the outside world contained in a circular horizon. If
4
the refractive index of water is and the fish is 12 cm below the surface, the radius of this
3
circle in cm is
36
1) 2) 36 7 3) 4 5 4) 36 5
7
47. Two waves of intensities I and 4I superimposes.Then the maximum and minimum intensities
are:
1) 9I and I 2) 3I and I 3) 9I and 3I 4) 6I and I
48. If a polaroid is kept in the path of an uniformly unpolarised light, the intensity of the
transmitted light to the intensity of the light when the polaroid was not kept in its path is
1 1 1
1) 1 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 2
49. Wavelength of light used in an optical instrument are 1  4000 A and 2  5000 A0 , then ratio of
0

their respective resolving powers (corresponding to 1 and 2 ) is

1) 16 : 25 2) 9 : 1 c) 4 : 5 4) 5 : 4
50. The kinetic energy of an electron, which is accelerated in the potential difference of 100 V, is :
1) 1.6 × 10–10 J 2) 1.6 × 108 J 3) 1.6 × 10–17 J 4) 1.6 × 10–18 J
51. A photon of energy 4 eV is incident on a metal surface whose work function is 2eV. The
minimum reverse potential to be applied for stopping the emission of electrons is
1) 2V 2) 4V 3) 6V 4) 8V
3v
52. The stopping potential doubles when the frequency of the incident light changes from v to .
2
Then the work function of the metal must be
hv
1) 2) hv 3) 2hv 4) none of the above
2
53. If the electron in hydrogen orbit jumps from third orbit to second orbit, the wavelength of the
emitted radiation is given by
R 5 36 5R
1)   2)   3)   4)  
6 R 5R 36
54. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is – 13.6 eV. What is the potential energy of the
electron in this state ?
1) 0 eV 2) – 27.2 eV 3) 1 eV 4) 2 eV
55. The angular momentum of an electron in the 2nd excited state of a Helium ion (He+) is
h 2h 3h 4h
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 2
56. In 88 Ra 226 nucleus there are :
1) 226 protons and 88 electrons 2) 138 protons and 88 neutrons
3) 226 neutrons and 138 electrons 4) 138 neutrons and 88 protons
57. Which one of the following is used as a moderator in nuclear reaction ?
1) Uranium 2) Heavy water 3) Cadmium 4) Plutonium
58. In p-type semiconductor major current carriers are :
1) negative ions 2) holes 3) electrons 4) all of these
59. When the two semiconductors p- and n-type are brought into contact they form a p-n junction,
which acts like a/an
1) rectifier 2) amplifier 3) conductor 4) oscillator
60. Zener diode acts as a/an
1) oscillator 2) regulator 3) rectifier 4) filter
 CHEMISTRY
61. Which pair of substances will have the most similar geometry?
1) SO3 , SO32  2) SO3 , SO42  3) SO3 , CO32  4) SO42  , CO32
62. Bond order of O2, O2 , O2 and O22  is in order
1) O2  O22  O2  O2 2) O22   O2  O2  O2
3) O2  O2  O2  O22 4) O2  O2  O2  O22
63. The I.E1,I.E2,I.E3,I.E4 and I.E5 of an element are 7.1,14.3,34.5,46.8 and 162.2 ev respectively. The
element likely to be
1)Na 2)Si 3)F 4)Ca
64. The density of Neon will be highest at
1)STP 2)00C,2atm 3)2730C,1atm 4)2730C,2atm
65. The banana bond in diborane is constituted of
1) 2 atoms and 3-electrons 2)3 atoms and 2-electrons
3)2 atoms and 2-electrons 4)3 atoms and 3-electrons
66. The radius of which hydrated ion is largest
1)Rb+ 2) K+ 3)Na+ 4)Li+
67. Oxidation number of carbon in carbon sub oxide is
1)+2/3 2)+4/3 3)+4 4)-4/3
68. Which is most stable carbocation
1)n-propylcation 2) isopropylcation
3)ethylcation 4) triphenylmethylcation
69. The TLV values of four pollutants A,B,C and D are 9ppm,10ppm, 100ppm and 500ppm
respectively. The most toxic is
1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D
70. According to Bohr’s theory, the angular momentum of an electron in 5th orbit is
1) 25h /  2) h /  3) 10h /  4) 2.5h / 
71. Molecular mass of a gas that diffuses two times as fast as SO2 at a given temperature is
1)16 2) 32 3) 48 4) 64
72. For a reversible reaction: X  g   3Y  g   2Z  g  H  40 KJmol 1
the standard entropies of
X,Y and Z are 60,40 and 50JK 1mol 1 respectively. The temperature at which the above reaction
attains equilibrium is about
1) 500K 2) 400K 3) 373 K 4) 273K
73. In a vessel containing SO3 , SO2 and O2 at equilibrium some helium gas is introduction so that
the total pressure increases while temperature and volume remain constant. As a result of it,
the dissociation of sulphurtrioxide.
1) Increases 2) decreases
3) Remains unaltered 4) changes unpredictably
74. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
1) Boric acid is protonic acid
2) Beryllium exhibits coordination number of six
3) Chlorides of both beryllium and aluminium have bridged chloride structures in solid phase
4) B2 H 6 .2 NH 3 is known as ‘inorganic benzene’
75. Graphite is an example of:
1) Ionic solid 2) covalent solid
3) Vander wall’s crystal 4) metallic crystal
d  NH 3  d  N2 
76. For the reaction, N2  3H 2  2 NH3 ,the rate  2 X 104 Ms 1 ,the rate  is given as:
dt dt
1) 10 4 Ms 1 2) 10 4 Ms 1 3) 10 2 Ms 1 4) 104 s M 1
1
77. For a reaction A  2 B ,rate of disappearance of ‘A’ is related to the rate of appearance of ‘B’
2
by the expression:
d  A d  B d  A 1 d  B 
1)  4 2)  
dt dt dt 2 dt
d  A 1 d  B  d  A d  B 
  4)  
3) dt 4 dt dt dt
78. The rate of a chemical reaction doubles for every 100 C rise of temperature. If the temperature is
raised by 50 0 C , the rate of the reaction increases by about:
1) 10 times 2) 24 times 3) 32 times 4) 64 times
79. Which has the lowest boiling point?
1) NH3 2) PH3 3) SbH 3 4) BiH3
There is O  O bond in:
80.
1) S2O82 2) S4O62 3) SO32 4) S2O72
The increasing order of reactivity of halogens is:
81.
1) I 2  Br2  Cl2  F2 2) CI 2  F2  Br2  I 2
CI  Br2  I 2  F2 4) I 2  Cl2  Br2  F2
3) 2
Match List I with List II and select the answer using the codes given below:
82.
CODE LIST I CODE LIST II
A XeF4 1 Distored octahedral

B XeF6 2 Tetrahedral

XeO3
C 3 Square planar

D XeO4 4 Trigonal pyramidal

1) A-4,B-1,C-3,D-2 2) A-2,B-3,C-1,D-4
3) A-1,B-4,C-2,D-3 4) A-3,B-1,C-4,D-2
83. The correct order of ionic radii of :
Y 3 , La3 , Eu3 and Lu3 is:
1) Y 3  La 3  Eu 3  Lu 3 2) Y 3  Lu 3  Eu 3  La 3
3 3 3 3
3) Lu  Eu  La  Y 4) La 3  Eu 3  Lu 3  Y 3
84. The IUPAC name of the complex compound K 3  Fe  CN 6  is:
1) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III) 2) Potassium ferrocyanide ion (III)
3) Potassium hexacynoferrate (II) 4) Potassium cyanohexaferrate (II)
85. Which ion is paramagnetic?
3 2
1)  NiCl4  2)  Ni  CO 4  Co  NH 3 6  4)  Ni  CN 4 
2

3) 
For the reaction , C2 H 5OH  HX 
Anhyd . ZnX 2
C2 H 5 X ,the order of reactivity is:
86.
1) HI>HCI>HBr 2) HI>HBr>HCl 3) HCl>HBr>HI 4) HBr>HI>HCI
87. Consider the following reaction:
Phenol 
Zn dust
 X 
CH 3CI
Anhydrous AICI 3
Y 
Alkaline KMnO4
 Z , the product Z is:
1) Benzene 2) toluene 3) benaldehyde 4) benzoic acid
88. An aldehyde can be distinguished from a ketone by the use of the reagent:
1) Griganard reagent 2) Schiff’s reagent
3)Hydroxylamine 4) Hydrazine
89. Among the following which has lowest pKa values:
1) CH3COOH 2) HCOOH 3)  CH 3  2 CHCOOH 4) CH 3CH 2COOH
90. Name the end product in the following series of reactions,

CH 3COOH 
NH 3
 A   B 
P2O5

C :

1)
CH 4 2)
CH3OH 3) Ethane nitrile 4) Ammonium acetate
91. The basic character of methylamines in vapour phase is:
1) 30  20  10  NH 3 2) 20  30  10  NH 3
3) 10  20  30  NH 3 4) None of these
92. Identify ‘Z’ in the change.
C6 H 5 NH 2 
NaNO2
273 K
 X 
CuBr / HBr
Z

2) 3) 4)
1)

93. Which of the following is commonly called a “polyamide” ?

1) Rayon 2) Nylon-6,6 3) Terylene 4) Orlon
94. The substances which effect the central nervous system and induce sleep are called:
1) Tranquillizers 2) antipyretics 3) Food preservative 4) None of these
95. Which of the following is not an antipyretic?
1) Aspirin 2) Paracetamol 3) Barbituric acid 4) Phenacetin
96. The unit cell with crystallographic dimensions a  b  c;       900 is:
1)cubic 2) tetragonal 3) monoclinic 4) hexagonal
97. The degree of dissociation   of a weak electrolyte. Ax By is related to vant’s Hoff factor (i) by
the expression:
i 1 i 1 x  y 1 x  y 1
1)   2)   3)   4)  
 x  y  1  x  y  1 i 1 i 1
98. The statement that is not correct
1) Heat of formation of ammonia is negative and other hydrides is positive
2) Phosphine has lower boiling point than ammonia
3)Very pure nitrogen is obtained by thermal decomposition of barium or sodium azide
4)Bond angle in phosphonium ion is lesser than that in phosphine
99. Gabriel phthlimide reaction is used for the preparation of
1)primary aromatic amines 2) secondary amines
3) primary aliphatic amines 4) tertiary amines
100. On extraction of iron the slag produced is
1) CO 2) FeSiO3 3) MgSiO3 4) CaSiO3
101. In a crystal lattice of a compound , each corner of a cube is enjoyed by sodium , each edge of a
cube has oxygen and centre of a cube is occupied by tungsten (W) , then gives its formula
1) Na2WO4 2) NaWO3 3) Na3WO3 4) Na2WO3
102. The specific conductivity of 0.1 N KCl solution is 0.0129  1cm 1 .The resistance of the solution
in the cell is 100 . The cell constant of the cell will be
1)1.10 2)1.29 3)0.56 4)2.80
103. How long in hours must a current of 5.0 A be maintained to electroplate 60 gm of calcium
from molten CaCl2
1)27 hours 2)8.3 hours 3)11 hours 4 )16 hours
104. Which of the following compound will give yellow precipitate with I 2 / Na2CO3 aq  but doesn’t
respond to cannizaro reaction?
1)  C2 H 5 2 CO 2) CH 2O 3) C2 H 5CH 2OH 4) CH 3CHO
105. Which of the following is less than zero during adsorption?
1) G 2) S 3) H 4) All of these
106. A + CH3MgI  Addition product  CH 3CH 2OH . What is 'A' ?
H  OH

1) CH3 - CHO 2) HCHO 3) CH3 - CH2 - CHO 4) CH3 - CO - CH3

Cumene  1.O2
2. H  / H O
 X  Y . X and Y are
107. 2

1) toluene, propene 2) toluene, propylchloride

3) phenol, acetone 4) phenol, acetaldehyde
108. A diene on reductive ozonolysis gives formaldehyde, methyl glyoxal and ethanal as the final
products. The diene can be
CH3
1) CH 3  CH  CH  CH 2  CH  CH 2 2) |
CH3CH  C  CH  CH 2
3) CH 3  CH  CH  CH  CH 2 4) CH 2  CH  CH  CH 2
109. The basic principle of Cottrell’s precipitator is
1) Lechatelier principle
2) Peptisation
3) Scattering of light
4) Neutralisation of charge on colloidal particles
110. (CH 3 )3 C  O  C2 H 5 
HI
 X . If X is Major product then X is
1) (CH 3 )3 C  OH  I  C2 H 5 2) (CH 3 )3 C  I  HO  C2 H 5
3) (CH 3 )3 C H  I  C2 H 5 4) (CH 3 ) 2 CH 2CHO
111. In nucleophilic substitution reactions, the reactivity of carbonyl compound follows the order
1) H 2 C  O  R2 C  O  Ar2 C  O  RCHO  ArCHO
2) H2C  O  RCHO  ArCHO  R 2C  O  Ar2C  O
3) Ar2C  O  R 2C  O  ArCHO  RCHO  H2C  O
4) ArCHO> Ar2C = O> RCHO > R 2C  O  H2C  O
112. The solubility product of a sparingly soluble salt AX 2 is 3.2 X 1011 .Its solubility in mol / lit is
1) 5.6 X 106 2) 3.1X 104 3) 2.0 X 104 4) 4.0 X 104
113. If sodium sulphate is considered to be completely dissociated into cations and anions in
aqueous solution , the change in freezing point of water ( T f ) , when 0.01 mole of sodium
sulphate is dissolved in 1 Kg of water is ( K f 1.86 KKgmol  )
1) 0.0372 K 2) 0.0558 K 3) 0.0744K 4) 0.0186 K
114. Standard reduction potentials of Sn2+/Sn and Zn2+/Zn electrodes are –0.14V and –0.74 V
respectively. What is the Eo of the following cell in volt? Zn | Zn2+ || Sn2+ | Sn
1) –0.6 2) –0.88 3)0.88 4)0.6
115. Which of the following is not true for S N 1 reactions
1) These occur through a single step
2) These are favoured by polar solvents
3) Tertiary alkyl halides generally react through this mechanism
4) Concentration of nucleophile does noteffect the rate of such reactions
116. The crystal field splitting energy for octahedral  o and tetrahedron  t complex is related to
4 1 4
1)  t   o 2)  t   o 3)  o  2  t 4)  o   t
9 2 9
117. If we mix a pentavalent impurity in a crystal lattice of germanium , the type of semiconductor
formed is
1) p- type 2) n – type 3) Z-type 4) both 1 and 2
118. When acetaldehyde is heated with Fehling solution, it gives a red precipitate of
1) Cu 2) CuO 3) Cu 2 O 4) Cu (OH ) 2
119. In cellulose D-Glucose units are joined by
1)  -(1,4) glycosidic linkage 2)  -(1,6) glycosidic linkage
3)  -(1,4) glycosidic linkage 4)  -(1,6) glycosidic linkage
120. In PO43 the formal charge on each oxygen atom and P-O bond order respectively are.
1)-0.75 , 1.25 2) -0.75 , 1.0 3) -0.75 , 0.6 4) -3 , 1.25
 BIOLOGY
121. Select the wrongly matched pair w.r.t. classification of Mango.
1) Class – Dicotyledonae 2) Order – Polemoniales
3) Family – Anacardiaceae 4) Genus – Mangifera
122. Which of the following fungi have aspetate and coenocytic mycelium?
1) Puccinia 2) Alternaria 3) Albugo 4) Calviceps
123. Double fertilisation is unique to
1) Gymnosperms 2) Pteridophytes 3) Bryophytes 4) Angiosperms
124. Pea, gram, lily, tulip, lupin, petunia
How many of the above plants have marginal placentation.
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) One
125. Bark does not include
1) Secondary phloem 2) Secondary xylem
3) Phellem 4) Phelloderm
126. The cell organelle which is rich in acid hydrolases enzyme is
1) Golgi bodies 2) ER 3) Lysosome 4) Nucleolus
127. Which of the following sugars are non reducing
1) Maltose 2) Sucrose 3) Glucose 4) Lactose
128. Crossing over takes place during
1) Zygotene 2) Pachytene 3) Leptotene 4) Diakinesis
129. Transpiration rate is not affected by
1) Wind velocity 2) Relative humidity
3) Availability of soil water 4) O2
130. Boron is associated with plant metabolism , which of the following is not a function of the
mineral
1) Pollen germination 2) Translocation of organic solutes
3) Union of ribosomal subunits 4) Utilisation of Ca2+
131. Read the following statements and choose the correct statements
(A) Stromal lamellae lacks PSII
(B) Reaction centre of PS II is P680
1) Both are correct 2) Only ‘B’ is correct
3) Only ‘A’ is correct 4) Both are incorrect
132. R.Q value is equal to one when the respiratory substrate is
1) Glucose 2) Tripalmitin
3) Photosynthetic pigments 4) Malic acid
133. Match the columns and select the correct option: (w.r.t. function of PGR)
Column I Column II
(a) Auxin (i) Bolting
(b) Cytokininin (ii) Fruit ripening
(c ) Gibberlin (iii) Apical dominance
(d) Ethylene (iv) Richmond Lang effect
1) (a) ii, (b) i, (c) iii, (d) iv 2) (a) i, (b) ii, (c) iii, (d)iv
3) (a) iii, (b) iv, (c) i, (d) ii 4) (a) ii, (b) iv, (c) iii, (d) i
134. Which of the following is a low temperature requirement for flowering
1) Photoperiodism 2) Stratification
3) Vernalisation 4) Biomagnification
135. The microbe which occurs as an inert crystalline structure outside host is
1) Bacteria 2) Amoeba 3) Virus 4) Fungi
136. The plant growth which shows external fertilisation is
1) Algae 2) Pteridophytes 3) Bryophytes 4) Angiosperms
137. The smallest anterior petals in pea flower is called
1) Wing petals 2) Keel petals 3) Vexillum 4) Standard petals
138. The large shield shaped cotyledon present in monocots seed (cereals) is called
1) Aleurone layer 2) Coleorhiza 3) Coleoptile 4) Scutellum
139. What is the chromosomal number in the meiocyte and gamete of rice
1) 24,12 2) 12,28 3) 12, 24 4) 20, 10
140. The law of inheritance which suggest that alleles do not show any blending and both
characters are recovered as such in F2 generation is
1) Law of Dominance 2) Law of segregation
3) Law of Independent assortment 4) More than one option is correct
141. Multiple phenotypic effects of a single gene is called
1) Pleiotropy 2) Multiple allelism
3) Codominance 4) Incomplete dominance
142. Which experiment is regarded as an experimental proof for semi conservative replication of
DNA in eukaryotes
1) Messelson and stahl experiment 2) Taylor’s experiment
3) Hershey and chase experiment 4) Griffith except
143. The non genetic RNA which acts as an adapter molecule is
1) m –RNA 2) r-RNA 3) t-RNA 4) SnRNA
144. a is a clot buster obtained from b bacterium
1) a – Cyclosporin ‘A’, b – Streptococcus 2) a- Streptokinase, b – Streptococcus
3) a – Statin, b – Trichoderma 4) a- Streptokinase, b – Monasus
145. The morphologically and genetically similar population obtained from tissue culture method
is called
1) Somaclone 2) Totipotency 3) Explant 4) Somatic hybrid
146. The first restriction endonuclease to be discovered was
1) Hind I 2) Hind II 3) Eco RI 4) Eco RV
147. Biological control of pests is based on which population interaction
1) Parasitism 2) Commensalism 3) Competition 4) Predation
148. The rate of formation of organic matter by herbivores is called
1) Primary productivity 2) Secondary productivity
3) NPP 4) GPP
149. Which of the following is a sedimentary nutrient cycle
1) Phosphorous cycle 2) Nitrogen cycle
3) Oxygen cycle 4) Carbon cycle
150. IRRI is situated at
1) Mexico 2) India 3) Philippines 4) America
151. In which phylum, the larva is bilaterally symmetrical and the adult have radial symmetry?
1) Arthropoda 2) Mollusca 3) Hemichordata 4) Echinodermata
152. The fundamental character of chordate is
1) Notochord 2) Dorsal hollow nerve cord
3) Paired pharyngeal gill slits 4) All of these
153. Which of the following is unicellular glandular epithelium?
1) Salivary gland 2) Islets of langerhan’s 3) Goblet cells 4) All of these
154. A ring of 6 to 8 blind tubules that are present at the junction of foregut and midgut in
cockroach is known as
1) Hepatic caecae 2) Gastric caecae
3) Both (1) and (2) 4) Malpighian tubules
155. Trypsinogen is activated by
1) Enterokinase 2) Chymotrypsin 3) Rennin 4) Acidic pH
156. How much oxygen is delivered to tissue by 100ml of oxygenated blood under normal
physiological condition?
1) 10 ml 2) 20 ml 3) 5 ml 4) 4 ml
157. First cardiac sound (lub) is associated with
1) Closure of tricuspid and bicuspid waves 2) Opening of tricuspid valves
3) Closure of semilunar valves 4) Opening of semilunar valves
158. T-wave on an ECG represents
1) Depolarization of ventricles 2) Repolarization of ventricles
3) Repolarization of atria 4) Depolarization of atria
159. The excretory organs in prawn are
1) Malpighian tubules 2) Nephridia
3) Kidneys 4) Green glands or antennal gland
160. Match the abnormal conditions given in Column A with their explanations given in Column B
and choose the correct option:
Column I Column II
(A) Glycosuria (i) Accumulation of uric acid in joints
(B) Renal calculi (ii) Inflammation in glomeruli
(C) Glomerular nephritis (iii) Mass of crystallized salts within the
Kidney
(D) Gout (iv) Presence of glucose in urine
1) A – i, B – iii, C – ii, D - iv 2) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i
3) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D - i 4) A – iv, B – ii, C – iii, D – i
161. Repeated activation of the muscles can lead to the accumulation of _____ due to anaerobic
breakdown of glycogen in there causing fatigue
1) Ethanol 2) Lactic acid 3) Citric acid 4) Butyric acid
162. Human body contains how many ear ossciles?
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6
163. Right and left cerebral hemispheres are connected via
1) Corpus striatum 2) Corpus callosum 3) Thalamus 4) Hippocampus
164. Retinal cells involved in colour vision are
1) Cones 2) Rods 3) Neurons 4) Neuroglila cells
165. Diuresis is reduced by
1) Oxytocin 2) Prolactin
3) Luteinizing hormone 4) Vasopressin
166. Which part of the sperm helps in penetration into the ovum?
1) Mitochondria 2) Acrosome 3) Tail 4) All of these
167. The inner cell mass of blastocyst develops into
1) Morula 2) Trophoblast 3)Embryo 4) Zygote
168. ‘Saheli’ , the new oral contraceptive for females, contains a ____ preparation.
1) Steroidal 2) Peptide 3) Non steroidal 4) Inorganic
169. Karyotype of Klinefelter’s syndrome is
1) 44 + XXY 2) 44 + XO 3) 44 + XYY 4) 44 + XXXY
170. Under HGP, the largest known human gene was of
1) Somatotropin 2) Dystrophin 3) Insulin 4) Somatostatin
171. The classical example of adaptive radiation in development of new species is
1) Darwin’s finches 2) Marsupials of Australia
3) Both (1) and (2) 4) Migration of Birds
172. The brain size of Neanderthal man is
1) 900 cc 2) 650 cic 3) 1400 ciic 4) 800 coc
173. Symptoms like internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anaemia and blockage of intestinal
passage occur in which disease?
1) Typhoid 2) Ascariasis 3) Malaria 4) Pneumonia
174. Which of the following is not a cellular barrier of innate immunity?
1) PMNL – Neutrophils 2) Monocytes
3) Macrophage 4) Thrombocytes
175. Normal cells in our body inhibit the uncontrolled growth of cells which they are in contact
with. This is known as
1) Cell-cell contact 2) Cell cycle regulation
3) Contact inhibition 4) Contact response
176. The following are marine water fishes except
1) Hilsa 2) Sardines 3) Pomfrets 4) Rohu
177. During the process of prohormone ‘proinsulin’ into mature insulin synthesis
1) C – peptide is added to proinsulin 2) C-peptide is removed from proinsulin
3)  -peptide is added to proinsulin 4)  -peptide is removed from proinsulin
178. Which of the following is major cause of loss of biodiversity?
1) Habitat loss and fragmentation 2) Over-exploitation
3) Alien species invasion 4) Co-extinction
179. Which international treaty was signed in Canada, 1987 (effective in 1989) to control the
emission of ozone depleting substances?
1) Ryoto Protocol 2) Earth summit 3) Montrela Protocol 4) All of these
180. Scrubber is used to remove which of the following gas?
1) SO2 2) N 2 3) O2 4) CO2