Physics 105 HW 2 Solutions

Due February 7, 2014

I. TAYLOR 6.3: REFLECTION LAW

Fermat’s principle states, algebraically,

Z P2 Z P2
1
T = dt = nds. (1)
P1 c P1

In the present problem, the light ray is traveling in a vacuum, and thus n = 1. For conveniency, we set c = 1. Since
it is proofed in Example 6.1 in [Taylor] that the shortest path between two points (in a flat plane, specifically, but it
can be straightforwardly generalized to 3 dimensions [Taylor 6.27]) is a straight line, we can conclude that, for a fixed
Q, the trajectory of a light ray that travels from P1 (Q) to Q (P2 ) is a straight line. Following the hints given in the
problem, we denote P1 = (0, y1 , 0), P2 = (x2 , y2 , 0), and Q = (x, 0, z), with y1 , x2 , and y2 fixed and x and z varying
arbitrarily. The total time T for the light to traverse the path P1 QP2 can be written as
T (x, z) = P1 Q + QP2
q q
= x2 + y12 + z 2 + (x2 − x)2 + y22 + z 2 (2)
q q
≥ x2 + y12 + (x2 − x)2 + y22 .

In the last inequality, the equal sign holds if and only if z = 0. In order to search for the minimum of T (x, 0), we
should solve for x0 that satisfies
∂T (x0 , 0)
= 0, (3)
∂x
i. e.,
q 
d
q
0= x2 + y12 + (x2 − x)2 + y22
dx
(4)
x x − x2
=p +p .
x2 + y12 (x2 − x)2 + y2 2

x x2 −x
Denote tan θ1 = y1 and tan θ2 = y2 , as indicated geometrically in Fig. 6.8 on Page 231 in [Taylor], Eq. 4 becomes

0 = sin θ1 − sin θ2 . (5)

Since both P1 and P2 are above the mirror, we can conclude that θ1 = θ2 . (Otherwise, if P1 and P2 reside in different
sides, we should have θ1 = π − θ2 , which means it is a straight line joining P1 and P2 .)
A quicker argument one could make, instead of the above brutal force method, is to take the image P20 of P2 in the
mirror, and we alternatively look for the shortest path joining P1 and P20 , which one could immediately conclude to
be a straight line. By reflecting the part of the path below the mirror back to the upper area above xOz, it is readily
to draw the same result: θ1 = θ2 .

II. TAYLOR 6.4: SNELL’S LAW

In analogy with what we did in the previous problem, the time for the light to traverse the path P1 QP2 is
Z Q Z P2
T (x, z) = n1 ds + n2 ds
P1 Q
q q
(6)
= n1 x2 + h21 + z 2 + n2 (x2 − x)2 + h22 + z 2
q q
≥ n1 x2 + h21 + n2 (x2 − x)2 + h22 ,
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with the equality in the last line holds at z = 0. In searching of the extremes, we take the derivative of T (x, 0) w. r.
t. x and set the resulted expression to be zero:
x x2 − x
n1 p = n2 p , (7)
x2 + h21 (x2 − x)2 + h22
i. e.,
n1 sin θ1 = n2 sin θ2 , (8)
according to the geometrical relations indicated in Fig. 6.9 on Page 231 in [Taylor]. Henceforth, we reached a
geometrical proof for the Snell’s law.

III. TAYLOR 6.9

To the integral,
Z P
I= f (x; y, y 0 )dx, (9)
O

with
f (x; y, y 0 ) = y 02 + yy 0 + y 2 , (10)
we apply the Euler-Lagrange equation,
 
d ∂f ∂f
− = 0, (11)
dx ∂y 0 ∂y
we obtain,
y 00 = y. (12)
The general solutions to the above differential equation reads,
y(x) = Aex + Be−x , (13)
with the integral constants A and B. It is required in the problem for the path y(x) to join O(0, 0) and P (1, 1), i. e.,
B
0 = A + B, 1 = Ae + , (14)
e
which yield,
1 sinh(x)
y(x) = (ex − e−x ) = . (15)
e − e−1 sinh(1)

IV. TAYLOR 6.12

Similar to the previous problem, we set

Z x2
I= f (x; y 0 )dx, (16)
x1

with
p
f (x; y 0 ) = x 1 − y 02 . (17)
The Euler-Lagrange equation gives:
xy 0
p = x0 , (18)
1 − y 02
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with x0 a constant. (Referring to the discussions around Eq. 31.) The above differential equation can be rewritten as

dy 1
= r  . (19)
dx x
2
x0 +1

Separate the variables and take the integrations, we get

Z x Z x/x0
1 1
y= r dx0 = x0 √ du. (20)
x1
2
x0 x1 /x0 u2 + 1
x0 +1

Here we picked up an arbitrary constant x1 as the lower limit in the integral. Take the first substitution of Euler:
√
1 + u2 = t − u, we have
s 
Z t 0  2
dt x x
y = x0 0
= x0 log  + 1 +  + y0 , (21)
t1 t x0 x0

yielding us
 
y − y0
x = x0 sinh , (22)
x0
 
x
i. e., y(x) = y0 + x0 · arcsinh x0 .

V. TAYLOR 6.1 & 6.16: GEODESICS ON A SPHERE

A. Taylor 6.1

First we use the spherical polar coordinates (r, θ, φ) to represent the length ds of an infinitesimally short path on
a spherical surface. It will be nice to see how this is implemented in a brutal force way, for which one can get a sense
of finding ds in a generic context.
The coordinate transformations read,

x = r sin θ cos φ,
y = r sin θ sin φ, (23)
z = r cos θ.

With the knowledge in mind that r = R on the sphere of radius R, for an infinitesimal translation on the sphere we
have,

dx = R(cos θ cos φdθ − sin θ sin φdφ),

dy = R(cos θ sin φdθ + sin θ cos φdφ), (24)
dz = −R sin θdθ.

Therefore,

ds2 =dx2 + dy 2 + dz 2
 
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 1
=R cos θ cos φdθ + sin θ sin φdφ − sin(2θ) sin(2φ)dθdφ +
2
 
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 (25)
R cos θ sin φdθ + sin θ cos φdφ + sin(2θ) sin(2φ)dθdφ +
2
R2 sin θ2 dθ2
=R2 (dθ2 + sin θ2 dφ2 ).
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Equivalently, instead of going through the above somewhat tedious computations, one can draw the spherical polar
coordinates explicitly, and for a specific point on the sphere. Since the local coordinate system (within a small
neighborhood of the infinitesimal segment we are currently interested in) is still stationary and orthogonal, one can
directly apply Pythagorean theorem and write

ds2 = (Rdθ)2 + (R sin θdφ)2 . (26)

Eventually, we can write down the expression for the length of a path joining two points 1 and 2 on a sphere of
radius R,

Z 2 Z 2 q
L= ds = R dθ2 + sin2 θdφ2
1 1
Z θ2 q (27)
=R 1 + sin2 θφ0 (θ)2 dθ,
θ1

with (θ1 , φ1 = φ(θ1 )) and (θ1 , φ1 = φ(θ1 )) specifying the end points 1 and 2, respectively.

B. Taylor 6.16

As indicated in the problem, we choose the z axis to pass through point 1, i. e., θ1 = 0. To the formula of the
length of a path joining fixed points 1 and 2, Eq. 27, i. e.,
Z 2
L=R f (θ; φ0 )dθ, (28)
1

with the integrand

q
0
f (θ; φ ) = 1 + sin2 θφ0 (θ)2 , (29)

we apply the Euler-Lagrange equation,

 
d ∂f ∂f
− = 0. (30)
dθ ∂φ0 ∂φ

One nice attribute of f (θ; φ0 ) to notice is that it does not depend on φ (φ is ignorable) and thus the second term in
the Euler-Lagrange equation vanishes. Henceforth,
 
d ∂f
= 0. (31)
dθ ∂φ0

After integrating both sides of the differential equation, we obtain

∂f
= c, (32)
∂φ0

with c a constant. Therefore,

sin2 θφ0
q = c. (33)
1 + sin2 θφ0 (θ)2

If we require the path to pass through the north pole, with θ = θ1 = 0, then c = 0. The only solution to the differential
equation when c = 0 is φ0 = 0 for any θ, i. e., φ(θ) = φ0 , with φ0 a constant, which defines a great circle on the
sphere.
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VI. TAYLOR 6.19: SOAP BUBBLE

Start with an xOy plane and consider a curve joining (x1 , y1 ) and (x2 , y2 ) that lies on such a plane. Parametrize
the curve as x = x(y). Define the angle that the plane rotates around the x-axis to be ϕ. The area of the surface of
revolution is
Z (x2 ,y2 ) Z 2π
A= ds ydϕ, (34)
(x1 ,y1 ) 0
p
with ds = dx2 + dy 2 the length of an infinitesimal segment along the planar curve in the xOy plane, and ydϕ the
infinitesimal length the segment travels while the plane rotates dφ around the x-axis (note that (ds)(ydϕ) gives the
area of an infinitesimal segment on the surface of revolution). Henceforth,
Z 2 p Z 2π
A= y dx2 + dy 2 dϕ
1 0
Z y2 p (35)
=2π y 1 + x0 (y)2 dy.
y1

It is again the situation that we encountered in the previous problems: the integrand is not dependent on x. The
Euler-Lagrange equation gives
yx0
√ = y0 , (36)
1 + x02
with y0 the integral constant. Separate the variables in the differential equation, we obtain
dx 1
= r  , (37)
dy y
2
y0 −1

which solves
y y/y0
dy 0
Z Z
du
x= r  = y0 √ . (38)
y1 0
y
2 y1 /y0 u2 − 1
y0 −1
√
Apply the first substitution of Euler: u2 − 1 = −u + t, we obtain:
s 
Z t 0  2
dt y y
x = y0 0
= y0 log  − 1 +  + x0 . (39)
t1 t y0 y0

Then,
 
x − x0
y(x) = y0 cosh . (40)
y0

VII. TAYLOR 6.23

(a) Decompose the absolute velocity ~v = (vx , vy ) onto x- and y-axis respectively:

vx = v0 cos φ + V y,
(41)
vy = v0 sin φ.

The ground speed of the plane is

q p
v= vx2 + vy2 = (v0 cos φ + V y)2 + (v0 sin φ)2 . (42)
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(b) The time of flight can be represented as

P P
p
dx2 + dy 2
Z Z
ds
T = = p
O v O v02 + 2v0 V y cos φ + V 2 y 2
D
p (43)
1 + y 02
Z
1
= p dx,
v0 0 1 + 2ky cos φ + k 2 y 2

with k = vV0 . Assume that k  1, y 0  1, and φ  1 (physically speaking, we are assuming that the wind speed is
small). Taylor expand the integrand in the above integral beyond the zeroth order (no wind case) approximation
to the lowest orders of k, y 0 , and φ, we obtain
D
1 + 21 y 02
Z
1
T ≈ dx. (44)
v0 0 1 + ky

We keep the denominator, instead of further expanded, in order to match the expression in the book. The
integrand is thus

1 + 21 y 02
f (y, y 0 ) = , (45)
1 + ky

up to a proportionality.

(c) The Euler-Lagrange equation reads,

 
y 02
d

y0
 k 1+ 2
+ = 0, (46)
dx 1 + ky (1 + ky)2

yielding,

2(1 + ky)y 00 − ky 02 + 2k = 0. (47)

The above differential equation is nonlinear and usually difficult to solve. Luckily there is an “intelligent guess”
given in the textbook:

y(x) = λx(D − x). (48)

Plug Eq. 48 into Eq. 47, we obtain:

4 2
λ2 + λ − 2 = 0. (49)
kD2 D
Solving for λ, it yields
√
± 4 + 2k 2 D2 − 2
λ= . (50)
kD2
Hence, Eq. 48 satisfies the Euler-Lagrange equation Eq. 47, provided that Eq. 50 holds. Physically we can
determine whether the positive or negative signs one shall choose:

i) V > 0 (k > 0). In this case the airplane will consume less time if it deviates a little bit into the upper half of
the xOy plane, since the wind velocity increases when y increases and it accelerates the airplane. Therefore,
it is the positive sign that minimizes the time.
ii) V < 0 (k < 0). Now it is the lower half of the xOy plane where the wind accelerates the airplane towarding
its destination, but still the positive sign corresponds to the path that minimizes the time, considering the k
in the denominator contributes an additional negative sign, which render λ to be negative.
iii) V = 0 (k = 0), there is no wind. In this case λ = 0 and thus y(x) = 0, and it is the straight line joining O
and P that minimizes the time.
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In summary, the least time path should satisfy

y(x) = λx(D − x), (51)

with
√
4 + 2k 2 D2 − 2
λ= . (52)
kD2

Note that λ → 0 when k → 0 (for kD  1, λ ≈ k2 ), which matches what we claimed in ciii.

√
If D = 2000 miles, v0 = 500 mph, and V = 0.5 mph/mi, then kD = 2 and thus Dλ = 3 − 1. Also, we redefine
x y
x̃ ≡ D and ỹ ≡ D . Therefore,

"  2 #
1 1 α
ỹ = αx̃(1 − x̃) = α − x − + ≤ , (53)
2 4 4

√
with α = 3 − 1, and

1
1 + 12 α2 (1 − 2x̃)2
Z
D
T = dx̃. (54)
v0 0 1 + 2αx̃(1 − x̃)

Plugging the numerical numbers, we get

√
ymax = Dỹ = 500( 3 − 1) miles ≈ 366 miles (at x = D/2),
" √ !#
√ √ 3−1 D D (55)
Tmin = 1 − 3 + 2 2arctanh √ = 0.888943 .
2 v0 v0

The time saved is (compared to the time consumed along the straight line joining O and P )

D 2000 mile
∆T = − Tmin = (1 − 0.888943) = 0.444227 hour ≈ 27 min. (56)
v0 500 mph