BALAY SANLINGAN COMPREHENSIVE UNIVERSITY ADMISSIONS REVIEW PROGRAM 2020

SCI ENCE PR O F I CI ENCY

PART III
100 ITEMS
55 MINUTES

Directions: This section is a test of your proficiency in Science. Choose the best answer and
blacken the circle that corresponds to your answer on the item number in your answer sheet.

DO NOT SPEND TOO MUCH TIME ON ONE ITEM. USE YOUR TEST TIME WISELY.
IF YOU DO NOT KNOW THE ANSWER TO AN ITEM, SKIP AND GO ON TO THE NEXT
QUESTION. YOU HAVE 55 MINUTES TO WORK ON THIS SECTION.
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE THE TIME IS CALLED, REVIEW YOUR WORK AND GO BACK TO
THOSE ITEMS YOU SKIPPED AND THEN ANSWER.

SPECIAL INSTRUCTIONS FOR MAKING YOUR ANSWERS

✓ Shade heavily and completely the circle that corresponds to your choice.
✓ Do not make any stray mark on your answer sheet.
✓ If you want to change your answer, erase your previous answer completely.
✓ Make sure your answer sheet is clean.

EXAMPLE:

What is the function of the white blood cells?

a. To carry nerve impulses to the brain

b. To produce hormones to clot the blood
c. To transport oxygen to the cells
d. To destroy bacteria in the body

ANSWER:

a b c

GO TO THE NEXT PAGE 

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Earth and Space Science

1. The Earth plate tectonic theory states that:

a. The earth is divided into several large plates
b. The Earth’s crust is like a very large plate
c. The Earth consistes of several layers that are always moving
d. The Earth’s crust is divided into several very large plates that are constantly moving

Use the following diagram and map to answer the following two questions.

2. Where on the map does oceanic-continental convergence occurs?

a. A○ b. B
○ c. C○ d. D
○

3. Which of the following would be associated with this type of plate boundary?

I Volcanism
II Deep earthquakes
III Volcanic island arc

a. I and II only b. I and III only c. II and III only d. I, II, and III

4. Which of the following is responsible for the movement of tectonic plates?

I gravity
II Mantle convection
III Heat from radioactive decay

a. I and II only b. I and III only c. II and III only d. I, II, and III

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5. Using the earthquake diagram below, what is X?

a. A focus
b. A rift valley
c. An epicentre
d. A surface wave

6. The Richter scale expresses an earthquakes

a. Magnitude c. Duration
b. Location d. Depth

7. Which of the following is a non-metallic mineral resource?

a. sand. c. oil.
b. soil. d. water.

8. Which of the following statements best illustrates the tragedy of the commons?
a. A factory pollutes a river as much as the law allows.
b. Some levels of pollution are life threatening.
c. Some activities harm the environment, but others do not.
d. Irrigated cropland can be ruined by salinization.

9. The lower boundary of Earth’s crust is called the

a. oceanic crust c. Mantle
b. Moho d. magnetic pole

10. Which of the following elements is NOT involved in the cycling of energy and matter on
Earth?
a. Phosphorus c. nitrogen
b. gold d. carbon

11. Which question cannot be answered by an experiment?

a. Does penicillin kill Salmonella c. Did a comet impact kill the
bacteria? dinosaurs?
b. Is rabies caused by a virus? d. Can radiation cause cancer?

12. Choose the correct statement.

a. The crust is the layer of the Earth above the mantle
b. The lithosphere is the layer of the Earth above the mantle
c. The crust and lithosphere refer to the same layer of the Earth
d. The lithosphere is a layer of the crust

13. Which alternative contains only examples of igneous rocks?

a. basalt, granite and pumice c. copper sulfate, granite and salt.
b. limestone, shale and basalt d. pumice, sandstone and limestone

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Use the diagram to answer questions 14-15.

14. How was this rock formed?

a. by the cooling of lava
b. by the cooling of magma
c. by heat and pressure under the ocean
d. by compaction on the bottom of a lake

15. What is the size of the fossil in the sample?

a. .5 mm c. 1 cm
b. .5 cm d. 2 cm

16. What is “…a celestial object that orbits the Sun and has a spherical shape but does not
dominate its orbit?
a. Asteroid c. Dwarf Planet
b. Comet d. Meteor

17. What is a solar prominence?

a. Gases and charged particles expelled above an active area
b. Dark spots appearing on the Sun’s surface that are cooler than the surrounding area
c. Low-energy gas eruptions from the Sun’s surface that extend thousands of kilometers
into space
d. A display of shifting colours in the sky caused by solar particles colliding with matter
in the upper atmosphere
e. None of the above

18. What is the distance from the Sun to Earth?

a. 1 Astronomical Unit (AU) c. 8 minutes
b. 1 Light Year (LY) d. 9.46 X 1012 km

19. What type of star forms after a Supernova explosion? In this star, the centre collapses so
that protons and electrons combine to form neutrons. The star is so very, very dense that
one teaspoon on Earth would weigh 1 billion tons.
a. Red Super Giant c. Nebula
b. Red Giant d. Neutron Star

20. Which statement best explains why people on Earth always see the same side of the
Moon?
a. A day is the same length on both the Moon and the Earth
b. The Earth revolves around the Sun more slowly than the Moon revolves around
the Earth
c. The Moon rotates on its axis and revolves around the Earth in the same amount
of time
d. It takes 365.26 days for the Moon to complete one revolution of the Earth

21. What type of reaction produces the energy in a sun?

a. Nuclear Fission c. Friction
b. Nuclear Fusion d. Thermal Convection

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22. What happens to the oceans of Earth when experiencing the Moon’s
gravitational pull?
a. The pull causes massive evaporation of the oceans
b. Nothing occurs; the oceans only respond to the Sun’s gravitational force.
c. A tsunami will occur chasing the Moon’s pull
d. “Bulges” of water form where the pull is strongest

23. Which of the following best describes the climate of an area?

a. the high temperature and wind speed for six months
b. the high temperature and wind speed each day for one year
c. the temperature and precipitation every hour for one day
d. the average temperature and total precipitation each month for ten years

24. If the Earth’s umbra is cast on the moon, what kind of eclipse occurs?
a. Partial lunar eclipse d. Total solar eclipse
b. Total lunar eclipse e. Annual eclipse
c. Partial solar eclipse

25. Owen tested a physical property of a mineral. He rubbed a mineral sample on a piece of
white tile. The mineral left a red mark on the tile.Which of the following physical properties
of the mineral was Owen most likely testing?
a. cleavage c. luster
b. hardness d. streak

Biology
26. Which of the following are features of the prokaryotic cell?
a. Nucleus c. Mitochondria e. Golgi bodies
b. Ribosomes d. Vacuoles

27. What is the function of the Golgi apparatus?

a. It controls the cell’s activities and stores its DNA.
b. It is the site of protein synthesis.
c. It synthesizes lipids and transports synthesized proteins.
d. It sorts and packages proteins made in the endoplasmic reticulum.
e. It provides structure to the prokaryotic cell.

28. Which of the following functions is performed by the lysosome?

a. Digestion of intracellular c. Regulation of transport
debris d. Storage of nutrients
b. Production of energy through e. Lipid synthesis
photosynthesis

29. A cell is placed in a bath of water that has a much higher salt concentration than
the concentration inside the cell. What happens?
a. The cell will fill with water.
b. Water will rush out of the cell.
c. The distribution of water will not change.
d. Salt will move from the cell to the exterior.
30. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT
a. Hydrogen ions have different chemical properties from elemental hydrogen.

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b. Carbon isotopes have different chemical properties from

elemental carbon.
c. Carbon-14 has six protons and eight neutrons.
d. Hydrogen ions are missing an electron.
e. Ions have equal numbers of protons and neutrons.
31. How many atoms are there inC 6 H 12 O 6 ?
a. 3 b. 6 c. 12 d. 24 e. 144
32. Which of the following polysaccharides stores carbohyd rates in animals?
a. Cellulose c. Starch e. Fructose
b. Glycogen d. Glucose
33. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. Enzymes are made from proteins.
b. One enzyme can facilitate the reaction of many different substrates.
c. Enzymes sometimes use induced fits to break apart their substrates.
d. Enzymes are not required for spontaneous reactions.
e. Not all catalysts are enzymes.

34. Cellular respiration is the process by which cells convert the energy available in
food to which energy-rich compound?
a. ADP c. Water e. Oxygen
b. Glucose d. ATP
35. During which of the following cell cycle phases does DNA replication take place?
a. Mitosis c. Interphase e. Cytokinesis
b. Prophase d. Metaphase

36. A scientist is studying the inheritance of two traits: stem height and stem color. Tall
is dominant over short; brown is dominant over green. The scientist wants to do a
test cross to determine the genotype of a tall, brown F 1 hybrid individual. What
will be the height and color of the other plant he uses in this test cross?
a. Tall and brown d. Short and green
b. Tall and green e. It doesn’t matter; any of the
c. Short and brown above will work.

37. A woman who is a heterozygous carrier of the hemophilia allele marries a man
who has hemophilia. What percentage of their female children would you expect
to have hemophilia?
a. 0% c. 50% e. 100%
b. 25% d. 75%
38. A boy with red-green color blindness (an X-linked recessive condition) has a color-
blind father and a mother who is not color blind. From which parent did the boy
inherit his color blindness?
a. No way to know—it could have been either one.
b. His father
c. His mother
d. It had to come partly from both his mother and father.
e. It had nothing to do with either his mother or father.

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39. What feature clearly distinguishes kingdom Monera from other

kingdoms?
a. All monerans are prokaryotes.
b. All monerans are eukaryotes.
c. Monerans have a cell wall, whereas other organisms only have cell
membranes.
d. Monerans are angiosperms, whereas all other organisms are gymnosperms.
e. All monerans exhibit radial cleavage.
40. An autotrophic organism might
a. engage in photosynthesis
b. consume the organic nutrients in other living organisms
c. be a fungus
d. not be able produce its own organic nutrients
e. not require an external source of energy for metabolism

41. As plants adapted to terrestrial living, they developed all of the following EXCEPT
a. seeds c. flowers e. Spores
b. phloem d. xylem

42. A river switches course and splits a population into two populations that cannot
interbreed. What is likely to occur?
a. Speciation d. Natural selection
b. Adaptive radiation e. Lamarckian evolution
c. Convergent evolution

43. A disease that causes a defect in the myelin sheath would be dangerous because
a. action potentials would be conducted too slowly along the neurons
b. muscles would not contract when stimulated
c. the thyroid gland would not be able to produce thyroxine
d. bone tissue would not be properly maintained
e. the body would not be able to fight disease
44. Which of the following statements are true?
I. Arteries have muscular walls that can regulate the flow of blood passing
through them.
II. Arteries contain valves that prevent the flow of blood in the wrong
direction.
III. Veins have muscular walls that can regulate the flow of blood passing
through them.
a. I only c. I and II only e. I, II, and III
b. III only d. I and III only
45. After the ovarian follicle releases the mature ovum into the Fallopian tube, the
follicle
a. dissolves within the ovary, ceasing to produce estrogen
b. remains in the ovary, producing estrogen until the end of the ovarian cycle
c. forms the corpeus luteum and begins to produce progesterone
d. begins to support another developing oocyte
e. is shed from the ovary and released in the menstrual fluid

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46. A man goes swimming in a pond. As he walks back to his car, he

notices that several newly hatched ducklings are following his moves. This is an
example of
a. tropism d. associative learning
b. conditioning e. Imprinting
c. sympathetic nervous system
47. During photosynthesis, carbohydrates are made
a. during the light reaction
b. from oxygen, water, and a three-carbon molecule
c. in the grana
d. in the stroma
e. in order to begin the light reaction
48. How is an ecosystem organized, from least to most comprehensive?
a. Individual, community, population, biome
b. Individual, population, community, biome
c. Individual, population, niche, community
d. Individual, niche, community, population
e. Individual, population, biome, niche
49. Which of the following organisms participate in the nitrogen cycle?
a. Denitrifying bacteria d. All of the above
b. Chemosynthetic bacteria e. None of the above
c. Saprophytes

50. Which is true of ecological succession?

a. Pioneer species move into new communities first.
b. Climax communities have lower total biomass than preceding com munities.
c. Species diversity is greatest in the early stages of succession.
d. Climax communities shift constantly.
e. All of the above
51. Which of the following releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere?
a. Animal consumption of c. Chemosynthesis
producers d. Bacterial decay
b. Photosynthesis e. None of the above
52. The table below provides information about human blood vessels.
P Q R

• Carry deoxygenated blood • Thicker, muscular and • Gases and nutrients pass
back to the heart more elastic walls to through the thin walls
• Valves ensure the one-way withstand high blood to cells
flow of blood pressure

The blood vessels represented by P, Q, R respectively are:-

a. capillaries, arteries and veins c. arteries, veins, capillaries
b. veins, capillaries, arteries d. none of the above

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53. Carbon dioxide may be transported in the bloodstream:

a. as bicarbonate ions, and c. only as bicarbonate ions
combined with haemoglobin d. as oxyhaemoglobin in the blood
b. dissolved in the plasma and as a
gas
54. On a sunny day, the closing of stomata in plant leaves results in:
a. a decrease in CO2 intake
b. a shift from C3 photosynthesis to C4 photosynthesis
c. an increase in transpiration
d. an increase in the concentration of CO2 in mesophyll cells
e. an increase in the rate of production of starch
55. Which one of the following people would be most likely to be given plasma?
a. A diabetic d. A heart transplant recipient
b. A burn victim e. A person with lupus
c. A road accident victim

Chemistry

56. Which two of the following atomic models represents elements that can easily combine
with each other to form a covalent compound?

a. I and II b. I and IV c. II and III d. III and IV

57. The Bohr model represents the electron arrangement for which of the following?

a. An ion of nitrogen
b. An atom of silicon
c. An atom of nitrogen
d. A molecule of nitrogen

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Use the following information to answer the following question (Q 58).

58. Which of the following is true about the neutral atom of the element?
I The element is cobalt
II The element has 27 protons
III The element has 14 neutrons
IV The element has 13 electrons

a. I and II only b. III and IV only c. I, II, and IV d. I, II, III, and IV
only
59. In which of the following compounds does iron have the same ion charge (combining
capacity)?

I FeS a. I and II only

II Fe(OH)2 b. I, II, and III only
III FeCrO4 c. II, III, IV only
IV Fe2(CO3)3 d. I, II, III, and IV

60. Which of the following represents an organic molecule?

a. b. c. d.

61. Which of the following is the term given to the scale on which each unit represents a
10-fold change in the hydrogen ion concentration?
a. pH b. indicator c. acid/base d. neutralization

62. Which of the following correctly classifies each formula as an acid, base, or salt?

Acid Base Salt

a. Ca(OH)2 H2CO3 MgCl2
b. H2CO3 Ca(OH)2 MgCl2
c. MgCl2 H2CO3 Ca(OH)2
d. Ca(OH)2 MgCl2 H2CO3

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Use the following diagram of a molecule to answer the following question.

63. What compound is represented by the illustrated molecule?

a. Nitric acid c. Nitrogen trioxide
b. Hydrogen nitride d. Nitrogen hydroxide
64. If the compound HF reacts with KOH, what type of reaction has occurred?
a. Combustion c. Decomposition
b. Neutralization d. Single replacement
65. Which of the following elements is more reactive than sodium?
a. Neon b. Lithium c. Potassium d. Magnesium

66. Which set of ordered coefficients correctly balances the following equation?

a. 1, 2, 3, 2 b. 2, 1, 3, 2 c. 2, 2, 1, 3 d. 2, 3, 3, 1

67. If we mix hydrogen peroxide and yeast, which gas will be formed?
a. O2 b. H2 c. CO2 d. CH4

68. If we graph the mass vs. volume of four objects made of the same material, the graph
would look like:

a. c.

b. d.

69. Why is it dangerous to dilute sulfuric acid by pouring water into the concentrated acid?
a. A fire may be started. d. The heat liberated may cause
b. The water may decompose. spattering.
c. A poisonous gas may be evolved.

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70. Which property is always conserved during a chemical reaction?

a. Mass c. volume
b. pressure d. solubility

71. Which set consists only of elements?

a. Na, Ca, H2 c. NaCl, CH4, Br2
b. H3O+, Cl –, I3– d. H2S, CuCl2, KI

72. What is the volume of 0.500 mole of carbon dioxide gas, CO2, measured at STP?
a. 5.60 liters c. 11.2 liters
b. 33.6 liters d. 44.8 liters

73. Which set of coefficients balances the equation for the complete combustion of ethane,
C2H6?
__ C2H6 + __ O2 → __ CO2 + __ H2O
a. 1,3,2,3 c. 1,6,2,6
b. 2,6,4,5 d. 2,7,4,6

74. Which reaction below would be classified as a single replacement reaction?

a. NaHCO3 → NaOH + CO2
b. 2 H2 + O2 → 2 H2O
c. 2 AgNO3 + Cu° → Cu(NO3)2 + 2 Ag°
d. Ba(OH)2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2 H2O

75. At STP, how many Liters of oxygen gas react with 4.00 moles of PH3 according to this
equation?
76. 4 PH3(g) + 6 O2(g) → 6 H2O(l) + P4O6(s)
a. 32.0 c. 89.6
b. 134 d. 146

76. How many grams of sodium hydroxide pellets, NaOH, are required to prepare 50.0 mL
of a 0.150 M solution?
[molar mass NaOH = 40.0 g/mol]
a. 0.300 b. 3.00 c. 2.00 d. 200.

77. Which one of the following changes will result in a decreased rate of reaction?
a. adding a catalyst c. cutting the reactants into smaller
b. heating up the reactants pieces
d. diluting the reactants
78. A solution that conducts electricity very well is called a:
a. weak electrolyte c. metallic solution
b. strong electrolyte d. liquid conductor

79. A substance that turns cabbage juice blue and slightly lights up a light bulb is a:
a. strong acid c. strong base
b. weak acid d. weak base

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80. Structural formulas have advantages over molecular formulas because they
show the
a. bonding capacity of each carbon atom.
b. geometric arrangement of the atoms.
c. number of atoms of each element present.
d. percentage composition of the compound.

81. The number of isomers of bromopropane, C3H7Br is

a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. 7

82. If an electron shifts from one energy level in an atom to a lower level, energy is emitted.
Which one of the following electron transitions would release the most energy?
a. Second level to first level c. Third level to first level
b. Third level to second level d. First level to fourth level

83. Which of the following solutions contains the largest number of moles of solute?
a. 50 cm3 of 1 M hydrochloric acid c. 100 cm3 of 0.5 M nitric acid
b. 25 cm3 of 5 M sodium chloride d. 50 cm3 of 2 M sulphuric acid

84. Which of the following processes is/are exothermic?

I. H2O(s) → H2O(g)
II. CO2(g) → CO2(s)
III. O2(l) →O2(g)

a. II only c. I and II only

b. III only d. I and III only
85. Which gas law states that at constant pressure and temperature, the volume of a gas is
directly proportional to the number of moles of the gas present?
a. Charles’ Law d. Gay-Lussac’s Law
b. Avogadro’s Law e. Hess’ Law
c. Boyle’s Law

Physics

86. Which of the following are correct statements about nuclear fusion?
I Mass is converted into energy.
II The reaction occurs in hydrogen bombs and in the Sun.
III The process divides a nucleus into two or more fragments, releasing neutrons and
energy.

a. I and II only b. I and III only c. II and III only d. I, II, and III

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87. The graph shows the displacement of a skateboarder on a sidewalk. What is the
average velocity of the skateboarder in the interval between 2 and 4 seconds?

a. 0.5m/s
b. 2 m/s
c. 4 m/s
d. 8 m/s

88. A ball accelerates at 9.8 m/s2 in free fall. Which of the following correctly describes the
motion of the ball as it is falling?
Velocity Acceleration
a. Constant Constant
b. Constant Decreasing
c. Increasing Constant
d. Increasing Increasing

89. A NASA space shuttle accelerates from rest to a velocity of 50 m/s in 4s. What calculation
must be used to determine the shuttle’s acceleration?
a. a = 4s  50m / s 50m / s
c. a=
4s 4s
b. a =
50m / s  50m / s 
2

d. a =  
 4s 
Questions 90-91: A red car and a blue car have the same mass and are moving on the
highway. The red car is traveling at 60 miles per hour and the blue car is traveling at 30 miles
per hour.

90. The ratio of the red car’s momentum to the blue car’s momentum is
a. 4 b. 2 c. 1 d. ½ e. ¼
91. The ratio of the red car’s kinetic energy to the blue car’s kinetic energy is
a. 4 b. 2 c. 1 d. ½ e. ¼
92. A toy railroad car of mass 3 kg moving east collides with a 6 kg railroad car at rest, and
the two cars lock together on impact and move away together toward the east at 2 m/s.
The speed of the first car before the collision is
a. 2 m/s c. 4 m/s e. 9 m/s
b. 3 m/s d. 6 m/s
93. A satellite is orbiting the earth in an elliptical orbit. Which of the following must be true if
the satellite’s speed is increasing?
a. The satellite’s distance from the Earth is increasing.
b. The satellite’s distance from the Earth is decreasing.
c. The kinetic energy of the satellite is decreasing.
d. The momentum of the satellite is decreasing.
e. The gravitational force acting on the satellite is decreasing.

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94. A board of negligible mass supports a mass weighing 20 N at a distance of 2

m from the support at point A. How much weight must be placed at point B which is 5 m
from point A in order for the rod to remain horizontal?
a. 4 N b. 8 N c. 10 N d. 40 N e. 60 N

Questions 95 – 96: A 15 kg block rests on a surface of negligible friction

and is pulled by a string which is passed over a pulley of negligible mass
and connected to a hanging 5 kg block.

95. The net force acting on the 15 kg block is equal to

a. the weight of the 5 kg block.
b. the tension in the string.
c. the difference between the weight of the 15 kg block and the 5 kg block.
d. the sum of the weight of the 15 kg block and the 5 kg block.
e. the weight of the 15 kg block.
96. In terms of the acceleration due to gravity g, the acceleration of the system is
g g g d. g
a. b. c. e. 3g
5 4 3
97. Which statement about sound waves is correct?
a. They generally travel faster through solids than through gases
b. They generally travel faster through gases than through solids.
c. They generally travel faster through gases than liquids.
d. They generally travel faster than light.
98. When an object’s velocity and acceleration vectors point in opposite directions, what
happens?
a. The object slows down. c. The object speeds up.
b. Nothing happens to the object. d. The object remains at rest.
99. Acceleration due to gravity is also called
a. negative velocity. c. displacement.
b. free-fall acceleration. d. instantaneous velocity.

100. An astronaut with a mass of 70.0 kg is outside a space capsule when the tether line
breaks. To return to the capsule, the astronaut throws a 2.0 kg wrench away from the
capsule at a speed of 14 m/s. At what speed does the astronaut move toward the capsule?
a. 5.0 m/s c. 0.4 m/s
b. 3.5 m/s d. 7.0 m/s

STOP !

IF YOU HAVE ANY TIME LEFT, REVIEW YOUR WORK IN THIS SECTION ONLY.
DO NOT WORK IN ANY OTHER SECTION OF THIS TEST.

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