CRIME DETECTION AND INVISTIGATION

1. Consciousness of an impending death.

c. Dying declaration
2. Refers to the art and science which deals with the identity and location of the offender
and provide evidence of his guilt in criminal proceedings.
c. Criminal investigation
3. Also known as undercover assignment, it is a method of investigation in which the
investigators assume a different and unofficial identity to locate criminals and obtain
information.
a. Roping
4. An informal and summary investigation conducted by a public prosecutor in criminal
cases involving persons arrested and detained without the benefit of a warrant for the
purpose or determining whether or not sad persons should remain under custody an
correspondingly the charged in court.
c. Custodial investigation
5. A trespassing was reported to the police responding to the scene found at a point of
forecast entry. Upon searching the immediate vicinity. They chanced upon a young man
hiding behind the bushed. Taken from the building. Were frisked from the suspect. The
recovered items are called.
b. Associative evidence
6. in the techniques employed in interrogation, which of the foregoing is not utilized by
police investigations.
d. Financial assistance
7. Necessary to determine the appearance of the crime scene as well as the object,
what naturally occurred and what the circumstances of the crime?
d. Reconstruction of the crime
8. It is the skilful and thorough questioning of a reluctant person who may be a suspect
in a particular crime.
a. Interrogation
9. It is where the techniques and principles of natural and physical sciences are applied
and practiced to the analysis of crime scene evidence.
d. Crime scene investigation
10. Method employed when subject is moving and is not constantly within the view. A
type of dowing wherein the habit, general impression and associates of the target must
be ascertained.
b. Loose tail
11. The reconstructing crime incident reasoning from specific to general is known as-
c. Inductive reasoning
12. a form of investigation in which the investigator assume a different and unofficial
identity.
d. Undercover work
13. The act of one who murders or kill his own brother.
a. fratricide
14. Refers to the physical evidence which ink directly the suspect to the crime scene.
a. associative evidence
15. Refers to those paid informants who give information for valuable consideration.
a. mercenary informant
16. The disguised observation of places persons and vehicles for the purpose of
obtaining information which concerns the identities or the activities of the subject
a. Surveillance
17. The method of operation which enable investigators to a pattern of criminal
behaviour.
d. Modus operandi
18. The number of persons who handle the evidence from the scene of the crime and
between the time of the commission up to final disposition of cases.
d. Chain of custody
19. They are who give information to the police to do away with competition.
d. Rival elimination informants
20. This is application in oral or circular crime scene wherein the searchers gather at the
middle and proceed outward along spokes or radius.
a. Wheel method
21. This is a compilation of photography files of known criminals kept for identification
purposes of witnesses in case of future crimes.
b. Rogue’s gallery
22. Vigorous questioning of one who is reluctant to divulge information.
b. Interrogation
TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AND ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION
23. Which could be considered an indication of hit-and-run accident?
b. The driver fleeing the area of accident to evade responsibility
24. An occurrence in a sequence or events which usually produces unintended injury,
death or property damage.
b. Traffic accidents
25. An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court, but without detaining
him.
a. Traffic citation
26. Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.
d. motor vehicle traffic accident
27. Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death. But only injuries to one or more
persons.
C.Non-fatal
28. A crosswalk, which is a painted portion of a street, located usually on an intersection
for allowing pedestrians to safety cross the street
c. Pedestrian lane
29. A power operated traffic control device by which traffic is warned or directed to take
some specific action
d.Traffic light signals
30. Are areas within the roadway constructed in a manner to establish physical
channels through which vehicular traffic flow is guided.
a. Traffic island
31. A triangular device consisting of reflectorized folding pieces, used to provide stalled
vehicle with a means of forewarning other vehicles of their presence
a. Early warning device
32. Every device which is self-propelled and every vehicle which is propelled by electric
power obtained from overhead trolley wires, but not operated upon rails are considered
d. Motor vehicles
33. It is a means to control the movements of vehicles, pedestrians at certain point of a
certain are by mechanical objects or manpower.
c. Traffic control
34. Yardstick of an effective traffic law enforcement program.
d. Reduction of traffic accidents and delays
35. PO2 vargas apprehended miss mindurown B. isness for traffic intraction. The
infraction involves a violation of R.A 4136, if you are PO2 vargas, which will you issue
as receipt of confiscation of the letters drivers license?
c. Temporary operations permit
36. Last step in the enforcement wherein the court imposes the penalty upon the guilty
traffic law violator.
a. Penalization
37. Anything on the road that prevents or hinders free and smooth flow of traffic.
c. Obstruction
38. Refers to a straight section of the road.
c. tangent
39. Refers to the movement of persons, goods and vehicles from the point of origin to
the point of destination by utilizing public roads for the purpose of safe travel.
d. Traffic
40. Refers to the paved or unpaved area or portion on the side of the road whether
capable of handling traffic or not.
c. Shoulder
41. Refers to the sign placed place on the road, made of metal plates with a specific
shapes and design for the purpose of informing road user of application road
instructions and condition.
c. Road sign
42. The conducting of fact ending activities, surveys, and recommendations of traffic
rules and regulation is a function of
b. Traffic engineering

43. The entire width between property line or either boundary line for every way or place
of which any part is open for public use particularly for vehicular travel.
a. Traffic way
44. What are physical channels within the roadway, which are constructed to establish
physical channel thru which vehicular traffic is guided without the use of signal?
a. traffic signs
SPECIAL CRIME INVESTIGATION
45. “A” WAS caught after killing “C” at the police station he freely and voluntarily
confessed and admitted the killing before the start of interrogation and no warning on
his rights was made. Which of the following statement is true?
a. His confession is admissible as evidence
b. his confession is inadmissible as evidence
c. it is inadmissible because it was made without a warning of his right
d. All of these
46. If the crime committed was homicide, search for physical evidence will be centered
on which of the following?
d. Weapon and other types of evidence left as a result of contract between victim
and assailant
47. An act that defines certain nights of person arrested detained or under custodial
investigation as well as the duties if arresting detaining and investigation officers and
providing penalties for violation there for this refer to.
a. RA 7438 b. RA 7348 c. RA 7843 d. RA7483
48. Before investigating a rape victim the best first procedure to do is
d. Prepare victim by having a person of her trust and confidence usually her
mother a sister to talk to victim to tell her side and decide if victim is really willing
to be investigated
49. During a quarrel on a crowded city street in a university belt in Davao city one man
stabs another flees. A police man arriving at the scene a short time later finds the victim
unconscious call for an ambulance and orders the crowned to leave his action was
a. Bad there may have been witnesses to the assault among the crowd
50. Estimates the time of death would refer to the cooling of the body.
a. Algor Mortis
51. Extravasations of blood in the newly formed cavity known as blood tumor caused by
blunt instrument.
a. Hematoma
52. Forcible application of sharp-pointed with sharp edges.
d. Stab wound
53. In DNA sampling and analysis, which of the following part of the body can be least
considered?
d. Fingernails
54. In a crime scene physical investigation, what is the interest of the police investigator
in relation to criminal or suspect?
c. Traces from the scene imparted on the criminal/suspect
55. In making initials contact with the person to be arrested with or without warrant the
investigator must always state the Miranda doctrine except:
c. When the person to be arrested is a fugitive from justice or an escapee
56. In the scene of death involving narcotics death investigation, the following relevant
items should be carefully listed except one;
d. Playing card
57. It refers in terrorism that initiates or threatens to initiate the exploitation of or attach
on information system.
b. Cyber terrorism
58. Regarding action by first officer at the crime scene, which one takes precedence
over other responsibilities?
d. Arrest suspicious persons
59. Intent to kill is presumed if death results from the unjustified act if death did not
result from the act. Intent to kill is essential to prove attempted or frustrated homicide
otherwise the crime may be-
c. Physical injuries
60. The first action of an investigation upon arriving at the crime scene of the homicide
is-
c. Search of the scene for weapon used
61. Under standard composition of the SOCO team, which among the following is not a
SOCO Member?
c. Intelligence personnel
62. Found in the substance of the skin discoloration of the surface due to extravasations
of blood caused by the application of a blunt instrument.
c. Hematoma
63. Chemically, DNA is an acid and is composed of three sub-units, namely
a. phosphate group, deaxynbose sugar and one of the four bases
64. What kind of investigation is the official inquiry made by the police on the facts and
circumstances surrounding the death of the person which is expected to be criminal or
unlawful?
a. Homicide investigation
65. Any attack upon or seizure of any vessels, or taking away of the whole or part
thereof of its charge, equipment or the personal belonging of its complement or
passengers is considered-
b. piracy
ORGANIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION
66. According to Wilkinson, a type of terrorism who simply engage in all types of crimes
since they recognize no law.
b. State sponsored
67. Referring to those victims of electronic frauds/white collar crimes who tends to keep
silent than come out in the open for fear of public outrage and ridicule since it will bring
out to the open their weaknesses.
a. High-risk-takers
68. Assassins who are loveless and emotionally deprived in childhood, they are
resentful and morally indifferent and wish to strike back at the society they blame for
their miseries
b. Psychopathic assassins
69. A type of computer network attack which focus on intercepting data such as
passwords, user names, email messages and even secret data using sniffing software
a. Active attack
70. Considered as the ultimate political violence of the government, the mass
destruction and annihilation of the population.
d. Underground force
71. In computer crimes when it is used to retrieve confidential information from the data
bank of the employer, the crime is,
c. Violation of intellectual property right
72. In the history of political ideologies, ideological leaders have shared the same fate
as dethronement and violent death. With it what did they reap at the end?
b. Heroism
73. A computer network attack which attempts to cause harm to computer systems by
explaining system faults and vulnerabilities.
b. Passive attack
74. Theorist defines globalization as the world undergoing fundamental and structural
changes which means.
a. Time and space compression
75. Finger cutting is a form of finance or apology. Upon a first offense, the transgressor
must cut off the tip of his lift pinky finger and hand the severed portion to his boss.
d.Yubitsume
76. This consists of the destruction of specific characteristics of the group such as
language, literature, learning, religion and art.
d. Ideological malevolent
77. What is committed when with the use of computer, one’s ill gotten wealth is
converted to a less suspicious, less traceable form of assets
c. Internet fraud
78. When the computer is introduced to alter or facilities alteration of public documents
in relation to elections, there is;
d. Economic sabotage
79. When the computer is used to introduce complex program to alter the data already
in existence, it constitute;
a. Estafa or swindling
80. There are two fundamental principles of religious freedom, which freedom is not
absolute which may be override by police power
b. Freedom to act on the bases of one’s own belief

81. Mafia families have begun to implant themselves deep into multinational
corporations in order to generate massive revenues to bypass having to take on riskier
investments such as- except
b. Terrorism for political aim
82. a complete understanding of the function of organized crime lies not in one
discipline, but in several, multi-disciplinary approach. This statement describe-
a. The accumulation of knowledge and the eventual integration of the relevant
insights from several disciplines that gives the unique perspective of the problem
83. Organized crime commonly established division of labor designated for the
commission of crime. Thus, this characterized its being-
b. Hierarchical
84. In general, an organized crime group is motivated commonly by nothing but-
d. Money and power
85. Organized crime has this common attribute. which one does not characterized an
organized crime group?
a. They are motivated by achieving political goals
86. Among the following organized crime personalities, who was known as the
“scarface”.
b. AI capone
DRUG EDUCATION AND VICE CONTROL
87. A person with an overpowering physical and psychological need to take a particular
substance.
d. Addict
88. Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature alters the structure and
functioning of living organism.
a. alcohol b. poison c. Drug d. vice
89. A highly addictive crystalline form of cocaine containing remnants of hydrochloride
and sodium bicarbonate which emits a cracking sound when smoked.
b. Crack
90. It is the removal of poisonous substance such as drug or alcohol from the body.
b. Detoxification
91. It produces altered perception, slurred-speech, staggering gait and can produce
calmness and relaxed muscles.
c. Depressants
92. It refers to a scene of well being on a high feeling, exaggerated sense of happiness
or well being or a feeling of great happiness of joy or the “high” drug users initially feel.
c. Euphoria
93. It refers to a condition resulting from the repeated consumption of a drug
d. drug habituation
94. Natural or synthetic substances that produce vivid dissolution of the sense without
greatly disturbing consciousness.
c. Hallucinogens
95. Occurring naturally as a minor alkaloid ingredient in raw opium, and is more often
produced from morphine.
a. Codeine b. cocaine c. chloral hydrate d. chronic alcoholics
96. Often described as a psychotropic (mind affecting or mind altering drug), and a
chemical substance that changes one’s thinking, feelings, perceptions, and behavior.
c. Psychoactive drug
97. Refers to a person who engages in sexual intercourse with another for hire.
d. All of the foregoing
98. Relives uncomfortable emotional feeling by reducing anxiety and promoting
relaxation
a. Tranquilizers
99. use of two or more psycho-active substance and quantities and with frequencies
that cause the individual significant physiological or sociological distress or imparment.
a. Polydrug abuse
100. The most popular and latest sex drug, whose chemical name is “methydioxy
methamphetamine”.
b. Ecstasy
101. The onset of a predictable constellation of signs and symptoms involving altered
activity of the central nervous system after the abrupt discontinuation of the intake of an
addictive substance.
a. Withdrawal symptoms
102. The physiological adaptation to the effect of drugs so as to diminish the effects with
constant dosages or to maintain the intensity and duration of effects through increase
dosage.
a. Tolerance
103. The process of gradually depriving drugs from the point of habituation until such
time he is no longer hooked on the substance.
d. Withdrawal method
104. Refers to the house of prostitution.
c. Brothel
105. What do you call the incident where vast numbers of American soldiers were
addicted on the morphine drug during the American civil war?
b. Soldier’s disease phenomenon
106. What do you call the name of the drug from the leaves from the coca bush plant, a
South American shrub? It is a central nervous system stimulant.
c. Cocaine
107. What groups of drugs can produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy of dullness of
mind with delusions?
b. Narcotics
108. Which of the following is considered as the world’s oldest cultivated plant as a
source of prohibited drug?
a. Marijuana
FIRE TECHNOLOGY AND ARSON INVESTIGATION
109. A device used by arsonist to spread the fire within the room or throughout the
structure.
c. Trailer
110. A mechanical device strategically placed in an installation or street where a fire
hose may be connected in cases of fire.
c. Fire hydrant
111. An agent used for class a,b,c, fires that extinguishes fire by intermupting the
chemical chain reaction in the combustion zone.
a. Dry chemical
112. A pre-requisite to grant permit/license by local government for any particular
establishment.
a. Fire safety inspection
113. Are incandescent gases that rapid oxidation of a combustible material. The burning
gas or vapor of the fire that is visible as light of various colors.
b. Flames
114. Are person possessed with the uncontrollable desire or impulse to set things on
fire, without any motive.
A. Pyromaniacs
115. A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain metals in finely divided
forms sodium, potassium, zinc, etc.
d. Class d
116. Condition conducive to fire or that are likely to increase the extent or seventy of
fire.
a. Fire hazard
117. First element known to man by experience, a colorless tasteless and odorless gas
which supports life and power.
c. Oxygen
118. Heat transfer by direct contact from one body to another.
c. Conduction
119. Is an active chemical reaction that takes place between fuel, heat and oxygen in
the form of light of noticeable heat.
a. Fire
120. Lowest temperature at which a substance will automatically burn without the
application of spark or flame.
a. Auto ignition point
121. The burning of low grade heavily oils or resinous tarry materials w/ sufficient air
forms lamp black commonly known.
d. Soot
122. The low which established the bureau of fire protection is the-
C. RA 6975
123. The lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at which vapor are evolved
fast enough to support continuous combustion.
c. Fire point
124. This refers to the chemical process whereby fire consumes the most solid part of
the fuel. It is the thermal decomposition of combustible matter. It is the chemical
decomposition of a solid fuel through the action of heat.
b. pyrolysis
125. This are liquefied gases that exist in its container at temperature far below normal
atmospheric temperature, usually slightly above its boiling point with below moderate
pressure.
c. Cryogenic gas
126. This is known as incendiarism or classified as arson. This kind of fire is set on
purpose either to collect insurance, cover-up another crime or eliminate personal
business rivalry.
b. Intentional fire
127. This phenomenon may occur inside a burning building when heated air increase
the combustion rate to instantaneous combustion.
c. flash fire
128. The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in a similar way
to that of light.
c. Radiation
129. Usually comes in the form of combustible liquid which is a contrivance to hasten
the start of fire.
a. Accelerant
TECHNICAL REPORT WRITING
130. A directive affecting the status of individuals, such as appointment, promotion,
transfer, relief from duty, leave of absence or separation from service.
d. Special order
131. A kind of report that gives advance information on a new or fresh case assigned to
an investigator.
b. initial report
132. A kind of report that should be submitted whe the case is solved.
a. Final report
133. An accurate narration of facts discovered in the course of an investigation which
serves as permanent written record for present and future reference.
a. Police report
134. Refers to the words w/ similar sounds but w/ different spelling and meaning.
c. Homonym
135. A police investigator should maintain a record of all field interrogation in order to.
d. Provide him with possible leads to suspects or witnesses if a crime in later
reported in the area of a field of interrogation
136. Detailed account of the collection and preservation of evidence obtained at the
crime scene indicating among others quantity, quality of the evidences and the chain of
custody
b. Evidence report
137. It is a report to be submitted by a police officer within twenty four (24) hour from the
time an incident is reported.
c. spot report
138. It is a type of a civilian letter that is used in securing a speaker for an important
occasion.
b. Invitation letter
139. Phenomena in a hostage situation where the hostages became sympathetic to the
hostage takers.
b. Stockholm syndrome
140. The first telephone that was installed in a police call box.
a. Alexander graham bail
141. It is the result of the following investigation of the fresh or new case
a. final report
142. SPO1 solomon matiyaga was promoted to the next rank by his commanding
officer, on the strength of his recommendation. He gave a blow-out to his friends. Three
months passed and he was still receiving the same salary. What form of communication
is missing?
d. written confirmation
143. The issue of confidentiality of police reports hinges on the reason that-
d. On-going investigation may be compromised if the police report is open to the
public
144. The resume of a person is called
a. bio-data b. personal data sheet c. qualification summary d. All of these
145. Used to document the events that transpired I criminal apprehension.
a. Arrest report
146. Which of the following defined as the transfer of thought from the mind of one
person to the mind of another through a common medium and channel?
c. Report
147. Which of the following is the appropriate correspondence to be used is
communicating with the president of the Philippines.
a. Civilian letter
148. What concept pertains to determining the similarities and/or differences in the
compared items and is evaluated to determine which one is valuable for a conclusion?
c. Evaluation
149. When the testimony of a witness is reduced into writing or affirmation, then it is
appropriately called-
a. An affidavit
150. Legally is an expressed acknowledgment by the accused in criminal cases the
truth of his guilt as to the crime charged or of some of the essential part thereof.
b. Confession