08/07/2016

A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 16 Time : 3 Hrs.

[NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
Topics Covered :

Physics : Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation, Atoms and Nuclei, Electronic Devices

Chemistry : Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen, Biomolecules, Polymers; Chemistry in Everyday Life

Botany : Environmental Issues

Zoology : Biotechnology - Its Principles and Processes ; Biotechnology and its Applications
Instructions :
(i) Use Blue/Black ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :

1. Which of the following statements is correct? 3. The wavelength of compton scattered photon is
(1) Work function of a metal depends on the 
measured at  = 90°. If is to be 1 percent, then
frequency of incident light 
(2) Work function of a metal depends on the what will wavelength of the incident photons be?
intensity of incident light (m0 = rest mass of electron)

(3) Work function of a metal depends on the h ⎛ h ⎞

temperature of body (1) m C (2) 10 ⎜ m C ⎟
0 ⎝ 0 ⎠
(4) All of these
2. The work function for tungsten is 4.58 eV. Find ⎛ h ⎞ 1 ⎛ h ⎞
stopping potential if wavelength of incident light is (3) ⎜ m C ⎟  100 (4) 100 ⎜ m C ⎟
⎝ 0 ⎠ ⎝ 0 ⎠
200 nm.
(1) 0.162 V 4. A thermal neutron in a reactor has kinetic energy
of about 0.01 eV. The de-Broglie wavelength of
(2) 1.62 V neutron is
(3) 16.2 V (1) 2.86 Å (2) 28.6 Å
(4) 0.81 V (3) 0.286 Å (4) 286 Å

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Test-16 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
5. The ratio of radii of nucleus of 4He and 108Ag is 13.  decay usually occurs due to

1 1 (1) Deexcitation of atoms

(1) (2)
3 27 (2) Electron capturing
1 1
(3) (4) N
9 3 (3) Deviation from 1
Z
6. The half-life of radium is 1620 y. The disintegrations
per second of 1 g of radium is (approximately) (4) Deexcitation of nucleus
(1) 1 Ci (2) 20 Ci 14. If a radioactive nucleus of mass M emits a photon of
(3) 3 Ci (4) 10 Ci frequency , then the nucleus recoils with kinetic
energy of
7. Assuming average energy of 100 MeV per fission,
the number of fission per second needed for 960 MW
reactor is h 2 2
(1) h (2)
2c 2 M
(1) 6 × 1019 (2) 6 × 1020
(3) 6 × 1021 (4) 6 × 1022 h 2 2 h 2 2
(3) (4)
8. Three light beams have wavelength 1, 2, 3 and 2 cM c 2M
1 >  2 > 3. Light of wavelength 1 can eject
photoelectron from a photosensitive material then, 15. When photons of energy h fall on an aluminum
plate of work function E0, photoelectron of kinetic
(1) 2 will also eject photoelectron
energy k are ejected. If intensity of radiation is
(2) 3 will also eject photoelectron doubled then maximum kinetic energy and
(3) 2 & 3 will not eject electron photocurrent respectively will be

(4) Both (1) & (2) (1) (h – E0), same (2) 2(h – E0), same

9. Find the current in RL resistance as shown in (3) (h – E0), double (4) 2(h – E0), double
diagram.
16. Like angular momentum, when other physical
100  quantity is quantised in Bohr’s model of H-atom?

1k  (1) Momentum (2) Magnetic moment

30 V
10 V RL
(3) Kinetic energy (4) Frequency

(1) 10–3 A (2) 10–2 A 17. When hydrogen atom is raised from the ground state
to an excited state then
(3) 10 A (4) 102 A
(1) Potential energy increases
10. The circuit given below gives which of the following
output (z)? (2) Potential energy decreases
x (3) Potential energy remains same
y
z (4) Kinetic energy increases
x
y 18. Maximum wavelength of emission is obtained for the
(1) (x + y) (2) xy transition

(3) 1 (4) 0 (1) n = 2 to n = 1 (2) n = 6 to n = 2

11. Voltage gain of an amplifier with 10% positive (3) n = 8 to n = 7 (4) n = 4 to n = 1
feedback is 10. The voltage gain with out feedback is
19. Hydrogen atom is in its second excited state. If its
(1) 5 (2) 0.5 radius is x times the Bohr radius, then x is
(3) 0.05 (4) 50
(1) 4
12. If reverse of 10% of output of CE amplifier is given
(2) 3
as feedback to input, then this arrangement works as
(1) Oscillator (2) Amplifier (3) 9

(3) Transistor switch (4) Both (2) & (3) (4) 6

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Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-16 (Code A)
20. An npn transistor operates in a common emitter 26. Consider a nuclear reaction
mode as shown in figure. Given that iB = 0.5 mA,
A
VCE = 10 V and  = 100 then RL will be ZX  (AZ 1)Y Y  1e0    Q

If m X and m Y are atomic masses of X and Y

iB = 0.5 mA VCC = 15 V respectively, then Q value of reaction is
(1) (mx – mY – me)c2
(2) (mx – mY)c2
(3) (mx – mY – 2me)c2
(4) (mx – mY + 2me)c2
27. Which of the following is possible in a  decay?
(1) A proton may decay into neutron and a positron
(1) 10  (2) 100 k
(2) A neutron may decay into proton and a positron
(3) 0.1 k (4) 0.01 k
(3) A proton may decay into electron and a positron
21. Sixty percent of radioactive sample disintegrated
within a time t. The percentage of initial sample that (4) A neutron may decay into electron and a
will disintegrate in time 2t is positron

(1) 84% (2) 16% 28. A reverse biased diode is

(3) 36% (4) 64% 10 V 0V

(1)
22. A nucleus with atomic number z = 92 emits the
following particles in sequence , –, –, , –, –, –10 V 0V
(2)
, +, +. The atomic number of the end product is
(1) 88 (2) 86 –10 V –20 V
(3)
(3) 92 (4) 90
23. Which of the following figures represents the variation –10 V –20 V
of particle momentum and associated frequency? (4)
p p
29. In LED, visible light is produced by
(1) Gallium phosphide

(1) (2) (2) Gallium Arsenide

f f (3) Germanium phosphide

p p (4) Silicon phosphide

30. The binding energy of an electron in 4th orbit of
hydrogen atom is

(3) (4) (1) 2.4 eV (2) 0.85 eV

f f (3) 13.6 eV (4) 0.5 eV
31. Speed of an electron in hydrogen atom in 1st orbit is
24. Which of the following has minimum binding energy
2 × 106 m/s. The velocity of an electron in 3rd orbit
per nucleon?
of doubly ionized lithium is
(1) 9Be (2) 4He
(1) 5 × 106 m/s (2) 6 × 106 m/s
(3) 12C (4) 62Ni
(3) 4 × 106 m/s (4) 2 × 106 m/s
25. According to Rutherford’s model, atom should emit
32. If K, u, E are kinetic energy, potential energy and
(1) Continuous spectrum total energy of an electron in an orbit in single
electron atom, then
(2) Line spectrum
(3) Band spectrum |u |
(1) K  (2) E = –K
2
(4) Both (2) & (1)
(3) E = 2u (4) Both (1) & (2)
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Test-16 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016

33. A 238
nucleus at rest is decayed by emitting alpha (2) 1 A
92 U
234 (3) 2 A
particle into 90 Th. The speeds of the alpha particle
and the thorium nucleus are in the approximate ratio (4) 4 A

(1) 1 : 58 (2) 58 : 1 40. In a common emitter circuit if Vcc is changed by

0.2 V, collector current changes by 4 × 10–3 mA.
(3) 90 : 1 (4) 45 : 1
The output resistance will be
34. The maximum efficiency of full wave rectifier is
(1) 10 k
(1) 100% (2) 40.6% (2) 30 k
(3) 81.2% (4) 50% (3) 50 k
35. Which of the following ray has highest penetrating (4) 70 k
power?
41. Nuclear forces are
(1)  ray (2)  ray
(3) + ray (4) – ray (1) Central

36. Rest mass of photon is (2) Same as gravitational force

h hc (3) Attractive and repulsive in nature
(1) (2)
c 
(4) Short ranged
(3) Zero (4) Infinite
42. Temperature required for nuclear fusion is of the
37. The ratio of wavelength of an electron revolving in 3rd
order of
orbit to that of revolving in 5th orbit in H atom is
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 5 : 3 (1) 10–9 K

(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 5 (2) 104 K

38. Which of the following figures represents the variation (3) 109 K
of kinetic energy of particle and associated
wavelength ()? (4) 101 K

KE KE 43. Frequency of input AC signal is 50 Hz. When it is

connected to a half-wave rectifier, the number of
output pulses given by rectifier in a second is
(1) (2)
(1) 100 (2) 50
 
(3) 25 (4) 200
KE KE
44. The energy gap of silicon is 1.23 eV. The maximum
wavelength at which silicon will begin absorbing
(3) (4) energy is

  (1) 1 Å

39. Calculate the current I in the following circuit, if all (2) 100 Å
the diodes are ideal. All resistances are of 200 .
(3) 1000 Å
(4) 10000 Å
45. Which of the following relations is correct (symbol
are having usual meaning)?
(1) Ib = Ic
(2) Ic = Ib
I (3) Ic  Ib
200 V
(1) Zero (4) Ic = Ib

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Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-16 (Code A)

CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following is an amide? NH C H OH/Na
53. CH3 CHO 
  A 
3 2 5
B
H
(1) CH3 CH2 NH2 (2) NH2 – CHO
Here the product ‘B’ is
O
(1) CH3CN (2) CH3CH2NH2
(3) NH2 – C – OH (4) (CH3)3 N
(3) CH3COONa (4) CH3NH2
47. Alkylation of 1° amine ultimately gives
54. N-nitroso compound is obtained in the reaction
(1) 2° amine (2) 3° amine
(1) CH3NH2 + HNO2 (2) (CH3)3N + HNO2
(3) Salt (4) Mixture of these
(3) (CH3)2NH + HNO2 (4) CH3CH2NH2 + HNO2
O +
H
48. + CH3NH2 Product. The product is 55. Cyclic structure of glucose is formed due to the
reaction between aldehydic and alcoholic group. It is
NHCH3 called
N – CH3
(1) (2) (1) Eterification (2) Acetal formation
(3) Hemiacetal formation (4) Hydrolysis
OCH3 OCH3
56. Type of forces present in fibres are
(3) NH2 (4)
NH2 (1) Dispersion forces (2) Covalent bonding
49. What is correct order of basicity of the following? (3) H-bonding (4) Ion dipole interaction
NH2 NH2 NH2 57. Nylon 66 is an example of
(1) Condensation polymer
(I) (II) (III) (2) Step growth polymer
(3) Polyamide
NO2 OCH3 (4) All of these
(1) (I) < (II) > (III) (2) (I) < (II) < (III)
58. Which of the following is most soluble in water?
(3) (I) > (II) > (III) (4) (I) > (II) < (III)
(1) (CH3)3N
50. C6H5 N2+ Cl– on reaction with H2O/H3PO2 gives
(1) C6H5 – Cl (2) C6H6 NH2
(3) C6H5 OH (4) (C6H5)2 Cu (2)
NH2
NaNO2 (i) HBF4 Zn/HCl (3) CH3NH2
51. A B C
HCl/273 K (ii) NaNO2/Cu (4) CH3NHCH3

In this reaction the product ‘C’ is 59. Functional group attached to the carbon chain of
PVC is
NO2 Cl
(1) – CN (2) – F
(1) (2)
(3) – Cl (4) – COOH

NH2 F 60. Adipic acid condenses with ‘X’ to form nylon 6, 6.

Here ‘X’ is
(3) (4) (1) Vinyl alcohol
(2) Ethylene glycol
NO2 NO2
(3) Hexa methylene diamine
52. [X]
(4) Formaldehyde
NO2 NH2 61. Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate is an example
Reagent [X] in the above reaction is of
(1) (NH4)2SO4 (2) NH4HS (1) Soap (2) Cationic detergent
(3) Zn/HCl (4) LiAlH4 (3) Anionic detergent (4) Non-ionic detergent

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Test-16 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
62. Which of the following is 3° amine? 70. Narrow spectrum antibiotic which is used to kill the
bacteria
N
(1) Penicillin (2) Erythromycin
(1) CH3 – CH = NH (2) (3) Tetracycline (4) Chloramphenicol
71. The ratio of sweetness of Aspartame and Alitame is
CH3 CH3
(1) 1 : 10 (2) 10 : 1
(3) CH3 – C – NH2 (4) CH3 – C – CH2 NH2 (3) 1 : 20 (4) 20 : 1
CH3 CH3 72. Which of the following is not optically active?
63. Glycine at very low pH on electrolysis moves (1) Valine (2) Alanine
towards (3) Glycine (4) Phenylalanine
(1) Cathode
73. The reagent which converts glucose into osazone is
(2) Anode
(1) Tollen’s reagent (2) Schiff’s reagent
(3) Either cathode or anode
(3) Phenylhydrazine (4) 2,4-DNP
(4) Towards none of the electrode
74. Bakelite is a polymer of formaldehyde and
64. What is the product of the following reaction along
with 3° amine? (1) Chlorobenzene (2) Phenol
+ (3) Adipic acid (4) Glycine
CH3
– Ag2O (moist) 75. Polymer of isoprene is
CH3 – N – CH2 – CH2 – C6H5 Cl
Heat (1) Neoprene
CH3 (2) Can show geometrical isomerism
(1) Toluene (2) Styrene (3) Elastomer
(3) Ethy benzene (4) Benzene (4) Both (2) & (3) are correct
65. Which of the following is best for coupling with 76. Identify incorrect statement(s)
C6H5N2+Cl– ?
(1) Vitamin B-12 contains Hg2+
(1) C6H5Cl (2) C6H5NH2
(2) In haemoglobin iron is present as Fe+1
(3) C6H5CH3 (4) C6H5NO2
(3) In photosynthesis CO2 is reduced to glucose
66. In nitration of aniline we get unexpected high yield of
m-nitro aniline because (4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) –NH2 is meta directing 77. Incorrect match is
(2) –NH2+ shows –M and o, p-directing (1) Sucrose 
hydrolysis
 glucos e fructose
D(  ) D (  )
(3) –NH3+ is deactivating and m-directing
hydrolysis
(4) –NH2 is deactivating and m-directing (2) Lactose 
 galactose glucose
D(  ) D(  )
67. Which of the following is most basic?
hydrolysis
NH2 NH2 (3) Maltose 
 glucose glucose
D (  ) D(  )

(1) (2) (4) Both (1) & (2)

78. Which element can increase tensile strength of
NH CH – NH2 natural rubber?

(3) (4) (1) C (2) H

(3) S (4) N
68. Inverted sugar is O
PCl3 NH3 OBr
(1) Dextro rotatory (2) Laevo rotatory 79. CH3 – CH2 – C – OH  Product
(3) Racemic mixture (4) Any one of these Product is
69. Polymer used for making nonstick cookware is (1) CH3CH2CH2NH2 (2) CH3CH2NH2
(1) PVC (2) Teflon (3) CH3 – CH – COOH (4) CH3 – CONHBr
(3) Orlon (4) Nylon 6 Br
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Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-16 (Code A)
80. The major product of the following reaction is O
O NH2 83. A + B S NH – C2H5
(Nitrogen
C – Cl Br2/Fe containing (C) O
+ X Z (major) compound) NaOH

CH3 For the above reaction the, correct statement(s) is/are

(1) The sequence represents Hinsberg test
O
(2) ‘B’ is benzenesulfonyl chloride
C – NH
(1) (3) A is 1° amine
Br CH3 (4) All of these

O 84. Which of the following does not give Friedel-Craft’s

reaction?
C – NH
(2) (1) Nitrobenzene (2) Aniline
(3) Chlorobenzene (4) Both (1) & (2)
Br
85. In carbylamine test the reaction intermediate formed
O is
C – NH (1) Carbocation (2) Carbanion
(3)
(3) Free radical (4) Carbene
CH3
86. –D–glucose and –D–glucose are
Br
(1) Structural isomers
O
(2) Non-superimposable mirror images
C – NH
(4) (3) Anomers
(4) Metamers
Br CH3
87. Gutta percha is
81. Which of the following will not give isocynide test? (1) A polymer of isoprene
(1) CH3CH2NH2 (2) C6H5NH2 (2) Isomer of natural rubber
(3) Addition polymer
(3) CH 3 – CH – CH3 (4) (CH3)3N
(4) All of these
NH2
88. Which of the following are tranquilizers?
CH3 N CH3 (1) Equanil (2) Barbiturates
(3) Serotonin (4) All of these
NH2
89. Select the amine
NaNO2
82. A B O
+HCl
CH2CH2NH2
(0 – 5°C) C – NH2
(1) (2)
Product B is

CH2NO2
(1) H 3CNH N=N NHCH 3
(3) (4) Both (1) & (2)

CH3 1. C2H5MgBr 1. CH3MgBr

(2) N=N N 90. CH3CH2C  N + A 2. H2O B
2. H2O, H
CH3
Identify correct statement(s).
(1) A is 2-pentanone
(3) H 3C N=N NH3
(2) B is a tertiary alcohol
CH3 (3) B is a ketone
(4) NH N (4) Both (1) & (2)
CH3
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Test-16 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016

BOTANY
91. Select the mis-match. (1) 2.5 micrometers or less
(1) Electrostatic : Removes particulate (2) 2.5 micrometers or more
precipitator matter (3) 3.5 micrometers
(2) Scrubber : Remove gases like (4) 4.5 micrometers
SO2
98. Exceptional warming of the tropical pacific ocean
(3) Catalytic converter : Converts unburnt which affects the Indian monsoon reducing rains is
hydrocarbons into CO due to
& No
(1) Greenhouse effect (2) Global warming
(4) Noise pollution : Green muffler
(3) El Nino (4) Cyclones
92. Government of India has passed the Environment
(protection) Act, 1986 to protect and improve 99. Match Column-I with Column-II.
(1) Only the Air Quality Column-I Column-II
(2) Noise level in cities (a) Ramsar convention (i) Cop-3
(3) The quality of our environment (b) Kyoto protocol (ii) Sustainable
(4) Only the water quality development of
93. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. solid waste. biodiversity
(1) Polyblend decreases the bitumen’s water (c) Montreal protocol (iii) Control ODS
repellant properties (d) Agenda-21 (iv) Conservation of
(2) Sanitary landfills are adopted as the substitute wetlands
for open-burning dumps (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(3) The use of incinerators is crucial to disposal of (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
hospital waste
100. The amount of biodegradable organic matter in
(4) Recycling of e-wastes in developing countries sewage water can be estimated by measuring the
often involves manual participation
(1) Biochemical oxygen demand
94. Good ozone and bad ozone are formed respectively
(2) Dissolved oxygen
in
(3) Chemical oxygen demand
(1) Troposphere & Stratosphere
(4) More than one option is correct
(2) Stratosphere & troposphere
101. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. slash and burn
(3) Stratosphere & mesosphere
agriculture.
(4) Stratosphere & stratosphere
(1) Commonly called Jhum cultivation
95. Which of the following group is a secondary air
(2) Common in North-Eastern states of India
pollutant?
(3) Has contributed to afforestation
(1) CO and SO2 (2) SO2 and NOx
(4) Land is used for farming or cattle grazing
(3) PAN and O3 (4) PAN and SO3
102. The concept of joint forest management (JFM) was
96 Select the incorrect statement
introduced by the Government of India after realising
(1) Chronic exposure to lower noise level of cities the significance of
may permanently damage hearing abilities of
(1) Protecting wildlife
humans
(2) Participation by local communities
(2) Air pollutants deleteriously affect respiratory
system of humans (3) Reforestation
(3) Automobiles are a major cause for water (4) Biodiversity
pollution in metro cities 103. Slow blindness is caused due to
(4) 150 dB noise may damage ear drums thus (1) Inflammation of cornea
permanently impairing hearing ability
(2) Absorption of UV-C
97. According to CPCB, particulate dust of size _____
(3) Ozone layer
in diameter cause the greatest harm to human
health. (4) Skin cancer

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Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
104. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Nitrate : Blue-baby syndrome
(2) Mercury : Minamata disease
(3) Arsenic : Skeletal fluorosis
(4) Cadmium : Itai-itai
105. Which of the following pollutants constitute photo
chemical smog?
(a) Ozone (b) SO2
Test-16 (Code A)
112. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Ecosan toilets.
(1) Used in many areas of Kerala and Sri Lanka
(2) Human excreta is recycled into a resource
(3) Uses a wet composting method
(4) A sustainable system of handling human excreta
113. Which of the following contributes to both global
warming and ozone thinning?

(c) PAN (d) Nitrogen oxides (1) CO2

(e) UV rays (f) CO2 (2) Nitrous oxide
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (c) and (d) (3) Methane
(3) (a), (b), (d) and (e) (4) (d), (e) and (f) (4) CFCs
106. Algal bloom is caused due to
114. Cultural or accelerated eutrophication of lakes is
(1) Decrease in BOD caused due to
(2) Large amount of nutrients
(1) Natural aging
(3) Increase in DO
(2) Deposition of silt
(4) Lack of Nutrients
(3) Nitrates and phosphates
107. Biomagnification occurs because a toxic substance
accumulated by an organism (4) Selenium and poly chlorobiphenyls
(1) Cannot be metabolised 115. Increase in the rate of skin cancer and mutation in
(2) Cannot be excreted organisms can be due to
(3) Is passed to next higher trophic level (1) Thinning of ozone layer
(4) More than one option is correct (2) CO2 pollution
108. Cleaning of waste water in Arcata marsh situated (3) Primary pollutants
along the northern coast of California involves
(4) Acid rain
(1) Only conventional sedimentation
(2) Removal of dissolved heavy metals by plants, 116. Non-biodegradable pollutants have been created by
algae, bacteria (1) Biomagnification
(3) No filtration and chlorination
(2) Overexploitation of resources
(4) Only natural process
(3) Anthropogenic activities
109. Find odd one w.r.t. negative soil pollution.
(4) Natural disasters
(1) Leaching
(2) Overgrazing 117. Choose the correct statement.
(3) Addition of pesticides (1) Dobson units are used to measure carbon
monoxide
(4) Desertification
110. Two lakes A and B are identical in all aspects except (2) Methane and CO2 are least involved in global
that lake A is warmer. Which of the following warming
statement is true? (3) Incinerators are crucial for disposal of hospital
(1) Both have same BOD wastes
(2) Lake B supports little life (4) Ozone is a primary pollutant
(3) Lake B is shallower 118. Select the correct match.
(4) Lake A has less silt and organic debris
(1) Environment Protection Act : 1974
111. The national forest policy of India has recommended
(2) Water Act : 1986
(1) 67% of forest cover for the hills
(3) Air Act amended to include noise : 1987
(2) 67% of forest cover for the plairs
(3) 33% of forest cover for the hills (4) Air (Prevention and Control of : 1970
Pollution) Act
(4) 40% forest cover in tropics
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Test-16 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
119. Match column-I with column-II and choose the 126. We can control global warming by
correct option.
(1) Increasing the growth of human population
Column I Column II
(2) Deforestation
a. Snow blindness (i) Secondary pollutant
(3) Improving efficiency of energy usage
b. Acid rain (ii) Effluents from homes
and industry (4) Increasing the use of fossil fuel
c. Cultural (iii) Organic matter in 127. Select the odd one out w.r.t. integrated organic
eutrophication sewage farming.
d. BOD (iv) UV – B
(1) Zero waste procedure
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) Minimum utilisation of resources
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) Extremely economical
120. Which of the following will have the minimum BOD?
(4) Sustainable venture
(1) Sea water (2) Potable water
128. Greenhouse gases absorb ________ from the earth
(3) Polluted water (4) Sewage
and emit it again towards the earth.
121. Select the correct statement
(1) Long wave radiations
(1) As the DO increases BOD decreases
(2) Short wave radiations
(2) As the DO increases BOD also increases
(3) UV radiations
(3) Bloom forming algae are not toxic to animals and
humans (4) More than one option is correct
(4) Eichhornia is not able to grow properly in 129. Electronic wastes
eutrophic water bodies
(1) Cannot be recycled
122. Select the incorrect match.
(2) Are mainly export to developed countries
(1) Carbon monoxide – Produces
carboxyhemoglobin (3) Do not contain toxic substances
(2) Strontium 90 – Leukemia (4) Are buried or incinerated
(3) Electrostatic – Removes gases like SO2 130. Polyblend
precipitator
(1) Is crystals of recycled modified plastic
(4) Noise – Air pollutant
(2) Decreases bitumen’s water repellant properties
123. UN climate conference agreed to extend Kyoto
protocol, a treaty that limits greenhouse gas output (3) Is an ever-lasting solution of plastic wastes
by 2020 through
(4) Needs fresh raw materials
(1) COP - 3 (2) COP - 18
131. Stringent fuel norms for vehicles like Bharat Stage or
(3) COP - 8 (4) COP - 1
Euro norms aims to steadily reduce
124. What is the percentage of impurities in domestic
sewage in the form of suspended solids, colloidal (1) Sulphur and aromatic content
material and dissolved materials? (2) Lead and hydrocarbons
(1) 0.1 % (2) 0.01 % (3) Petrol and diesel use
(3) 5.0 % (4) 10.0 %
(4) CO2 and NOx
125. Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award for
showing extraordinary courage and dedication in 132. A brief exposure to extremely high sound level of 150
protecting wildlife is given to dB or more

(1) Individuals (1) Does not damage eardrums

(2) Communities (2) Permanently impair hearing ability
(3) NGOs (3) Reduces stress
(4) More than one option is correct (4) Cures sleeplessness
(10)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-16 (Code A)
133. Select the incorrect match. (1) Inconvenient Truth
(1) High concentration – Disturbs calcium (2) Silent Spring
of DDT metabolism in birds
(3) Poison Spring
(2) El Nino – Odd climatic changes
(4) Global warming
due to rise in
135. Select the odd one out w.r.t the consequences of
temperature
deforestation.
(3) Water hyacinth – Most problematic
aquatic weed (1) Disturbs hydrologic cycle
(4) Jhum cultivation – Eco-friendly (2) Loss of biodiversity
134. Which of the following books written by Rachel (3) Desertification
Carlson first highlighted the harmful effects of
(4) Decreased CO2 concentration in atmosphere
pesticides in Ecosystem?

ZOOLOGY
136. Given below are some applications of biotechnology (4) Air bubbles bubbled through the reactor
for which all other statements are correct except dramatically increase the oxygen transfer area
one 140. Most preferable restriction endonucleases for
(1) Biotechnology enabled us to create tailor made biotechnological practices are
plants to supply alternative resources to (1) Restriction endonucleases type I that create
industries blunt ends
(2) Production of pest resistant plants that could (2) Restriction endonucleases type II that cut DNA
decrease the pesticide use strands at palindromic sequences without
(3) Biotechnology has enhanced nutritional value of requirement of ATP
food crops (3) Restriction endonucleases that cause
(4) Biotechnology helped in maintaining ecological methylation of host DNA
balance of environment (4) Restriction endonucleases type III that create
137. In order to insert alien DNA at the site of tetracycline sticky ends
resistance gene in pBR322 the restriction 141. Arrange the steps of isolation of DNA from the
endonuclease used can be source cell
(1) Pvu I (2) Cla I (a) Precipitation of DNA with chilled ethanol.
(3) Sal I (4) Pst I (b) Treatment of DNA strands with protease and
RNase.
138. The insertional inactivation of lac z-gene will lead to
(c) Treatment of DNA strands with restriction
(1) Over transcription of coding sequence of endonuclease.
-galactosidase
(d) Isolation of DNA from bacterial cells by the
(2) Formation of blue coloured colonies of bacteria treatment of lysozyme.
in presence of a chromogenic substance
(1) (d), (a), (b), (c) (2) (b), (a), (d), (c)
(3) Inability of bacterial cells to metabolise lactose
(3) (d), (a), (c), (b) (4) (d), (b), (a), (c)
(4) Formation of crown gall in the host cell
142. The vectors used for transforming bacterial cells are
139. For production of biotechnological product at a. Plasmids like pBR322, pUC18.
manufacturing scale bioreactors are used for which
all statements are correct except one b. Lamda () phage.
(1) The stirrer in tank bioreactors helps to mix the c. M13 phage.
reactor contents and facilitates oxygen d. SV 40.
availability throughout the bioreactor
e. Papillomaviruses.
(2) Sampling ports in bioreactors are meant for
(1) a only
adding raw materials into them
(2) a, b, c & d
(3) Optimum condition for production of
biotechnological product like pH, temperature (3) a, b & c
etc. are monitored in them (4) c, d & e
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Test-16 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
143. Eli Lilly an American company in 1983 was credited (2) The GM crops may lead to change in the
with evolutionary pattern
(1) Extraction of insulin from pancreas of slaughtered (3) The antibiotic resistance marker genes used to
cattle and pigs produce GM crops may move from plants to gut
(2) Production of oral insulin microflora of humans and animals and increase
the problem of antibiotic resistance in pathogens
(3) Biotechnological production of Humulin with three
peptide chains (4) The introduction of GM crops has reduced the
crop yield
(4) Use of reverse transcriptase to artificially
synthesise genes for production of A peptide and 150. The am in Bam HI indicates
B peptide of insulin (1) Amylase enzyme
144. A technique of molecular diagnosis that aims at (2) Species of bacterium
detection of pathogen through antigen-antibody
interaction is (3) Restriction endonuclease type II
(1) PCR (2) Southern blot (4) Ampicillin resistance gene of pBR322
(3) ELISA (4) Northern blot 151. Mark the statement that is incorrect with respect to
application of biotechnology
145. The method of gene transfer that is designed to
overcome the problem of the strong cell wall in plant (1) In 1997, the first transgenic cow, Rosie was
tissue is introduced with -1 antitrypsin gene
(1) Microinjection (2) Biolistics (2) Today transgenic models exist for cancer, cystic
(3) PEG (4) Transfection fibrosis rheumatoid arthritis and Alzheimer’s
disease
146. Plants with beneficial traits have been developed. In
all of the following GM crops, a gene of interest has (3) Transgenic mice are being used to test the
been inserted, except safety of the polio vaccine
(1) Transgenic canola for herbicide (glyphosate) (4) GEAC is an organisation that makes decisions
tolerance regarding the validity of GM research and safety
of introducing GM-organisms for public services
(2) Bt cotton resistant to bollworm (Helicoverpa
armigera) 152. The utilisation of Taq polymerase in PCR serves the
purpose of
(3) Flavr savr tomato with delayed ripening
(4) Transgenic papaya resistant to papaya ringspot (1) Ensuring no temperature changes throughout the
virus process

147. The plasmid pBR322 contains restriction sites for (2) Fast amplification of sample DNA at denaturing
Hind III, Eco RI, Bam HI, Sal I, Pvu II, Pst I, Cla I, temperature
an ori site, ampR gene, tetR gene and rop, out of (3) Application of PCR as earliest technique of
which rop codes for _____ and is identified by _____ detection
(1) Antibiotic resistance, Pvu I (4) Synthesis of a sequence of complementary DNA
(2) -galactosidase, Pst I which does not require proof reading
(3) Proteins involved in the replication of the 153. Number of recombinant therapeutics approved world
plasmid, Pvu II over are ______, out of which _____ are marketed in
India.
(4) Methylase, Sal I
148. The linking of alien DNA to plasmid vector is (1) 7, 9 (2) 30, 12
possible with the help of (3) 11, 17 (4) 20, 31
(1) Taq polymerase 154. The misuse of biotechnology is
(2) DNA ligase (1) Biopatency (2) Biowar
(3) Polyethylene glycol (3) Bioremediation (4) Bioinformatics
(4) Restriction endonuclease type II 155. The construction of the first recombinant DNA was
149. The following are the major concerns about GM done by using the native plasmid of
crops and GM foods, except (1) E.coli
(1) The GM crops may change the fundamental (2) Bacillus amyloliquefaciens
vegetable nature of plant as the genes from
animals (e.g. fish or mouse) are being (3) Salmonella typhimurium
introduced into crop plants (4) Pseudomonas putida
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Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
156. Biopatents are exclusive rights granted by a
government to inventors or their assignee for a
limited period of time in exchange for a public
disclosure of an invention. Patents should satisfying
the following criteria, except
(1) Novelty
(2) Utility
(3) Unpatented traditional knowledge
(4) Non-obviousness
157. The examples of transgenic plants are all, except
(1) Bt tobacco
(2) Brassica napus with hirudin gene
(3) Golden rice
Test-16 (Code A)
162. A good vector is one
(1) That makes transformation process complex
(2) That maintains its individuality in host cell
(3) That is easy to isolate and to purify
(4) Generates multiple copies of host DNA
163. The electroporation method of gene transfer
(1) Makes recombinant DNA molecules to enter
host cell by giving low voltage current to
membrane
(2) Employs lipid coated DNA molecules for gene
transfer
(3) Aims at temporarily increasing pore size of
membranes

(4) Pentadiplandra brazzeana (4) Is used to overcome the problem of strong cell
wall in plant tissue
158. Mark the statement that is incorrect for restriction
enzymes. 164. To minimise the use of nitrogenous fertilizers in the
crop fields, Nif gene from Rhizobium melioleti is
(1) The isolation of two enzymes responsible for being transferred into
restricting the growth of bacteriophage in E.coli
(1) Oil seed crops (2) Pulses
was done in 1963
(3) Cereals (4) Sugarcane
(2) The first restriction endonuclease to be
discovered was Hind II 165. Select the requirements for PCR of HIV genome.
(3) The convention for naming restriction enzymes is a. Taq polymerase
that the first letter of the name comes from the b. dNTPs
genus of source
c. Reverse transcriptase
(4) The restriction enzymes cut two strands of DNA
d. RNA polymerase
at specific points at H-bonded cross links
e. Primers
159. The role of ethidium bromide in gel electrophoresis
is that f. Mg2+
(1) It induces a negative charge on all DNA strands (1) a, b & e
(2) It makes DNA strands visible as orange coloured (2) a, b, e & f
strips (3) a, b, c & e
(3) It ensures separation of DNA strands on the (4) a, b, c, e & f
basis of charge and mass
166. Earliest detection of cancer in suspected cancer
(4) It removes the gel associated with DNA strands patients is done by
160. Production of Bt cotton was done by (1) ELISA (2) PCR
(1) Insertion of an inactive cry gene in cotton (3) Southern blot (4) DNA fingerprinting
(2) Making bollworms resistant against Bt toxin 167. Biopiracy does not
(3) Making the cotton plant an insecticide (1) Involve illegally acquiring traditional knowledge
(4) Introduction of cry I Ab in cotton (2) Involve use of biological agents against
economic rivals
161. During the production of a biotechnological product
the culture is ensured to remain contamination free (3) Aim at modifying plants without a legal right
by (4) Include terrorising rival nations with the help of
(1) Insertion of air bubbles through an oxygen biological resources
delivery system 168. The ADA gene is crucial for
(2) Periodically withdrawing small volumes of the (1) Erythropoiesis
culture through sampling ports
(2) Functioning of immune system
(3) Allowing steam into the culture
(3) Embryonic development
(4) Performing continuous culture
(4) Early detection of SCID
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Test-16 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
169. The event that made Meloidogyne incognita popular 175. Restriction endonucleases
was (1) Cut minimum length of DNA strands
(1) Its genetic modification (2) Hydrolyse internal phosphodiester bonds in
(2) Application of DNA interference polynucleotide chains
(3) Are ATP independent
(3) Its m-RNA silencing by a protein complex
(4) Identify palindromic sequences only on phage
(4) Production of Bt tobacco
DNA
170. The problem of blindness in poor countries can be 176. Production of a human protein in bacteria by genetic
controlled by using which of the following? engineering is possible because
(1) Transgenic tomato (1) Bacterial cell can carry out the RNA splicing
reactions
(2) Golden rice
(2) The human chromosome can replicate in
(3) Riboflavin supplement generated biotechnologically
bacterial cell
(4) Star link maize (3) The mechanism of gene regulation is identical in
171. Bio-engineered bacterium used for cleaning of oil humans and bacteria
spills is (4) The genetic code is universal
(1) E.coli 177. The anticoagulant hirudin is obtained from
(2) Acetobacter aerogenes (1) Milk of sheep

(3) Pseudomonas putida (2) Bolls of cotton plant

(3) Seeds of Brassica napus
(4) Trichoderma
(4) Salmonella typhimurium
172. The importance of RISC in RNA interference
technique is that it 178. In recombinant DNA technology vector refers to

(1) Silences the nematode (1) Secondary host of pathogen

(2) Causes unwinding of dsRNA
(3) Causes degradation of m-RNA of parasite
(4) Blocks translation of host m-RNA
173. An example of gene therapy is
(1) Production of purely synthetic vaccines
(2) Production of humulin
(3) Production of Bt tobacco
(2) Disease carrier
(3) Cosmid, that transfers DNA into a living cell
(4) Enzyme that prevents attack of restriction
enzymes
179. The technique in biotechnology that aims at using
radioactive molecules called probes, to find their
corresponding molecules in tissues where presence
of virus or mutation is suspected is known as
(1) Molecular harvesting

(4) Introduction of gene for adenosine deaminase in (2) Molecular diagnosis

patients of SCID (3) Biowar
174. Presently transgenic models are available for all the (4) Upstream processing
given diseases, except 180. One amongst the following is a molecular scissor
(1) Cystic fibrosis (1) Unwindase
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis (2) Sma I
(3) Alzheimer’s disease (3) Methylase
(4) Cardiomyopathy (4) Reverse transcriptase

  

(14)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-16 (Code A)

08/07/2016
A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 16 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.
[NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (4) 73. (3) 109. (3) 145. (2)
2. (2) 38. (3) 74. (2) 110. (2) 146. (3)
3. (3) 39. (2) 75. (4) 111. (1) 147. (3)
4. (1) 40. (3) 76. (4) 112. (3) 148. (2)
5. (1) 41. (4) 77. (3) 113. (4) 149. (4)
6. (1) 42. (3) 78. (3) 114. (3) 150. (2)
7. (1) 43. (2) 79. (2) 115. (1) 151. (1)
8. (4) 44. (4) 80. (1) 116. (3) 152. (2)
9. (2) 45. (4) 81. (4) 117. (3) 153. (2)
10. (1) 46. (2) 82. (2) 118. (3) 154. (2)
11. (1) 47. (4) 83. (4) 119. (3) 155. (3)
12. (1) 48. (2) 84. (4) 120. (2) 156. (3)
13. (3) 49. (2) 85. (4) 121. (1) 157. (4)
14. (2) 50. (2) 86. (3) 122. (3) 158. (4)
15. (3) 51. (3) 87. (4) 123. (2) 159. (2)
16. (2) 52. (2) 88. (4) 124. (1) 160. (3)
17. (1) 53. (2) 89. (2) 125. (4) 161. (3)
18. (3) 54. (3) 90. (2) 126. (3) 162. (3)
19. (3) 55. (3) 91. (3) 127. (2) 163. (3)
20. (3) 56. (3) 92. (3) 128. (1) 164. (3)
21. (1) 57. (4) 93. (1) 129. (4) 165. (4)
22. (1) 58. (3) 94. (2) 130. (3) 166. (2)
23. (1) 59. (3) 95. (3) 131. (1) 167. (4)
24. (1) 60. (3) 96. (3) 132. (2) 168. (2)
25. (1) 61. (3) 97. (1) 133. (4) 169. (3)
26. (3) 62. (2) 98. (3) 134. (2) 170. (2)
27. (1) 63. (1) 99. (2) 135. (4) 171. (3)
28. (4) 64. (2) 100. (4) 136. (4) 172. (3)
29. (2) 65. (2) 101. (3) 137. (3) 173. (4)
30. (2) 66. (3) 102. (2) 138. (3) 174. (4)
31. (4) 67. (2) 103. (1) 139. (2) 175. (2)
32. (4) 68. (2) 104. (3) 140. (2) 176. (4)
33. (2) 69. (2) 105. (2) 141. (4) 177. (3)
34. (3) 70. (1) 106. (2) 142. (3) 178. (3)
35. (1) 71. (3) 107. (4) 143. (4) 179. (2)
36. (3) 72. (3) 108. (2) 144. (3) 180. (2)

(15)
 08/07/2016
A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 16 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.

[for NEET (Phase-2)-2016]

Answers and Hints

PHYSICS

1. Answer (3) 6. Answer (1)

2. Answer (2)
Definition of 1 curie
eV0 = E – 
7. Answer (1)
c 1240
Eh 
  6.2 eV E = 100 × 106 × 1.6 × 10–19 = 1.6 × 10–11
200

eV0  6.2 – 4.58  1.62 eV Power

n = number of particle per second =
Energy
V0 = 1.62 V
3. Answer (3) 960  106
=  6  1019
h 1.6  10 –11
  1– cos  
m0C 8. Answer (4)
h 9. Answer (2)
 
m0C
10. Answer (1)
⎛ h ⎞
 ⎜⎝ m C ⎟⎠
 100 
0
 100  1 z   x  y . x  y   x  y
 
⎛ h ⎞ 11. Answer (1)
   100 ⎜
⎝ m0C ⎟⎠
A
G
4. Answer (1) 1– AB
0.286 0.286 A
   2.86 Å  10 = 1– 0.1A
E (eV) 0.01
5. Answer (1)
 10 – A = A
1
R  R0  A  3 A=5
1
12. Answer (1)
R1 ⎛ A1 ⎞ 3
⎜ ⎟
R2 ⎝ A2 ⎠ 13. Answer (3)
1 14. Answer (2)
R1 ⎛ 4 ⎞ 3 1
 
R2 ⎜⎝ 108 ⎟⎠ 3 h
P
c
(1)
 P2 28. Answer (4)
 K.E 
2M 29. Answer (2)

⎛ h ⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎞
2 30. Answer (2)
 K.E  ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟
⎝ c ⎠ ⎝ 2M ⎠ 31. Answer (4)
15. Answer (3) 32. Answer (4)
16. Answer (2) 33. Answer (2)
17. Answer (1) 34. Answer (3)
18. Answer (3)
35. Answer (1)
19. Answer (3)
36. Answer (3)
n=3
37. Answer (4)
r  n2
r = 9 r0 38. Answer (3)
20. Answer (3) p2
KE 
ic = 0.5 × 10–3 × 100 = 0.05 2m
VCC – iC RL – VCE = 0
h
P  2 m  KE  
5 
RL = = 100 
0.05 39. Answer (2)
21. Answer (1) 40. Answer (3)
22. Answer (1) 41. Answer (4)
23. Answer (1)
42. Answer (3)
24. Answer (1)
43. Answer (2)
25. Answer (1)
26. Answer (3) 44. Answer (4)
45. Answer (4)
27. Answer (1)

CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (2)
+
N2 Cl
–
NO2
Fact. NH2
47. Answer (4) NaNO2 (i) HBF4
HCl/273 K (ii) NaNO2/
Fact.
48. Answer (2) NH2
N – CH3
O H+ Zn/HCl
+ H2 N – CH3

52. Answer (2)

49. Answer (2)
53. Answer (2)
NO2 shows –M and –OCH3 shows +M effect.
+
H
50. Answer (2) CH3 – C = O + NH3 CH3 – C = NH
+ –
N Cl
2
H H
H+ C2H5 OH/Na
CH3CH2NH2
54. Answer (3)
51. Answer (3) Fact.

(2)
55. Answer (3) 76. Answer (4)
Alcohol and ether group are on same C-atom. Fact.
56. Answer (3) 77. Answer (3)
Fact.
Fact.
78. Answer (3)
57. Answer (4)
Vulcanisation
Fact.
79. Answer (2)
58. Answer (3) NH3
PCl3
More H-bonding with H2O. CH3 – CH2 – COOH CH3CH2COCl
59. Answer (3) OBr
–

CH3CH2NH2 CH3CH2CONH2
PVC is polymer of CH2 = CH – Cl.
80. Answer (1)
60. Answer (3)
O
NH2 – (CH2)6 – NH2 + HOOC – (CH2)4 – COOH
Polymerization
C – NH Br2, FeBr3
 Nylon 6, 6 X= Electrophilic
61. Answer (3) CH3 sub.

It contains bigger cation than anionic part. O

62. Answer (2) C – NH
N-atom attached to three C-atoms.
63. Answer (1) Br CH3
at position of max. electrodensity @ ortho w.r.t.
At low pH, the –NH2 forms –NH3+.
– NH since p– is blocked.
64. Answer (2)
81. Answer (4)
Fact. 82. Answer (2)
65. Answer (2) Coupling reaction, azo dye formation.
–NH2 is ring-activating group due to +M. 83. Answer (4)
66. Answer (3) 84. Answer (4)
Fact. Fact.
67. Answer (2) 85. Answer (4)
Lone pair on N-atom is very much available. CHCl3 + KOH O2
RNH2 RN = C: R–N=C=O
68. Answer (2) :CCl2 + (Isocyanate)
KCl
Fact. +
69. Answer (2) H2O
86. Answer (3)
Fact.
Fact
70. Answer (1)
87. Answer (4)
Fact.
Fact
71. Answer (3)
88. Answer (4)
Aspartame is 100 times sweeter than sugar.
Fact
Alitame is 2000 times sweeter than sugar. 89. Answer (2)
72. Answer (3) Fact
Fact. 90. Answer (2)
73. Answer (3) A is CH3 – CH2 – C – CH2 – CH3
Fact. O
74. Answer (2) OH
Fact. B is CH3 – CH2 – C – CH2 – CH3
75. Answer (4)
CH3
Fact.
C is R2BH in ether followed by H2O2, OH–.

(3)
 BOTANY
91. Answer (3) 114. Answer (3)
Catalytic converter converts unburnt hydrocarbons into Nitrates and phosphates.
CO2 and water.
115. Answer (1)
92. Answer (3)
Due to UV-radiation exposure.
To protect and improve the quality of our environment.
(air, water and soil). 116. Answer (3)
93. Answer (1) Man-made
94. Answer (2) 117. Answer (3)
95. Answer (3) Incinerators are used to burn hospital wastes.
PAN and ozone. 118. Answer (3)
96. Answer (3) Noise was included by 1987 amendment in Air act.
Automobiles cause air pollution. 119. Answer (3)
97. Answer (1) Snow blindness is due to inflammation of cornea.
PM or < 2.5 m 120. Answer (2)
98. Answer (3) Potable water.
El Nino 121. Answer (1)
99. Answer (2) With increase in DO, BOD decreases
Basal convention regulates movement of hazardous 122. Answer (3)
non-radioactive waste.
Electrostatic precipitator removes particulate matter.
Ramsar convention for protection of unique wetlands.
123. Answer (2)
100. Answer (4)
COP-18 in 2012 at Qatar, Doha.
Biochemical oxygen demand.
101. Answer (3) 124. Answer (1)
It has contributed to deforestation. 0.1% solid waste makes domestic sewage unfit for
human use.
102. Answer (2)
125. Answer (4)
Participation of local communities.
Both individuals and communities from rural areas.
103. Answer (1)
Due to absorption of UV-B by cornea. 126. Answer (3)
104. Answer (3) By improving efficiency of energy usage.
Arsenic causes Black foot desease. 127. Answer (2)
105. Answer (2) It allows maximum utilisation of resources.
Ozone, PAN Nitrogen oxide constitute photochemical 128. Answer (1)
smog. UV rays for O3 and PAN formation. Long wave infra-red radiation.
106. Answer (2) 129. Answer (4)
Algal bloom is caused due to large amount of nutrients. Electronic wastes can be recycled.
107. Answer (4) 130. Answer (3)
Toxic substances are not metabolised and excreted Polyblend is fine powder of recycled modified plastic.
so move to higher trophic level.
131. Answer (1)
108. Answer (2)
Sulphur and aromatic content.
Involves primary, secondary & tertiary treatment.
132. Answer (2)
109. Answer (3)
110. Answer (2) Can damage the Eardrums.
Lake B is a young lake and so supports little life. 133. Answer (4)
111. Answer (1) Jhum cultivation causes deforestation.
112. Answer (3) 134. Answer (2)
Ecosan uses dry composting method. 135. Answer (4)
113. Answer (4) Trees could hold a lot of carbon in their biomass which
CFCs are lost with deforestation.
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 ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (4) 157. Answer (4)
137. Answer (3) 158. Answer (4)
138. Answer (3) Restriction enzymes attack sugar phosphate
lac z-gene produces galactosidase that backbone of DNA strands.
metabolises lactose. 159. Answer (2)
139. Answer (2) 160. Answer (3)
Sampling ports in bioreactors are meant for 161. Answer (3)
withdrawing biotechnological product.
Steam prevents contamination of culture.
140. Answer (2)
162. Answer (3)
141. Answer (4)
142 Answer (3) 163. Answer (3)

d and e are used to transform animal cells. 164. Answer (3)

143. Answer (4) 165. Answer (4)

144. Answer (3) 166. Answer (2)
145. Answer (2) 167. Answer (4)
146. Answer (3) 168. Answer (2)
In Flavr savr, a native gene of tomato has been 169. Answer (3)
silenced.
170. Answer (2)
147. Answer (3)
171. Answer (3)
148. Answer (2)
172. Answer (3)
149. Answer (4)
173. Answer (4)
150. Answer (2)
174. Answer (4)
151. Answer (1)
175. Answer (2)
Gene for human  lactalbumin was done in Rosie.
152. Answer (2) 176. Answer (4)

153. Answer (2) 177. Answer (3)

154. Answer (2) 178. Answer (3)
155. Answer (3) 179. Answer (2)
156. Answer (3) 180. Answer (2)

  

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