04/07/2016

A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 15 Time : 3 Hrs.

[NEET (Phase-2)-2016]

Topics Covered :
Physics : Optics
Chemistry : Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
Botany : Ecosystem, Biodiversity and conservation
Zoology : Human Health & Disease: Cancer, HIV and AIDS, Adolescence and drug/alcohol abuse, Apiculture and
Animal husbandry

Instructions :
(i) Use Blue/Black ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. When light waves travelling in air suffer reflection at 4. What is the lateral magnification when the object is
the interface between air and glass. The change of placed at 3f from the pole of a convex mirror?
phase of reflected wave is equal to
1 2
 (1) (2)
(1)  (2) 3 3
2
(3) 2 (4) Zero 1 1
(3) (4)
2. One cannot see through fog because 2 4
(1) The refractive index of fog is infinity 5. Two thin convex lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are
placed at a distance d between them. For the power of
(2) Light suffers total reflection at the droplet in fog
combination to be zero, the focal length f1 should be
(3) Fog absorbs light
(1) d – f2 (2) d + f2
(4) Light is scattered by the droplets in fog
3. A point source of light is placed 4 m below the (3) d  f2 (4) d 2  f22
5 6. In the Young’s double slit experiment, the distance
surface of water of refractive index . The minimum
3 of nth dark fringe from the central maximum is
radius of a disc, which should be placed over the
source, on the surface of water to cut off all light D D
(1) (2n  1) (2) (2n  1)
coming out of water is 2d d
(1) 2 m (2) 3 m D 
(3) (2n  1) (4) (2n  1)
(3) 4 m (4) 5 m 3d d
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Test-15 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
7. Which of the following is conserved when light waves 13. The angle of prism is 30°. The rays incident at 60°
interfere? on one refracting surface suffer a deviation of 30°.
(1) Phase (2) Intensity What is the angle of emergence?

(3) Amplitude (4) Both (1) & (3) (1) 0° (2) 15°
8. The intensity of each coherent source is I0. Which (3) 30° (4) 60°
of the following gives the intensity at a point where
14. Which colour is scattered the most in air?
the phase difference between the superposing waves
is ? (1) Blue (2) Green

 (3) Red (4) Yellow

(1) I0(1 + sin) (2) 2I0 cos2
2 15. If the radius of curvature of convex surface of a plano
 ⎛ ⎞ convex lens is – 0.15 m and refractive index is 1.5,
(3) 2I0 sin2 (4) 4I0 ⎜ 1  sin2 ⎟ then what is the focal length of plano convex lens.
2 ⎝ 2⎠
(1) 0.5 m (2) 0.3 m
c
9. If speed of light in medium b is , where
3 (3) 0.7 m (4) 0.8 m
c = speed of light in vacuum and light refracts from 16. Which of the following undergoes largest diffraction?
medium a to medium b making angle of incidence
(1) Radio waves (2) Infra red light
45° and angle of refraction 60° respectively with the
normal, then what is the speed of light in medium a ? (3) Ultraviolet light (4) -rays

2c 3 3 17. A tank of height 40 m is filled with oil fully. If the

(1) (2)
3 3 2c 4
refractive index of oil is. The bottom of the tank
3c 4c 3
(3) (4) appears to be x m below its top. Then value of x is
3 2 3
10. A concave lens with unequal radii of curvature made (1) 40 m (2) 30 m
of glass (g = 1.5) has a focal length of 40 cm. If it (3) 20 m (4) 50 m
is immersed in a liquid of refractive index  = 2, then
18. Two lenses having powers +8 D and –6 D
(1) It behaves like a convex lens of 20 cm focal respectively are placed in contact. The power of the
length combination is
(2) It behaves like a convex lens of 80 cm focal
(1) –2 D (2) +2 D
length
(3) +8 D (4) +6 D
(3) It behave like a concave lens of 20 cm focal
length 19. The graph between u and v for a convex mirror is
(4) It behave like a concave lens of 80 cm focal
v v
length
f f f f
11. From the Brewster’s law it follows that the angle of
(1) (2)
polarisation depends on u u
(1) Plane of vibration
(2) Plane of polarisation
v v
(3) Frequency f f
f f
(4) Wavelength (3) (4)
u u
12. An unpolarised beam of intensity I0 is incident on a
polariser and analyser placed in contact. The angle
between the transmission axes of the polariser and 20. Resolving power of a microscope depends upon
analyser is . What is the intensity of the light (1) Inversely as wavelength of light used
emerging out of the analyser?
(2) Focal length of objective
(1) I0 (2) I0sin
(3) Aperture of the eye piece
I0
(3) I0 – sin2 (4) (1  sin2 )
2 (4) Directly as wavelength of light used
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Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-15 (Code A)
21. If the telescope is reversed such that seen from the 27. Light is incident on a glass block as shown in figure.
objective side If 1 is increased slightly, what happens to 2?
(1) Image will be slightly greater than the earlier one
1
(2) Object will appear very small
(3) Object will appear very large
(4) There will be no effect on the image formed by
the telescope 2
22. Two waves of equal amplitude and frequency interfere
each other. The ratio of intensity when the two waves
arrive in phase to that when they arrive 90° out of
(1) 2 also increases slightly
phase is
(2) 2 is unchanged
2 3
(1) (2) (3) 2 decreases slightly
1 1
1 3 (4) 2 changes abruptly, since the ray experiences
(3) (4) total internal reflection
2 1
23. The coherent waves at position x = 0 represented by 28. What is the angle of deviation for an equilateral

y1 = 5sin(50t) and y2 = 10cos(50t) have a phase prism of refractive index 3 , so that the ray is
difference of parallel to the base inside the prism?
(1) 0 (2)  (1) 60º (2) 30º

  (3) 45º (4) 90º

(3) (4)
2 3 29. If the Brewster’s polarising angle be , then the
24. A convex mirror has focal length 15 cm in air. What critical angle is
will be the focal length of the mirror in oil of refractive
(1) (90 – 2) (2) sin–1 (tan )
5
index ?
3 (3) sin–1 (cot ) (4) sin–1 (cos )
(1) 10 cm 30. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on one
(2) 45 cm face of a prism of small angle A and emerges
normally from the opposite surface. If the refractive
(3) 9 cm index of the material of the prism is , the angle of
(4) 15 cm incidence i is nearly equal to

25. Critical angle of light passing from glass to air is A

minimum for (1) A (2)
µ
(1) Violet colour (2) Red colour
(3) Green colour (4) Yellow colour 2µ A
(3) (4)
A 2µ
26. The focal length of lens shown in figure is
31. A person cannot see objects clearly beyond 50 cm.
R1 = 10 cm R2 = 10 cm The power of the lens to correct the vision is
(1) –1 D (2) –2 D

x (3) –3 D (4) +5 D
 =1 =1
32. The lateral magnification of the objective lens is 5.
3 Focal length of eye-piece is 5 cm and the image is
= formed at a distance of distinct vision of 25 cm. The
2
angular magnification of compound microscope is
(1) –15 cm (2) –10 cm (1) 15 (2) 20
(3) –12 cm (4) –20 cm (3) 30 (4) 40

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Test-15 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
33. If two coherent waves each of intensity I0 having the 39. The angle  made by the light ray when it gets
same frequency but differing by a constant phase refracted from water to air as shown in figure is
angle 60º superpose at a certain point in space, then
Air
the intensity of resultant wave is =1
(1) 2I0 (2) 4I0 
(3) 3I0 (4) 2I0
⎛3⎞ Water
sin–1 ⎜ ⎟
34. In Young’s double slit experiment, the 5th maximum ⎝5⎠ 4
=
with wavelength 1 is at a distance d1 and that with 3
⎛ λ1 ⎞
⎛3⎞ 1 ⎛ 4 ⎞
wavelength 2 is at a distance d2, then ⎜⎝ λ ⎟⎠ is (1)   sin–1 ⎜ ⎟ (2)   sin ⎜ ⎟
2
⎝5⎠ ⎝5⎠

d1 d2
–1 ⎛ 5 ⎞
(1) d (2) d (3)  = 0º (4)   cos ⎜ ⎟
2 1 ⎝4⎠

d12 d 22 40. For a small angled prism having angle of prism A,

(3) (4) the angle of minimum deviation () varies with the
d 22 d12
refractive index () of the prism as shown in the
35. When an unpolarized light of intensity I0 is incident graph. Which of the following is correct?
on a polarising sheet, the intensity of the light which
does not get transmitted is
Q
I0
(1) (2) 2 I0 
2

I0
(3) (4) 4I0
2
O P 
36. An under-water swimmer cannot see very clearly
(1) Slope = A
even in absolutely clear water because of
(2) Point P corresponds to  = 2
(1) Change in the power of eye lens
A
(2) Absorption of light in water (3) Slope of the line PQ =
2
(3) Scattering of light in water A
(4) Slope of the line PQ =
(4) Reduction of speed of light in water 2
37. Two light beams of intensities I1 and I2 produce an 41. Two similar plano-convex lenses are combined
interference pattern. The contrast between the together in three different ways as shown in the
fringes is the best, when adjoining figure. The ratio of the focal lengths in three
cases will be
2I2
(1) I1 =
3

I2
(2) I1 =
2 (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) I1 = I2 (1) 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 2 : 2
(4) I2 = 4I1 (3) 3 : 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 : 3

38. A concave lens produces an image half the size of 42. The chromatic aberration in lenses is due to
the real object. The distance of the real objects is (1) Dissimilarity of radii of curvature
20 cm. What is the focal length of concave lens?
(2) Dissimilarity of main axis of rays
(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm (3) Variation of focal length of lenses with wavelength
(3) 30 cm (4) 15 cm (4) All of these
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Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-15 (Code A)
43. The longitudinal chromatic aberration of the lens is 45. A slab of glass of thickness 6 cm and refractive index
1.6 cm. The dispersive power of the material of lens
3
of focal length 20 cm is is placed infront of a concave mirror. The faces
2
(1) 0.06 (2) 0.04
of the slab being perpendicular to the principle axis
(3) 0.03 (4) 0.08 of the mirror. If the radius of curvature of the mirror
44. The minimum deviation produced by a hollow is 40 cm and the reflected image coincides with the
equilateral prism filled with a certain liquid is found object then distance of the object from the mirror is
to be 30º. The refractive index of the liquid is
(1) 42 cm
1
(1) (2) 2 (2) 45 cm
2
(3) 50 cm
3 3
(3) (4)
2 2 (4) 40 cm

CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following compounds represent CCl3
cyclohexanecarbaldehyde? Cl
CHO CHO (3) CH3 – C – CH3 (4)
Cl CCl3 CCl3
(1) (2)
C(CH3)3
–
CHO 51. KMnO4/OH
CH2CHO

What is produced in the above reaction?

(3) (4)
COOH
CHO
47. Which of the following does not give positive test (1)
with Fehling’s solution?
(1) Acetaldehyde CHO
(2) 2-Phenylethanol
(3) Benzenecarbaldehyde (2)

(4) Isobutyraldehyde
COCH3
48. Which of the following is the least reactive in
nucleophilic addition reaction?
(3)
(1) Formaldehyde
(2) Propanone (4) Reaction does not take place
(3) Benzaldehyde
P2O5 H+
(4) Acetic acid 52. CH3CONH2 A B
H2O
Mo2O3
49. In the reaction CH4 + O2 The products A and B are respectively
A + H2O
, Pressure
(1) CH3NH2, CH3OH
Compound A in the above reaction is
(2) CH3CN, CH3COOH
(1) HCHO (2) CH3CHO
(3) (CH3)2NH, CH3COCH3
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) CH3COOH
(4) CH3CH2NC, CH3CH2NH2
50. Which of the following is formed when acetone is
condensed with chloroform in alkaline medium? 53. Reaction of RCN with Grignard reagent followed by
acidic hydrolysis gives
CH3 CH3 OH
C (1) Ketone (2) Primary amine
(1) C = CHCI (2)
CH3 CH3 CCl3 (3) Alkyl isocyanide (4) Acidamide

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Test-15 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
54. A compound (X) C6H12O forms DNP derivative and 62. Which of the following reagents can be used for
gives negative Tollen’s test but positive iodoform test. separation and purification of carbonyl compounds?
(1) Hexan-2-one (2) 2-methylpentan-3-one (1) NaHSO3 (2) RNH2
(3) Hexan-3-one (4) 2-methylpentanal (3) NH2NH2 (4) HCN
55. Reaction of acetylchloride with diethylcadmium gives
63. In the reaction
(1) Acetone (2) Butanone
NaOH
HCHO  C 6H5 CHO  A B
(3) Butanal (4) Butanoic acid (Conc.)

56. For the reaction A and B in the above reaction are

[H]
CH3 COOCH2 CH2 CHO  CH3COOCH2CH2CH2OH
(1) HCOO–Na+, C6H5CH2OH
(2) CH3OH, C6H5COO–Na+
The most suitable reducing agent is
(3) CH3OH, C6H5CH2OH
(1) NaBH4 (2) LiAlH4
(3) H2, Ni (4) Zn-Hg, Conc. HCl (4) HCOO–Na+, C6H5COO–Na+
+ 64. The formation of hemiacetals from aldehydes is an
Ag H , H2O
57. For the reaction, CHI3 A B example of
 Hg
2+

(1) Nucleophilic addition

The final product B is
(2) Electrophilic addition
(1) HCHO (2) CH3CHO
(3) Nucleophilic substitution
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) CH3COOH
(4) Electrophilic substitution
58. In which of the following reactions, carboxylic acid
salt is obtained as one of the products? 65. A compound (A) with the molecular formula C3H8O
on mild oxidation gives a carbonyl compound (B)
CH MgCl
(1) RCN 
3
 with formula C3H6O which on further mild oxidation
I gives an acid with formula C3H6O2. The compound
(2) CH3CHO 
2
NaOH
 (A) may be
CH OH
(3) CH3 CHO 
3
 (1) Primary alcohol (2) Secondary alcohol
H

HI
(3) Tertiary alcohol (4) Ether
(4) CH3 COCH3 
Red P

66. In which of the following solvents a carboxylic acid
59. Which of the following can give HVZ-reaction? cannot dimerise?
CH3 (1) C6H6 (2) CCl4
(1) CH3 – C – COOH (2) CH3 – CH – COOH (3) H2O (4) CH3COCH3
CH3 CH3 67. Which of the following compound is a
(3) C6H5COOH (4) HCOOH monocarboxylic acid stabilized by intramolecular
60. Which of the following acids has the least pKa value? hydrogen bonding and is used to prepare an
analgesic?
COOH COOH
(1) Picric acid (2) Salicylic acid
(1) (2) (3) Succinic acid (4) Fumaric acid
OCH3 68. Vinegar is a solution of
COOH (1) Benzoic acid (2) Acetic acid

(3) (4) CH3COOH (3) Formic acid (4) Formaldehyde

NO2 69. For the reaction
61. The function of H+ in nucleophilic addition reaction is NH PO H
C6H5COOH 

3
 A 
2 5

 B 
H O
 C.
(1) To help in the generation of CN– nucleophile 2

(2) To increase electrophilicity of carbonyl carbon The product C is

(3) To increase nucleophilicity of carbonyl oxygen (1) C6H5NH2 (2) C6H5CONH2
(4) To stabilize cyanohydrin (3) C6H5CN (4) C6H5COOH
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Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-15 (Code A)
70. Which of the following carbonyl compound forms 79. Addition of ammonia derivatives to carbonyl
urotropine on reaction with ammonia? compounds takes place in
(1) CH2O (2) CH3CHO (1) Strongly acidic medium
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) CH3CH2CHO (2) Weakly acidic medium
71. Which of the following set of reactants will undergo (3) Strongly alkaline medium
esterification with maximum ease? (4) Moderately alkaline medium
(1) HCOOH + CH3OH 80. Which of the following does not give pink colour with
(2) CH3COOH + CH3OH Schiff’s reagent?

(3) (CH3)2CHCOOH + (CH3)2CHOH (1) CH3COOH (2) CH3COCH3

(4) (CH3)3C–COOH + (CH3)3C–OH (3) C6H5COCH3 (4) All of these

72. Which of the following is the least resonance 81. Which of the following reaction involves proton
stabilized? transfer in the intermediate stage?
HCN
(1) C6H5COO– (2) HCOO– (1) CH 3 CHO  
 
OH

(3) CH3CHO (4) CH3COO– NaHSO

(2) CH3 CHO 
3

73. Which of the following reaction involves the formation

of a carbanion nucleophile as the attacking reagent? (3) CH3 COONa  (aq.) 
electrolysis

( Anode)
(1) Cannizzaro reaction Zn Hg
(4) CH3 COCH3  
conc. HCl
(2) Aldol condensation
82. Benzoic acid can be obtained on large scale by the
(3) Esterification reaction alkaline hydrolysis of
(4) Kolbe electrolysis
(1) Ethylacetate (2) Chloral
74. In Gattermann-Koch reaction, the attacking
(3) Benzotrichloride (4) Toluene
electrophile is

83. Consider the following reaction sequence.
(1) H – C  O (2) CO CH Cl (i) CrO Cl /CS
C6H6 
3 (A) 
2 2

2 (B)
 anh.AlCl3 (ii)H3O
(3) CO+ (4) COCl
conc.HCl Zn-Hg
75. The reducing agent used in Stephen reaction is H3O+ KMnO4
(E) (D) KOH
(C)
(1) Sn + HCl (2) SnCl2 + HCl
In which of the following set of products the phenyl
(3) Zn/conc. HCl (4) Fe + HCl ring is deactivated due to –R effect and is meta
directing?
76. Which of the following is the most reactive toward
nucleophilic substitution? (1) (A) and (B) (2) (B) and (C)
(1) (CH3CO)2O (2) CH3CONH2 (3) (B) and (E) (4) (C) and (E)

(3) CH3COCl (4) CH3COOC2H5 84. For the reaction

dry RCOCI (i) (A)
RX  Mg    B  
(A)  (C)
(i) HCN ether (ii)H2O
+ (A)
(ii) H3O The product (C) is
77. RMgx
(i) RCN (1) Carboxylic acid (2) Ketone
+
(B)
(ii) H3O
(3) Tertiary alcohol (4) Secondary alcohol
Products (A) & (B) are respectively 85. The function of a sodium cyanide and a mineral acid
in the formation of cyanohydrin when reacts with
(1) Aldehyde, aldehyde (2) Ketone, ketone
carbonyl compound is
(3) Aldehyde, ketone (4) Ketone, aldehyde (1) To increase electrophilicity of carbonyl carbon
78. Ketones on reduction with HI in the presence of red (2) To absorb water so as to prevent the backward
phosphorous gives reaction
(1) Alcohols (2) Alkanes (3) To generate HCN in-situ
(3) Aldehydes (4) Enol isomers (4) To stabilise the tetrahedral intermediate

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Test-15 (Code A)
COOH
86. The IUPAC name of the compound
(1) 2-Carboxycyclohexanoic acid
(2) Cyclohexane-1,2- dicarboxylic acid
(3) Cyclohexane-1,2-dioic acid
(4) 1,2 di-carboxycyclic-hexane
87. The formation of cyclic ketals from carbonyl
compounds is an example of
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
(1) CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH2 – CONH2
COOH is (2) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – NH2
(3) CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH2 – CHO
(4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH2 – CH2NH2
89. Pent-2-yne upon hydroboration-oxidation gives the
major product as
(1) Pentan-2-one (2) Pentan-3-one
(3) Pentanal (4) Pentan-2ol

(1) Nucleophilic addition 90. A carbonyl compound (A) with the molecular formula
C 8 H 8 O on oxidation with acidified potassium
(2) Nucleophilic substitution
dichromate gives a carboxylic acid (B). The
(3) Electrophilic addition compound (A) gives positive iodoform test and also
(4) Electrophilic substitution gives tertiary alcohol on reaction with Grignard
reagent. The molecular formula of the compound (B)
88. CH3 – CH = CH – CH2 – CH2 – CN
may be
(i)DIBAL  H
 Product (1) C8H8O2 (2) C7H6O2
(ii)H2O

The product formed is (3) C8H15O2 (4) C7H14O2

BOTANY
91. Decomposers in ponds are 96. Select the incorrect statement
(1) Bacteria (1) Source of energy is sun in detritus food chain
(2) Flagellates (2) Jackals are both carnivores and scavengers
(3) Fungi (3) Ecological pyramid does not accommodate a
(4) More than one option is correct food web
92. Ecosystem maintains functional balance or (4) Carbon constitutes 49% of dry weight of
homeostasis because organisms
(1) Carring capacity 97. Each trophic level has a certain mass of nonliving
(2) Self regulation material at a particular time which is called
(3) Feedback (1) Standing state
(4) More than one option is correct (2) Standing crop
93. Which of the following is not functional aspect of
(3) Standing quality
ecosystem?
(1) Decomposition (2) Energy flow (4) More than one option is correct

(3) Nutrient cycling (4) Stratification 98. Which of the following factor decrease rate of
decomposition?
94. Which one is the characteristic of artificial
ecosystem? (1) High temperature
(1) High productivity (2) Nitrogen rich detritus
(2) Highly complex food chain (3) Moisture
(3) Cycling of nutrients is more (4) Anaerobic condition
(4) More diversity
99. Pyramid for biomass in tree ecosystem is
95. Rate of organic matter synthesized by producers
(1) Inverted (2) Upright
per unit area per unit time is
(1) Gross primary productivity (3) Spindle shape (4) Urn shape

(2) Net primary productivity 100. Part of PAR captured by plants is

(3) Secondary productivity (1) 2% - 10% (2) 1% - 2%
(4) Community productivity (3) 50% (4) 0.5% - 1%
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Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-15 (Code A)
101. Reed swamp stage during succession is followed by 109. NPP is higher in
(1) Submerged plant (1) C4 plants
(2) Submerged free floating (2) C3 plants
(3) Marsh meadow (3) CAM plants
(4) Forest (4) C2 plants
102. Pioneer species for lithosere is
110. T4
(1) Phytoplanktons (2) Lichens T3
T2
(3) Zooplanktons (4) Mosses
T1
103. Chief reservoir is Earth’s crust for ________ cycling.
Given imaginary pyramid could be with more than
(1) Carbon (2) Oxygen
one possibilities as are below. How many of them
(3) Phosphorus (4) Nitrogen are correct interpretations?
104. Find the correct statement w.r.t. secondary (1) Representing aquatic ecosystem for biomass
succession.
(2) Not applicable for forest ecosystem (w.r.t. energy
(1) Has more seral stages pyramid)
(2) Rate of succession is much slower (3) For grassland ecosystem this is correct
(3) Since some soil or sediment is present, it is representation for pyramid of number but not
faster of biomass.
(4) Lichen is pioneer species (4) Representing pyramid of number for pond.
105. Which of the following is a shortcomings of 111. Xerach succession will progress from _____ to
ecological pyramid? ______ condition.
(1) Does not assume a simple food chain (1) Xeric, Mesic (2) Xeric, Hydric
(2) Saprophytes are not given any place (3) Hydric, Mesic (4) Haloseric, Xeric
(3) Species belonging to more than one trophic 112. Find incorrect statement w.r.t. primary succession.
levels are considered
(1) Lichen is pioneer community in lithosere
(4) Both (2) & (3)
(2) Formation of soil does not take place
106. Insectivorous plants are
(1) Primary producer (3) The establishment of new biotic community is
generally slow
(2) Secondary consumer
(4) With time water body is converted into land
(3) Secondary producer
113. Annual fixation of carbon through photosynthesis in
(4) More than one option is correct
biosphere is
107. Which of the following is common feature of DFC
(1) 4 × 103 kg (2) 4 × 1013 kg
and GFC?
(3) 4 × 1030 kg (4) 4 × 10 kg
(1) Major conduit for energy flow in aquatic
ecosystem 114. Out of the total cost of various ecosystem services
(2) Size of organism commonly increase at higher nutrient cycling account for
trophic level (1) 50% (2) Less than 10%
(3) Source of energy is Sun (3) 16% (4) 20%
(4) Always begins with producers 115. Which of the following statement for humus is
108. Maximum contribution out of the total cost of various correct?
ecosystem services is for (1) Highly resistant to microbial action
(1) Soil formation
(2) Undergoes decomposition at an extremely rapid
(2) Nutrient cycling rate
(3) Climate regulation (3) It is not colloidal in nature
(4) Habitat for wildlife (4) It is further degraded by detrivores
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Test-15 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
116. Select the wrong option w.r.t. biodiversity 121. India has only ______ of the world’s land area, its
(1) Immense diversity exists only at the species share of the global species diversity is 8.1 percent.
level (1) 24% (2) 8.1%
(2) This term was popularised by Edward Wilson (3) 2.4% (4) 12%
(3) Heterogeneity exists at all levels of biological 122. How many animal species recorded from India?
organisation
(1) More than 45,000 (2) More than 90,000
(4) Studied at all the levels of biological organisation
(3) Less than 45,000 (4) Less than 90,000
117. Consider the following statements w.r.t. genetic
diversity 123. Midwest of USA represents
a. A single species might show low diversity at the (1) Tropical rain forest
genetic level.
(2) Tropical deciduous forest
b. Rauwolfia vomitoria show variation in the terms
of potency. (3) Grassland

c. Rauwolfia vomitoria show variation in the terms (4) Temperate forest

of concentration of active chemical reserpine. 124. Extinction of more than 200 species of Cichlid fish
d. India has 1000 varieties of mango. in a lake of East Africa occurred because of
introduction of
How many are correct?
(1) Carrot grass (2) Clarias
(1) Three (2) Two
(3) Four (4) One (3) Nile Perch (4) Eupatorium

118. According to IUCN (2004), the total number of plant 125. World Summit on sustainable development was held
and animal species described are in

(1) Slightly less than 1.5 million (1) Johannesburg in year 2002
(2) 17-18 million (2) Rio-de-Janeiro in year 1992
(3) 20-50 million (3) New York in year 2002
(4) Slightly more than 1.5 million (4) Canada in year 1987
119. According to Robert May the global species diversity 126. Which statement is wrong w.r.t. biodiversity?
at about
(1) Amphibians species are endemic to Western
(1) 1.7 million (2) 20-50 million Ghats
(3) 70 million (4) 7 million (2) Amazonian rain forest has the greatest
120. Identify A, B, C and D in the given pie chart. biodiversity on earth
(3) Diversity decreases from high to low altitudes
A (4) Genetic diversity helps in the formation of
B ecotype
Fishes 127. Which is wrong option about biosphere reserve?
C
(1) Biosphere reserves were launched in 1975 under
D
Man and Biosphere programme (MAB)
(2) There are 13 biosphere reserves in India
(1) A – Birds B – Mammals
(3) Buffer zone surrounds the core zone
C – Reptiles D – Amphibians
(4) Transition zone is an area of active cooperation
(2) A – Amphibians B – Birds
between reserve management and local peoples
C – Reptiles D – Mammals
128. Exploring molecular genetic and species level
(3) A – Mammals B – Birds diversity for products of economic importance is
C – Reptiles D – Mammals called
(4) A – Reptiles B – Mammals (1) Agroforestry (2) Phytoremediation
C – Amphibians D – Birds (3) Bioprospecting (4) Bioremediation
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Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-15 (Code A)
129. In the given below figure what does A and B indicate 132. Sample plot with maximum biodiversity is
w.r.t. invertebrate?
(1) Parrot = 16, Beetles = 8, Crow = 16 , Deer = 8
(2) Pigeon = 8, Crow = 12, Lizard = 10
B (3) Elephant = 4, Insect = 4, Lizard = 4, Crow = 4

A (4) Lion = 8, Aphids = 8, Deer = 20

133. Value of Z for frugivorous birds in tropical forests of
different continents is
(1) 1.15 (2) 0.6 to 1.2
(1) A – Insects B – Poriferan
(3) 0.1 to 0.2 (4) 1.2
(2) A – Crustacean B – Insect
(3) A – Insect B – Crustacean 134. Which of the following is not a reason for the loss
of biodiversity?
(4) A – Insect B – Coelenterants
130. Mark the correct one w.r.t. hot spots (1) Habitat fragmentation

(1) They cover more than 2% of the earth’s land area
but if they are properly conserved, they will
reduce extinction by about 30%
(2) As many as six hot spots are located in the
tropics
(3) Three hot spots in India are Indo-Burma, Western
ghats and Sri Lanka and Himalaya
(4) The key criteria for determining a hot spot are
low endemism and high level of species richness
131. Mark the incorrect match
(1) Lungs of the planet – Amazon rain forest
(2) Alien species – Lantana, Parthenium
(3) Recent extinctions – Dodo, Steller’s sea cow
(4) Cryopreservation – In-situ conservation
(2) Over harvesting of many marine fishes
(3) Introduction of Nile perch into lake Victoria
(4) Coevolution
135. Identify the incorrect statement
(1) Taxon facing extremely high risk of extinction in
the wild in the immediate future is called
critically endangered
(2) Taxon facing very high risk of extinction in wild
in near future is called endangered
(3) Presently 23% of all amphibian species in the
world face the threat of extinction
(4) A taxon which has not yet been assessed is
known as not evaluated

ZOOLOGY
136. AIDS virus studied under which group of viruses? 140. Cocaine interferes with the transport of the neuro-
(1) Retrovirus (2) Arthrovirus transmitter
(3) Rhino virus (4) Arbovirus (1) Acetylcholine
137. There is always a time-lag between the infection and (2) Vassopressin
appearance of AIDS symptoms, which is
(1) 5-6 days (3) Dopamine
(2) 10-20 week (4) Insulin
(3) Few months to many years 141. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. tobacco.
(4) 50-60 years
(1) Associated with increased risk of cancer of the
138. Which of the following cell acts like an HIV factory? oral cavity
(1) Helper T-cells (2) Cytotoxic-T-cells
(2) Its smoking increases carbon monoxide (CO)
(3) B-lymphocytes (4) Macrophages
content in blood and increases the concentration
139. Which technique uses strong magnetic fields and of haem bound oxygen
non-ionising radiations to accurately detect pathological
and physiological changes in the living tissue? (3) Its use raise blood pressure and increase heart
rate
(1) Radiography (2) Computed tomography
(3) MRI (4) Biopsy (4) All of these
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Test-15 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
142. The most common warning signs of drug and alcohol 151. Which new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by
abuse among youth include crossing Bikaneri ewes and Merino rams?
(a) Drop in academic performance (1) Hisardale (2) Aseel
(b) Lack of interest in personal hygiene (3) Giriraja (4) Bos indicus
(c) Aggressive and rebellious behaviour 152. Which of the following is the exotic breed of cattle?
(d) Stability in weight and appetite
(1) Jersey (2) Deoni
(e) Deteriorating relationships with family and friends
(3) Sahiwal (4) Gir
(1) (a), (b), (c) & (e) (2) Only (a) & (b)
153. “Operation flood” is related with
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c), (d) & (e)
(1) Karl von Frisch (2) Dr. V. Kurein
143. In which type of psychological disorder, a person
showing unpredictable moods, out bursts of emotion, (3) G.L. Cuvier (4) Ernest Haeckel
quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts with other 154. Which type of hormone is used in multiple ovulation
(1) Schizophrenia embryo transfer (MOET)?
(2) Borderline personality disorder (1) Pineal hormone
(3) Attention deficit disorder (2) FSH-like hormone
(4) Anxiety disorder (3) ACTH like hormone
144. Novacaine drug is a type of (4) Thyroxine like hormone
(1) Stimulant (2) Opiate narcotic 155. Cancer cells can easily be destroyed by radiations
(3) Hallucinogen (4) Sedative because they show
145. Which type of hepatitis virus has ds DNA? (1) Rapid cell division (2) Lack of nutrition
(1) HAV (2) HBV (3) Fast mutation (4) Lack of oxygen
(3) HCV (4) HDV 156. Artificial insemination was first introduced in India at
146. The most active ingredient Delta - 9 THC is present (1) Indian Veterinary Research Institute (Bareilly)
in
(2) National Dairy Research Institute (Karnal)
(1) Psilocybin (2) Marijuana
(3) Central Drug Research Institute (Lucknow)
(3) Morphine (4) Mescaline
147. Which drug induces a sense of well being or (4) Indian Agricultural Research Institute (Delhi)
euphoria and pleasure and delays fatigue? 157. Mark the wrong statement for honey bee
(1) Methadone (2) Codeine (1) Queen bee are diploid, fertile female
(3) Morphine (4) Cocaine (2) Drone bee are haploid, fertile males
148. Which type of cancer is related with lymphatic (3) Worker bee are diploid, sterile female and
system?
capable of producing eggs
(1) Epstein-Barr virus
(4) In queen bee egg laying organ is called
(2) Human papilloma virus ovipositor
(3) Kaposi’s sarcoma 158. Which of the following chemical can cause cancer of
(4) Hodgkin’s lymphoma prostate gland?
149. Cancer of CNS glial cells is called (1) Cadmium oxide (2) Asbestos
(1) Lymphoma (2) Melanoma (3) Aflatoxin (4) Vinyl chloride
(3) Glioma (4) Adenoma 159. Transmission of HIV infection generally does not
150. Continuous Inbreeding results in occur in case of
(1) Increases homozygosity (1) Individuals having multiple sexual partners
(2) Reduces fertility and productivity (2) Drug addicts who take drugs intravenously dru
(3) Causes inbreeding depression (3) Individuals who require repeated blood transfusion
(4) All of these (4) Physical contact or by sharing food
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Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-15 (Code A)
160. When cancerous cells sloughed from tumors and 166. Given below are the chemical structures of certain
reach distant sites through blood, and wherever they drugs A and B. Identify the drugs and mark the
get loged in the body they start a new tumor there. incorrect option
This property is called CH3 O
CH3
(1) Metagenesis N O
H O
(2) Metamorphosis
(3) Metachrosis O
H
(4) Metastasis (A)
161. Mark the incorrect statement OH
(1) MRI uses strong magnetic fields and ionising
radiations to accurately detect pathological and
physical changes in the living tissue
O
(2) Computed tomography uses X-rays to generate H
only a two dimensional image of an object (B)
(3) In biopsy a piece of the suspected tissue cut (1) A = Extract from the latex of poppy plant,
into thin sections is stained and examined under B = Type of cannabinoid
microscope by a chemist
(2) A = Binds to receptors present in our CNS and
(4) All of these gastrointestinal tract, B = Shows hallucinogenic
property
162. Two anticancer drugs, vincristine and vinblastine,
(3) A = Type of stimulant, B = Its derivative is
mainly used in treatment of
dexamphetamine
(1) Throat cancer (4) All of these
(2) Cervix cancer 167. Which of the following hallucinogenic drug intake
(3) Lung cancer causes chromosomal and foetal abnormalities?
(1) Lysergic acid diethylamide
(4) Leukaemia
(2) Valium
163. The attachment of AIDS virus to CD4 receptor site is
(3) Methadone
by the help of __________ on the protein coat of the
virus. (4) Psilocybin

(1) gp120 (2) gp41 168. Intake of alcohol with aspirin causes
(1) Increased risk of damage of gastric mucosa
(3) P 17 (4) P 24
(2) Increased depressant effect
164. Which of the following plant does not show
hallucinogenic property? (3) Decreased insulin effect
(4) Impaired judgement
(1) Cannabis
169. Burkitt’s lymphoma is a cancer of white blood cells,
(2) Atropa belladonna which occurs by
(3) Papaver somniferum (1) EBV (2) HBV
(4) Datura (3) HPV (4) HIV

165. Due to intake of alcohol which hormone level 170. When mating is between closely related individuals
decreases in alcoholic persons? within the same breed for 4–6 generations, than it is
called
(1) Cortisol
(1) Out crossing
(2) Renin (2) Cross breeding
(3) Thyroxine (3) Interspecific hybridisation
(4) ADH, Vasopressin (4) Inbreeding

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Test-15 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
171. Which of the following is the cross breed between 175. Leghorn is an exotic breed of
Sahiwal cows with the semen of Brown swiss bulls? (1) Cattle (2) Honey bee
(1) Karan swiss (2) Sunandini (3) Fish (4) Chicken
(3) Karan fries (4) Frieswal 176. Which of the following is the disease of silkworm?
172. Pick out the correct statement for artificial (1) Pebrine (2) Muscardine
insemination
(3) Flacherie (4) All of these
(1) It helps us to overcome several problems of
177. In which legs of honeybee, pollen basket (corbicula)
normal mating
is present
(2) It is very economical
(1) Drone, hind legs (2) Worker, hind legs
(3) In this method semen may be used
(3) Queen, fore legs (4) Drone, fore legs
immediately or can be frozen and used at a later
date 178. Life span of queen bee is
(4) All of these (1) 57 days (2) 4 – 5 days
173. Bull sperm is stored in sperm banks at (3) 4 – 5 months (4) 2 – 5 years
(1) 41°C (2) 37°C 179. Shark liver oil and cod liver oil are natural sources of
(3) –196°C (4) 93°C (1) Vit-A (2) Vit-C

174. In poultry farming which disease occurs due to (3) Vit-D (4) All of these
bacterial infection? 180. Which of the following is/are the edible marine fish?
(1) Pullorum (2) Coccidiosis (1) Rohu (2) Singhi
(3) Mycosis (4) Perosis (3) Catla and Rohu (4) Hilsa/pomfret

  

(14)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Test-15 (Code A)

04/07/2016
A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 15 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.
[NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
ANSWERS
1. (1) 37. (3) 73. (2) 109. (1) 145. (2)
2. (4) 38. (2) 74. (1) 110. (4) 146. (2)
3. (2) 39. (2) 75. (2) 111. (1) 147. (4)
4. (4) 40. (1) 76. (3) 112. (2) 148. (4)
5. (1) 41. (1) 77. (3) 113. (2) 149. (3)
6. (1) 42. (3) 78. (2) 114. (2) 150. (4)
7. (2) 43. (4) 79. (2) 115. (1) 151. (1)
8. (4) 44. (2) 80. (4) 116. (1) 152. (1)
9. (1) 45. (1) 81. (2) 117. (1) 153. (2)
10. (2) 46. (2) 82. (3) 118. (4) 154. (2)
11. (4) 47. (3) 83. (3) 119. (4) 155. (1)
12. (4) 48. (4) 84. (3) 120. (3) 156. (1)
13. (1) 49. (1) 85. (3) 121. (3) 157. (3)
14. (1) 50. (2) 86. (2) 122. (2) 158. (1)
15. (2) 51. (4) 87. (1) 123. (4) 159. (4)
16. (1) 52. (2) 88. (3) 124. (3) 160. (4)
17. (2) 53. (1) 89. (1) 125. (1) 161. (4)
18. (2) 54. (1) 90. (2) 126. (3) 162. (4)
19. (2) 55. (2) 91. (4) 127. (2) 163. (1)
20. (1) 56. (1) 92. (4) 128. (3) 164. (3)
21. (2) 57. (2) 93. (4) 129. (3) 165. (4)
22. (1) 58. (2) 94. (1) 130. (3) 166. (3)
23. (3) 59. (2) 95. (1) 131. (4) 167. (1)
24. (4) 60. (3) 96. (1) 132. (3) 168. (1)
25. (1) 61. (2) 97. (4) 133. (1) 169. (1)
26. (2) 62. (1) 98. (4) 134. (4) 170. (4)
27. (3) 63. (1) 99. (2) 135. (3) 171. (1)
28. (1) 64. (1) 100. (1) 136. (1) 172. (4)
29. (3) 65. (1) 101. (3) 137. (3) 173. (3)
30. (1) 66. (3) 102. (2) 138. (4) 174. (1)
31. (2) 67. (2) 103. (3) 139. (3) 175. (4)
32. (3) 68. (2) 104. (3) 140. (3) 176. (4)
33. (3) 69. (4) 105. (2) 141. (2) 177. (2)
34. (1) 70. (1) 106. (4) 142. (1) 178. (4)
35. (3) 71. (1) 107. (2) 143. (2) 179. (4)
36. (1) 72. (3) 108. (1) 144. (1) 180. (4)

(15)
 04/07/2016
A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 720 Test Series : Test – 15 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.

[for NEET (Phase-2)-2016]

Answers and Hints

PHYSICS
1. Answer (1) 6. Answer (1)
2. Answer (4) 7. Answer (2)
3. Answer (2) 8. Answer (4)
1 I  I0  I0  2 I0 I0 cos 
 sin c 

2 
3 3 = 4I0 cos
sin c   tan c  2
5 4
⎛ ⎞
I  4I0 ⎜ 1  sin2 ⎟
⎝ 2⎠
x
9. Answer (1)
c asinia = bsinrb
4m
c c c
c sin 45  sin 60
va c
3
if x = radius of the disc
2c
3 va 
tan c  3 3
4
3 x 10. Answer (2)

4 4 R
fair 
x=3m 2( g  1)
4. Answer (4)
R
 40 
f ⎛3 ⎞
m 2 ⎜  1⎟
f u ⎝2 ⎠
f 1
=   R = 40 cm
f  ( 3f ) 4
R
5. Answer (1) fmedi 
⎛ ⎞
1 1 1 d 1 1 d 2 ⎜ g  1⎟
P    0⇒   ⎝ m ⎠
F f1 f2 f1f2 f1 f2 f1f2
= R × (–2)
d = f1 + f2
= 80 cm
f1  d  f2 f = 80 cm (behaves like a convex lens of focal
length 80 cm)
(1)
11. Answer (4) 25. Answer (1)

c 0 1 ⎛ 1⎞
tan  p     µ= ∵ μ ∝ ⎟ C minimum for violet colour,
v  sinC ⎝⎜ λ⎠
12. Answer (4) which has smaller wave length
Only 50% light passes through the polariser due to 26. Answer (2)
polarisation.
1 ⎧1 1 ⎫ ⎛3 ⎞⎛ 1 1⎞
13. Answer (1) = (μ – 1) ⎨ – ⎬ = ⎜ – 1⎟ ⎜ – ⎟⎠
f R
⎩ 1 R 2⎭
⎝ 2 ⎠ ⎝ –10 10
i+e=A+
60 + e = 30 + 30 f = – 10 cm

e = 0° 27. Answer (3)

14. Answer (1)
1
15. Answer (2)

1 ⎛1 1 ⎞
 1.5  1 ⎜ 
f ⎝  0.15 ⎟⎠ (90 – )
2
f = 0.3 m
16. Answer (1)
∵ 
As 1  increase
Larger wavelength, greater is the bending
 also increase
17. Answer (2)
So, (90 – )  decreases
dreal  2  decreases

dapparent
28. Answer (1)

dreal 40  3 ⎛ 60º + δ m ⎞
d apparent   m  30 m sin ⎜ ⎟⎠
 4 ⎝ 2
3=
⎛ 60º ⎞
sin ⎜
18. Answer (2) ⎝ 2 ⎟⎠
P = P1 + P2
= +8 D – 6 D
3
= sin
(60º + δm )
2 2
= +2 D
⎛ 60º + δm ⎞
19. Answer (2) sin 60º = sin ⎜ ⎟⎠
⎝ 2
As u goes from 0 to –.
δ m = 60º
v goes from +0 to +f
20. Answer (1) 29. Answer (3)
 = tan 
1
Resolving power  1
 = tan θ
sinC
21. Answer (2)
sin C = cot 
22. Answer (1)
C = sin–1(cot )
 I cos2 0 2 30. Answer (1)
I  4I0 cos2 ⇒ 1  
2 I2 90 1 As the ray emerges normally hence, e = 0
cos2
2 A+=i+e
23. Answer (3) A+=i
24. Answer (4) =i–A
Focal length of mirror does not depend on the ( – 1)A = i – A
refractive index.
i = A
(2)
31. Answer (2) 40. Answer (1)
1 1 1 At P,  = 0
– =
v u f  = A( – 1) = 0
For correcting for point u = – , v = – 50 cm
–1=0
1 1 1
– + =  f = – 50 cm =1
50 ∞ f
Also m = (m – 1)A
100 100
P= = = –2D
f –50 m   m A  A ....... (1)
32. Answer (3)
Comparing it with
Magnification of compound microscope = m0 × Me
y = mx + C ....... (2)
D ⎛ D⎞ ⎛ D⎞
Me = = 1+ = 1+  Slope of line = m = A
ue ⎝⎜ fe ⎠⎟ ⎝⎜ fe ⎠⎟
41. Answer (1)
⎛ 25 ⎞
= ⎜1 + ⎟=6 1 1 1
⎝ 5 ⎠
In each case, f = f + f
 Magnification of compound microscope = 5 × 6 1 2

= 30 42. Answer (3)

33. Answer (3)
1
f ∝
I = I0 + I0 + 2 ( )
I0 × I0 cos60º = 3I0 (μ – 1)
34. Answer (1) 1
∵ μ∝
5λ1D 5 λ 2D λ
5β1 = d1 = and 5β2 = d 2 = 43. Answer (4)
d d
λ1 d1 Longitudinal chromatic aberration = f
=
λ2 d2 1.6 =  × 20
35. Answer (3)  = 0.08
I0 44. Answer (2)
Intensity of polarised light =
2
I0 I0 ⎛ 60 + 30 ⎞
Intensity of transmitted light = I0 – = sin ⎜ ⎟⎠
2 2 ⎝ 2
μ=  µ= 2
36. Answer (1) 60
sin
37. Answer (3) 2
Imax = 4I0 45. Answer (1)
Imin = 0
38. Answer (2)
1 1 1
= –
f v u
u
v= , u = 20 cm O C
2
 v = 10 cm

1 1 1 2–1 1 40 cm
= – = = f = 20 cm x
f 10 20 20 20
39. Answer (2) ⎛ 1⎞
∆x = ⎜1– ⎟ t
w sin i = a sin  ⎝ μ⎠
4 3 4
sin θ = × = ⎛ 1 ⎞
3 5 5 = ⎜1– × 6 = 2 cm
⎝ 1.5 ⎟⎠
⎛4⎞
θ = sin–1 ⎜ ⎟ Distance of object from mirror = 42 cm
⎝5⎠
(3)
 CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (2) 63. Answer (1)
CHO directly attached to ring is called carbaldehyde Formaldehyde always forms sodium salt of
carboxylic acid in cross-Cannizzaro reaction.
47. Answer (3)
64. Answer (1)
Aromatic aldehydes do not reduce Fehling’s solution.
Fact
48. Answer (4)
65. Answer (1)
Because the electrophilicity of carboxylic carbon is
greatly reduced by resonance. [O]
CH3CH2CH2OH CH3CH2CHO
Mild
49. Answer (1) (A) (B)
Fact Mild [O]
50. Answer (2)
CH3CH2COOH
CHCl3 CH3 OH
66. Answer (3)
CH3COCH3 – C
OH CH3 CCl3 Carboxylic acid dissociates in H2O.
51. Answer (4) 67. Answer (2)
Because it does not contain benzylic hydrogen. OH
52. Answer (2) C=O
A = CH3CN B = CH3COOH OH
53. Answer (1)
RMgX H
+

RCN RC = NMgX R–C=O It is used to prepare aspirin.

H2O
R R 68. Answer (2)
54. Answer (1) Fact
C6H12O should be ketone as it does not reduce 69. Answer (4)
Tollen’s reagent. Also it should be a methyl ketone
A is C6H5CONH2
as it gives positive iodoform test.
55. Answer (2) B is C6H5CN

CH3COCl + (C2H5)2Cl  CH3COC2H5 C is C6H5COOH

56. Answer (1) 70. Answer (1)
NaBH4 cannot reduce esters. CH2O forms urotropine
57. Answer (2) 71. Answer (1)
A is C2H2 Due to least steric hindrane
B is CH3CHO. 72. Answer (3)
58. Answer (2) Due to incomplete octet of carbon in canonical form.
I2
CHI3 + HCOONa + NaI + H2O 73. Answer (2)
CH3CHO NaOH
Enolate ion is formed.
59. Answer (2)
74. Answer (1)
It contains -H.
anh. AlCl3 + –
60. Answer (3) CO + HCl HCOCl HCO + AlCl4
COOH 75. Answer (2)
Fact
is the strongest acid among the given.
76. Answer (3)
NO2
61. Answer (2) 77. Answer (3)
+
H3O
62. Answer (1) RMgX
HCN
R – CH = NMgX RCHO
(A)
Fact

(4)
 H3O
+ A – C6H5CH3 B – C6H5CHO
RCN
RMgX R – C = NMgX RCOR
(B) C – C6H5CH3 D – C6H5COO–K–
R
E – C6H5COOH
78. Answer (2)
HI
84. Answer (3)
RCOR 
Red P
 RCH2R
A is RMgX
79. Answer (2) B is RCOR
Weakly acidic medium increases the electrophilicity R
of carbonyl carbon.
C is R C OH
80. Answer (4) R
The reaction is given by aldehydes. 85. Answer (3)
81. Answer (2) Fact
+
+
Na HSO3
– O Na 86. Answer (2)
CH3CHO CH3 – CH
O SO2H According to IUPAC rules

Proton transfer 87. Answer (1)

OH Fact
CH3 – CH
OSO2Na
+
88. Answer (3)
82. Answer (3) DIBAL–H does not reduce multiple bonds
OH 89. Answer (1)
CCl3 C OH CH3 – C  C – CH2CH3
–
OH (ii) H2O2/OH– (i) B2H6
OH (aq)
CH3COCH2CH2CH3
(Major)
–H2O
–
90. Answer (2)
COO COOH
COCH3 COOH
+
H K2Cr2O7
H+
(C8H8O) (C7 H6O2)
83. Answer (3) (A) (B)

BOTANY
91. Answer (4) 103. Answer (3)
92. Answer (4) 104. Answer (3)
93. Answer (4) Secondary succession depends on the condition of
Startification is pattern of distribution. soil (Already present) availability of water,
environment, also the seeds or other propagule
94. Answer (1)
present.
95. Answer (1)
Rate of succession is much faster so climax also
96. Answer (1) reached more quickly.
Source of detrivrous food chain is “Detritus”. 105. Answer (2)
97. Answer (4)
106. Answer (4)
98. Answer (4)
Insectivorous plants are 1° producers and
99. Answer (2) 2° consumers.
100. Answer (1) 107. Answer (2)
101. Answer (3) GFC – in Aquatic ecosystem ⎧major conduit
⎨
102. Answer (2) DFC – in Terrestrial ecosystem ⎩of energy flow
(5)
108. Answer (1) 123. Answer (4)
Out of the total cost 50% for soil formation. 124. Answer (3)
< 10% for Recycling of nutrient 125. Answer (1)
6% for Climate regulation and 6% habitat for wildlife. 126. Answer (3)
109. Answer (1) 127. Answer (2)
110. Answer (4) 128. Answer (3)
111. Answer (1) 129. Answer (3)
112. Answer (2) 130. Answer (3)
113. Answer (2) 131. Answer (4)
114. Answer (2) 132. Answer (3)
115. Answer (1) Option (3) has maximum biodiversity due to diverse
116. Answer (1) group of orgasnisms like Mammales, Insects,
117. Answer (1) Reptiles and Aves.
118. Answer (4) 133. Answer (1)
119. Answer (4) 134. Answer (4)
120. Answer (3) 135. Answer (3)
121. Answer (3) Presently 32% of all amphibian species in the world
122. Answer (2) face the threat of extinction

ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (1) 150. Answer (4)
AIDS virus studied under Retro virus group. 151. Answer (1)
137. Answer (3) 152. Answer (1)
138. Answer (4) 153. Answer (2)
Macrophages work like an HIV factory. 154. Answer (2)
139. Answer (3) 155. Answer (1)
140. Answer (3) 156. Answer (1)
Cocaine interferes with the transport of the
157. Answer (3)
Dopamine.
158. Answer (1)
141. Answer (2)
159. Answer (4)
Smoking increases carbon monoxide content in
blood and decreases the concentration of haem By physical contact or mere touch
bound oxygen. 160. Answer (4)
142. Answer (1)
161. Answer (4)
143. Answer (2)
162. Answer (4)
144. Answer (1)
163. Answer (1)
Novacaine is a type of stimulant.
164. Answer (3)
145. Answer (2)
165. Answer (4)
HBV has a ds DNA
Due to prolonged intake of alcohol, cortisol level
146. Answer (2)
increases.
147. Answer (4)
166. Answer (3)
148. Answer (4)
A is a narcotic and B is a tetrahydrocannabinol.
149. Answer (3)
167. Answer (1)
Glioma is a type of cancer occurs in Glial cells of
CNS. 168. Answer (1)
(6)
169. Answer (1) Bull sperm is stored in low temperature in liquid
nitrogen.
Epstein Barr virus causes cancer in WBCs called
174. Answer (1)
Burkitt’s lymphoma.
175. Answer (4)
170. Answer (4)
176. Answer (4)
171. Answer (1) 177. Answer (2)
Karan-swiss is the cross breed between Sahiwal 178. Answer (4)
cows with the semen of Brown Swiss. 179. Answer (4)
172. Answer (4) 180. Answer (4)
173. Answer (3) Pomfrets is one of the marine edible fish.

  

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