22/07/2016

A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 720 Mock Test – 4 Time : 3 Hrs.

[NEET (Phase-2)-2016]

MOCK TEST FOR NEET

Instructions :
(i) Use Blue/Black ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. The dimensional formula of electrical conductance is 4. An object of mass 3 kg is at rest. If a force
(1) [MLT–3A–1] (2) [M–1L–2T3A2]

F  36t 2 iˆ  9 ˆj (N) acts on the object then velocity
(3) [ML3T–3A–2] (4) [M–1L–3T4A2] of the object at t = 2 second (in m/s) is
2. The position of a particle along a straight line is
denoted by the equation x = 6 + 27t – t3. Here x is (1) 72iˆ  12 jˆ (2) 52iˆ  9 jˆ
in metre and t is in second. The magnitude of
acceleration of the particle when it is at rest is (3) 32iˆ  6 jˆ (4) 12iˆ
(1) 6 m/s2 (2) 12 m/s2
5. A rocket of mass 4500 kg is set for vertical firing.
(3) 18 m/s2 (4) 24 m/s2 The exhaust speed is 900 m/s with respect to the
rocket. To give an initial upward acceleration of
3. For a projectile, the velocity at the maximum height
20 m/s2, the mass of gas ejected per second is
3 (g = 10 m/s2)
is times its initial velocity (u) of projection. The
2
(1) 50 kg/s (2) 100 kg/s
maximum height attained by it with respect to
horizontal plane is (3) 150 kg/s (4) 200 kg/s
u2 u2 6. A large disc is rotating with angular speed . If a
(1) (2)
2g 4g child jumps from outside and sits on it without any
jerk then which physical quantity is conserved?
3u 2 u2
(3) (4) (1) Linear momentum (2) Angular momentum
8g 8g
(3) Moment of inertia (4) Kinetic energy

(1)
Mock Test-4 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
7. Four equal masses M are kept at the corners of a (1) Net work done in cyclic process is zero.
regular pentagon as shown. Distance between
centroid and any vertex of the pentagon is R. If (2) During process B  C, heat released by the
another point mass m0 is kept at the centroid of the system is equal to change in internal energy.
pentagon then force acting on m 0 due to four (3) During C  A, internal energy change is zero.
masses is
(4) During A  B, heat exchange is zero.
11. If the length of simple pendulum is increased by
m0 M 1.44% then its time period will
M
R (1) Decrease by 2.88% (2) Increase by 2.88%
(3) Decrease by 0.72% (4) Increase by 0.72%
M M 12. The equation of a plane progressive wave is given by
⎡ ⎛ t x ⎞ ⎤
4GMm0 y  5 sin ⎢ 2 ⎜  ⎟  ⎥ , where x and y are in
(1) Zero (2) ⎣ ⎝ 10 18 ⎠ 4⎦
R
cm and t is in second. Now which of the following
4GMm0 GMm0 is true?
(3) (4)
R2 R2 (1) Phase velocity is 1.8 cm/s
8. A thin rod of mass M and length L is bent at its mid (2) Natural frequency is 0.1 cps
point at 120°. Moment of inertia of this bent rod
about an axis perpendicular to the plane and passing (3) Wavelength is 0.18 m
through mid-point as shown is (4) All of these
13. Two concentric conducting spheres of radii R and
r (R < r) have similar charges with equal surface
charge density . The electric potential at their
120° common centre is


 R2  r 2   R  r 
(1) (2)
0 0

 
(1)
ML2
(2)
ML2 (3)  R  r
0  
(4)  R 2  r 2
0 
3 12
14. The ratio of the radii of the nuclei of
ML2 ML2 27 125
(3) (4) 13Al and 52Te is
4 6
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 3 : 5
9. A solid cubical block of length 10 cm is put in liquid
A of density 2.4 g/cm3 floating over another liquid B (3) 9 : 25 (4) 27 : 125
of density 14.4 g/cm3. If the density of cubical block 15. The linear momentum of the electron revolving in the
is 7.2 g/cm 3 then the ratio of length of block second Bohr’s orbit of radius r of hydrogen atom is
immersed in liquid A to liquid B is
h h
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (1) (2)
2 r r
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 1 : 4 h 2h
(3) (4)
10. An ideal gas is taken through a cyclic process 4r r
A  B  C  A as shown on pressure-volume 16. Consider the following statements regarding nuclear
(P – V) diagram. Now choose the correct statement. force
P A. Nuclear forces are always attractive.
B
B. Nuclear forces are charge independent.
Which of the above statements is / are true?
A C (1) A only (2) B only

V (3) A as well as B (4) Neither A nor B

(2)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Mock Test-4 (Code A)
17. Two radioactive nuclei X and Y have equal number of 23. Energy of a photon of wavelength 5000 Å is
nuclei initially. Their half lives are 15 minutes and approximately
20 minutes respectively. The ratio of their remaining
nuclei just after one hour is (1) 10 eV (2) 100 eV
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 24 eV (4) 2.46 eV
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1 24. The velocity-time (v–t) graph of a particle moving
along x-axis is as shown. It can be concluded that
18. An electric dipole of moment p makes angle  with
the uniform electric field E. Ratio of magnitude of v
torque acting on it to the potential energy of the
system is
(1) sin  (2) cos 
(3) tan  (4) cot  t
19. A point charge Q of mass M is rotating in a circle (1) Acceleration of the particle continuously
of radius R with angular speed . The magnetic field decreases
created at the centre is (2) Position of the particle continuously increases
0  0Q (3) Acceleration remains constant
(1) (2)
4 R 2 4 R (4) Both (1) & (2)
25. For a projectile motion in x-y plane on some planet
 0Q  0Q
(3) (4) the position coordinates as a function of time t are
2R 4 R 2
given as x = 4t and y = 4t – 6t2, where x, y are in
20. If the hot wire instrument reading across R, L and C metre and time t is in second. Assume x is
in the circuit shown are 120 V, 80 V and 30 V horizontal and y is vertical. The horizontal range of
respectively then the supply voltage is the projectile is
R L C 3
(1) m (2) 6 m
8
8 16
(3) m (4) m
3 3
26. A water pump of 0.5 horse power is required to flow
 = 0 sin t water through a cylindrical pipe line at 1 m/s. If flow
rate of water is to be doubled then the power of new
(1) 120 V (2) 80 V
water pump required is
(3) 30 V (4) 130 V
(1) 1 HP (2) 2 HP
21. The truth table given below belongs to (3) 4 HP (4) 8 HP

X Y Z 27. A block of mass m = 5 kg is kept on a horizontal rough

platform undergoing rotation. If coefficient of friction
0 0 0 between the block and the platform is 0.4 and the block
0 1 1 is rotating in a circle of radius 4 m then its possible time
period (in second) may be (g = 10 m/s2)
1 0 1
(1)  (2) 3
1 1 0
(3) 4 (4) Both (2) & (3)
(1) NAND gate (2) NOR gate
28. A solid sphere of mass 2 kg and radius 2 cm is
(3) AND gate (4) XOR gate rolling down a rough incline of inclination  = 30°.
The acceleration of its centre down the incline is
22. For an equilateral prism of material refractive index (g = 10 m/s2)
  2 , the angle of minimum deviation is
25
(1) 5 m/s2 (2) m/s2
(1) 15° (2) 30° 7
(3) 45° (4) 60° (3) 3 m/s2 (4) 7 m/s2

(3)
Mock Test-4 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
29. By the side of a lake the mercury in a barometer 34. Four organ pipes of equal length have their overtones
stands at 75 cm. Mercury used in the barometer as shown. Frequency ratio of sound waves in them is
40
has specific gravity of . The volume of an air
3
bubble increases by 50% while travelling from the
bottom to the top of the lake. The depth of the water
lake is approximately.
(1) 5 m (2) 10 m
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) 70 m (4) 15 m
(1) 4 : 3 : 2 : 1 (2) 6 : 5 : 4 : 3
30. A small solid ball is projected vertically up from (3) 8 : 7 : 6 : 5 (4) 5 : 3 : 2 : 1
3 35. In which of the following motions the time T will have
ground at a large initial speed u = gR , where g
approximate value of 84.6 minute?
2
is acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the a. Time period T of a satellite rotating very close to
earth and R is earth’s radius. The maximum altitude the surface of the earth.
upto which the ball will go is (neglect air friction) b. Time period T of rotation of the earth so that a
body kept on equator feels weightlessness.
R R
(1) (2) c. Time period T of oscillation of an infinitely large
2 3 simple pendulum.
d. Time period T of oscillation of a body along a
2R 3R
(3) (4) complete tunnel through a chord of the earth.
3 4
(1) a, b, c
31. A steel scale (calibrated at 25°C) has been employed (2) a, b, c, d
to measure the length of a copper pipe at 25°C.
(3) a, b
However the reading has been taken at 45°C. If
thermal coefficient of linear expansion of steel and (4) b, c
copper are 3 × 10–5 per °C and 2 × 10–5 per °C 36. A parallel plate capacitor with dielectric is charged
respectively then percentage error in reading taken is completely and then the battery is disconnected.
Now the dielectric is pulled out. Due to such pulling
(1) 0.01% (2) 0.02%
the
(3) 0.04% (4) 0.05% (1) Charge stored on the capacitor will decrease
32. If the source as well as sink temperature of a heat (2) Potential difference between the plates will
engine is increased then the efficiency of the ideal decrease
engine (3) Capacitance will increase
(4) Energy stored in the capacitor will increase
(1) May increase
37. A portion of electrical network is as shown in figure.
(2) May decrease The energy stored in the capacitor is
(3) May remain unchanged 1A

(4) Any of these 2

2A
33. A vertical spring of constant k is kept fixed on a
1 2
horizontal ground. A block of mass 1 kg is kept at
2 F 1
the top of the spring and gently released. The
compression produced in the spring at equilibrium is 1
2 cm. Had the mass been suddenly released, the 5
maximum compression in the spring would be 7

(1) 1 cm 1A
(1) 12 J
(2) 2 cm
(2) 288 J
(3) 4 cm (3) 144 J
(4) 8 cm (4) 72 J
(4)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Mock Test-4 (Code A)
38. In the standard notations the Bohr’s Magneton is 42. In a demonstration of dispersion without deviation
expressed as phenomenon of thin prism combination, a prism X is
chosen with refracting angle 5º and refractive index
eh eh
(1) (2) 1.40. It is combined with another prism Y of material
m 2m
refractive index 1.50. The refracting angle of prism Y
eh 4eh is
(3) (4)
4m m (1) 3º
39. The magnetic dip angle at magnetic equator of the
(2) 4º
earth is
(1) 0º (3) 6.25º

(2) 30º (4) 6º

(3) 45º 43. Originally the Young’s double slit experiment was
(4) 90º performed in white light in which higher order spectra
in the fringe pattern overlap each other. Assume that
40. In the circuit shown the power consumed by the
wavelength of blue light is 520 nm and that of red
bulb B1 long time after the key K is closed is
(inductor is ideal) light is 780 nm. The value of x for which xth bright red
band coincides with (x + 1)th blue band is

(1) 5
B1 = 5 
(2) 4
B2 = 5 
L = 5 mH (3) 3

K (4) 2

44. Assuming Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, the

10 volt wavelength of -line of Balmer series is . The
wavelength of -line of Lyman series is
(1) 5 W
(2) 10 W 6
(1)
33
(3) 20 W
5
(4) 40 W (2)
32
41. In the situation shown the distance between the 7
object O and its image is 24 cm. The object is 6 cm (3)
13
above water level and the beaker containing water
5
upto 8 cm is kept on a plane mirror. Refractive index (4)
36
of the water is
45. Which of the following current-voltage (I - V) graph is
O characteristics of solar cell?
6 cm I I

Water
V V
(1) (2)
8 cm

Mirror
I I
3 4
(1) (2)
2 3
V V
5 7 (3) (4)
(3) (4)
4 6
(5)
Mock Test-4 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016

CHEMISTRY
46. Total number of enantiomeric pairs in the following 52. Which of the following is correct for ethylene glycol?
compound will be
(1) Skew form is more stable than anti-conformation
CH3
(2) Van’t Hoff factor i = 1
(3) Decrease the vapour pressure of water
(4) All are correct
Cl 53. Most easily dehydration takes place in acidic
(1) Two (2) Three medium among the following is
(3) Four (4) Zero
O O
47. Which of the following explain adsorption OH
phenomenon? (1) (2)
OH
(1) Millikan oil drop experiment
CH3 OH
(2) Froth-flotation process
(3) Heterogeneous catalysis (3) (4)
OH
(4) All of these OH
48. Boiling point of aqueous ideal solution is 240°F 54. The metal which does not form ammonium nitrate by
shows that reaction with very dilute nitric acid is
(1) Vapour pressure of solution is less than pure (1) Zn (2) Fe
H2O (3) Sn (4) Mg
(2) It contains volatile solute 55. On monochlorination of isobutane, the number of
(3) It contains non-volatile solute enantiomeric pairs formed is

(4) Both (1) & (3) (1) Two (2) Zero

(3) Six (4) Eight
49. In the decomposition of phosgene gas
56. A gas has a vapour density 11.2. The volume

 occupied by 1 g of the gas at STP will be
 CO  Cl2(g) ; I2O5 is added at constant
COCl2(g) 
(g)
(1) 11.2 L (2) 22.4 L
volume, then
(3) 1 L (4) 10 L
(1) Equilibrium will shift to the forward side
57. Which of the following can be easily oxidised by F2?
(2) Equilibrium will shift to the backward side (1) Mg2+ (aq) (2) Li (aq)
(3) Value of Kc changed (3) H2O (4) All of these
(4) Cannot effect the equilibrium 58. For CO molecule, correct statement is
50. Which type of crystals contain only one Bravais (1) Sigma bond is weaker than pi-bond
lattice?
(2) Cause minimum splitting in d-orbital
(1) Hexagonal (3) Antibonding 2s orbital will donate electron in the
(2) Triclinic formation of CO

(3) Rhombohedral (4) All are correct

59. Bredig’s arc method cannot be used to prepare
(4) All are correct
colloidal solution of
51. Pressure cooker reduces cooking time because
(1) Pt (2) Hg
(1) Equal heat distribution (3) Ag (4) Au
(2) More heat required 60. Iodine solution is prepared by dissolving iodine in
(3) Boiling point of water is elevated (1) NaOH (2) Na2CO3
(4) Water converted into steam (3) H2O (4) KI
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Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Mock Test-4 (Code A)
61. Most suitable reagent used for the separation of 70. The highest bond order and paramagnetic among the
acetaldehyde from acetophenone is following is
(1) NaHSO3 (2) C6H5NHNH2 (1) N2+ + (2) N2
(3) NH2OH (4) NaOH – I2 (3) CO+ (4) O2– –
62. For the following conversion 71. If enthalpy of solution of BaCl2 and BaCl2.2H2O are
– a and b kJ/mol respectively. The enthalpy of
(A) H3C H
H3C–CC–(CH2)2–CH3 C=C hydration of BaCl2 to BaCl2.2H2O would be
H (CH2)2–CH3
(1) (a – b) kJ (2) (b – a) kJ
Most suitable reagent A will be
(3) (a + b) kJ (4) – (a + b) kJ
(1) H2/Pd/BaSO4 (2) H2/Pt/O2
72. pH of Ca(OH)2 solution is (Ksp = 4 ×10–15)
(3) NaBH4 (4) Na–NH3 liq.
(1) 5 (2) 7.65
63. The product A is
(3) 9.30 (4) 8.20
OH 73. The number of moles of K2Cr2O7 required to react
(i) K2CO3 completely with 0.1 mole of H2S in acidic medium if
A H2S is oxidised into sulphur
(ii) CH3I (Major)
CH2OH
1 2
OH OCH 3 (1) (2)
30 5
(1) (2) 4 1
CH2OCH3 CH2OH (3) (4)
9 9
CH 3 OCH3 74. The alkaline earth metal which does not exhibit
colour when heated in flame
(3) (4)
CH2OH CH2OCH3 (1) Be (2) Mg
64. Barbituric acid is used as (3) Ca (4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) Antipyretic (2) Antiseptic 75. The number of five and six membered rings in C60
fullerene respectively are
(3) Antibiotic (4) Tranquilizer
(1) 12, 20
65. The reaction
(2) 12, 25
O O
R–C + Nu R–C +x (3) 10, 20
x Nu
has maximum rate when x is (4) 10, 18
(1) Cl (2) NH2 76. If M = Molarity of solution, m = Molality of solution,
d = Density of solution in g/mL and M2 = Mol. wt.
(3) OC2H5 (4) OCOR of solute, then which of the following relation is
66. Which of the following is mixed anhydride? correct?
(1) NO2 (2) N2O3 1000 M 1000 M
(1) m  (2) m 
(3) N2O (4) NO 1000 d  MM2 1000 d  MM2
67. Which of the following give Beilstein test? 1000 M 100 M
(3) m  (4) m 
(1) Urea (2) Thiourea 100 d  MM2 1000 d  MM2
(3) Halogen (4) All of these 77. Dissociation of NH 3(g) on the surface of solid
catalyst follows
68. The weight of 50% H2SO4 solution required to react
completely with 50 g pure CaCO3 is (1) Zero order reaction when concentration of NH3 is
low
(1) 49 g (2) 98 g
(2) First order reaction when concentration of NH3 is
(3) 24.5 g (4) 196 g
high
69. Highest third ionisation energy among the following
(3) Second order reaction when concentration of
is
NH3 is high
(1) N (2) F
(4) Zero order reaction when concentration of NH3 is
(3) Ne (4) Be high
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Mock Test-4 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
78. Zr and Ti metal are purified by Cl2
A
(1) Mond process 500°C (Major)
86. CH3 CH CH2
(2) van Arkel method NBS
B
(3) Zone refining (Major)

(4) Liquation A and B are respectively

79. Which of the following oxide is known as mixed (1) CH2 CH CH2 & CH2 CH CH2
anhydride?
Cl Br
(1) N2O3 (2) NO2
(2) CH2 CH CH2 & CH2 C CH2
(3) N2O5 (4) All of these
Cl Br Br
80. Facial and meridional isomerism exhibited by which
of the followingh type of complex? (3) CH2 CH CH2 & CH3 CH CH2
Cl Br Br
(1) MA4B2 (2) M(AA)2 B2
(4) CH3 CH CH2 & CH2 CH CH2
(3) MA3B3 (4) M(AA)3 Cl Cl Br
81. Which of the following molecule has only -bond? CH3
(1) B2 (2) N2 87. CH3 C Cl + C2H5ONa A . What is A?
(Major)
(3) O2 (4) CO CH3
82. Maximum number of mole in CH3
(1) 106 g Na2CO3 (2) 44.8 litre H2 at STP (1) CH3 C O CH2 CH3
(3) 16 g He (4) 67.2 litre N2 at STP
CH3

83. CH 3
C C6H5 C C6H5 (CH3)3C CH3CO
(2) CH 3 C CH2
C6H5
(3) CH 3 CH CH2
I II III IV
The correct stability order of the above cation is CH3
(1) I < II < III < IV (2) III < IV < II < I (4) CH3 C OH
(3) IV < III < II < I (4) IV < II < I < III CH3
84. A hydrocarbon on ozonolysis followed by reductive CHO
hydrolysis gives one mole of each CO2, CH3CHO and
conc.NaOH
CH2O. The hydrocarbon is 88. HCHO + A + B
(Salt) (Alcohol)
(1) CH 3 CH C CH2
A and B respectively are
(2) CH 2 CH CH CH2
(1) CH3COONa + CH3OH
(3) CH 3 C C CH3 COONa
(4) CH3 CH CH CH CH2
(2) + CH3OH
CH3 O
85. IUPAC name of the compound CH2OH
N C H is
CH3
(3) HCOONa and
(1) N, N–Dimethylmethanal
CH2OH
(2) N, N–Dimethylmethanamide
(3) N, N–Dimethylformamide (4) COONa and
(4) N–Formyldimethylamine COONa
(8)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Mock Test-4 (Code A)
89. Carbylamine reaction is given by 90. Captrolactam is the monomer of

(1) (CH3)2NH (2) (CH3)3N (1) Nylon - 6 (2) Nylon - 6, 6

(3) C6H5NH2 (4) All of these (3) Nylon - 2, 6 (4) Nylon - 6, 10

BOTANY
91. How many taxons mentioned in the box belong to
lowest category with the maximum number of
common characteristics?
Felis, Petunia, Lion, Mangifera indica,
Brinjal, Dicots, Dog, Monocots, Mosses,
Muscidae, Angiosperm, Grasses
96. Features like actinomorphic flower, axile placentation
and endospermous seeds are common in
(1) Solanaceae and Liliaceae
(2) Liliaceae and Fabaceae
(3) Brassicaceae and Fabaceae

(1) Nine (2) Seven (4) Graminae and Liliaceae

(3) Four (4) Six 97. Select incorrectly matched pair.

92. Organisms having cellular body organisation and with (1) Collenchymatous – Dicot root
ability to oxidise various inorganic substances and hypodermis
use the released energy for their ATP production are (2) Conspicuous – Monocot root
A. Nitrifying bacteria of Kingdom Monera in parenchymatous
Linnaeus system. ground tissue
B. Sulphur bacteria belonging to Kingdom Protista (3) Large and well – Dicot stem
in Haeckel system. developed pith
C. Holophytic protistans. (4) Abundant starch – Dicot stem
D. Non-pigmented iron bacteria of Kingdom Monera grains in innermost
in Whittaker system. layer of cortex
(1) A, B & D are correct (2) A & B are correct 98. Select correct match.
(3) C & D are correct (4) B & D are correct Column I Column II
93. Which of the following statements is correct for a. Steroidal hormones (i) Chondriosome
virus?
b. Hydrolases (ii) SER
(1) They form plasmodium stage after aggregation in
favourable condition c. Oxidative (iii) Lysosomes
phosphorylation
(2) They are nucleo-proteins monerans
d. Storage of proteins (iv) Ribosomes
(3) Obligate intercellular parasites of infectious
nature (v) Aleuroplast
(4) They have only one type of nucleic acid which (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(v) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
is infectious
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(v) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
94. Porphyra differs from Fucus in
(1) Having advanced type of sexual reproduction 99. Maximum cytoplasmic growth and duplication of
semi-autonomous organelles occur in
(2) Absence of cellulose in cell wall
(1) G1 and G2 respectively
(3) Photosynthetic pigment of reaction centre in
photosystem (2) G2 and M-phase respectively
(4) Nature of male gametes and spores (3) G1 only
95. A lateral branch with short internodes and each node (4) G2 only
bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots is
modified sub-aerial stem for 100. Active transport differs from facilitated transport in
(1) Vegetative propagation in terrestrial plant (1) Requirement of special membrane protein
(2) Perennation in aquatic plant (2) Direction of transport
(3) Vegetative propagation in aquatic plants (3) Highly selective nature
(4) Assimilatory function in Asparagus (4) Showing transport saturates
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Mock Test-4 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
101. In photosynthetic pathway of Sorghum plant C4-acids 106. What is incorrect for Morgan’s dihybrid cross
are decarboxylated in ________ to start considering body colour and eye colour in fruit fly?
_________enzyme activity.
(1) Parental line had yellow body and white eyed
(1) Mesophyll; PEPcase female
(2) Bundle sheath cell; RuBisCO (2) All F1 male progeny were wild type
(3) Parental type F2 progeny were 98.7%
(3) Mesophyll; RuBisCO
(4) The percentage of yellow body and red eye
(4) Bundle sheath cell, PEPcase recombinant is 0.65% in F2 generation
102. Find correct match w.r.t. PGRs. 107. The given pedigree chart represents the inheritance
Column I Column II of how many genetic disorders mentioned in box?

a. Promotes the (i) ABA

abscission of older,
mature leaves and
fruits
b. Increases the length (ii) Cytokinin
of grape stalk
c. Adventitious shoot (iii) Gibberellin a. Myotonic dystrophy b. Polydactyl
formation
c. PKU d. Colour-blindness
d. Increases the (iv) Auxins e. Muscular dystrophy f. Morphan syndrome
tolerance of plants
to various kinds of g. Porcupine skin h. SCA
stresses (1) a, b & f (2) c, d & e
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (3) c & h (4) f & g
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) 108. Select correct statement.
(1) RNA is more labile due to methyl uracil
103. Which of the following type of life cycle is
associated with the organisms where zygote (2) DNA is preferred for the transmission of genetic
develops a thick wall that is resistant to desiccation information
and damage? (3) RNA acts as adapter and catalyst
(1) Diplontic (4) Presence of thymine confers stability to the
helical structure of DNA
(2) Haplontic
109. The adapter molecules for tryptophan and methionine
(3) Haplo-diplontic during polypeptide synthesis are
(4) More than one option is correct 3 3
104. Select correct statement w.r.t. female gametophyte
development in flowering plants. (1)
(1) Micropylar megaspore undergoes three free A C C A U G
nuclear mitosis 3 3

(2) Six nuclei are surrounded by cell walls and

organised into cells (2)

(3) The large central cell has two nuclei situated A C C U A C

above egg apparatus 3 3
(4) Each Karyokinesis followed by cytokinesis
(3)
105. Select the incorrect match.
U G G U A C
(1) Apospory - Diploid egg
3 3
(2) Apomictic embryo - Nucellar embryo
(3) False fruits - Unfertilized ovary (4)
(4) Perispermic seed - Blackpepper U C U C U G
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Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Mock Test-4 (Code A)
110. Tissue culture technique applied for the recovery of 117. Find the correct match.
healthy plants from diseased plants is Column I Column II
(1) Somatic hybridisation a. Autotrophic gametophyte (i) Algae
with multicellular rhizoids
(2) Embryo culture
b. Photosynthetic thalloid (ii) Bryophyta
(3) Androgenic culture gametophyte with (Mosses)
(4) Meristem culture unicellular rhizoids

111. The main source of biofertilisers in terrestrial c. Dependent or heterotrophic (iii) Pteridophyta
environments are gametophyte as one or few (Ferns)
celled structure
(1) Bacteria only
d. Sporophytic generation (iv) Gymnosperms
(2) Bacteria and fungi represented by one-celled
structure
(3) Fungi and BGA
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) Bacteria, cyanobacteria and fungi
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
112. The ecological pyramid of number for predator food
chain on a tree is (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

(1) Straight (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

(2) Inverted 118. Select odd one w.r.t. modification of stem

(3) Spindle-shaped (1) Tendril in watermelon (2) Tendril in pea

(3) Thorn in Citrus (4) Sucker in pineapple
(4) Bell-shaped
119. Seed coat is membranous and generally fused with
113. Most effective device to remove particulate matter
fruit wall in
present in the exhaust released from a thermal
power plant is (1) Castor

(1) Scrubber (2) Catalytic converters (2) Pea

(3) ESP (4) CPCB (3) Coconut

114. Which one of the following pair of organisms were (4) Maize
placed in different kingdoms in Linnaeus system of 120. Plant tissue providing mechanical support in young
classification? stem and petiole of a leaf is/has
(1) Bacillus and Spirogyra (1) Long, narrow cells with few pits in lignified cell
wall
(2) Chlamydomonas and Paramoecium
(2) Present below the epidermis in dicot plants
(3) Marchantia and Mangifera (3) Dead mechanical tissue
(4) Spirogyra and Pinus (4) Always present as homogeneous layer below
epidermis
115. In how many members from the given box, an
intervening short dikaryotic stage is present in sexual 121. Which of the following pair of tissues are formed by
life cycle? the activity of dedifferentiated tissue in extra-stelar
region?
Puccinia, Neurospora, Agaricus, Albugo,
(1) Phellogen and phellem
Claviceps, Ustilago, Rhizopus, Morchella
(2) Phellem and phelloderm
(1) Three (2) Six
(3) Vascular cambium and cork cambium
(3) Two (4) Seven (4) Heart wood and sapwood
116. Phytochemistry is not the basis of classification in 122. Kinetochore is disc-shaped proteinaceous structure
(1) Artificial system (1) Present on outer surface and inner surface of
centromere
(2) Chemotaxonomy
(2) Present on outer surface of centriole
(3) Natural system
(3) As the site of the attachment of spindle fibres
(4) More than one option is correct
(4) More than one option is correct
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Mock Test-4 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
123. Select correct statements w.r.t. the given diagram. 127. The apomictic embryo is diploid if it is produced by
A B (1) Adventive embryony

0.7 M 0.4 M (2) Sporophytic budding

Solution Solution (3) Aplospory

1M (4) Both (1) & (2)

Solution
128. In grasshopper, male sex is determined by
C (1) Ova with X-chromosome
a. Cell B has lower w. (2) Ova without sex chromosome
b. Kinetic energy of free water molecules of cell
(3) Sperm with X-chromosome
A > C.
(4) Sperm with autosomes only
c. s of cell C is lower than A and B.
d. Direction of osmosis in cells from A  B  C. 129. Find correct match w.r.t. features/chromosome
composition of genetic disorders
(1) All are correct (2) b & c
Column I Column II
(3) a, b & c (4) a & b
a. Gynaecomastia (i) AA + 1 + XX/XY
124. How many ATP and NADPH2 are required for
production of two sucrose molecule in sugarcane? b. Sterile female with (ii) AA + XXY
rudimentary ovaries
(1) 60 ATP, 24 NADPH2
c. Short statured with (iii) Mendelian disorder
(2) 120 ATP, 48 NADPH2
small round head
(3) 30 ATP, 12 NADPH2
d. Increased level of (iv) AA + XO
(4) 240 ATP, 96 NADPH2 phenyl pyruvic acid
125. The given diagram is correct representation for (1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
130. During DNA replication, the discontinuous fragments
Above are
A. Synthesised on the template with polarity
No flowering 3  5.
CPP
B. Later joined by the enzyme RNA ligase in
5 3 direction.
(1) Both are correct (2) Both are incorrect
(3) Only A is correct (4) Only B is correct
Below
131. In how many base sequences would there be
differences in human genome?
Flowering
(1) 3 × 106 bp (2) 3 × 109 bp
(1) Tobacco (2) Wheat
(3) 3 × 104 bp (4) 1.4 billion locations
(3) Radish (4) Sugarbeet
132. Which of the following is incorrectly matched w.r.t.
126. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. pollen grain. improved crop varieties for disease and insect pest
(1) Intine is pectocellulosic in nature resistance?

(2) Pollen grains are generally spherical (1) Pusa shubhra – Black rot

(3) The vegetative cell has abundant food reserve (2) Pusa sadabahar – TMV
and a small spindle shaped nucleus
(3) Pusa gaurav – Fruit borer
(4) Generative cell floats in the cytoplasm of
vegetative cell (4) Pusa sem 2 – Jassids
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Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Mock Test-4 (Code A)
133. Which one of the following is acrobic free living 135. Read the statements and select incorrect one for
nitrogen-fixing bacteria?
biodiversity and conservation
(1) Rhizobium (2) Nitrobacter
(1) Species inventories for more taxonomic groups
(3) Azotobacter (4) Frankia
are more complete in tropical countries.
134. The most spectacular and evolutionary fascinating
examples of mutualism are found in (2) Plants comprise no more than 22% of the total
(1) Plant - bacteria relationships species diversity

(2) Plant - fungi relationships (3) Steller’s sea cow extincted due to overexploitation
(3) Plant - cyanobacteria relationships
(4) All the biodiversity hotspots cover less than
(4) Plant - animal relationships
2% of the earth’s land area

ZOOLOGY
136. Iodothyronines 140. Which is not involved in the knee jerk reflex?
(1) Bind to cell membrane receptors (1) Stretching of the muscle
(2) Bind to mRNA
(2) Motor neuron
(3) Eventually forms hormone-receptor complexes
that bind to DNA (3) Muscle spindle

(4) Never enters the cells (4) An interneuron

137. Which of the following is a non-specific defense? 141. A DNA library is

(1) Antibody response (1) A collection of all genes sequenced so far
(2) The T-cell response (2) A collection of DNA fragments that make up the
(3) The inflammatory response entire genome of a particular organism
(4) The B-cell response (3) A DNA fragment inserted into the vector
138. Antigen binding site of antibody molecule is made
(4) All DNA fragments identified with a probe
up of
(1) Variable region of light chain 142. The finch species of the Galapagos Islands are
grouped according to their food sources. Which of
(2) Variable region of heavy chain
the following is not a finch food source?
(3) Variable regions of both light and heavy chains,
present at N-terminal end (1) Seeds

(4) Constant regions of light and heavy chains (2) Carrion

present at C-terminal end
(3) Insects
139. The HIV virus is particularly dangerous because it
attacks (4) Tree buds

A. Cells with CD4+ coreceptor 143. False statement w.r.t. hCG is

B. Helper T-cells (1) High levels of circulating hCG, stimulate estrogen

and progesterone synthesis
C. 60% to 80% circulating T-cells in the body
(2) If fertilisation occurs, the corpus luteum is
D. Depletes macrophages, called HIV factory
rescued from regression by hCG, produced by
(1) A and B the placenta
(2) B and C
(3) Action of hCG is identical to LH
(3) A, B and C
(4) High levels of hCG in uterus stimulates
(4) B and D endometrial thickening
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Mock Test-4 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
144. Which of the following is incorrect match of joints, 147. Otolith organ consists of
their description and one example? (1) Semicircular canals and cristae
Joint Description Example (2) Utricle and saccule
(1) Cartilaginous Permits limited Joint between (3) Crista ampullaris and macula
movements. adjacent (4) Organ of corti
Bones joined vertebrae of
148. Which of the following correctly explains a phase/
together by vertebral event in cardiac cycle in a standard electro
cartilage column cardiogram?
(2) Fibrous joint Bones are Shown by flat (1) P-wave - Marks the beginning of ventricular
fused end bones of skull systole
to end by (2) Q-wave - Represents depolarisation of atria
white fibres (3) T-wave - Represents ventricular repolarisation
(3) Synovial Presence of Knee joint
(4) QRS - By counting the number of QRS
fluid in synovial complexes that occur in a given
cavity. Allows time, one cannot determine heart
considerable
rate

movement 149. What is the maximum amount of air a person can

breathe out after a forced inspiration?
(4) Pivot Allows limited Between atlas
(1) ERV + TV + IRV
movement. and axis
(2) ERV + RV
Absence of
(3) RV + ERV + TV + IRV
synovial cavity (4) TV + IRV
145. Which of the following is not a correct difference 150. False statement is
between rods and cones?
(1) Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate
Function Rods Cones can be reversed by increasing the concentration
(1) Sensitivity to Twilight, Daylight, of succinate
(2) Non-competitive inhibition occurs when the
light scotopic photopic
inhibitor and substrate bind at different sites on
vision vision the enzyme
(2) Photo pigments Rhodopsin or Iodopsin or (3) Non-competitive inhibitors do not interfere with
the binding of substrate to enzyme. It can be
visual purple visual violet
overcome by increasing the concentration of
(3) Acuity Lower visual Greatest substrate
acuity. Not visual acuity (4) A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme increases
present in present in Km without affecting Vmax
151. Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across
fovea fovea
continents and developed into distinct races. This is
(4) Dark adaptation Rods adapt Cones adapt proved as/by
first later A. S t u d y i n g t h e pa t t e r n o f v a r i a t i o n s i n
Y-chromosomes, as it shows uniparental
146. Which of the following is false about probe?
inheritance
A. It is ssDNA or ssRNA B. Maximum variations are found in the
B. Used to detect ‘gene of interest’ mitochondrial DNA of Africans
C. Used to detect mutations in genes in suspected C. Maximum variations are found in the
cancer patients mitochondrial DNA of Asians
D. Used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients D. Mitochondrial DNA of Africans shows minimum
genetic variability
(1) A only
(1) C and D
(2) A and B (2) A and B
(3) A, B and C (3) A and C
(4) A, B, C and D (4) B and C

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Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
152. Tick the incorrect match.
(1) GIFT - Transfer of an ovum collected from a
donor into the fallopian tube of another
female, who cannot produce one but
can provide suitable environment for
fertilisation
(2) ZIFT - Embryos with more than eight
blastomeres are transferred into the
fallopian tube
(3) IUI - Intrauterine insemination
(4) ICSI - Sperms are directly injected into ovum
153. False statement about sharks is
(1) Sexes are separate, fertilisation is internal and
they are viviparous
(2) In males pelvic fins bear claspers to transfer
sperms while mating
(3) Gill slits on lateral sides, absence of air bladder
(4) Sharks use claspers to hold the prey while
feeding
Mock Test-4 (Code A)
157. How is the digestion of fats different from that of
proteins and carbohydrates?
(1) Fats are absorbed in the large intestine, and
proteins and carbohydrates are absorbed in the
small intestine
(2) Fats enter the hepatic portal circulation but
proteins and carbohydrates enter the lymphatic
system
(3) Fats are absorbed into the cells as fatty acids
and monoglycerides but are then modified for the
absorption into lymph while aminoacids and
glucose are not modified further
(4) Fat digestion occurs in the small intestine, and
the digestion of protein and carbohydrates occurs
in the stomach
158. If in animals the same structure developed along
different directions due to adaptations to different
needs, is called
(1) Divergent evolution

154. Telomerase activity is high in (2) Adaptive radiation

A. Differentiated cell (3) Convergent evolution

B. Actively dividing mitotic cell (4) Biogeographical evidence
C. Cancerous cells 159. Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the respiratory,
D. Cells showing senescence gastrointestinal and urogenital tracts, which help in
trapping the microbes entering our body, is included
(1) A and D (2) B and C
in _____ barrier of innate immunity.
(3) D only (4) A, B, C and D
(1) Physical (2) Physiological
155. All the following statements are correct about the
reproductive system of cockroach, but one is wrong, (3) Cellular (4) Cytokine
which one is wrong? 160. Study the diagrams given below which illustrate
(1) Male reproductive system consists of a pair of skulls of
testes lying one on reach lateral side in the 4th
to 6th abdominal segments
(2) Mushroom gland is present in 6th-7th abdominal
segments in male
(3) The development of P. americana is Adult chimpanzee
Adult modern human Baby chimpanzee
paurometabolous, nymph grows by moulting
about 13 times to reach the adult form
The skull of baby chimpanzee does not resemble
(4) In female a pair of spermathecae are present in adult chimpanzee skull but is more like adult human
the 8th abdominal segment which opens into skull. Why?
genital chamber
(1) In chimpanzee, the size of the brain keeps
156. Which of the following is the best breeding method increasing
for animals that are below average in productivity in
(2) The size of the brain and cerebral portion of the
milk production and growth rate in beef cattle?
skull do not increase in size after birth as
(1) Inbreeding compared to jaw size in chimpanzee
(2) Outbreeding (3) In chimpanzee, the size of the jaw recedes after
birth
(3) Cross-breeding
(4) The size of the brain and jaw both keep
(4) MOET increasing after birth in chimpanzee

(15)
Mock Test-4 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
Proximal convoluted tubule
161. Which of the following is mismatched regarding Distal convoluted tubule
NaCl Nutrients
H2 O HCO3
disorders of muscular and skeletal system? HCO3
H2 O K
+
NaCl

(1) Myasthenia gravis : Autoimmune disorder

P S
affecting neuromuscular
H+ NH 3 K +
H+
junction, can cause
paralysis of skeletal
muscles Descending
limb of loop of Henle
Thick segment
of ascending
(2) Tetany : Rapid spasms in muscle Q R limb
T
due to low Ca++ in body H2O
NaCl
Collecting
duct
fluid
(3) Osteoporosis : Inflammation of joints Thin segment
of ascending
due to accumulation of limb

uric acid crystals NaCl

(4) Muscular dystrophy : Progressive degeneration Urea

H2O

of skeletal muscle mostly

due to genetic disorder
162. Which of the following is mismatched w.r.t. the Mark the incorrect statement
following events which occur in the life cycle of
(1) Segments P, S and T help to maintain the pH
Plasmodium?
and ionic balance of the body fluids by selective
(1) Fertilisation : Takes place in mosquito’s secretion of H+ and K+ ions into the filtrate and
stomach/intestine by absorption of HCO3– from it
(2) Development : In red blood cells of man (2) Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water takes
of sexual stages, place in segment S
gametocytes (3) In segments Q and R the reabsorption is
(3) Erythrocytic : Parasites reproduce asexually minimum. Segment Q concentrates the filtrate
schizogony in RBCs, bursting the red blood as it moves down and in segment R
cells, causing cycles of fever concentrated filtrate is diluted as it moves
and other symptoms upwards
(4) Sporozoites : Infect red blood cells and liver (4) In segment P 70% to 80% electrolytes and
163. Base the answer to your question on the table given water are reabsorbed by the segment and filtrate
becomes hypertonic
below:
165. Once a DNA fragment has been ligated into a
suitable vector it is transferred into a bacterial, plant
Amount/serving Amount/serving
Saturated fat 1 g Starch 43 g or animal host. Which of the following have been
Oil 9 g Dietary fibre 2 g disarmed and are now used to deliver desirable
Cholesterol 0 mg Sugar 3 g genes into mammalian cells?
Protein 6 g
A. Retroviruses
B. SV40
Approximately how much total kilocalories are
C. Geminiviruses
supplied by this food? How much kilocalories in this
food come from carbohydrates? D. Adenoviruses

(1) 298 and 184 E. Papilloma virus

(2) 304 and 192 F. Agrobacterium vectors

(1) A only
(3) 302 and 184
(4) 298 and 192 (2) A and F

164. The diagram illustrated below depicts the reabsorption (3) A, B, D and E
and secretion of major substances at different parts of (4) A, B, C, D and E
the nephron marked P, Q, R, S and T.
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Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Mock Test-4 (Code A)
166. Following is a diagrammatic representation of C. Macrophages are HIV factory.
anatomy of a muscle fibre showing a sarcomere D. Infected Helper-T-Cell continue to survive while
A A viruses are being replicated and released.
C D D E. There is a time lag between HIV infection and
appearance of AIDS symptom of few month to
5 to 10 years.
F. Opportunistic infections appear in the early stage
of HIV infection.
Options
B (1) A and B (2) B and D
Use the following terms to label the structures in the (3) D and F (4) B, D and F
figure
169. Following is a graphic representation of ovarian and
A- Band H - Zone menstrual cycle. Study the graph and mark the
I - Band Z - Line statement which is incorrect interpretation of
graphics.
Choose the correct option

Hormone levels
Pituitary
A B C D
(1) M-line H-zone A-band I-band
(2) Z-line H-zone A-band I-band
Developing Regressing

Ovarian events
Mature follicle corpus luteum
(3) Z line I-band A-band H-zone Developing follicle corpus luteum

(4) Z-line H-zone I-band A-band

Ovulation
167. Following is the representation of transverse section
Hormone levels
Ovarian

of vertebrate gut. Study the diagram and mark the

wrong statement
Uterine events

A Menses

C
Days
B 1 3 5 7 9 11 13 15 17 19 21 23 25 27 29/1
Menstruation Follicular phase Luteal phase Next cycle
D (Proliferative phase) (Secretory Phase) begins

A. In the midcycle positive feedback effect of

E
Lumen
(1) A is serosa the outermost layer and is made up
of a thin mesothelium with some connective
tissue
(2) B is smooth muscles arranged longitudinally and
C smooth muscles arranged in circular manner.
Both together form muscularis externa
(3) D is oblique muscle layer in stomach
(4) E is innermost lining of the alimentary canal
called mucosa.This layer forms irregular folds,
rugae in stomach and villi in intestine
168. Mark the statement/s which is not correct about HIV
infection and AIDS?
A. HIV virus binds to CD4 and CCR5 receptors in
macrophage membrane.
B. Virus enters the cell by receptor mediated
endocytosis along with capsid layer, leaving
envelope outside.
progesterone on pituitary increases LH secretion
B. In follicular phase estrogen regenerates the
endometrium of uterus through proliferation.
C. Ovarian cycle is regulated by hormones
produced by corpus luteum.
D. HCG stimulates the formation of corpus luteum
and also stimulates it to release progesterone
and estrogen in the cycle.
E. Progesterone is essential for maintenance of
endometrium in luteal phase.
F. Negative feedback mechanism of progesterone
and estrogen decrease the secretion of LH and
FSH during luteal phase.
Options
(1) A only
(2) A and C only
(3) A, B and F only
(4) A, C and D only

(17)
Mock Test-4 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016
170. The graph given below represents the effect of A on 174. Which of the following is incorrect match w.r.t. the
enzymatic activity. What is A? animals, its characteristics and taxon?
Vmax
Animal Charactericitics Taxon
(1) Silver (i) Wingless form Insecta
Velocity of reaction (V) fish (ii) No metamorphosis
Vmax (i) Cephalothorax and
(2) Scorpion
2 abdomen Arachnid
(ii) Eight legged animal
(3) Prawn (i) Cephalothorax Crustacean
and abdomen
(ii) Excretory organs
Km green glands
A
(1) Temperature (4) Millipede (i) One pair of legs Arthropod
(2) pH per segment
(ii) Carnivorous
(3) Substrate concentration
(4) Product concentration 175. Which of the following is incorrect match?

171. Which of the following is incorrect about NAD? (1) Notochord present only : Ascidia, Salpa,
(1) It is a nucleotide in larval tail Doliolum
(2) It contains one phosphate group (2) Notochord extends from : Cephalochordata
(3) It contains the vitamin niacin head to tail region and
(4) It is a coenzyme of oxidation reactions and acts is persistent throughout
as hydrogen acceptor their life
172. When a person is running up the stairs, he
experiences sweating, increased heart rate, (3) A chordate having flame : Amphioxus
respiration and cardiac output etc. This is due to cells as excretory
A. Stimulation of sympathetic nervous system. structures
B. Release of catecholamines. (4) Protochordates : Exclusively in
C. Release of adrenal medullary hormones marine waters,
epinephrine and nor-epinephrine. includes urochordata,
D. Stimulation of vagus nerve. cephalochordata and
Choose the correct option cyclostomata
(1) A & B only (2) B & C only
176. Study the characters given
(3) A, B & C (4) B, C & D
173. Which of the following is not a factor that causes A. Body is divisible into head and trunk. Two pairs
change in the proportions of homozygous and of limbs, tail absent
heterozygous individuals in a population, not
B. Skin is moist without scales
disturbing Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
A. Mutation C. Fertilisation is external, oviparous

B. Migration In which of the following all these characters are

C. Genetic drift presents?

D. Random mating (1) Bufo

E. Natural selection (2) Rana
F. Inbreeding (3) Salamandra
(1) D & E
(4) Ichthyophis
(2) D, E & F
(3) D only
(4) A, B, C, D & E

(18)
Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016 Mock Test-4 (Code A)
177. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. animals, 179. Breeding of unrelated animals, which may be
their excretory structure, and the type of nitrogenous between individuals of the same breed, but having no
waste excreted by them? common ancestor, or between different breeds or
Animals Excretory Nitrogenous different species is called
structure waste (1) Outcrossing
(1) Rana Kidneys Uricotelic (2) Crossbreeding
(2) Pheretima Nephridia Urea
(3) Out breeding
(3) Periplaneta Malpighian Uricotelic
(4) Interspecific hybridisation
tubules
180. What is incorrect about ECG?
(4) Tadpole larva Kidneys Ammonotelic
of frog (1) Depolarisation of both the atria : P-wave

178. Which of the following interferes with transport of the (2) Depolarisation of ventricles : QRS complex
neurotransmitter dopamine? What is the source of (3) Repolarisation of ventricles : T-wave
this drug?
(4) Begining of ventricular systole : S-wave
(1) Morphine : Extracted from the latex of
Papaver somniferum
(2) Cocaine : Leaves of coca plant Erythroxylum
coca
(3) Ganja : Leaves of Cannabis sativa
(4) LSD : Ergot fungus

  

(19)
Mock Test-4 (Code A) Test Series for NEET (Phase-2)-2016

22/07/2016
A
CODE

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Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
MM : 720 Mock Test – 4 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.
[NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
ANSWERS
1. (2) 37. (3) 73. (1) 109. (2) 145. (4)
2. (3) 38. (3) 74. (2) 110. (4) 146. (4)
3. (4) 39. (1) 75. (1) 111. (4) 147. (2)
4. (3) 40. (3) 76. (1) 112. (3) 148. (3)
5. (3) 41. (2) 77. (4) 113. (3) 149. (1)
6. (2) 42. (2) 78. (2) 114. (2) 150. (3)
7. (4) 43. (4) 79. (2) 115. (1) 151. (2)
8. (2) 44. (2) 80. (3) 116. (1) 152. (2)
9. (3) 45. (4) 81. (1) 117. (4) 153. (4)
10. (2) 46. (4) 82. (3) 118. (2) 154. (2)
11. (4) 47. (4) 83. (2) 119. (4) 155. (4)
12. (4) 48. (4) 84. (1) 120. (2) 156. (2)
13. (2) 49. (1) 85. (2) 121. (2) 157. (3)
14. (2) 50. (4) 86. (1) 122. (3) 158. (1)
15. (2) 51. (3) 87. (2) 123. (2) 159. (1)
16. (3) 52. (4) 88. (3) 124. (2) 160. (2)
17. (2) 53. (2) 89. (3) 125. (1) 161. (3)
18. (3) 54. (4) 90. (1) 126. (3) 162. (4)
19. (2) 55. (2) 91. (3) 127. (4) 163. (1)
20. (4) 56. (3) 92. (4) 128. (4) 164. (4)
21. (4) 57. (3) 93. (4) 129. (1) 165. (3)
22. (2) 58. (3) 94. (4) 130. (2) 166. (2)
23. (4) 59. (2) 95. (3) 131. (1) 167. (3)
24. (4) 60. (4) 96. (1) 132. (3) 168. (3)
25. (3) 61. (1) 97. (1) 133. (3) 169. (4)
26. (3) 62. (4) 98. (1) 134. (4) 170. (3)
27. (4) 63. (2) 99. (4) 135. (1) 171. (2)
28. (2) 64. (4) 100. (2) 136. (3) 172. (3)
29. (1) 65. (1) 101. (2) 137. (3) 173. (3)
30. (4) 66. (2) 102. (1) 138. (3) 174. (4)
31. (2) 67. (4) 103. (2) 139. (3) 175. (4)
32. (4) 68. (2) 104. (2) 140. (4) 176. (2)
33. (3) 69. (4) 105. (3) 141. (2) 177. (1)
34. (3) 70. (3) 106. (2) 142. (2) 178. (2)
35. (2) 71. (4) 107. (3) 143. (4) 179. (3)
36. (4) 72. (3) 108. (3) 144. (4) 180. (4)

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 22/07/2016
A
CODE

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 720 Mock Test – 4 (Objective) Time : 3 Hrs.

[for NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
Answers and Hints
PHYSICS
1. Answer (2) T 1 L
  0.72%
2. Answer (3) T 2 L
v = 27 – 3t2 = 0 t=3s 12. Answer (4)

a = –6t = – 6(3) = –18 m/s2 13. Answer (2)

3. Answer (4) Q q  4 R   4 r 
V   
3 4 0R 40 r 4 0R 4 0 r
cos     30 
2 
0
R  r 
Hmax 
 u sin  2


 u / 2 2


u2

2g 2g 8g 14. Answer (2)

4. Answer (3) 1
R  A3
a  12t 2 iˆ  3 jˆ
15. Answer (2)
v  4t 3 iˆ  3tj
2h h
 32iˆ  6 ˆj m/s mvr   mv 
2 r
5. Answer (3)
16. Answer (3)
4500  20  10   m  900 17. Answer (2)
 m  150 kg/s
1
6. Answer (2) X 16
  1: 2
7. Answer (4) Y 1
8
8. Answer (2)
18. Answer (3)
9. Answer (3)
pE sin 
x(2.4) + (1 – x) 14.4 = 7.2  tan 
pE cos 
3
x  19. Answer (2)
5
2
1 x   0I  0q 
5 B 
2R 4 R
Ratio: 3 : 2 20. Answer (4)
10. Answer (2)
11. Answer (4)
V  120 2   80  30 2  130 V
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21. Answer (4) 32. Answer (4)
22. Answer (2) 33. Answer (3)
Maximum compression is twice the compression at
A  m
sin equilibrium.
 2   m  30
A 34. Answer (3)
sin
2 35. Answer (2)
23. Answer (4) 36. Answer (4)
hc 37. Answer (3)
E  2.46 eV

1 1
24. Answer (4) U CV 2  (2)(12)2  144 J
2 2
25. Answer (3)
38. Answer (3)
4
y=0t= 39. Answer (1)
6
40. Answer (3)
16 8
R= = m 10
6 3 i=  2 A  P = i2R = 22 × 5 = 20 W
5
26. Answer (3) 41. Answer (2)
Power  v3
27. Answer (4) ⎡ 8⎤ 8 4
2 ⎢6  ⎥  24 ⇒   
⎣  ⎦ 6 3
2R  g

R 42. Answer (2)

 T  2   T 2
g
(1.40 – 1)5° = (1.50 – 1)A  A = 4°
28. Answer (2)
43. Answer (4)
g sin  5 25
a=  g sin   m/s2 520
Icm 7 7
1 (x + 1)520 = (x)780  x = =2
MR 2 260

29. Answer (1) 44. Answer (2)

40 1 ⎡1 1⎤
50%  75 cm  5m  RZ 2 ⎢ 2  2 ⎥
3  ⎣2 3 ⎦
30. Answer (4)
1 ⎡1 1⎤
1 GMm GMm  RZ 2 ⎢ 2  2 ⎥
mu 2   x ⎣1 3 ⎦
2 R R h
5
3R x 36 5
h   5
4   8 32  x 
32
31. Answer (2) 9

(1 – 2)  × 100 = 10–5 × 20 × 100 = 0.02% 45. Answer (4)

CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (4)
49. Answer (1)
Because of absence of chiral carbon.
I2O5 + 5CO  I2 + 5CO2
47. Answer (4)
CO(g) concentration decreases therefore equilibrium
48. Answer (4) shift towards forward side.

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50. Answer (4) 64. Answer (4)
51. Answer (3) 65. Answer (1)
52. Answer (4) 66. Answer (2)
53. Answer (2)
 250K

NO  NO2  N2O3
Due to conjugation with C = O of product
O O 67. Answer (4)
–H2O 68. Answer (2)

OH 69. Answer (4)

54. Answer (4) 70. Answer (3)
55. Answer (2) 71. Answer (4)
56. Answer (3) 72. Answer (3)
mass 1 73. Answer (1)
Number of moles  
molar mass 22.4
74. Answer (2)
1
Volume of gas = n × 22.4 L =  22.4  1 L 75. Answer (1)
22.4
57. Answer (3) 76. Answer (1)

⎧E  1.23 V ⎫ 77. Answer (4)

⎪ O2 /H /H2O ⎪
⎨ ⎬ 78. Answer (2)
⎪⎩ E  3.05 V ⎪⎭
F2 /F
79. Answer (2)
58. Answer (3)
80. Answer (3)
59. Answer (2)
81. Answer (1)
Hg is liquid at room temperature.
82. Answer (3)
60. Answer (4)
61. Answer (1) 83. Answer (2)

Acetaldehyde reacts with NaHSO3. 84. Answer (1)

62. Answer (4) 85. Answer (2)
Birch reduction gives trans product. 86. Answer (1)
63. Answer (2) 87. Answer (2)

OH+ OCH3 88. Answer (3)

K2 CO3 89. Answer (3)
CH3I 90. Answer (1)
CH2OH CH2OH

BOTANY
91. Answer (3) 97. Answer (1)
Lion, Mango, Brinjal and Dog - species. Dicot stem
92. Answer (4) 98. Answer (1)
Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria. 99. Answer (4)
93. Answer (4)
100. Answer (2)
Viruses.
101. Answer (2)
94. Answer (4)
C4 - plant.
Non motile spores and gametes in red algae.
102. Answer (1)
95. Answer (3)
Offset. 103. Answer (2)

96. Answer (1) Zygotic meiosis.

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104. Answer (2) 119. Answer (4)
3 Antipodal cells + 2 synergids + 1 egg cell. Caryopsis fruit
105. Answer (3) 120. Answer (2)
Thalamus also contributes to form edible part in fruit. Collenchyma

106. Answer (2) 121. Answer (2)

Dedifferentiated tissue in cork cambium in extrastelar
F1 O - yellow and white.
region and it cuts off phellem and phelloderm.
107. Answer (3) 122. Answer (3)
Recessive autosomal gene disorders. Present on both sides on outer surface of centromere.
108. Answer (3) 123. Answer (2)
RNA is more labile and unstable due to 2’ OH in ribose. Higher solute molecules, lower s.
Helical stability is due to hydrogen between two strand 124. Answer (2)
and stacking of the bases one above other Sugarcane is a C4 plant so 1 CO2 need 5 ATP and
109. Answer (2) 2NADPH2. Hence 2 sucrose mole means 24 CO2
needs 120 ATP and 48 NADPH2.
Anticodon - ACC (tryp)
125. Answer (1)
Anticodon - UAC (meth.)
SDP
110. Answer (4)
126. Answer (3)
111. Answer (4)
Large nucleus.
112. Answer (3) 127. Answer (4)
Haploid plants
Tree  Herbivores  Carnivores .
(T1 ) (T2 ) (T3 ) 128. Answer (4)
113. Answer (3) XX( ) – XO( ) type
Electrostatic precipitator. 129. Answer (1)
114. Answer (2) 130. Answer (2)
By DNA ligase
Plants and animals kingdom.
131. Answer (1)
115. Answer (1)
0.1% difference is 3 × 106 bp.
Ascomycetes.
132. Answer (3)
116. Answer (1)
Aphids.
Only morphological characters.
133. Answer (3)
117. Answer (4) 134. Answer (4)
One-celled zygote (2n) as sporophyte in algae. Plants pollinators.
118. Answer (2) 135. Answer (1)
Leaf modification Temperate countries.

ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (3) 138. Answer (3)
Iodothyrorines are lipid soluble hormones, so they can 139. Answer (3)
directly enter the cell and binds with the intracellular
Macrophages are called HIV factory. The number of
receptors in nucleus to form hormone receptor complex
macrophages are not depleted.
and stimulates the gene expression.
140. Answer (4)
137. Answer (3)
Knee jerk reflex is monosynaptic reflex, so interneuron
Inflammatory response is included in non-specific
is absent.
chemical defense mechanism; the area surrounding
the wound becomes red due to the release of 141. Answer (2)
histamine. 142. Answer (2)
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143. Answer (4) 162. Answer (4)
High levels of estrogen hormone will stimulate Sporozoite attack liver cells not RBCs.
endometrial thickening. 163 Answer (1)
144. Answer (4) The amount of energy liberated in the human body
due to combustion of 1 g of food is the physiologic
Pivot joint allows considerable movement and there value of food. Values of carbohydrates, protein and
is the presence of synovial cavity. fats are 4.0 kcal/g, 4.0 kcal/g and 9.0 kcal/g
145. Answer (4) respectively.
Rods adapt slowly. 164. Answer (4)
In the segment P(PCT) 70 to 80% electrolytes and
146. Answer (4) water are reabsorbed, this is obligatory reabsorption
147. Answer (2) of water, filtrate still remains isotonic to blood,
plasma minus the plasma proteins.
Otolith organ is concerned with balancing. There is
one sensory spot in utricle and one in saccule called 165. Answer (3)
maculae. 166. Answer (2)
148. Answer (3) 167. Answer (3)
D is submucosa oblique muscle layer is present
149. Answer (1)
only in stomach in muscularis.
The maximum amount of air a person can breathe out 168. Answer (3)
after a forced inspiration is vital capacity = ERV + TV
Helper T-cells are not able to survive when the virus
+ IRV.
becomes active. However, during dormant phase of
150. Answer (3) virus, the Helper T-cells are able to survive.
Non-competitive inhibition cannot be overcome by 169. Answer (4)
increasing the concentration of the substrate. In the mid cycle positive feedback effect of estrogen
on pituitary increases LH secretion. Ovarian cycle is
151. Answer (2)
regulated by hormones produced by pituitary. LH
152. Answer (2) stimulates the formation of corpus luteum and also
153. Answer (4) stimulates it to release progesterone and estrogen.
170. Answer (3)
In cartilaginous fishes in males the pelvic fins bear
claspers. 171. Answer (2)
172. Answer (3)
154. Answer (2)
Vagus nerve is a part of parasympathetic nervous
In differentiated cells the telomerase activity is low. system, which decreases the heart rate.
155. Answer (4) 173. Answer (3)
In female P. americana a pair of spermathecae are Random mating does not bring about a change in the
present in 6th abdominal segment. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
174. Answer (4)
156. Answer (2)
Millipede has two pairs of legs per segment and it
A single outcross and remove inbreeding depression. is herbivorous, a diplopod.
157. Answer (3) 175. Answer (4)
158. Answer (1) Protochordates include only urochordates and
cephalochordates.
Whales, bats, cheetah and human share similarities
in the pattern of bones of forelimbs. Though 176. Answer (2)
forelimbs perform different functions in these 177. Answer (1)
animals, they have similar anatomical structure. Rana is ureotelic.
159. Answer (1) 178. Answer (2)
160. Answer (2) Cocaine is a stimulant.
161. Answer (3) 179. Answer (3)
Osteoporosis : Age-related disorder characterised by 180. Answer (4)
decreased bone mass and increased chances of fractures. The contraction starts shortly after Q wave and
Decreased levels of estrogen is a common cause. marks the beginning of the systole.
  
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