LRDI Faculty Manual PDF

LRDI
Faculty Manual 2010
Name: __________________________
Centre: ________________________
MBA
Test Prep
www.careerlauncher.com
Preface
Dear Academicians,
All programmes under the Pegasus umbrella [Pegasus Extended (PEX), Pegasus Integrated (PIN), Pegasus
PRO and Pegasus Gallop] vouch to build strong fundamental base before putting the students to any
kind of Test environment. The academic delivery may range from gradual (as in PEX, whose median
duration is 15 to 16 months) to condensed (as in PGL, whose median duration is 5 months); but the
concept note advocates that a Pegasus student must be hauled up from the level of very basic
applications to the real-time CAT problems.
The concept notes for PEX 2010 course is available with us. LRDI sessions in these courses form the
backbone of the LRDI pedagogy for all other Pegasus courses. This faculty note establishes a baseline for
conducting LRDI sessions in all Pegasus courses. Covey’s second habit prompts us to begin with the end
in mind; that’s exactly why each session note starts with the end learning objectives that our students and
we would be meeting. The session notes sometimes use an acronym called HQ. It is nothing but “Humour
Quotient”, an offspring of your Emotional Quotient.
As we conduct classes, we learn a lot of new fundamentals and smart shortcuts. Fair amount of enrichment
happens from student’s end. Be encouraged to use them in your subsequent classes for the benefit of the
students. You are free to try other interesting relevant puzzles to keep them engaged and add value at the
same time.
Your feedback and suggestions is what is going to give shape to this initiative. This beta-version of faculty
manual is for the faculty, of the faculty and by the faculty. Do come up with your inputs and actively submit
them.
Warm Regards
Career Launcher Team

Contents
S. No. Title Page No.
1. Logic and Puzzles 1
2. LRDI 1: Data Comprehension 5
3. LRDI 2: Data sufficiency and DI based on Percentages 17
4. LRDI 3: Analytical Reasoning 28
5. LRDI 4 _ Based on Ratio, Mixtures, Averages 42
6 LRDI 5 _ Based on Logic 52
7. LRDI 6 _ Based on Logic 60
8. Question Bank 1 67
9. Question Bank 2 70
10. Answers and Explanations 75

Logic and Puzzles
Learning Objective:
• Give students a feel of reasoning questions.

• Make it clear that puzzles are not the uncrackable thing in given time frame. Also need to remove
myth that puzzles are always time consuming.
• At the same time display how careful use of clues can help a person to solve a puzzle very quickly.
• Also to learn what we should be searching when solving a puzzle.
• Explain why it is important to develop a habit of solving puzzles.
Time management & overview of lecture:
• Informal introduction (5 min)

(It includes the topic introduction as well as yours as this is the first class for a PEX batch)
• Take Questions 1-2

• Give 10 min to the students so that they can try on their own. Rarely anyone will be able to solve
it, but if anyone is able to solve it, applaud his feat.
• Explain the puzzle in next 5 min.
• If questions 1-2 is not solved by anyone then take questions 8-12 and give 12 min to the students to
try that. If any student was able to solve questions 1-2, then take questions 3-6 and give 10 min to
that student to try that.
• Explain the questions in (8-10) min.
• If you have taken questions 8-12, then solve questions 3-6 and vice-versa. Time allotment as given
above, followed by explanation.
• Questions 3-6: one can actually play that puzzle using chalks or markers or pen, that will certainly
help students to understand the question better.
• Question 7 can be used to tell the students the importance of basic logical thinking and keep
looking for patterns.
• Questions 13-16: see to it that the students should solve this. Ask each student to solve this and
you can ensure on one to one basis that student are able to solve this (15 min).
• Questions 17-21 (15 min) should be given to the students to solve it and then explain it in 10 min.
If time permits, take questions 22-24 with 10 min for student to solve the problems & 10 min for
explanation.
Note: Questions 8 to 12 came in XAT 2009
LRDI Faculty Manual MBA Page 1

Test Prep
Informal Introduction
Data Interpretation and reasoning is one of the section in CAT as well as exams like XAT, FMS, SNAP, IIFT
etc. What we are concentrating in this sheet is logical puzzles which can be further classified as analytical
reasoning or mathematical reasoning. First, we need to concentrate on what is puzzle? Puzzle is a
particularly baffling problem that is said to have a certain solution. One can get a solution, when a person
is able to understand the given hint or clue, at the sametime one should also understand when to use it and
where to use it. One may also come across some redundant data, given just to misguide you. So in this
lecture our focus will be just to understand what does a reasoning question is in a competitive exam.
Introduction to logic and puzzles
Questions 1 and 2:
Step 1: A, B, C, D, E, F, G are seven consecutive integers hence it can be 51 to 57 or 52 to 58 or 53 to 59
Step 2: Read all the conditions to the students.
Step 3: So according to clue 11, we can eliminate two cases i.e. 51 to 57 and 52 to 58, as the highest
number should be prime and only 59 is prime.
G
Step 4: E – D + E − D + 11 = , as E, D and 11 are integer hence G/4 should also be integer. This means
4
G, should be a multiple of 4. From 53 to 59 only one multiple of 4 is present i.e. 56.
∴ 53 54 55 56 57 58 59
G B
Step 5: E – D = 3 (substituting value of G). Now two cases exists

53 54 55 56 57 58 59
Case 1 D G E B
Case 2 D G E B
Step 6: A is an odd number & C is an even. Also C – D = B – A which implies C > D & B > A. It also implies.
A cannot be 53 as that will be maximum difference. In Case 1, C can take only one value i.e. 54.
But that makes C < D. So case 2 is true.
53 54 55 56 57 58 59
F D A G E C B
Learning:
Read minute details carefully and write down confirmed data i.e. like when we understood B can only be
59, write B in front of 59. Also writing numbers vertically or horizontally in ascending order will help as it
sometimes gives visual clues. Minute details like consecutive integers, multiple of four (G/4), even inte-
ger, odd integer etc should be carefully used.

Test Prep
Questions 3 to 6
⇒ Use the solution given in the answer sheet.
If you actually play this game, then student will understand better. The question should not be explained for
just 10 sticks but should be generalised
e.g. A is beginning the game
No of Sticks in font of A How many should A pick what will a pick B Result
1 No choice has to pick one – A losses
2 1 1 A wins
3 2 1 A wins
4 3 1 A wins
(So any person who has 2 or 3 or 4 sticks in front of him/her will win)
A has 5 sticks in front o f him
A picks1 A picks 3
A P icks 2 B w ill have 3

B w ill have 4
sticks infront of sticks in fron t
him B w ill have 3 of h im
sticks in fron t
of h im
S o acco rd ing to S o B w ill w in
abo ve tab le B
w ill w in S o B w ill w in
⇒ We can generalise if person picking last is loser, then if a person has (4n + 1) stick in front of him
then the person will be loser.
⇒ If person picking last is winner, then a person will lose, if he has (4n) stick in front of him.
Learning:
Reasoning out how the game is played & how a question can be generalised. Even we can further under-
stand question if try to explore why the answer was 4n + 1 & 4n. It can be understood better if we take a
different example where no of sticks that can be picked is 1, 2, 3 or 4. Here answer will be 5n + 1 & 5n.

Test Prep
7. Main Problem:
Distributing 127 coins in different bags such that taking combination of bags or single bag we can
make any denomination from 1 to 127.
Sub problem:
Need to minimize the number of bags.
Main problem will be solved if we put one coin in each bag, but that will maximise the number of
bags. So lets proceed in steps.
(1) One Bag should have one rupee as if we are supposed to give one rupee we can directing give
that bag.
(2) Now how can I give two rupees, so I put two coins in a bag. Hence now I can give Rs 1, Rs. 2 and
Rs 3 combining the two bags.
(3) But cannot give Rs 4. So one bag should have Rs 4 i.e. four coins. Hence
B1 B2 B3 B4 B5 B6 B7
1 2 4 8 16 32 64
all are powers of two. This again displays how a question can be generalised.
Questions 8-12:
Solution is fine.
Apart from that few things to keep in mind.
A ⋅B ⋅C = B ⋅G ⋅E = D ⋅E ⋅F
⇒ No number is present in all three products, maximum it present in only two numbers.
⇒ So 0, 5 and 7 not possible as it can present in only two and rest we cannot make 0, 5 or 7 in other
way from the available numbers.
⇒ So we are left with 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 9. These are seven digits and required are also seven digits.
⇒ Hence every product is multiple of 9 as well as 8 i.e. 72
Questions 13-16:
Trial and error method.
Stress on practice in DI & reasoning

DI and reasoning sounds difficult because we don’t know how to start with. Solving lots of problem will help
you develope many approaches of solving problems. Practicing regularly is the key.
Questions 17-21:
Solution is sufficient.

Test Prep
LRDI Exercise 1 _ Data Comprehension
Learning Objectives:
• To make students understand various conventional and unconventional data representation formats
(table, line, bar, pie, doughnut etc.)
• To ensure students are able to convert one form of data representation into other.
• Student should be shown the LRDI fundabook. Check out a Strategy / Planner for solving LRDI
fundabook.
Material: LRDI Class Exercise – 1
Time Manager:
• Importance of Data Analysis 3 – 5 minutes
• Understanding different graphs 15 minutes
• Exercise driven discussion 80 minutes
• Introspection and Learnings: 10 minutes
• Previous puzzle discussion and new puzzle 5 – 10 minutes
Importance of Data Analysis:
What is data analysis?

Data analysis is a process of collation, presentation and interpretation of the information contained in the
data to aid decision making. Data analysis has multiple facets and approaches, encompassing diverse
techniques under a variety of names, in different business, science, and social science domains. There are
mathematical techniques that are usually adopted in aiding data analysis.
Ask the students:

Why are profit and loss accounts of a company represented in a tabular format and why not in textual
bookish form?
Why do we have periodic table for elements in Chemistry?
Why do we have maps? Why don’t we write “India to the north of Sri Lanka and to the south-east of
Pakistan” instead?
Argue that visual representation is the best representation because the comprehension and analysis of the
data becomes easier and facilitated in a visual format. Across the corporate world data comprehension,
analysis and presentations form the basis on which management takes the decisions on future course of
action.
For instance, financial reports of a company indicate its wealth (as well as health). You may take an
example of sales graph of any car manufacturing company (Maruti Udyog) indicating the number of car
units sold in various years. Based on this, management arrives at the projected sales of the next year
etc…

Test Prep
What is tabular representation?
A table is both a mode of visual communication and a means of arranging data. The use of tables is
pervasive throughout all communication, research and data analysis. Tables appear in print media,
handwritten notes, computer software, architectural ornamentation, traffic signs and many other places.
The precise conventions and terminology for describing tables varies depending on the context. Moreover,
tables differ significantly in variety, structure, flexibility, notation, representation and use.
Advantages
Huge amount of data can be put in a tabular format. As exact values are given there is no need to approximate
values.
Disadvantages
Finding percentage growth relationship is difficult, as we are supposed to calculate values.
Number of vehicles sold in year

2000 2001 2002 2003 2004*
Mopeds 580 490 450 380 330
Scooters 520 640 720 680 830
Motorcycles 460 540 750 840 930
Total 1560 1670 1920 1900 2090
What is line graph?
Line graph is used to represent the data like sales, profits, population etc. over different domains (for
example, time periods), such that value in each time period can be determined from the line graph. The
advantage with the line graph is that it gives an idea about the quantity expressed in the graph between the
given time periods as well.
In the process of representing the data in the line graph the accuracy to determine the exact value gets
lost, as one has to determine the values by looking at the scale on the axis. However the values can be
expressed in the graph only but then graph becomes more cluttered.
Annual Sales of 2-w heelers in India, 2000-2004

100 0
900
800
700
600
500
400
300
200
200 0 200 1 200 2 200 3 200 4*
M opeds S cooters M oto rcycles

Test Prep
Advantages
Very good representation of change. We can easily compare the percentage change of different categories.
Disadvantages
Need to approximate values.
What is a bar graph?

A bar chart or bar graph is a chart with rectangular bars with lengths proportional to the values that they
represent. Bar charts are used for comparing two or more values. The bars can be horizontally or vertically
oriented. Sometimes a stretched graphic is used instead of a solid bar. It is a Visual Display used to
compare the amount or frequency of occurrence of different Characteristics of Data, it is use to compare
Groups of data.
Advantages
We can directly compare between two three different companies or entity.
Disadvantages
Need to approximate values and the percentage change is difficult to compare without comparison.
Annual Sales of 2-wheelers in India, 2000-2004

Number of vehicles sold (in '000s)
1000
900
800
700
600
500
400
300
200
100
0
2000 2001 2002 2003 2004*
Mopeds Scooters Motorcycles

Test Prep
930
2008 830
330
840
2007 680
380
750
2006 720
450
540
2005 640
490
460
2004 520
580
0 200 400 600 800 1000

Number of vehicles sold (in '000s)
Cumulative bar graph is used to express the sales of different products of a company across different
product groups. It is formed by stacking the bars of individual categories one over the other. A cumulative
bar graph can also be used to represent the percentage share of each product in a product group.
2500
2000
1500
1000
500
0
2004 2005 2006 2007 2008

Test Prep
Percent contribution in to sales (volumes) of 2-wheelers in India,
2004-2008
10000.0%
9000.0%
8000.0%
Percentage 7000.0%
6000.0%
5000.0%
4000.0%
3000.0%
2000.0%
1000.0%
0.0%
2004 2005 2006 2007 2008
Advantages
Can relate many different categories or varieties.
Disadvantages
Not useful in finding trends.
What is a pie chart?

A pie chart (or a circle graph) is a circular chart divided into sectors, illustrating relative magnitudes or
frequencies or percents. In a pie chart, the arc length of each sector (and consequently its central angle
and area), is proportional to the quantity it represents. Together, the sectors create a full disk. It is named
for its resemblance to a pie which has been sliced.
While the pie chart is perhaps the most ubiquitous statistical chart in the business world and the mass
media, it is rarely used in scientific or technical publications. It is one of the most widely criticized charts,
and many statisticians recommend to avoid its use altogether, pointing out in particular that it is difficult to
compare different sections of a given pie chart, or to compare data across different pie charts. Pie charts
can be an effective way of displaying information in some cases, in particular if the intent is to compare the
size of a slice with the whole pie, rather than comparing the slices among them. Pie charts work particularly
well when the slices represent 25 or 50% of the data, but in general, other plots such as the bar chart or the
dot plot, or non-graphical methods such as tables, may be more adapted for representing information.
2008
20 07 Number of vehicles sold (in '000)
M op eds M op eds
20 % 33 0
M otorcycles M otorcycles
44 % 93 0
S coo te rs S coo te rs
36 % 83 0

Test Prep
Set 1
Here data is in form a type of pie chart. But instead of percentage or angle values direct values are given.
We can just understand which ring stands for which category. This is the only interpretation we are looking
in the beginning. There is no need to start relating values. So once we have done with our basic interpreta-
tion we will go to questions for further interpretation.
Set 2
The given set is an example of tabular format. Following are interpretation we can do after looking at the
table:
1) If a person is not roaming and doesn’t make any call or sms, then cost for Idea, Airtel and Hutch
will be 175, 200 and 250 respectively.
2) Only GSM (Idea is economical), only landline (Hutch and Idea) and only CDMA (Hutch is better).
When equal number of pulses are there for all the types then Hutch and Idea will have the same
cost, while Airtel will have the maximum cost. And many other such interpretations can be dis-
cussed in class.
3) Roaming wise Airtel is definitely cheaper than Hutch. But comparison with Idea cannot be done as
the rent are day wise. Hence the value is variable. It actually depends on number of days and
number of calls made.
Set 3
The given set is an example of pie chart. It has three different pie charts.
a) production units which is same as number of units sold
b) sales value
c) cost contribution to the company.
Following are some important things to consider when solving the questions.
1) It is the variety which has lowest ratio of ( % value of pie chart 2 / % value of pie chart 1)
2) Answer depends on overall cost value and sales value which is not given.
3) Need to find the ratio of % value of pie chart3 / % value of pie chart1.
4) Profit = Sales – Cost. Overall sales and cost value is not given.
5) Relating sales of G and cost of D we can easily get ratio of overall sales and profit, which can be
used to find percentage profit but cannot be used to find actual profit.
6) Forming equations will help you, unless some common factors get cancelled, the answer will be
in terms of X.
Set 4
Table 1: Runs in percentages
Runs scored in Runs scored Runs scored in

sixes in fours singles
Saurav 60% 40% 0%
Sachin 36% 24% 40%
Gambhir 37.5% 50% 12.5%
Zaheer 75% 0% 25%

Test Prep
Table 2: Runs in simple ratio
Runs scored in Runs scored Runs scored in

sixes in fours singles
Saurav 6 4 0
Sachin 18 12 20
Gambhir 6 8 2
Zaheer 6 0 2
Ratio are converted into simplest form keeping in mind that runs scored in sixes should be multiple of 6,
runs scored in fours should be multiple of 4 and runs scored in singles should be integer. Hence minimum
score of Saurav, Sachin, Gambhir and Zaheer are 10, 50, 16 and 8 respectively. So the runs scored by
Saurav, Sachin, Gambhir and Zaheer will always be multiple of 10, 50, 16 and 8 respectively.
Set 5
Since each team plays with other 11 teams twice, there would be 22 matches per team in the end.
In this set, students across the batches (even faculty!!) make a common mistake to assume that one
match is necessarily to be played between Dempo and East Bengal. However, it may not be the case.
Consider Dempo’s remaining matches with Mahindra and Fransa and East Bengal’s remaining matches
with Tollygunge and SBT. In that case, a match need not be between Dempo and East Bengal. It might
have happened that these 2 teams have already played their 2 matches with each other (which gets
included into their total of 20 matches played).
Sporting club, Dempo & East Bengal have possibilities of winning championship.
• Thus, for East Bengal to win the NFL it must win the remaining two matches to make its total points
46; which is past Sporting Club.
Sporting Club need not lose its only remaining match. It can even draw it and lose out to East
Bengal based on the would-be goal difference.
Dempo also may draw its match and still East Bengal can win finally.
Thus, only statement (I) is necessary.
• Here, the team at 4th position cannot get to 3rd, even when it wins its remaining match and the
former loses its match. Hence, the top 3 would remain top 3. So would bottom 3. For (4,5,6) and
(7,8,9), it may not be true.
• Dempo will have 48 points and will be rank 1. Rank 2 would be Sporting Club.
Rankings depends on various possibilities.

Test Prep
Set 6
1. Buy one day and sell other day means the line graph should be upward going and for maximum
percentage return it should be have maximum slope or it should be the steepest. From observation,
it is Colgate from monday to tuesday.
2. Sell on one day and buy on other, means first day price should be high and other day price should
be low. So line diagram should be downward going and should be the steepest. We have three
possibilities AP(Thu-Fri), GAC(Tue-Wed) or Colgate(Wed-Thu). Difference between sell and buy is
same for all. But the denominator is lowest for colgate.
3. Maximum absolute return is on Colgate Rs. (270 – 250) = Rs. 20. Also, its base is also lowest.
So, percentage hike for Colgate would be maximum.
Set 7
This set encourages approximation. The most asked question from the students is: Where to approximate??
The answer is that approximation should be applied where:
(a) There is no option like “Cannot be determined” (CBD) or “Data Insufficient” or “None of these”
(b) The options are wide apart.
1. The data is a subset of total vehicles running in US. It considers only those vehicles that are hybrid/
running on alternative fuel. Since 1 option is CBD, set should be understood before answering.
2. The type-breakup of SUVs, Pickup Trucks and others are not given.
Hence, statement (I) isn’t necessarily TRUE. (II) is true whereas (III) is false.
3. Take vans=7000. 20% hike means 1400. Thus, autos increased by 19000 approximately, which is
an increase of 19,000 on 242,000. Taking it an increase of 20k on 250k, answer comes out to be
8%.
4. 20% of SUVs = 90,000. Auto midsize = 11 + 9 = 20 whereas auto compact = 13.

Thus, ratio = 20 : 13 = 11 : 7 approx.
Set 8
This set apparently looks to be very calculative. However, the questions could have been done with just
observation and very little calculations.
1.3 × 1000 1.3 × 10 ton

1. Yield(Amapa) = =
5 21 × 5 hectare
21 × 10000 ×
100
4.9 × 10
Yield(Brsilia) = .
48 × 10
1 1
= 0.1 > 0.1
10 9
Means denominator should be less than 10 times of numerator.

Test Prep
2. Many students could have started taking 60% in each of the states. However, 60% can be taken on
net Cocoa production for getting the answer quickly.
3. Here, price of Cocoa is 10 times the price of Sugar. Hence, Cocoa production becomes more
significant. The state, thus, is Mato Grosso.
4. This is a simple question on counting. One column is to be compared with other and other column
has to be compared with the figure ‘15’.
5. Here again, column of Total Area divided by 10 is to be compared with the column of Sugar Production.
For instance, Amapa’s total area of 21 (ten thousand hectares) should be taken as 2.1 and compared
with its Sugar Production of 2.4. Since 2.1 < 2.4, this state doesn’t qualify. Parana qualifies because
2.5 > 0.9, but its population is less than 15. So, it should be rejected.

Test Prep
Question Bank
Directions for questions 1 to 5 are based on the following graph:
Number of Out of School Children in Different Regions of the World from 2001 to 2006
140000 Latin America and the

Caribbeab
120000
East Asia and the
Pacific
100000
South Asia
80000
West and Central Africa
60000
Eastern and Southern
40000
Africa
20000 Middle East and North
Africa
0 Central and Eastern
2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 Europe / CIS
1. Which of the following is FALSE:

(1) The number of children out of school in West and Central Africa has increased over the years.
(2) The number of children out of school in South Asia has come down over the years.
(3) The number of children out of school in the Middle East and North Africa region has
increased over the years
(4) None of the above
2. Which of the following is TRUE:

(1) Over the years the largest number of out of school children have been in Eastern and South
African region
(2) The smallest number of out of school children have been in the East Asia and Pacific region over
the years
(3) Over the years, the largest number of out of school children has been in the South Asian region
3. The ratio of out of school children in South Asia to those in west and Central Africa from
2001 to 2006 has become
(1) higher
(2) approximately half
(3) marginally lower
(4) none of the above

Test Prep
4. From 2001 to 2003, which of the following options CANNOT be deduced from the graph?
(1) Overall, the out of school children have gone up
(2) In West and Central Africa the numbers of out of school children have remained almost the
same over three years
(3) The largest numbers of out of school children are in South Asia
5. The total number of children who did not go to school

(1) increased from 112,000 to 120,100 from 2001 to 2006
(2) was over 120,000 in 2004
(3) peaked in 2003
(4) cannot be estimated from the above graph
Directions for questions 6 to 11 are based on the information given below:

The Venn-diagram given below shows the estimated readership of three daily newspapers (X, Y and Z) in
a city.
X 2.5 Y
0.5
1.0 1.5
The total readership and advertising cost for each of these papers is as follows:
New spaper Readership (lakhs) Advertising cost (Rs. Per sq. cm.)
X 8.7 6000
Y 9.1 6500
Z 5.6 5000
The total population of the city is estimated to be 14 million. The common readership (in lakhs) is indicated
in the above Venn-diagram.
6. The number of people (in lakhs) who read at least one newspaper is
(1) 4.7 (2) 11.9 (3) 17.4 (4) 23.4
7. The number of people (in lakhs) who read only one newspaper is
(1) 4.7 (2) 11.9 (3) 17.4 (4) 23.4
8. The approximate percentage of population reading at least two newspapers is

(1) 2.9 (2) 3.5 (3) 3.9 (4) None of the above

Test Prep
9. The ratio of readers reading only one newspaper to those reading only two newspapers is
(1) 2.38 : 1 (2) 3.65 : 1 (3) 4.57 : 1 (4) None of the above
10. The combination of any two newspaper that given the minimum advertising cost (in Rs. per sq.
cm.) per 1000 readers is
(1) X and Y (2) Y and Z (3) X and Z (4) None of the above
11. The minimum expenditure (in Rs. per sq. cm.) on advertising required to reach at least 12 lakh
readers is
(1) 11000 (2) 11500 (3) 12500 (4) None of the above
Directions for questions 12 to 14 on the basis of the graph given below.
Sales and Costs of XYZ Co.
2400
2300
2200
Figure in Rupees
2100
2000
1900
1800
1700
1600
1500
1400
1300
1200
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Month
Sales Cost of goods sold
12. In which month did the company earn maximum profits?

(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2 (5) 5
13. In which month did the company witness maximum sales growth?
(1) 9 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 7 (5) 1
14. What were average sale and costs figures for XYZ Co. over the period of ten months?
(1) 1819, 1651 (2) 1919, 1751 (3) 1969, 1762 (4) 1719, 1601 (5) 1619, 1661

Test Prep
LRDI Exercise 2 _ Data Sufficiency
Learning objective
1) To understand fundamentals of data sufficiency questions.
2) Data sufficiency questions doesn’t need to find final answer but need just to verify whether using
the given data can we get a unique answer.
3) Importance of percentages as a topic in Data Interpretation.
4) Announcement of student must finish exercise (A1-A13) and (B1-B7) from funda book before
the LRDI-3 class.
Material: LRDI 2: Class exercise.
Time manager:
What is Data sufficiency? 10 min
Q 1-10 DS questions [10 min to the students & 10 min explanation] 20 min
Q 11-13 (DS + DI)[10 min to the students & 5 min explanation] 15 min
Q 14-20 % based DI[10 min to the students & 10 min explanation] 20 min
Q 21-25 % based DI [5 min to the students & 10 min explanation] 15 min
What is data sufficiency?

A data sufficiency question consists of one main question which has incomplete information. Along with
this there are two statements. We are supposed to use data given in question statement and the two
statement/s to get the answer. Following cases are generally involved:
1) If (question statement + statement I) is sufficient to get the answer but (question statement +
statement II) is insufficient, then answer will be option (1).
2) If (question statement + statement II) is sufficient to get the answer but (question statement +
statement I) is insufficient, then answer will be option (2).
3) If (question statement + statement I) as well as (question statement + statement II), can give
the answer independently, mark option (3).
4) If above three conditions are not satisfied (but question statement + statement I + statement II)
can give the answer, then mark option (4).
5) If data insufficient mark option (5).
Questions 1-10:
1. According to statement 1 we have (C B – – –) or (– C B – –) or (– – C B –) or (– – – C B). Hence

statement I is not sufficient alone. According to statement II, (– A – – D) or (D – – A –). Hence
statement II is also not sufficient alone. When we take statement together we get (– A C B D) or
(D C B A –). In one case C is stoppage three and in other case, B is stoppage three.
2. Statement I we get a, b and c will be 1, 2 or 3, but we cannot find what is a. Statement II has just a
relationship where a, b and c can take any value. Hence when we combine both the statement we
get the answer.

Test Prep
3. a × b × c = 30 and 30 = 2 × 3 × 5. Hence only statement I is sufficient to find the answer as nowhere
it is specified that a, b and c are distinct natural numbers.
4. a > b. Both a and b are positives. Then ax > bx if x > 0 and ax < bx if x < 0. But when the numbers are
negative or one negative and other positive, then it also depends on whether x is odd or x is even.
5. Product of two or more numbers is even when one of the number is even. Product of two or more
numbers is odd if all the numbers are odd.
6. Let the sides of triangle be A, B and C. C is the hypotenuse. AB = 80 and A + B + C = 40. As the
triangle is a right angled triangle: C2 = A2 + B2.
7. Important thing to remember is nail at the vertex will be common between two edges.
8. In statement II the average can increase because of scoring total runs in two innings more than 116.
This might include a century or it can be done without a century as well.
9. Minimum value of z = 2 and maximum value of x = 7. But x has to be multiple of 3. So x = 3 or

x = 6. If x = 3, y = 7 and z = 10 and if x = 6, y = 6 and z = 4. In both cases x + y + z < 24.
10. One statement is given in terms of % and other just states about arithmetic progression. No value
is given.
Questions 11-13:
Are ideal for clearing the concepts on percentage decrease/increase.
11. % increase from 50 to 80 is definitely more than % increase from 45 to 70 since 50 and 45 are close
and absolute increase in former is 30 and in latter is 25. Thus, statement (I) should be correct.
And decline from 95 to 90 is much less than decline from 55 to 30. Both are true.
12. Overall, it can be seen that number of killings are getting down. So, avg. in previous half would
necessarily be more than avg. in later half.
Also, from 95 to 30, decline rate is more than 66%. If annual decline is taken, it would be more than
7% per year. Only first statement is correct.
13. % increase from 95 to 120 is less than % increase from 55 to 70. They are not equal. Even the
absolute numbers are not equal. Hence, both are false.

Test Prep
Questions 14-20:
Its a tabular representation which consists of value wise and volume wise distribution in year 2002 and
2003. Answers will be obtained if we are able to find value of the variables in the table.
* Value wise (2002)
25% à 60,000
So, 100% à 2,40,000 (B)
So, 37.5% à 90,000 (A)
I and C depends on previous years value.
* Value wise (2003)
2,40, 000(B) → 25% increase → 3,00,000 (D)

90,000(A) → 100%(G) increase → 1,80,000
60,000 → 66.66% increase → 1,00,000 (E)
1,00,000 / 3,00,000 = 33.33% (F)
1,80,000 / 3,00,000 = 60% (H)
* Volume wise (2002)

22% of 10,000 = 2,200(L)
* Volume wise (2003)

2,200 → 50% increase → 3,300(Q)
3300 / 15000 → 22%(R) →
10,000 → 50%(M) increase → 15,000
K, J, T, N and P could not be found with given data.
14. Avg price is value of 2002/ volume of 2002
15. Value of G is already found above.
16. Avg price of skin cream industry in 2002 = 2,40,000 / 10,000 = 24.
So average price of ponds is 2.5 x 24 = 60. K = 90,000 / 60 = 1500 i.e. 15% of market share.
17. 100(cost) 20% profit 120(sales)

120 90,000
20 15,000

Test Prep
18. Value of ponds in 2001 = 60,000. As average price is 30, volume in 2001 = 2000. This is decrease
of 500 over 2000 i.e. 25% decrease.
19. Total cost is 1,00,000 and is in ratio 3:7 for 2002:2003. Hence cost for indelor in 2003 is 70,000 but
sales is 1,00,000. Therefore, percentage profit is 30,000/70,000 = 42.9%
20. Growth rate of indelor in 2003 is 25% less than that of 2002. Growth rate of 2003 is ¾ of growth rate
of 2002. Hence growth rate of 2002 is 66.66%.
Questions 21-25:
Again, offer 2-3 minutes to the class for this set.

Understanding the set:
(a) Career Launcher India Ltd.’s employees were asked a question in 1999 and 2002.
(b) They responded to this question differently. There were 6 different responses to this question.
(c) In these two years, employee strength increased from 287 to 356.
(d) The break-up of these employees according to the response received was done for both the years.
(e) 10% for ‘Annually or in Reaction’ in 2002 means that about 36 employees out of 356 said that
Career Launcher India Ltd. reviews reported data only once in a year or only when there is a reaction
from the employees.
21. For ‘Continuous’, the increase is highly significant. Only other frequency to have a % increase from
2001 to 2003 is Monthly.
22. YES, because three frequencies in 2002 mean 82% of 356 = 292, which is greater than 287.
23. Base increased from 287 (in 99) to 356 (in 02). That means, x% of 287 = y% of 356. Which means,
‘x’ is a little greater than ‘y’. For Quarterly only, x=9 and y=7.
24. Choices are close, so exact answer should be found out.
25. ‘Satisfaction’ is not defined here. And it would be erroneous to consider those who reply ‘Never or
Rarely’ as unsatisfied.
Questions 26-30:
The question consists of two line graph, one is for exchange rate and other is for percentage growth in
balance of trade. Balance of trade is defined as (Export-Import). Rest there is nothing else to interpret.
Always in a calculative questions look for questions which has answer as cannot be determined or data
insufficient.
27. Here the answer is cannot be determined as import of 1994 and 1995, will be one variable and export
of 1994 will be another variable. We can form only one equation using the percentage growth rate of
balance of trade.

Test Prep
26. Percentage change in growth rate means look at the slope. The question is asking minimum, hence
look for a line between two different year in balance of trade which is slant, year 96 to 97.
29. In 1997, Rs 40 → $1. This implies Re 1 → $ (1/40). In 1998, the value of rupee declined by 10%,
which means it became 9/10 of previous value. Hence Re 1 → $ (0.9/40). So $1 → 40/0.9 = 44.44.
28 and 30 questions are calculative and basic concepts about percentages are required. The current
problem becomes more difficult because here we are supposed to approximate value. Point out this
problem to students, so that they can understand about selective solving in a particular caselet.
Questions 31-35
Bar chart gives details about production of wheat, rice and bajra for the year 2004, 2005 and 2006. While
with help of pie chart we can find the units sold for wheat, rice and bajra. Using percentages fundamentals
and the conditions given in the questions, we can actually arrive at the following table,
Rice Bajra Wheat

Production Unsold Sold Production Unsold Sold Production Unsold Sold
2004 150 NA 109.2 50 NA 39 120 NA 111.8
2005 170 40.8 150.75 55 11 53.6 150 8.2 130.65
2006 185 60.05 165 65 12.4 60 185 27.55 150
2007 80.05 17.4 62.55
The units unsold is from the last year. To find sold units, we use value of total sales and the sales
percentages given in pie chart. Calculating smartly and always trying to approximate can help here, as
most of option are not closer values.

Test Prep
Question Bank
Directions for questions 1 to 5: Refer to the four pie charts relating to the sectoral composition of output
and their respective share in employment in 1970 and 1994.
Sectoral Composition of India's Sectoral Composition of India's

Employment in 1970 Employment in 1994
Industry Services Industry
11% 15% Services
14%
23%
Agriculture
Agriculture 63%
74%
Sectoral Composition of India's Output in 1970 Sectoral Composition of India's

(% of GDP) GDP = Rs.42,222 crores Output in 1994 (% of GDP)
GDP = Rs.570,954 crores)
Industry
22% Services Industry
33% 28%
Services
42%
Agriculture Agriculture
45% 30%
1. Which of the following is FALSE:

(1) While the share of agriculture in the GDP has come down, the share of services and industry
has increased
(2) Agriculture continues to be the predominant provider of employment in India
(3) The share of employment in services has increased more than its share in GDP
2. Between 1970 and 1994 the Indian GDP, in Rupee terms

(1) has increased only marginally in services
(2) has increased most significantly for agriculture
(3) has risen by more than 15 times for both services and industry

Test Prep
3. Between 1970 and 1994 the GDP of India in agriculture
(1) decreased by 15%
(2) increased by about 9 times
(3) cannot be calculated based on the data given
4. In 1970 the contribution to GDP from services in rupee terms was

(1) less than Rs.10,000 crores
(2) more than Rs.15,000 crores
(3) between Rs.10,000 and 15,000 crores
5. In 1994 if the share of industry in output (GDP) was 30% instead of 28%, then in Rupee terms, it
would have been
(1) less than Rs.100,000 crores
(4) between Rs.100,000 and Rs.150,000 crores
Directions for questions 6 to 11 are based on the following information:

The results of a competitive exam, where candidates were tested on their knowledge in English, Science,
Maths and Art are given. The shaded cells in the title row represent the range of marks secured and the
columns below each such cell represent the number of candidates scoring within the specified range of
marks.
Total
Subject 81-100 71-80 61-70 51-60 41-50 31-40 21-30 11-20 0-10
Marks
English 100 0 1 4 85 730 4205 10885 9170 1920
Science 100 2 5 875 3350 6775 7778 5065 1800 1350
Maths 100 0 0 0 6 199 3400 15045 6975 1375
Art 50 0 0 0 0 220 2145 10140 11858 2637
6. The modal range for English is

(1) 21–30 (2) 31–40 (3) 41–50 (4) 51–60
7. The subject in which the maximum number of candidates scored more than 30 marks in the
examination is
(1) English (2) Maths (3) Art (4) None of the above
8. The total number of candidates who appeared for the exam, assuming that there were no
absentees, are
(1) more than 50,000
(2) 25,635
(3) 26,973
(4) 27,000

Test Prep
9. The average marks scored in Art, rounded off to the tenth place, are
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 40
10. The subject in which average marks were the highest is

(1) English (2) Science (3) Maths (4) Art
11. If securing over 40% is the qualifying criteria for each subject, the ratio of students who
qualify in Maths to those who qualify in Art is
(1) 15 : 42 (2) 1 : 1.1 (3) 56 : 1 (4) 1 : 61
Directions for questions 12 to 15 are based on the following passage:

Deregulation and competition have reduced communication costs. The average cost of a three minute call
to the United States fell from $ 4.00 in 1999 to $1.40 in 2004. Over that period, the share of people with
access to the internet tripled. But diffusion of technology around the world and within countries is unequal.
Average contracted capacity for international internet connections in developing economics grew from 3
bits per second per person in 2000 to 150 in 2006, still far short of the high income countries’ average,
estimated at 5000. The internet capacity of low income (less developed) countries was lower than even the
developing countries, at an average of 20 bits per second per person in 2006, and international voice traffic
was less than 5% that of high income countries. With only 1 personal computer in 2006, South Asia lags
behind other regions in access to personal computers. However, there are positive indications of change.
Between 2000 and 2006, fixed line and mobile phone subscribers per 100 people increased from 3 per
thousand to 150 per thousand. This growth was driven mainly by 7 fold increase in mobile phone subscribers.
12. Between 1999 and 2004, average calling costs to the United States fell by
(1) approximately 65%
(2) approximately 186%
(3) approximately half
(4) insufficient information
13. In 2006, the contracted capacity for internet connections for developing economies
(1) grew by 50% on per capita basis from its capacity in 2000
(2) was 3% of average contracted capacity of high income countries on per capita basis
(3) grew 500 times the capacity in 2000
(4) was 3 bits per second
14. For low income economies

(1) internet capacity was 0.4% of the capacity of high income countries in per capita terms
(2) internet capacity was 20% of the capacity of developing countries in per capita terms
(3) international voice traffic was 250 bits per second
(4) share of people with access to the internet tripled over six years
15. During 2000 to 2006, in South Asia, access to telephones increased by

(1) 7% (2) 7 times (3) 500 times (4) 4900%

Test Prep
Directions for questions 16 to 20 are based on the following information:
Health Parameters for India Under 5 mortality rate

(deaths per 100 children
under 5 years)
200 80
Infant mortality rate
70 (deaths per 1000 live
150 60 births)
56
50 Life expectancy (years)
47
100 43 40
30
Immunization (% of babies
50 20 who receive the DTP shot)
10
0 0 Contraceptive Prevalence
1980 2000 1990 2006 (% of married women using
contraceptives)
Values for the columns are represented on the left and values for the lines are represented on the right
Health and Population All Low Income

South Asia
Parameters Countries
Year 1990 2006 1990 2006
Population (in thousands) 1747930 2419656 1120092 1499368
Life expectancy 57 60 59 64
Infant mortality rate 93 74 86 62
Under 5 mortality rate 143 112 123 83

Immunization 65 68 67 64
Contraceptive Prevalence 33 44 40 53
16. In India, the infant mortality rate, under 5 mortality rate and DPT Immunization incidence
(1) have been falling over the years
(2) have been rising over the years
(3) have been following different trends

Test Prep
17. In 1990, contraceptive prevalence for India was
(1) close to the South Asian average in 1990
(2) close to the low income countries’ average in 1990
(3) double the low income countries’ average in 2006
(4) exactly same as the South Asian average in 2006
18. Under 5 mortality rate for low income countries in 1990 is

(1) less than that of India for 1990
(2) less than that of South Asia for 1990
(3) more than that of South Asia for 1990 by 10 per thousand births
(4) more than that of South Asia for 1990 by 20 per thousand births
19. The growth rate of population in India between 1990 and 2006
(1) much more than the growth rate of population in South Asia between 1990 and 2006
(2) almost same as the growth rate of population in Low income countries between 1990 and 2006
(3) much less than the growth rate of population in South Asia between 1990 and 2006
(4) much less than the growth rate of population in Low income countries between 1990 and 2006
20. In 2006, infant mortality rate in South Asia

(1) contributed to approximately half of the under 5 mortality rate in the same year
(2) is not related to the under 5 mortality rate in the same year
(3) contributed to approximately 75% of the under 5 mortality rate in the same year
(4) contributed to approximately 85% of the under 5 mortality rate in 2006
Direction for questions 21 to 25 are based on the following information:
Foreign Direct Investment Flows

Outflow s (Area of Origin) Inflows (De stination)
Year 1970 1980 1990 1970 1980 1990
High Income Countri es (FDI as a percentage of total)
USA 46 21 21.8 11.2 30 20
Europe 42.5 51.6 44.6 43.8 35.6 38.8
Japan 5.4 14 5.4 0.6 0.5 0.6
Oceania 1 2.2 1 6 4.8 2.4
Total 94.9 88.8 72.8 61.6 70.9 61.9
Developing and Transi tion Countries (FDI as a percentage of total)
Latin America 0.5 1 2.2 12.8 9 11
Africa 0.4 1.5 0.5 4.5 2.5 1.8
Asia 0.5 3.8 9.5 6.6 13 18.6
Ea stern Europe 0 0 0.4 0 0.5 3
Total 1.2 6.3 12.6 23.9 25 34.4
World (In billion dollars)
FDI 23.7 124.4 523.3 21 113.9 530.2

Test Prep
21. Amongst all the high income countries, the region/ country which has the maximum share in
FDI flows is
(1) U.S.A (2) Europe (3) Japan (4) Oceania
22. Amongst all the high income countries, the region/ country which gained the most in terms of
percentage points of net FDI inflows is
(1) USA (2) Europe (3) Japan (4) Oceania
23. Based on the above table, which of the following statements is FALSE for the developing and
transition countries
(1) Asia’s outflow in terms of percentage points is steadily increasing
(2) Asia has been the biggest gainer in terms of percentage points of FDI inflow
(3) Africa has been marginalized in the share of FDI flows
(4) Eastern Europe has not gained in net percentage points of FDI inflows
24. Based on the above table, which of the following statements is FALSE
(1) FDI inflows into USA have risen by almost 45 times in two decades
(2) Though outflows have risen for high income countries, inflows have risen even faster for them
(3) Both outflows and inflows have risen for Asia
(4) Oceania has become a net FDI provider to the world
25. Based on the table, which of the following statements is TRUE
(1) While inflows have increased for the developing and transition countries, outflows have decreased
for them
(2) Eastern Europe has not seen much growth of FDI inflows relative to other developing and
transition countries
(3) The greatest increase in net outflow has been for Eastern Europe
(4) Though inflows have increased for the developing and transition countries, outflows have increased
at a much faster rate

Test Prep
LRDI Exercise 3 _ Analytical Reasoning
Learning objective:
• To get exposed to almost all types of questions asked from analytical reasoning(AR).
• To understand the faster way of interpreting the textual data.
• To get a little exposure to mathematical and numerical reasoning as well.
• To understand that different AR question would require different approaches and even to some
extent standardizing the strategy.
Material: LRDI 3 Class Exercise
Time manager:
• What is analytical reasoning? 10 min
• Exercise driven discussion 1 hr 40 min
• Previous puzzle discussion and new puzzle 10 min
Preferable list and sequence of questions to be done in class.

Q 1 to 3, Q 4 to 7 (15 min to students + 10 minutes to explain) 25 min
Q 8 to 12 (15 min to the students + 10 minutes to explain) 25 min
What is analytical reasoning?

Analytical reasoning is a tool used in crypt analysis to break the cipher. Analytical reasoning questions are
designed to measure your ability to understand a system of relationships and to draw conclusions about
those relationships. Each set presents a distinct logic puzzle or game which includes three elements: (1)
the premise, (2) the conditions, and (3) the questions.
The Premise
The premise is a brief introductory paragraph establishing the setting for the game, identifying the subjects
involved, and describing generally how the subjects are related to one another. The number of subjects in
a game generally ranges from four to ten (five to eight is typical).
Example: An amusement park roller coaster includes five cars, numbered 1 through 5 from front to
back. Each car accommodates up to two riders, seated side by side. Six people—Tom,
Gwen, Laurie, Mark, Paul and Jack—are riding the coaster at the same time.
The Conditions
The premise is followed by a series of rules or conditions which impose specific restrictions upon the
relationships among the subjects. A logic game may include as few as two or as many as ten conditions,
although the number of conditions typically ranges from three to six (the example below pertains to the
preceding premise and includes four conditions). More conditions are there in question coming in XAT
while questions coming in other exams are simpler.

Test Prep
Example: Laurie is sharing a car.
Mark is not sharing a car and is seated immediately behind an empty car.
Tom is not sharing a car with either Gwen or Paul.
Gwen is riding in either the third or fourth car.
The Questions
The conditions are followed by a series of questions about the relationships defined by those conditions.
The questions call for deductive analysis. As in math problems, one and only one response can be proven
beyond any doubt to be the correct one. You must consider each question separately from the other
questions. Do NOT carry over information provided in any particular question to other questions. The four
questions that follow pertain to the premise and conditions above. If you wish to try these questions now,
a complete restatement of this Sample Logic Game (premise, rules, and questions), along with an analy-
sis of the game, is available for this purpose.
Sample Questions:
1) Which of the following groups of riders could occupy the second car?
(1) Laurie only
(2) Tom and Gwen
(3) Laurie and Mark
(4) Jack and Tom
(5) Jack, Gwen, and Paul
2) If Gwen is riding immediately behind Laurie’s car and immediately ahead of Tom’s car, all of the
following must be true EXCEPT:
(1) Gwen is riding in the fourth car.
(2) Paul is riding in the third car.
(3) Tom is riding in the fifth car.
(4) Laurie is riding in the third car.
(5) The first car is empty.
3) Which one of the following statements CANNOT be true?

(1) Neither Tom nor Gwen is sharing a car with another rider.
(2) Neither Mark nor Jack is sharing a car with another rider.
(3) Tom is sharing a car, and Jack is sharing a car.
(4) Gwen is sharing a car, and Paul is sharing a car.
(5) Tom is sharing a car, and Gwen is sharing a car.

Test Prep
Exercise driven discussion
In this exercise we are going to learn few techniques of solving AR. It is important to understand why for
a particular question we use a particular kind of technique.
Questions 1-3
Basic requirements of forming a committee is 4 people (2 from Brazil and 2 from Argentina), 1 striker and
1 defender(both irrespective of the nationality). What we are trying here is to convert words into some form
of visual representation. Following are interpretations of the conditions:
i) If Messi is there in team we should also have Ronaldinho and Crespo.
ii) Ronaldinho will be when Crespo is in team which doesn’t mean Crespo will be in team when
Ronaldinho is there. Crespo can be present alone in a team.
iii) (Heinze ≠ Kaka) [Have your own way of expressing Heinze not with Kaka]
iv) (Robinho ≠ Sorin)
1) Whenever question is about not acceptable panel, first look whether any option is violating a condition
or not.
2) Two people are already from Brazil, hence two people are required from Argentina. Crespo has to
be there as Ronaldinho is there. Required now is a defender and only possibility left is Heinze as
Sorin cannot be there in the Panel because of condition 4 mentioned above.
3) As Crespo is not there, that means Ronaldinho and Messi can not be there in a Panel. A Panel
needs a striker and then only striker available now is Ronaldo.
Questions 4-7
In such questions, a family diagram should be made first. The first reasoning is that A is a female, since
she has a husband. There are 7 people out of which 5 are females and 2 are males. If R and S both are
males then none of P or Q could be a male. Thus, R and S are confirmed females.
• (+) implies a male.
• (–) implies a female.
M o the r (–) A un t (–)
G ene ratio n 1
A G ene ratio n 2
S ister (– ) H usban d (+)
G ene ratio n 3
S on (+) D aug hte r (–)

Test Prep
4. Since S is a female, she cannot be A’s son.
5. In option (d), if U is T’s son, there is only one possibility of T being the father of U and husband of A.
Hence, U and T both would be males, which is not possible. However, it is important to tell why the other
options could not be the answers.
If S becomes the mother of A and P becomes the son of A, then option (a) would be true.
If S becomes A’s sister and P becomes A’s aunt, then option (b) would be true.
If P becomes A’s son and Q becomes A’s sister then option (c) would be true.
6. R/S/T R/S/T
R/S/T A U
P Q
7. Sisters means it can be in first generation or in third generation. Following conditions are possible:
R/S/U R/S/U P/T P/T
R/S/O A Q R/S A Q/U
T P Q/ U R/ S

Test Prep
Questions 8-12 (Similar to question which came in CAT 2005)
Lets see what we can interpret from the given data.
Table 1
IT LT Cp CC
FG 8 2 3 4
BG 3 6 5 3
Table 2
IT LT Cp CC
Anju 2 1 0 2
Anjali 2 0 0 1
Anjana 2 1 2 1
Anjika 1 2 1 2
Anjeshwari 2 2 1 0
Anjuman 2 0 0 0
• Total Ice-Tea(IT) in table1 is 11 and table2 is 11. Hence all the IT is consumed by people given in
table2. Also back gate(BG) total is 3(an odd number), Anjika has to be a BG person and one of the
remaining will be a BG person, while rest all will be taking drinks from front gate(FG).
• Lemon Tea(LT) total in table2 is 6 while that in table1 is 8. Hence 2LT will be consumed by either
Rajesh or Raju or Rajiv. Also Anjeshwari has to be BG person because if we take any other person
as BG person, number of LT in FG will become more than 2, which is not possible. Also the extra
2LT should be in BG.
• Total cappuccino(Cp) in table1 is 8 while in table2 is 4, so 4Cp has to shared between Rajesh, Rajiv
and Raju. 3 in BG and 1 in FG.
• Same way comparing cold coffee(CC), we know that 1CC is available at BG for either Rajesh or
Rajiv or Raju.
• Hence going through our interpretation we can say only one out of Rajesh, Rajiv and Raju is a
person taking juice from FG while rest would take from BG.
Questions 13-15
Arrange people horizontally or vertically in descending or ascending order of fairness or height. Like if we
arrange them vertically in descending order of fairness, then if A is fairer than B means A should be placed
above B in the order. We can do the same for height as well. If A is taller than B means A should be placed
above B in the vertical order.

Test Prep
Questions 16-17 : Solution is sufficient.
Questions 18-20
This set is usually not done by the students in their first attempt. Thus, it should be explained in the class.
Another reason is that this is a very good set depicting the behaviour of Analytical Reasoning.
By reading the information once, the following table could be made indicating ‘v’ for the language people
speak.
Hindi Marathi Urdu Bengali English
North √
South √ √ √
Central √ √
East √
West √ √ √
This table should be modified after reading the information from the questions.
From I – Bengali is the only common language among East, South, West. Thus, East cannot have
English.
From III – Marathi is the only common language between West and Central. Thus, West cannot have
Hindi, Central cannot have Bengali or English.
North √
South √ √ √
Central √ √ × ×
East √ ×
West × √ √ √
From V – Most people spoke Bengali. It has to be more than 3 (because English also has 3 people
speaking it so far). It cannot be 5 because Central has a × against Bengali. Hence, 4 people speak
Bengali.
North √ √
South √ √ √
East √ ×
West × √ √ √
From VI – One person spoke only one language. Since each of the persons except East is already speaking
more than 1 language, this person (of 1 language) can be from East only.

North √ √
South √ √ √
East × × × √ ×
West × √ √ √

Test Prep
From IV – 3 are for Urdu. So, Urdu has 3 ‘v’ and 2 ‘×’.
From III – West and Center do not have any common language except Marathi. Thus, Urdu cannot have ‘v’
on both Central and West. At least one of the two has to have a ‘×’.
Thus, North and South necessarily speak Urdu.
North √ √ √
South √ √ √ √
East × × × √ ×
West × √ √ √
From VI – One person spoke two languages. Only Central is possible for 2 languages. So, Urdu will be
spoken by West head, because Urdu has 3 ‘√’.
North √ √ √
South √ √ √ √
Central √ √ × × ×
East × × × √ ×
West × √ √ √ √
From VI – One person spoke three languages. Only North head can speak 3 languages. The South head,
hence, speaks all 5.
North √ × √ √ ×
South √ √ √ √ √
Central √ √ × × ×
East × × × √ ×
West × √ √ √ √
The question can be answered directly from this table.

Note: Maximum amount of time when you have one to one correspondence i.e. one entity need to be
related only with one entity, in such cases the tick and cross method is extremely effective. It is
not only effective but also a fastest possible way to solve such kind of questions. It also demon-
strates that whenever there is question based on relations, there is no need to always go with the
method.
Questions 21-25: Given that the lightest person weighed 150 pounds initially. Two out of the other two
weights initially were 180 and 170 pounds.
After the programme, the weight losses were 14 (Devika), 12(Clerk), 16 and 5(youngest dieter) pounds
Also, most successful dieter lost 10% of his/her initial weight.
Initially, since all the weights were more than 150 pounds, therefore the initial weight of the most
successful dieter must be 160 pounds.
Consider information D and E together:
Information D says that at the end of the period, the accountant weighed one pound less than Abhay.
Information E says that the youngest dieter who weighed 170 pounds before dieting, is seven years
younger than the dieter who lost only five pounds.

Test Prep
For both the above information to be true:
Accountant – initially weighed 160 pounds – lost 16 pounds – now weighs 144 pounds.
Abhay – initially weighed 150 pounds – lost 5 pounds – now weighs 145 pounds.
From Information A and C together:
Clerk – 180 pounds – 12 pounds – now weighs 168 pounds.
Devika – 170 pounds – lost 14 pounds – now weighs 156 pounds.
Since, Clerk is not Meena, therefore, Meena is an Accountant.

Let, the age of the Clerk be ‘x’ years.
Therefore, from information A, age of the oldest dieter = x + 3 years.
Let the age of Abhay be ‘y’ years.
Therefore, from information E, age of youngest dieter (Meena) would be ‘y – 7’ years.
Given by information B that y – 7 cannot be equal to 32.

Or y cannot be equal to 39.
‘y’ can also be not equal to 38 as then more than one person’s age would be an odd number.
Therefore, the only possibility that exists = y = 37 = x + 3.
Therefore, the four ages are 37, 34, 32 and 30.
Also, Abhay is the oldest dieter and is a Sales Representative.

Jaidev is 34 years old and is a Clerk.
So, now the final table as given in the solution of the exercise can be made.
Questions 26-30 (Based on question that came in CAT2006)

This question is primarily to check the conceptual soundness of aspirants. The road network and cost
optimisation is applied in the operations field of management.
Basic interpretations are,
• The arrow represents road and the value written over those roads are fixed fuel cost. Only not known
is fuel cost of B to C (this is the added feature which was not there in CAT2006). The fuel cost can
be 1 or 2 or 3 or 4. The direction of arrow is direction of traffic.
• Following is the list of roads and there charges,
A – B – H = 7 + b + 6 = 13 + b
A – B – C – H = 9 + b + c + (1/2/3/4)
A–D–C–H=8+d+c
A – D – E – H = 10 + d + e
A – F – G – H = 13 + f + g
Here b, c, d, e, f and g are toll charges which are integral values. Most important statement is traffic flows
through the route having minimum value, so if traffic flows equally through all the routes means the total
charges for all the route is same. Most of the questions here can be solved by help of the answer options,
that was the specialty of the question that came in CAT2006.

Test Prep
Question Bank
Directions for questions 1 to 3:

A, B and D meet their relations C, E, F and G while visiting the trade fair. A is the brother of B and D is the
father of A. F is the only son of C and E. E, who is the brother-in-law of G, is the father-in-law of B.
1. How many female members are there?

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
2. How is G related to A?
(1) Uncle (2) Father-in-law (3) Mother-in-law (4) None of these
3. Who is the spouse of F?

(1) B (2) E (3) C (4) G
Directions for questions 4 to 8: Read the following statements and answer the questions.
There are five friends Amisha, Binaya, Celina, Daisy and Eshaan. Two of them play table tennis while the
other three play different games, viz. football, cricket and chess. One table tennis player and the chess
player stay on the same floor while other three stay on floors 2, 4, and 5. Two of the players are industrialists
while other three belong to different occupations viz. teaching, medicine and engineering. The class player
is the oldest while one of the table tennis players, who plays at the national level, is the youngest. The
other table tennis player who plays at the regional level is between the football player and the chess player
in age. Daisy is a regional player and stays on floor 2. Binaya is an engineer while Amisha is the industrialist
and plays tennis at the national level.
4. Who stays on floor 4?

(1) Amisha (2) Binaya (3) Celina (4) Eshaan
5. What does Eshaan play?

(1) Chess (2) Football
(3) Cricket (4) Table tennis at regional level
6. Age wise, who among the following lies between Daisy and Eshaan?
(1) Teacher (2) Industrialist (3) Engineer (4) Doctor
7. Who all stay on floor 3?

(1) Amisha and Binaya (2) Daisy and Eshaan
(3) Binaya and Daisy (4) Celina and Daisy
8. What is the occupation of the chess player?

(1) Engineer (2) Industrialist
(3) Doctor (4) Teacher

Test Prep
Directions for questions 9 to 11: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that
follows:
Five flags, each with a distinct symbol namely Panther, Tiger, Rose, Swan and Quail, have been arranged
in the following order:
(i) Panther is next to Quail and Swan is next to Rose.
(ii) Swan is not next to Tiger, Tiger is on the extreme left hand side and Rose is on the second position
from the right hand side.
(iii) Panther is on the right hand side of Quail and to the right side of Tiger.
(iv) Panther and Rose are together.
9. Which of the following statement is true?

(1) (iii) and (iv) are contradicting
(2) Either (iii) or (iv) is redundant
(3) (iii) is redundant
(4) (iv) is redundant
10. ………is on the extreme right and ……… is on the extreme left.
(1) Tiger & Rose
(2) Quail & Tiger
(3) Swan & Tiger
(4) Tiger & Swan
11. …………is in the middle and ………is on its right.

(1) Panther & Swan
(2) Rose & Swan
(3) Panther & Rose
(4) Quail & Panther
Directions for questions 12 and 13: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Director of an institute wants to distribute teaching assignments of HRM, Psychology, Development Studies,
Trade policy and Finance to five of six newly appointed faculty members. Prof. Fotedar does not want any
assignment if Prof. Das gets one of the five. Prof. Chaudhury desires either HRM or Finance or no assignment.
Prof. Banik opines that if Prof. Das gets either Psychology or Trade Policy then she must get the other
one. Prof. Eswar insists on an assignment if Prof. Acharya gets one.
12. Which of the following is a valid faculty-assignment combination if all the faculty preferences are
considered?
(1) Prof. Acharya-HRM, Prof. Banik-Psychology, Prof. Chaudhury-Development studies, Prof. Das-
Trade policy, Prof. Eswar-Finance
(2) Prof. Chaudhury-HRM, Prof. Das-Psychology, Prof. Acharya-Development studies, Prof. Banik-
Trade policy, Prof. Eswar-Finance
(3) Prof. Acharya-HRM, Prof. Banik-Psychology, Prof. Eswar-Development studies, Prof. Das- Trade
policy, Prof. Fodetar-Finance
(4) Prof. Banik-HRM, Prof. Fotedar-Psychology, Prof. Eswar-Development studies, Prof. Chaudhury-
Trade Policy, Prof. Acharya-Finance

Test Prep
13. If Prof. Acharya gets HRM and Prof. Chaudhury gets Finance, then which of the following is not a
correct faculty-assignment combination assuming all faculty preferences are considered?
(1) Prof. Das-Development Studies, Prof. Banik-Trade Policy
(2) Prof. Fotedar-Development studies, Prof. Banik-Trade Policy
(3) Prof. Banik-Development Studies, Prof. Eswar-Trade Policy
(4) Prof. Banik-Development Studies, Prof. Das-Trade Policy
Directions for questions 14 to 17: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Mr. Mansingh has five sons – Arun, Mahi, Rohit, Nilesh and Sourav, and three daughters – Tamanna,
Kuntala and Janaki. Three sons of Mr. Mansingh were born first followed by two daughters. Sourav is the
eldest child and Janki is the youngest. Three of the children are studying at Trinity School and three are
studying at St Stefan. Tamanna and Rohit study at St Stefan school. Kuntala, the eldest daughter, plays
chess. Mansorover school offers cricket only, while Trinity school offers chess. Beside, these schools offer
no other games. The children who are at mansorover school have been born in succession. Mahi and
Nilesh are cricketers while Arun plays football. Rohit who was born just before Janki, plays hockey.
14. Arun is the _________________ child of Mr. Mansingh.

(1) 2nd (2) 3rd (3) 6th (4) 5th
15. Sourav is a student of which school?

(1) Trinity (2) St. Stefan (3) Mansorover (4) Cannot be determined
16. What game does Tamanna play?

(1) Cricket (2) Hockey (3) Football (4) Cannot be determined
17. Which of the following pairs was not born in succession (ignore the order)?
(1) Mahi and Nilesh (2) Kuntala and Arun (3) Rohit and Janki (4) Arun and Rohit
Directions for questions 18 to 21: Professor Mukhopadhay works only on Mondays, Tuesday, Wednesday,
Friday and Saturday. She performs four quizzes, evaluating quizzes, and working on consultancy projects.
Each working day she performs exactly one activity in the morning and exactly one activity in the afternoon.
During each week her work schedule MUST satisfy the following restrictions:
She conducts quizzes on exactly three mornings.

If she conducts quizzes on Monday, she does not conduct a quiz on Tuesday.
She lecturer in the afternoon on exactly two consecutive calendar days.
She evaluates quizzes on exactly one morning and three afternoons.
She works on consultancy project on exactly one morning.
On Saturday, she neither lectures nor conducts quizzes.
18. On Wednesdays, the Professors could be scheduled to

(1) Conduct a quiz in the morning and lecturer in the afternoon
(2) Work on a consultancy project in the morning and conduct a quiz in the afternoon.
(3) Lecturer in the morning and evaluate quizzes in the afternoon
(4) Conduct a quiz in the morning and work on consultancy project in the afternoon
(5) Evaluate quizzes in the morning and evaluate quizzes in the afternoons.

Test Prep
19. Which one of the following statements must be true?
(1) There is one day on which she evaluates quizzes both in the morning and in the afternoon.
(2) She works on consultancy project on one of the days ion which lecturers.
(3) She lectures on one of the days on which she conducts quiz.
(4) She works on consultancy project on one of the days on which she evaluates quizzes.
(5) She lecturers on one of the days on which evaluates quizzes.
20. If the Professor conducts a quiz on Tuesday, then her schedule for evaluating quizzes could be
(1) Monday morning, Monday afternoons, Friday morning, Friday afternoon.
(2) Monday morning, Friday afternoons, Saturday morning, Saturday afternoon
(3) Monday afternoons, Wednesdays morning, Wednesdays afternoon, Saturday afternoons
(4) Wednesdays morning, Wednesday afternoon, Friday afternoons, Saturday afternoon
(5) Wednesday afternoon, Friday afternoons, Saturday morning, Saturday afternoon
21. Which one of the following must be a day on which Professor lectures?
(1) Monday (2) Wednesday (3) Friday (4) Tuesday (5) Saturday
Directions for questions 22 to 25: During a four-week period each one of seven previously unadvertised
products - G, H J, K, L, M and O - will be advertised,. A different pair of these products will be advertised
each week. Exactly one of the products will be a members of two of these four pairs. None of the other
products gets repeated in any pair.
Further , the following constraints must be observed:
J is not advertised during a given week unless H is advertised during the immediately preceding week.
The product that is advertised twice is advertised during week 3.
G is not advertised during a given week unless either J or O is also advertised that week.
K is advertised during one of the first two weeks.
O is one of the products advertised during week 3.
22. Which one of the following could be the schedule of the advertisements?
(1) Week 1: G, J; week 2 : K, L; week 3: O, M; week 4: H, L
(2) Week 1: H, K; week 2: J, G; week 3: O, L; week 4: M, K
(3) Week 1: H, K; week 2: J, M; week 3: O, L; week 4: G, M
(4) Week 1: H, L; week 2: J, M; week 3: O, G; week 4: K, L
(5) Week 1: K, M; week 2: H, J; week 3: O, G; week 4: L, M
23. If L is the product that is advertised during two fop the weeks, which one of the following is a product
that MUST be advertisement during one of the weeks in which L is advertised?
(1) G (2) H (3) M (4) K (5) J
24. Which one of the following is a product that could be advertised in any of the four weeks?
(1) H (2) L (3) K (4) L (5) O
25. Which one of the following is a pair of products that could be advertisement during the same week?
(1) M and O (2) G and M (3) Ha and J (4) H and O (5) K and O

Test Prep
26. Mr. Bedi’s family members went on a picnic. There were two grandfathers and four fathers and two
grandmothers and four mothers in the group. There was at least one grandson or a granddaughter
present in this group. There were two husband-wife pairs in this group. The single grandfather
(Whose wife was not present had two grandsons and a son present in the party. The single
grandmother (Whose husband was not present) had two granddaughters present. a grandfather or
a grandmother present with their spouses did not have any grandson or granddaughter present.
What was the minimum number of people present in this picnic group?
(1) 14 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 16
i) Five girls - Seema, Reema, Neeta, Mona and Vena have total five tickets of movie theaters - Priya,
Chanakya, M2K, PVR Saket, Satyam where movies- Gangster, Khiladi, Hero, Salaam Namaste
and Iqbal are currently playing. Each girl has one movie ticket of one of the five theaters.
ii) Movie Gangster is running in Priya theater whose ticket is not with Veena and Seema.
iii) Mona has ticket of Iqbal movie.
iv) Neeta has ticket for the M2K theater. Veena has the ticket of Satyam theatre where Khiladi is not
running.
v) In PVR Saket theater Saalaam Namaste is running.
27. Which is the correct combination of the Theater - Girl - Movie?

(1) M2K - Neeta - Hero
(2) Priya - Mona - Gangster
(3) Satyam - Veena - Iqbal
(4) PVR Saket - Seema - Saalam Namaste
28. Which movie is running in Chanakya?

(1) Gangster (2) Iqbal (3) Hero (4) Data inadequate
29. Who is having the ticket of the movie Hero?

(1) Reema (2) Veena (3) Seema (4) Mona

Test Prep
Directions for questions 30 to 35: Study the 10 statements given below and answer the questions.
1. Six businessmen from six different nations are staying in different rooms in succession in the same
row in a hotel.
2. Each of them owns a different number of cars and has donated to different number of institutions
during the last year.
3. The businessman in Room no. 102 owns twice as many as the number of cars owned by the
businessmen who has donated to 8 institutions in the last year.
4. The businessman from Uruguay and the businessman in Room no. 106 together own 40 cars in
total.
5. The businessman from Argentina owns 8 cars less than the businessman from England but donated
to 10 more instillations in the last year.
6. Four times the number of cars owned by the businessman in Room no. 104 is lesser than the
number of institutions to which he has donated in the last year.
7. The businessman in Room No. 103 owns 12 cars and donated to 8 institutions in the last year.
8. The businessman who owns 16 cars donated to 24 institutions in the last year.
9. The businessman in Room no. 105 owns 8 cars and donated to 2 institutions less than those
donated by the businessman from Canada in the last year.
10. The Brazilian businessman is staying two rooms ahead of the English businessman who is staying
two rooms ahead of the Canadian businessman.
30. In which room is Brazilians businessman staying?

(1) Room no. 102 (2) Room no. 103 (3) Room no. 104 (4) Room no. 105
31. What is the number of institutions to which the Argentinean businessman donated in the last
year?
(1) 8 (2) 3 (3) 18 (4) 24
32. The businessman of which country is staying in Room no. 106?

(1) Argentina (2) Canada (3) Uruguay (4) Germany
33. The businessman of which country has donated to 24 institutions in the last year?
(1) Argentina (2) Uruguay (3) Canada (4) Germany
34. The businessman of which country owns the highest number of cars?
(1) Argentina (2) Uruguay (3) Germany (4) Brazil
35. How many cars are owned by the English businessman?

(1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 4 (4) 20

Test Prep
LRDI Exercise 4 _ Based on Ratio, Mixtures and Averages
Learning objective:
• Innovating ways to eliminate calculation or minimize calculation.
• Need to always focus on questions involving options like cannot be determined or data insufficient.
As careful observation can fetch easy marks.
• Never judge a case based on its length or vastness of the data.
• Also not all questions involving difficult values are difficult.
• Patience, careful observation and hard work is key to crack calculative caselets.
Material: LRDI Class Exercise 4
Time manager:
1) Why calculative caselets? 5 min
2) Exercise driven discussion 1 hr 20 min (Discuss the sets one by one.
Time given to the students for each set is completely
at your discretion)
3) Doubts 30-35 mins
Why calculative caselets?

Most of the caselets which comes in CAT are reasoning oriented. But if we see CAT 2007 and 2008 few
data interpretation questions were calculative. Also if we just go through papers of IIFT, FMS and JMET we
can see data interpretation caselets with very intensive calculation. They are not only laborious but also
difficult to interpret many times. Even like SNAP, NMAT and MCET are quite calculation oriented. The most
important thing to always keep in mind about such caselets is that though the caselet is difficult, we can
always find 2-3 questions which can be solved just by observation or some smart way by either eliminating
or minimizing calculation.
Questions 1-5
In all there are ten students with 5 different sports, Adventure Sports(AS), Motor Sports (MS), Water sports
(WS), Underwater activities (UA) and Extreme sports (ES). Each of the event AS, MS and WS evaluated
out of 100, UA out of 50, ES out of 200. Cumulative score is direct addition of the scores given in the table
but this is not used to find the final score.
Cummulative score of AS
Average of AS = =A
3
Average of MS = Cummulative score of MS = M
Cummulative score of WS
Average of WS = =W
2
Cummulative score of ES
Average of ES = =E
4

Test Prep
Average of UA = Cumulative score of (scuba + fishing) = U
Here if we observe M and U is equivalent to the their cumulative scores. This means change of 12 in
cumulative score results into change of 12 in average score. While in AS, change of 12 in cumulative score
results into change of 4 in average score. While in WS, change of 12 in cumulative score results into
change of 6 in average score. While in ES, change of 12 in cumulative score results into change of 3 in
average score.
A +M+ W +U+E
Final score =
5
This means if final score changes by 1, the value of A + M + W + U + E will change by 5. Then suppose we
want to put this change of 5 in cumulative score it will depend on in which group it will go. Like if we want
to put that in UA or WS, we can directly add in 5 in the group. But if we want to add that in AS, then 5 won’t
be added in score, instead 15 will be added. Also explain the concept of averages to student when you take
this case.
Questions 6-8
Total number of students in class is 200. Average weight of class is integer. If ‘y’ is number of boys then
number of girls will be ‘200-y’. So,
55y + 45(200 − y) y
Average weight of class = = 45 +
200 20
Hence 2 ≤ y ≤ 180 . Also y should always be multiple of 20 otherwise the average weight of the class won’t
be an integer. Hence in question 8, we can easily eliminate second condition as 200 cannot be divided in
seven parts and also the fourth condition as there number of boys won’t be multiple of 20.
6. If we want to minimize class average weight, then number of boys should be less than number of
girls as weight of boys is more than that of girls. So number of boys is 20 and number of girls is 180.
If we observe average weight of boys and girls of section C is same as that of class. Hence to
maximise students in C, we should be able to achieve average weight in other sections with mini-
mum number of students. If 1 boy is in A, 3 in B and 2 in D then we get the weighted average as the
average weight of boys, hence rest of the boys can belong to section C i.e. 14 boys. Likewise if 1 girl
is in A, 1 in B and 3 in D then we get the weighted average as average weight of girls. Hence number
of girls in C maximum can be 175.
Note: The values that 1 boy in A, 3 in B and 2 in D, can be found in following way. We want to achieve
weight as 55. We try to find the requirement to make 55 from 70. 55 – 70 = –15. Similarly 55 – 60 = –5 and
55 – 40 = 15. One –15 obtained from weight of one boy of A can be nullified with weight of one boy of D.
Same way –15 obtained from weight of 3 boys of B can be nullified with 15 obtained from weight of 1 boy
of D.

Test Prep
7. This can be solved using the help of note given above. Here we need to maximum ratio of boys to
girls. Hence number of boys should be maximum i.e. 180 and also number of girls in D should be
minimum. As specified above, if we have 1 girl in A, 1 in B, 15 in C and 3 in D, average weight of girls
as given can be achieved. Now number of boys should be maximum. The -15 contributed by 3 boys
of B can be easily nullified with +15 contributed by 1 boy from D. Hence 87 boys in A, 3 in B, 2 in C
and 88 in D will give the weighted average as 55.
Questions 9-13
Read the premise carefully. It specifies that if A buy a particular variety or two particular variety others also
do the same thing.
According to conditions given for 8-10, average cost of juice A is Rs 60. So either only juice J1 can be
brought or [ J2 + (J3 or J4 or J5 or J6) ], because if we want average to be 60, one value should be less than
60 and other greater than 60. J2 and J3 will be in ratio 1:1(Here price will be mean of the two prices). J2 and
J4 will be in ratio 4:3(Price will be slightly towards J2). J2 and J5 will be in ratio 7:3(Price tending more
towards J2). J2 and J6 will be in ratio 2:3 (Price more towards J6).
9. Here by just observation we can say the average price for H will be maximum if we take case of J2
and J3 or J2 and J4.
10. One of the average price of C will be 75 i.e. taking J1 only. Also if we take combination J2 and J4 for
E and G, the average price will be certainly more than 70. If we take J2 and J3 for F, the average price
will be greater than 60. Hence only three possible values for B, D and H.
11. Difference will be maximum for a juice which can have the minimum or maximum possible average
price. For G both are possible.
Now the condition that average price is Rs 60 for A is only applicable for 8-10 and not for
questions 11-12 as here some other information that average price of C is Rs 82 is used.
12. For average price of C to be Rs 82, one price has to be greater than 82 and other has to be less than
82. Price of juice J4 = 90, which is closer to 82 and hence if we want to maximise its volume the
other juice should have minimum price. Hence only J3 will satisfy the condition.
13. Possible combinations are J4 and J3 , J6 and J3, J4 and J5, J6 and J5. As we have four combination,
we will have four values and hence certainly one of the option will be wrong.
Questions 14-17
Here marks distribution of maths and physics in terms of percentage of total marks in each mock are given
for 10 students. So easily percentage score of chemistry can be obtained by subtracting the percentage
marks of maths and physics out of 100. Also,
3s 4t 3w 5y 3p 2q 4x 2u 2v 6r
> > > > > > > > >
15 22 17 30 17 16 15 15 14 30
This is the only data which is used to find relations between different total marks i.e. s, t, w, y, p, q, x, u,
v and r. Once we get that, all answers can be found out. The complete case is calculative and requires high
amount of observation and thinking.
Test Prep
Questions 18-21
Lets understand what happened during the years 2003 to 2006 and answer a couple of questions, the
answers of which would enable us to solve all the questions of this set very easily:
One faculty joined in each of the four areas and exactly one faculty retired from the institute during
these four years.
What happens to the average age of the faculty members when neither a faculty joins nor he retires
from an area between two consecutive years ?
The answer is obvious. The average age increases by 1.
So, when we look at the bar – graph, we can conclude that this happened in:
1. System: from 2004 to 2005 and from 2005 to 2006.
2. OB: from 2003 to 2004 and from 2004 to 2005
3. HR: from 2005 to 2006.
4. OM: from 2004 to 2005 and from 2005 to 2006.
What happens to the average age when a faculty member joins any area between two consecutive
years ?
Since the faculty member who joins is 25 years old, and before joining the average age in any area and in
any year is greater than 25, therefore the average age will go down between two consecutive years.
This happened in:
1. System: from 2003 to 2004
2. OB: from 2005 to 2006
3. HR: from 2003 to 2004 and from 2004 to 2005.
4. OM: from 2003 to 2004.
There was a decrease in the average age of the faculty members twice in the area HR. It is only possible
when a faculty member joined in one of the years and one faculty member retired (at the age of 60 years)
in the other year. Also, since the dip in the average age will be higher when a 25 year old member joins the
area HR, therefore, the new faculty member joined in the year 2005
So, the answer of question 18 becomes HR and of question 20 becomes 2005.
19. The solution for the question given in the exercise is exhaustive and self explanatory.
20. It is obvious that the new faculty member joined the area OM on April 1, 2004 and because of
which the average age dipped by (45 – 43 = 2 years).
So his age on April 1, 2006 would be 25 + 2 = 27 years.
Questions 22-25
22. The question asks to find the average age of 10 children.
Clearly only from statement I, the question cannot be answered as the average age of only
6 younger children is given to us.
For similar reasons, only from statement II, the question cannot be answered as it only gives
information about the average age of the 4 older children.
When the information given in both the statements are combined, we can calculate the average
6 × 12 + 4 × 16
age, which is equal to = 13.6 years
10

Test Prep
23. From statement I, we cannot answer if the maximum marks for each of the five examinations was
same or not, Hence, statement I would be insufficient to answer the question.
From statement II, we do not know have any information about the marks obtained in the four
examinations given previously.
When the information given in both the statements are combined we get the answer which is equal
to 5 × 75 – 4 × 71 = 375 – 288 = 87%.
24. In the question, it is given that average marks obtained by the whole class is 75% and the average
marks obtained by all the girls is 65%. We need to calculate the average marks obtained by the
boys.
Average marks (in percentage) obtained by the boys
75 × Total number of boys and girls – 65 × Total number of girls
=
Total number of boys
From statement I: The ratio of number of girls to boys is 1.5: 1
Total number of boys and girls
Therefore, = (1.5 + 1) : 1
Total number of boys
So, Average marks (in percentage) obtained by the boys = 75 × 2.5 – 65 × 1.5 = 90.
From statement II: The total strength of the class is 60.
But this information does not tell us any relation between the number of boys and girls.
Hence, the Average marks (in percentage) obtained by the boys cannot be calculated.
25. Let, the number of runs scored by Aman, Brijesh, Candy and Dinesh be ‘a’, ‘b’, ‘c’ and ‘d’ respectively.
Also, a, b, c, d > 0. We need to find the rank of Brijesh. In other words, we would be able to answer
the question, if we could determine a relation between the values of a, b, c and d.
From Statement I:
a+c a+c+d
=
2 3
a + c = 2d
Obviously, statement I would not be sufficient.
In other words, we can directly say that Statement I is insufficient as it does not talk anything
about Brijesh, which is our concern.
From Statement II:
b+c a+b+c
=
2 3
b + c = 2a and b < c.
This statement is insufficient to answer the question.
Combining both the statements together we get:

a, d and c are in AP or c, d and a are in AP
b, a and c are in AP
But since b < c, therefore a is also less than c.
So, b < a < d < c.

Test Prep
Question Bank
Directions for questions 1 to 6: Answer the questions based on the following table.
Growth Trend in Rail Wagons

Year Total Covered Open Open Departmental Special Total wagons Average
wagons wagons High Low wagons type capacity wagon
sides sides wagons capacity
wagons wagons
Number Number Number Number Number Number Number Number
1993 337562 157581 105469 12221 12009 50282 11.79 34.9
1994 312405 138642 101160 11922 11473 49208 11.32 36.2
1995 291360 121946 98795 11507 11185 47927 10.76 36.9
1996 280791 114065 98297 11196 11008 46225 10.62 37.8
1997 272127 106634 98906 10601 10645 45341 10.64 39.1
1998 263981 102217 97616 9726 10569 43853 10.69 40.5
1999 252944 96371 95613 9106 9612 42242 10.7 42.3
2000 234397 86024 91415 7735 8907 40316 10.26 13.8
2001 222193 75768 91099 7999 8443 38884 10.19 45.9
2002 216717 71950 90371 7585 9536 37275 10.09 46.6
2003 214760 68467 90765 7160 10718 37650 9.98 46.5
2004 227752 67870 100211 8882 11388 39401 10.66 46.8
2005 222379 64417 101757 8787 10964 36454 10.6 47.7
1. Find out the TRUE Statement:

(1) The member of covered wagons expressed as a percentages of total wagons declined consis-
tently from 1993 to 2002, but increased marginally in 2003 as compared to the pervious year
level.
(2) The special type wagons expressed as a percentage of total wagons is maximum
during 2003.
(3) The open high sided wagons expressed as a percentage to total wagons increased during
1994 to 2001, but declined from the 2001 level in 2002.
(4) None of the above.
2. The special type wagons expressed as a percentage of total wagons were at almost same level
during the following pair of years:
(1) 1995 and 2001 (2) 1998 and 2004 (3) 2000 and 2002 (4) 1993 and 1994
3. The Departmental wagons expressed as a percentage of total wagons was maximum during:
(1) 2002 (2) 2005 (3) 2004 (4) 2003
4. Find out the LOWEST annual growth rate among the following:
(1) Annual growth rate of total wagons in 1999
(2) Annual growth rate of covered wagons in 1998
(3) Annual growth rate of special type wagons in 2002
(4) Annual growth rate of total wagons capacity in 2000

Test Prep
5. Find out the FALSE statement:
(1) The annual growth rate of covered wagons in 1996 was higher than the same in 2000.
(2) The annual growth rate of open high sided wagons in 1997 was higher than the same in 2003.
(3) The annual percentage growth rate of average wagon capacity has been maximum in 1999.
6. Find out the HIGHEST annual growth rate among the following:
(1) Annual growth rate of total wagons in 1995.
(2) Annual growth rate of covered wagons in 2002.
(3) Annual growth rate of open Low sided wagons in 1998.
(4) Annual growth rate of departmental wagons in 2000.
Direction for question 7 to 11: Answer the questions based on the following table:
State-wise FDI Inflow

State 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007
Number Number Number Number Number Number Number Number
Andhra 3707 34522 14566 8708 16256 15819 17311 47828
Pradesh
Bihar 659 5586 52 346 1878 10849 58002 40107
Gujarat 14193 10889 10781 10020 32043 29648 82793 72093
Haryana 3414 1201 800 834 8345 2685 5577 16095
Karnataka 3299 3553 4101 2164 14071 10904 15066 71844
Kerala 376 535 197 70 199 290 600 1141
Madhya 7099 2726 2472 13891 17761 56138 58679 131267
Pradesh
Maharashtra 37275 14442 9780 21440 6909 10675 24480 60864
Orissa 6144 2342 897 3477 17718 45565 38255 97185
Punjab 13657 2184 11274 627 1747 3894 6340 9228
Rajasthan 4204 3236 2823 710 1096 2162 5077 10034
Tamil Nadu 5906 4066 2867 1424 2622 54107 11365 19850
Uttar 5160 1936 2899 2419 3483 24058 37405 48622
Pradesh
West 6706 2111 1933 8584 7569 13994 12028 51830
Bengal
7. Mark the HIGHEST FDI inflow growth rate among the following:
(1) Annual FDI inflow growth rate in Gujarat in 2006.
(2) Annual FDI inflow growth rate in Kerala in 2004.
(3) Annual FDI inflow growth rate in Haryana in 2007.
(4) Annual FDI inflow growth rate in Punjab in 2004.
8. Mark the LOWEST FDI inflow growth rate among the following:
(1) Annual FDI inflow growth rate in West Bengal in 2001.
(2) Annual FDI inflow growth rate in Kerala in 2002.
(3) Annual FDI inflow growth rate in Maharashtra in 2004.
(4) Annual FDI inflow growth rate in Haryana in 2005.

Test Prep
9. Mark the TRUE statement:
(1) The decline in annual FDI growth rate for Gujarat in 2001 was smaller than the corresponding
figure for Karnataka in 2005.
(2) The annual growth rate of FDI in Kerala in 2001 was greater than the corresponding figure for
Uttar Pradesh in 2004.
(3) The annual growth rate of FDI in Kerala in 2005 was greater than the corresponding
figure for Punjab in 2007.
10. Mark the FALSE statement:

(1) The absolute annual increase in FDI inflow in Bihar in 2001 is lower than the corresponding figure
for Rajasthan in 2007.
(2) The annual FDI growth rate in West Bengal in 2006 was higher than the corresponding figure for
Uttar Pradesh in 2003.
(3) The absolute annual increase in FDI inflow in Madhya Pradesh in 2004 is lower than the corre-
sponding figure for Maharashtra in 2005.
11. Mark the TRUE statement:

(1) The absolute annual increase in FDI inflow in Haryana in 2006 is lower than the corresponding
figure for Punjab in 2007.
(2) Among all States, in 2003 the absolute annual increase in FDI inflow was maximum for Madhya
Pradesh.
(3) The absolute annual increase in FDI inflow in Bihar in 2003 is higher than the corresponding
figure for Karnataka in 2001.
(4) The FDI inflow in Kerala over 2002 to 2007 was consistently the lowest across all the
states.

Test Prep
Direction for questions 12 to 16: Answer the questions based on the following table.
World Merchandise Exports by Regions and Selected Economics
Region / 2000 2001 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006
Country
World 6454000 6187000 6487000 7580000 9210000 10472000 12083000
North 1224975 1147545 1106240 1162965 1324235 1479330 1678315
America
Canada 276635 259858 252394 272739 316548 359399 389538
US 781918 729100 693103 724771 818520 905978 1038278
Latin 195800 188600 190700 219100 284700 355000 429900
America
Argentina 26341 26543 25650 29566 34576 40351 46569
Brazil 55086 58223 60362 73084 96475 118308 137470
Europe 2633930 26545555 2839440 3386490 4051000 4396895 4962980
Germany 551818 571645 615831 751560 909887 970915 1111969
UK 285429 272715 280195 305627 347493 384477 448291
Africa 147800 137400 141100 176400 229900 299500 363300
Nigeria 20975 17261 15107 22605 31148 42277 52000
South 29983 29258 29723 36482 46146 51626 58412
Africa
Asia 1837300 1674400 1807800 2138300 2653100 3059000 3577700
China 249203 266098 325596 438228 593326 761953 968936
India 42379 43361 49250 58963 76427 99376 120254
Japan 479249 403496 416726 471817 565675 594905 649931
12. Mark the LOWEST percentage among the following:

(1) Export from Canada expressed as a proportion of export from North America in 2000.
(2) Export from Germany expressed as a proportion of export from Europe in 2004.
(3) Export from China expressed as a proportion of export from Asia in 2004.
(4) Export from Japan expressed as a proportion of export from Asia in 2003.
13. Identify the TRUE statement:

(1) The annual export growth rate of Argentina in 2003 was lower than the corresponding figure for
US in 2006.
(2) The annual export growth rate of Africa in 2004 was lower than the corresponding figure for Latin
America during the same period.
(3) The annual export growth rate of US in 2004 was lower than the corresponding figure for
Canada in 2005.
14. Mark the HIGHEST annual growth rate among the following:
(1) Annual growth rate of World export in 2005.
(2) Annual growth rate of North American export in 2004.
(3) Annual growth rate of India’s export in 2002.
(4) Annual growth rate of Japan’s export in 2003.

Test Prep
(1) The exports from Argentina expressed as a proportion of export from Latin America in 2001 was
greater than the exports from Nigeria expressed as a proportion of exports from Africa in 2004.
(2) The exports from UK expressed as a proportion of exports from Europe in 2000 is lower than the
exports Argentina expressed as a proportion of export from Latin America in 2005.
(3) The annual export growth rate of Argentina in 2004 was higher than the corresponding
figure for Asia in 2005.
(4) The exports from South Africa in 2001 expressed as a proportion of exports from Africa is
lower than the exports from China expressed as a proportion of expressed from Asia in 2003.

(1) The absolute annual increase in exports from Asia in 2003 was less than the corresponding
figure in 2006.
(2) The absolute annual increase in exports from Germany in 2001 was higher than the corresponding
figure for US in 2003.
(3) The absolute annual increase in exports from Brazil in 2005 was higher than the corresponding
figure for Japan in 2002.

Test Prep
LRDI Exercise 5 _ Based on Logic
Learning Objective:
1) Need to understand the close relationship between quantitative ability fundamentals and data
interpretation.
2) Fundamental will give way of solving and logic will help in minimizing calculation.
Time manager:
1) Revising few quantitative concepts required here
(Like basics of ratio and mixtures) weighted arithmetic mean 10-15 min
2) Exercise driven discussion 1 hr 40 min
3) Puzzle 5 min
List of questions that must be discussed in the class

1) Q 1 to 4 [10 min to students + 10 min explanation] 20 min
Questions 1-4
L R
d
x x + 10
b
c a
x + 10
• Here number of families are 110 out of which 5 families don’t keep dog. Hence total number of
families keeping dogs is 105.
• Among families who don’t keep labrador, number of families keeping doberman is same as rottweiler.
Also among those who don’t keep doberman, number of families keeping rottweiler is 10 more than
labrador. Here we won’t be considering the intersection area, hence if number of only labrador
family is ‘x’, then number of only rottweiler and doberman will be ‘x + 10’.

Test Prep
• Total dogs kept by families keeping doberman and rottweiler both is 33. It includes two different
types of family, (a) keeping only doberman and rottweiler, (b) keeping doberman, rottweiler and
labrador family. So 2a + 3b = 33. We can imply that ‘a’ has to be multiple of 3.
d+c +b
• Also x =
2
• If we take the total now,
3x + a + b + c + d + 20 = 105,
5x + a = 85 (Using condition given above)
This implies a is multiple of 5 and 3. Hence possible value for a = 15
• So if a = 15, b = 1, x = 14, x + 10 = 24 and c + d = 27.
• Number of labrador is x + c + d + b = 42, hence number of rottweiler and doberman atleast should
be 43. Hence 3 ≤ c, d ≤ 24 .
Now using above conditions we can solve all problems.
Questions 5-8
• Here we have three different types of cauliflower low (decays in 2months), medium (decays in 3
months) and high (decays in 4 months). Once it decays the cauliflower is removed from the stock.
Hence if the cauliflower reduces it is only because of decay.
• Also fresh stock is added at the end of the month because of which number is going to increase.
• The procedure of removal and addition is done at the end of the month and the charts are given as
per the start of the next month.
• If we observe the values of Type1 and Type3, they never reduces, hence we can say that more
cauliflower might be added than removed. Hence we are not able to judge when the cauliflower
decays.
• But if we look for Type2, the value reduces after two months. Reduction is only possible because
of decay and hence the Type2 is a low quality cauliflower.
• Now assuming any of the Type1 or Type3 as high quality and the other as medium quality, start
keeping track of how many are added each month and how many should be removed depending
on the conditions.
• Certainly you will get two different possibilities, in one of the possibility the condition that 86 fresh
cauliflower was added at the end of one of the month won’t satisfy and in other it will be satisfied
Learning:
Don’t be afraid of taking different possibilities, as the questions are designed so that they can be solved.
So in many of these kind of questions, the other possibilities will get cancelled as they violate one or the
other condition and if many possibilities are there then sill it might be possible that for a particular question
one will get same answer in all possibilities or there will also be an option cannot be determined option
available.

Test Prep
Questions 9-12
• There are 4 flats with initial total value as 100, which is going to decrease by 25% and it will become
75 lakh in year 2005.
• The line graphs show the price difference, which can be increase or decrease. So write down all
possibilities for each year depending on previous value and the difference.
Example:
(A) 20 → ±2(1995) → ±3(2000) → ±4(2005)
18 15 / 21 11× 19 /17 × 25
(A) 20 → → →
22 19 / 25 15 × 23 / 21× 29
One initial value can result in maximum 8 end values as we can see above. Follow the same procedure of
B, C and D. Initial values of C and D are multiple of 5 and all differences are also multiple of 5. Hence the
end values of C and D are multiple of 5. Values of D are critical, so lets look values for D.
15 NA / 35 NA / 5 × 65
(D) 35 → → →
55 35 / 75 5 × 65 / 45 × 105
Here the final value of 65, 45 and 105 are not possible. So for D only one value is possible i.e. 5. This is the
most important to find the solution. Also value 45 for C is not possible as then we will be left with only 25
more to make it as 75, which cannot be formed by taking any combination of A and B values.
Questions 13-15
• Table1 gives details about the workers and table2 gives details about department in morning, afternoon
and evening.
• In morning value of production is 1.5 and only one value in table1 can have non-integral value. Hence
worker5 belongs to production. Also in table2 service value is 3 and hence worker2 belongs to
service. Also worker6 and worker8 certainly doesn’t belong to production.
• As worker5 belongs to production and worker6 as well as 8 doesn’t belong to production. We can
say then certainly worker3 belongs to production as that will only help in making production afternoon
total as 5.
• Value of worker3 in evening should be 1.3 and certainly worker7 belongs to sales and hence its
value will be 1.25. In order to achieve total of 6 for service, worker2 and worker 4 should belong to
service. Hence worker8 and worker1 should belong to sales.
• So using all outcomes we can imply that worker6 belongs to service.

Test Prep
Questions 16-20
This was a difficult set again. Give 10-15 minutes to the students to understand this set. It is very likely that
some students will not be able to start off even after reading through the set once or twice. The hints can
be given to them.
• You may state that average for Youth was 35400 at Delhi start. It increased to 36400 km in Patna,
because it was 1000 kms away.
• Then at Goa, which is 2000 kms away, why is it dropping to 26000?
• Similarly, why is Equality dropping at Gujarat?
• And why is Justice dropping in Patna?
• It must be because old car with high odometer reading is getting excluded. Or it must be because
a new car with ‘0’ odometer reading is getting included. Or a combination of both.
• The first step should have been to find which organisation started with 3 / 4 / 5 cars. The basic
interpretation came from the graph only, and the fact that exchange happened in the same city the
car was burnt.
The reasoning: Youth’s avg odometer reading should have been 38400 in Goa, by the logic of simply adding
2000 kms to each car in their fleet.
Let there be ‘n’ cars for the Youth in the start. Total added odometer reading of all cars in that case would
have been = 38400n.
But since one car was burnt, the added odometer readings of all cars except the burnt car = 26000(n – 1)
Hence, burnt car’s odometer reading can be found out (in Goa where it was burnt) = 38400n – 26000(n–1)
= (12400n + 26000)
This figure of (12400n + 26000) would fall between 50k and 70k only for n=3.
Thus, burnt car’s odometer reading in Goa = 63200 kms.
Similar reasoning for Equality and Justice would yield n = 4 and n = 4, which is not possible. Thus, one car
must have got exchanged in one of these cities.
The first 4 questions can be answered based on this data only. Q.20 may be left for the students to solve
and understand.

Test Prep
Questions 21-25
The following table provides the number of correct attempts by each student in each of the three exams.
Exam I Exam II Exam III

Ding Lee 30 30 24
Chang Lee 28 27 34
Brett Lee 32 30 32
Aang Lee 36 32 28
21. The best way to approach this question would be to check whether each student could get same
marks in the given three exams.
Ding Lee: Even if Ding Lee attempts all the questions in Exam I, then also he would get
20
30 – = 25 marks which would be always more than what he got in Exam III.
4
Chang Lee: Given that the number of incorrect attempts in each exam ranges from 8 to 14.
8 73
Minimum possible marks got by him in Exam II would be 27 – = .
3 3
Even if he attempts 14 questions incorrectly in Exam I, his score in Exam I would be
14 73
28 – = 24.5 which is greater than .
4 3
Brett Lee:
8 0 4
Exam I: 32 – = 30; Exam II: 30 – = 30; Exam III: 32 – = 30.
4 0 2
Aang Lee: Even if Aang Lee attempts all the questions in Exam I, then also he would get
14
36 – = 32.5 marks which would always be more than what he got in Exam III.
4
22. Total marks obtained by Chang Lee considering all three exams together
x y z y
= 28 + 27 + 34 – – – = 89 – 0.25x – – 0.5z.
4 3 2 3
Here, 'x', 'y' and 'z' are the number of incorrect attempts in Exam I, II and III respectively and the
values of x, y and z ranges from 8 to 14.
y y
For, 89 – 0.25x – – 0.5z to be an integer, 0.25x + + 0.5z must be an integer.
3 3
Maximum possible sum x + y + z would be at x = 14, y = 12 and z = 13.

Test Prep
23. Ding Lee:
20 18 24
4 3 2
Chang Lee:
12 12 14
4 3 2
Brett Lee:
16 18 16
4 3 2
Aang Lee:
12 18 20
4 3 4
Required difference maximum for Aang Lee: 33 – 23 = 10.
24. LCM of (4,3 and 2) is 12.

So, for marks in each section to be an integer, the number of questions attempted incorrectly in
each section by Brett Lee must be 12
12 12
In Exam I: 32 – = 29; In Exam III: 32 – = 26; Required Ratio = 29:26
4 2
25. Maximum number of correct attempts in Exam III is for Chang Lee and at the same time minimum
number of correct attempts in Exam I is also for Chang.
Therefore, the value of 'q' must be the largest among p, q, r and s, which rules out options (2), (4) and
(5).
So, now me must check whether r > s.
Number of correct attempts in Exam III by Brett Lee is greater than that by Aang Lee whereas the
number of correct attempts in Exam I by Brett Lee is less than that by Aang Lee.
Therefore, the value of r will be greater than s.
Hence, option (3) is the correct choice.

Test Prep
Question Bank
Directions for questions 1 to 5: Answer the questions based on the following graph.
Production of P, Q, R & S (1990-95)
170
160
150
140
Production in Tonnes
130
120
110
100
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995
1. In which year the annual growth rate of total production (of all products) is highest?
(1) 1991 (2) 1992 (3) 1993 (4) 1995
2. If the stability of the production during 1990 to 1995 is defined as,

Average Pr oduction
Maximum Pr oduction − Minimum Pr oduction then which product is most stable?
(1) Product P (2) Product Q (3) Product R (4) Product S
3. If four products P, Q, R and S shown in the graph are sold at price of Rs.9, Rs.4, Rs.13 and Rs.3
respectively during 1990-1995, then the total revenue of the all the products is lowest in which year?
(1) 1991 (2) 1992 (3) 1993 (4) None of the above
4. Individual revenue of P, Q, R and S for the entire period (1990-1995) is calculated based on the price
of Rs.9, Rs.4, Rs.13 and Rs.3 respectively. Which product fetches the lowest revenue?
(1) Product P (2) Product Q (3) Product R (4) Product S

Test Prep
5. Four products P, Q, R and S shown in the graph are sold at price of Rs.9, Rs.4, Rs.13 and Rs.3
respectively during 1990-1995. Which of the following statements is TURE?
(1) Product R fetches second highest revenue across products in 1991.
(2) Sum of revenue of P, Q and S is more than the revenue of R in 1994.
(3) Cumulative revenue of P and Q is more than the revenue of S in 1993.
Answer question no. 6 through 9 on the basis of the data given below.
Gender Bias is defined as disproportion in percentage of drop - out rate of the two genders.
Drop Out Rates, in percentage,at Primary, Elementary and Secondary Classes

in India
Primary (I, V) Elementary (I- VIII) Secondary (I-X)
Year Boys Girls Total Boys Girls Total Boys Girls Total
1996-97 39.7 40.9 40.2 54.3 59.5 56.5 67.3 73.7 70.0
1997-98 37.5 41.5 39.2 53.8 59.3 56.1 66.6 73 69.3
1998-99 40.9 41.3 41.5 54.2 59.2 56.3 64.5 69.8 66.7
1999-00 38.7 42.3 40.3 52.0 58.0 54.5 66.6 70.6 68.3
2000-01 39.7 41.9 40.7 50.3 57.7 53.7 66.4 71.5 68.6
2001-02 38.4 39.9 39.0 52.9 56.9 54.6 64.2 68.6 66
2002-03 35.8 33.7 34.8 52.3 53.5 52.8 60.7 65.0 62.6
2003-04 33.7 28.6 31.5 51.9 52.9 52.3 61.0 64.9 62.7
2004-05 31.8 25.4 29.0 50.4 51.2 50.8 60.4 63.8 61.9
6. Based on the data above, choose the true statement from the following alternatives:
(1) Gender bias in primary education has consistently decreased over the years.
(2) Gender bias decreases as students move from primary to secondary classes.
(3) Total dropout rate decreased consistently for primary classes children from 1996-97 to 2004-05.
(4) Gender bias was consistently highest for secondary classes.
7. Assume that girls constituted 55% of the students entering school. In which year, as compared
to the previous year, number of boys in secondary education would be more than the number of
girls?
(1) 1997-98 (2) 1996-97 (3) 2000-01 (4) 1998-99 (5) 2001-02
8. Suppose, every year 7,000 students entered Class I, out of which 45% were boys. What was the
average number (integer value) of girls, who remained in educational system after elementary
classes, from 1996-97 to 2004-05?
(1) 1475 (2) 1573 (3) 1673 (4) 1743 (5) 3853
9. Suppose the total number of students in 1996-97 were 1,000 and the number of students increased
every year by 1000, up to 2004-05. The total number of drop outs from primary classes, from 1996-
97 to 2004-05, were 9approximately)___?
(1) 18500 (2) 19500 (3) 24500 (4) 16000 (5) 11500

Test Prep
LRDI Exercise 6 _ Based on Logic
Learning Objective:
1) Understanding inter-relationship of data interpretation and logical reasoning.
2) Application of concepts of inventory.
3) Application of concepts of set.
4) Always take all different possibilities, because questions are always designed in such a way that
most of the possibilities will get canceled.
5) Every solution consists of many sequential steps. So sometime if we don’t pick the clue properly
and don’t get the first step, then we won’t get the solution.
Time manager:
1) Exercise driven discussion 1 hr 55 min
2) Puzzle 5 min
Preferred List & Sequence of Questions

Questions 1-4
The bar chart gives details about 5 brands, Marlboro(M), Rothmans(R), Camel(C), Lucky Strikes(L) and
Dunhill(D). It consists of number of packets of each and number of cigarette in each packets. Hence total
number of cigarettes in M, R, C, L and D are 30, 24, 18, 24 and 24 respectively. Total number of cigarettes
are 120. Remember when question is asking for minimum number of cigarettes, always look out for worst
possible case. To understand this directly go for the 5th question.
1. The requirement of question is taking up at least one cigarette from each packet. So lets take a
case where we leave one entire packet of D(it consists of minimum number of cigarette as compared
to other & hence will give us the worst possible case).
2. The worst possible case is if we leave out all cigarettes of C as they the minimum among all.
3. The worst possible case is when we leave one cigarette out of every packet of all the brands.
4. The worst possible case is when we leave one cigarette out of total cigarettes of each brand.

Test Prep
Questions 5-8
One bar chart gives details about mobile and fixed line users in millions at the end of months Jan 07,
Feb07 and Mar07. Second bar chart gives details about addition or reduction of user in fixed line, CDMA
and GSM users, with help of which we can find the value of Dec06. This is how we can solve the second
question and also we can find total mobile user in Dec06 for question3 which added with the value of bar
chart2 will give the answer for question3. Question5 asks about highest subscriber base, which cannot
be found out as the split value of CDMA and GSM is not given and no where it is specified that we can
use data given in the questions. Just observing the values will help in solving question 1.
Questions 9-12
In this question, some information should be made clear to the students, apart from what is given in the
set. This may be done after they’ve read the text thoroughly.
(a) Left hand graph is for the beginning of the year whereas right hand graph is during the year
(b) Sales return means the books which were sold in the previous years but customers returned them
in this year. It may be assumed that full amount was refunded to the customer and the books got
back into the “available for sales” category for the next year.
(c) The books which are ordered but not picked up, cannot be re-sold. You may say that their payment
has been received by the store. So, they do not appear into the “available for sales” head.
Now explain the whole story, as in, what is happening in the set.
In 2000 from beginning till end

Books available = 1500
New books ordered = 1500 (whole of new lot was available)
Books sold (or precisely, the books for which the money was generated) = 1000
Out of 1000, Picked = 900 and Unpicked = 100 (paid for, but not claimed)
↓ Carry over of 1500 – 1000 = 500 books

New books ordered must be 1500, because 500 were carried over
Money paid for = 1500
Out of 1500, Picked = 1300 (+ 60 of 2000) and Unpicked = 200 (+ 40 of 2000)
↓ Carry over of 2000 – 1500 = 500 books + 100 books returned to the store in 2001

New books ordered must be 400, because 600 were carried over
Money paid for = 800
Out of 800, Picked = 700 (+120 of 2001 + 40 of 2000) & Unpicked = 100 (+80 of 2001)
↓ Carry over of 1000 – 8000 = 200 books + 50 books returned to the store in 2002

Test Prep
All the questions can be answered directly form this diagram. In Q. 26, net sales of books = all fresh
ordered – inventory left at the end
= 1500 + 1500 + 400 – 250 = 3150
Alternately, it is equal to the entire sales minus those which have been returned.
= 1000 + 1500 + 800 – 100 – 50 = 3150
Questions 13-15
Once after reading the question you might have understood that we will get equations but there are around
6 variables. Don’t be afraid about that go ahead, use those variables and form equations. The following
steps are critical in solving this sum
• In one round every shooter gets chance to hit 4times. Overall there are 78 attempts on the target. In
a single round the three shooters together can hit 12times and 12 × 6 is 72. Hence we can say 1st
shooter will hit 28times, 2nd shooter will hit 26times and the 3rd shooter will hit only 24times.
• We know Ahits + Bhits + Chits = 43 and Amiss + Bmiss + Cmiss = 35. Also for hits we get 2 points for one hit
and 1points are given to others for the misses. Hence form equations with help of scores given.
Using these equations and the above equations form equations of format 2Ahits – Amiss.
• We know Ahits + Amiss is either 28 or 26 or 24. When we use this equation and above 2Ahits – Amiss
together we get that the sum should be a multiple of 3 and only one value out of 28 or 26 or 24 will
satisfy the condition.
Questions 16-20
The number of bottles manufactured is 2 or 4 or 5 and it is different for X, Y and Z. Hence everyday 11
bottles will be manufactured. Like wise everyday 6 bottles will be sold. So in a month 330 bottles manufactured
overall and 180 bottles sold overall. So if you check out the total of unsold for every month it will be 150.
Bottles unsold in February only are nothing but (total number of bottles unsold in February – total number
of bottles unsold in January). Taken all three all at a time we will always get value as 150. In every question
we are supposed to form equations.
16. Z manufactures maximum number of bottle means it manufactures 150 (30 × 5) bottles and also
number of sold bottles then has to be 90 (30 × 3). So for Y if it manufactures 4bottles for ‘m’ number
of days then it will manufacture 2bottle for ’30 – m’ days. Like wise for X it will be 4bottles for
’30 – m’ days and 2bottles ‘m’ days, as when Y manufactures 4, X will manufacture 2bottles. Same
thing goes for the sold, let it be ‘n’ days when 1bottle is sold and ’30-n’ days when 2bottles are sold.
So, 4m + 2(30 – m) – n – 2(30 – n) = 53
→ 2m + n = 53, so now minimize m, keeping one thing in mind that ‘m’ and ‘n’ can never be greater
than 30.
17. Number of bottles of Z left unsold at the end of month A = 60.

Maximum possible number of days on which 5 bottles of Z were manufactured in month A is 30,
when the numbers of days on which 3 bottles of Z were sold = 30.
That means, (106 – 60) = 46 bottles out of the total bottles of Z, which were manufactured in month
B were left unsold.

Test Prep
Since we have to maximize the number of days on which 5 bottles of Z were manufactured, we will
maximize the number of days on which 3 bottles of Z were sold.
So maximum possible number of days on which 3 bottles of Z were sold = 30.
Therefore, maximum possible number of bottles of Z that were manufactured in month

B = 46 + 3(30) = 136.
Let the number of days on which 5 and 4 bottles of Z were manufactured be ‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively.
Therefore the number of days on which 2 bottles of Z were manufactured = (30 – a – b).
136 ≥ 5a + 4b + 2(30 – a – b) or 3a + 2b ≤ 76.
Maximum possible value of a is 25 when b = 0.
Therefore maximum possible number of days on which 5 bottles of Z were manufactured = 25.
In the month C, (166 – 106) = 60 bottles of Z out of the bottles of Z manufactured in the month C were
left unsold.
So, maximum possible number of days on which 5 bottles of Z were manufactured in the month C
= 30, when 3 bottles of Z were sold on each of the 30 days in month C.
Therefore, maximum possible number of days on which 5 bottles of Z were manufactured across all
the three months = 30 + 25 + 30 = 85.
18. As in the previous questions we have found that Z can manufacture 5bottles for 30 days in Jan as
well as Mar while for 24 days in Feb. So we can have Y manufacturing 5bottles for 6days in Feb.
Hence minimum days for X is 0.
19. Number of days when 2, 4 and 5 bottles were manufactured are 5, 10 and 15 respectively. Hence
number of bottles manufactured are 2 × 5 + 4 × 10 + 5 × 15 = 125. Number of unsold bottles only in
Feb is 57 and hence number of bottles sold = 125 – 57 = 68. Let ‘m’, ‘n’ and ’30 – m – n’ be number
of days when 3, 2 and 1bottles are sold respectively. Hence,
3m + 2n + 30 – m – n = 68
2m + n = 38.
The option that fits in for value of ‘n’ is 22.
20. The question is to maximize J – M, where J and M are number of days when 2bottles are manufactured
in Jan and Mar respectively. This means J should be maximum and M should be minimum. So if we
want J to be maximum, the number of bottles manufactured should be minimum. Hence number of
bottles in Jan = 53 + 30 × 1 = 83. Let ‘a’ and ’30 – J – a’ be number of days when 5 and 4 bottles are
manufactured. Hence,
5a + 2J + 4(30 – J – a) = 83
2J – a = 37. Hence maximum possible value of J is 22.
Likewise if we want to minimize M then we need to have maximum bottles manufactured in Mar.
Following the same procedure we get M as zero.

Test Prep
Questions 21-25
Roxy has three pots where each pot should at least one Re 1 coin and at least two 50p coin. Initial values
of pots are given in the bar chart. Roxy puts at least 10 coins and maximum 10 coins of each kind, hence
we can say maximum of 20 coins i.e. Rs 15. Moby steals 20 coins each integral multiple of Re 1. Hence
from one pot Moby can steal atleast Re 1 i.e. one Re 1 coin or two 50p coins.
21. If we want to minimize the Re 1 coins in pot2, then maximize 50p coin in pot2 and maximize Re 1
coins in pot1 and pot2. At the same time we need to fulfill the condition that number of Re 1 coins
is same as number of 50p coins.
22. If number of coins in each pot is multiple of 5, then maximum it can be 5 Re1 coins and 30 coins of
50p,that makes it 35. So certainly 40 is not possible. Just find a case where either 25 or 30 or 35
coins are possible.
23. The total amount in pot2 is Rs 30. If we convert coin ratio in money ratio, for example the coin ratio
of 3 : 14 is same as 3:7 when it is in terms of money. When we say 3 : 7, means the total value
should be divisible by 10. 30 is divisible by 10, so likewise when we do all the other ratio, we get
ratio’s 4 : 3 and 2 : 9 is not possible.
24. Refer to the solution given in the exercise.
25. To solve this question we can keep in mind that he is always stealing Re 1 coins from other pots and
when he is stealing from pot1 he will just steal 2 coins of 50p. Need some trial and error with the
values.

Test Prep
Question Bank
Go through the table that follows and pick up the best alternative to answer question Question no.
1 to 3.
Teams A, B, C and D are participating in a cricket tournament. Team A has to pick up five batsmen out of
the ten available. All batsmen have played 100 matches each in the past. Past data indicates that C beats
A 8 out of 10 times. B beats A 5 out of 10 times and D beats A 1 out of 10 times. The conditions for series
are likely to be normal and bowling strength of all teams is same. Manager of Team A, based on his past
experience, feels that team should take high risk against stronger opponents and low risk against weaker
opponents for maximizing chances of wining the game.
The average score of the top 10 batsmen of team A is provided in the table given below.
Name of the Average of batmen Number of Number of times Number of times

batsman based on past times dismissed scores more than
performance dismissed around average a century
below 20
RD 40 20 70 3
ST 44 20 60 10
SG 41 25 50 10
VS 31 50 20 15
RU 28 55 25 12
YS 35 40 40 10
VV 35 35 50 5
MK 30 30 45 5
MT 36 45 30 10
MD 45 30 50 10
The average scores of the top 5 batmen for each team playing in the tournament are: C (270); B
(215); D (180) and A (215).
1. Team A would play the third match with B. Based on the statistics above, whom should the
manager choose so that A has maximum chances of winning?
(1) RD, RU, MU,VS, YS
(2) RD, VS, MT, RU, YS
(3) RD, VV, SG, VS, MD
(4) ST, RD,MK, MD, SG
(5) SG, RU, YS, MK, VV

Test Prep
2. Team A is playing its first match with team C. Based on the statistics above, whom should the
manger choose so that the team has maximum chances of winning?
(1) RD, ST, SG, MD, YS
(2) VS, YS, RU,MD, MT
(3) RD, ST, SG, VS,MD
(4) YS, RU, VS, MK, MD
(5) ST, VS, RU, MD, SG
3. Team A would play the second match with D. Based on the statistics above, whom should the
manger choose so that A has maximum chances of winning?
(1) RD, ST, MD, VS,YS
(2) ST, RD, VV, SG, MD
(3) RD, ST, SG, VS, MD
(4) SG, RU, YS, MK, MD
(5) ST, RD, MK, MD, SG

Test Prep
Question Bank 1
Directions for questions 1 to 3: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Five women decided to go for shopping to South Extension, New Delhi. They arrived at the designated
meeting place in the following order: 1. Aradhana, 2. Chandrima, 3. Deepika, 4. Heena, and 5. Sumitra.
Each of them spent at least Rs. 1000. The woman who spent Rs. 2234 arrived before the woman who spent
Rs. 1193. One of them spent Rs. 1340 and she was not Deepika. One woman spent Rs. 1378 more than
Chandrima. One of them spent Rs. 2517 and she was not Aradhana. Heena spent more than Deepika.
Sumitra spent the largest amount and Chandrima the smallest.
1. What was the amount spent by Heena?

(1) Rs. 1193 (2) Rs. 1340 (3) Rs. 2234 (4) Rs. 2517
2. Which of the following amount is spent by one of the women?

(1) Rs. 1139 (2) Rs. 1378 (3) Rs. 2571 (4) Rs. 2518
3. The lady who spent Rs. 1193 is:

(1) Aradhana (2) Chandrima (3) Deepika (4) Heena
Direction for questions 4 to 6: Answer the questions based on the following information.
In a motor race competition certain rules are given for the participants to follow. To control direction and
speed of the motorists, guards are placed at different signal points with caps of different colour. Guard with
red cap indicates the direction of participant’s movement and guards with green cap indicates speed of the
participant’s movement. At any signal point presence of three guards, two guards and one guard with red
cap means the participants must stop, turn left and turn right respectively. Signal points with three guards,
two guards and one guard with green cap means the participants must move at 10, 4 and 2 km/hour
respectively.
Kartikay, one of the participants, starts at a point where his car was heading towards north and he encoun-
tered signals as follows: at starting point one guard with green cap; after half an hour two guards with red
cap and two guards with green cap at first signal; after fifteen minutes one guard with red cap at second
signal; after 24 minutes two guard with red cap and two guards with green cap at fourth signal; after 15
minutes three guards with red cap at fifth signal. (Time mentioned in each case is applicable after crossing
the previous signal).
4. Total distance traveled by Kartikay from starting point till last signal is:
(1) 9 km. (2) 10 km. (3) 8 km. (4) 12 km.
5. What would be the final position of Kartikay if one guard with red cap and two guards with green
caps were placed at the first signal point after the starting point?
(1) 3.0 km to the west and 2.0 km to the south
(2) 3.0 km to the west and 4.0 km to the north
(3) 5.0 km to the east and 4.0 km to the north

Test Prep
6. If at the starting point Kartikay was heading towards south what would be his final position?
(1) 3.0 km to the east and 4.0 km to the south
(2) 5.0 km to the east and 4.0 km to the south
(4) 5.0 km to the west and 2.0 km to the north
Directions for question 7 and 8: In second year, students at a business school can opt for Systems,
Operations, or HR electives only. The number of girls opting for Operations and the number of boys opting
for Systems electives is 37. Twenty-two students opt for operations electives. Twenty girls opt for Systems
and Operations electives. The number of students opting for Systems electives and the number of boys
opting for Operations electives is 37. Twenty-five students opt for HR electives.
7. The number of students in the second year is ___?

(1) 73 (2) 74 (3) 76 (4) 53 (5) 54
8. If 20% of the girls opt for HR electives, then the total number of boys in the second year is ___?
(1) 50 (2) 52 (3) 51 (4) 53 (5) 54

Answer the questions based on following information
Four persons (1) Mohit, (2) Manohar, (3) Prasant and (4) Dinesh each had some initial money with them.
They all were playing bridge in a way that the lower doubled the money of each of the other three persons
from his share. They played four rounds and each person lost one round in the order 1, 2, 3 and 4 as
mentioned above. At the end of fourth round each person had Rs. 32000/-
9. What was the amount with Mohit to start with?

(1) Rs. 60000 (2) Rs. 34000
(3) Rs. 66000 (4) Rs. 80000
10. What was the mount with Manohar at the end of first round?
(1) 68000 (2) 72000
(3) 64000 (4) 80000
11. Who had the lowest amount at any round of play throughout the tournament?
(1) Mohit (2) Manohar
(3) Prasant (4) Dinesh
12. What was the amount with Prasant at the end of the second round?
(1) 36000 (2) 72000
(3) 16000 (4) 68000

Test Prep
13. The VC (Vice-Chancellor) of a university has to select four professors, out of eight professors for a
committee. The VC decided to select these four professors in such a manner that each selected
professor has a habit common with at least one of the other three professors selected. The selected
professors must also share at least one of the non-common habits of any of the other professors
selected.
Professors Arora likes surfing and smoking but hates gambling

Professors Bahlla likes smoking and drinking but hated surfing
Professors Cahdha likes gambling but hates smoking
Professors Dhyani likes movie but hates drinking
Professors Eswar like drinking but hates smoking and movie
Professors Fazil likes surfing but hates smoking and movie
Professor Goyal like gambling and movie, but hates surfing
Professor Hooda likes smoking and gambling but hates movie
Who are the four professors selected by the VC for the committee?
(1) Prof. Chadha, Prof. Dhyani, Prf. Eswar, Prof. Goyal
(2) Prof. Arora, Prof. Bhalla, Prof. Eswar, Prof. Fazil
(3) Prof. Bahlla, Prof. Chadha, Prof. Goyal, Prf. Hooda
(4) Prof. Dhyani, Prof. Eswar, Prof. Fazil, Prof. Hooda

Test Prep
Question Bank 2
Directions for questions 1 to 3 on the basis of the following information.

KK, an aspiring entrepreneur wanted to set up a pen drive manufacturing unit. Since technology was
changing very fast, he wanted to carefully the demand and the likely profits before investing. Market survey
indicated that he would be able to sell 1 lac units before customers shifted to different gadgets. KK realized
that he had no incur two kinds of costs – fixed costs (the costs which do not change, irrespective of
number of units of pen drives produced) and variable costs (= variable cost per unit multiplied by number of
units). KK expected fixed cost to be Rs. 40 lac and variable cost to be Rs. 100 per unit. He expected each
pen drive to be sold at Rs. 200.
1. What would be the break-even point (defined as no profit, no loss situation) for KK’s factory in term
of sales?
(1) Rs. 80 lac
(2) Rs. 100 lac
(3) Rs. 120 lac
(4) Rs. 140 lac
(5) Cannot be found with the given data.
2. KK was skeptical that per unit variable cost might increase by 10% though the demand might
remain same. What will be the expected changes in profit in such a case?
(1) Profit would decrease by 10.33%
(2) Profit will increase will by 15.75%
(3) Profit would decrease by 15.75%
(4) Profit will decrease by 16.67%
(5) Profit will increase by 16.67%
3. He discussed his business plan with a chartered accountant. KK informed that he was contemplat-
ing a loan of Rs. 20 lac at simple interest of 10% per annum for starting the business. The chartered
accountant informed him that in such a case KK has to pay interest, followed by 30% tax.
By how much does KK’s earning change with 20% growth in sales vis-à-vis the original sales
volume, in both cases considering tax and interest on loan?
(1) 20% (2) 16.7% (3) 25.6% (4) 33.3% (5) 34.5%

Test Prep
Directions (Question 4 to 8): This group of questions is based on a set of conditions. In answering some
of the questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram. Choose the response that most accurately and
completely answers each question
Questions (4 to 8): Five people joined different engineering colleges. Their first names were Sarah (Ms.),
Swati (Ms.), Jackie, Mohan and Priya (Ms.). The surnames were Reddy, Gupta. Sanyal, Kumar and
Chatterjee. Except for one college which was rated as 3 star, all other colleges were rated either 4 star or
5 star.
The “Techno Institute” had a higher rating than the college where Priya studied. The three-star college was
not “Deccan College.” Mohan’s last name was Gupta but the didn’t study at “Barla College.” Sarah, whose
last name wasn’t Sanyal, joined “Techno Institute.” Ms. Kumar and Jackie both studied at four-star col-
leges. Ms. Reddy studied at the “Anipal Institute,” which wasn’t five-star college. The “Barla College” was
a five-star college. Swati’s last name wasn’t Chatterjee. The “Chemical College” was rated with one star
less than the college where Sanyal studied. Only one college was rated five star.
4. Mohan Gupta may have joined:

(1) Techno – Institute which had 5 star rating
(2) Deccan College which had 5 star rating
(3) Anipal Institute which had 4 star rating
(4) Chemical College which had 4 star rating
(5) Techno – Institute which had 4 star rating
5. In which college did Priya study?

(1) Anipal Institute
(2) Chemical Institute
(3) Barla College
(4) Deccan College
(5) Techno- Institute
6. The person with surname Sanyal was:

(1) Sarah studying in Chemical College
(2) Swati studying in Barla College
(3) Priya studying in Deccan College
(4) Jackie studying in Deccan College
(5) Sarah studying in Techno-Institute
7. Which is the correct combination of first names and surnames?

(1) Mohan Gupta, Sarah Kumar, Priya Chatterjee
(2) Priya Chatterjee, Sarah Sanyal, Jackie Kumar
(3) Jackie Sanyal, Swati Reddy, Mohan Gupta
(4) Mohan Gupta, Jackie Sanyal, Sarah Reddy
(5) Jackie Chatterjee, Priya Reddy, Swati Sanyal

Test Prep
8. Which option gives a possible student – Institute combination?
(1) Priya – Anipal, Swati – Deccan, Mohan – Chemical
(2) Swati – Barla, Priya – Anipal Jackie – Deccan
(3) Joydeep – Chemical, Priya – Techno, Mohan – Barla
(4) Priya – Anipal, Joydeep – Techno, Sarah – Barla
(5) Swati – Deccan, Priya – Anipal, Sarah – Techno
Directions for questions 9 to 13: A circular field, with inner radius of 10 meters and outer radius of 20
meters, was divided into five successive stages for ploughing. The ploughing of each stages was handed
over to a different farmer.
1. Farmers are referred to by following symbols: F1, F2, F3, F4, F5.
2. The points between different stages of project are referred to by the following symbols: P1, P2, P3,
P4, P5, not necessarily in the order.
3. Farmer F5 was given the work of ploughing stage starting at point P4.
4. The stage from point P5 to point P3 was not the first stage.
5. Farmer F4 was given the work of the fourth stage.
6. Stage 3 finished at point P1, and the work of which was not given to farmer F1.
7. Farmer F3 was given work of stage ending at point P5.
9. For which farmer was P2 a finishing point?

(1) F1 (2) F2 (3) F3 (4) F4 (5) F5
10. Which were the starting and finish points of stage 2?

(1) P2 and P5 (2) P5 and P3 (3) P3 and P1 (4) P5 and P4 (5) P3 and P2
11. Which was the starting point for Farmer F3?

(1) P2 (2) P3 (3) P4 (4) P1 (5) None of above
12. Which was the finish point for farmer F2?

(1) P1 (2) P2 (3) P3 (4) P4 (5) P5
13. Which stage was ploughed by farmer F5?

(1) First (2) Second (3) Third (4) Fourth (5) Fifth

Test Prep
Directions for questions 14 to 16: Four married couples competed in a singing competition. Each
couple had a unique team name. points scored by the teams were 2, 4, 6 and 8. The “Sweet Couple” won
2 points. The “Bindas Singers” won two more points than Laxman’s team. Mukesh’s team won four points
more than Lina’s team, but Lina’s team didn’t score the least amount of points. “Just Singing” won 6
points. Waheda wasn’t on the team called “New Singers”. Sanjeev’s team won 4 points. Divya wasn’t on
the “Bindas Singers” team. Tapas and Sania were on the same team, but it wasn’t the “Sweet Couple”.
14. Laxman’s teammate and team’s name were:

(1) Divya and Sweet Couple
(2) Divya and Just Singing
(3) Waheda and Bindas Singers
(4) Lina and Just Singing
(5) Waheda and Sweet Couple
15. The teams arranged in the ascending order of points are:

(1) Bindas Singers, Just Singing, New Singers, Sweet Couple
(2) Sweet Couple, New Singers, Just Singing, Bindas Singers
(3) New Singers, Sweet Couple, Bindas Singers, Just Singing
(4) Sweet Couple, Bindas Singers, Just Singing, New Singers
(5) Just Singing, Bindas Singers, Sweet Couple, New Singers
16. The combination which has the couples rightly paired is:
(1) Mukesh, Lina
(2) Mukesh, Waheda
(3) Sanjeev, Divya
(4) Sanjeev, Lina
(5) Sanjeev, Waheda
Directions for question 17 to 20: Six states having equal area in a country are located in North-South
directions in two columns next to each other. States are located in the given order, State 1, State 3, and
State 5 are on the western side and State 2, State 4, and State 6 are on the eastern side. Within the six
states, there are on the eastern side. Within the six states, there are exactly four medical institutes, two
management institutes, and two technical institutes. These eight institutions are located as follows.
No institutions is in more than one of the states.

None of the states contains more than one management institute, and none contains more than one
technical institute.
None of the states contains both a management institute and a technical institute.
Each management institute is located in a state that contains at least one medical institute.
The technical institute are located in two states that do not share a common boundary.
State 3 contains a technical institute, and
state 6 contains a management institute.

Test Prep
17. Which one of the following could be true?
(1) State 1 contains exactly one technical institute
(2) State 2 contains exactly one management institute
(5) State 1 contains exactly one medical institute
18. A complete and accurate list of the states, any one of which could contain the management institute
that is not in State 6, would be ________.
(1) 1, 4 (2) 2, 4 (3) 1, 4, 5 (4) 4, 5 (5) 1, 2, 4, 5
19. If each of the six states contains at least one of the eight institutions, then which one of the following
must be true?
(1) There is management institute in state 1
(2) There is a medical institute is state 2
(3) There is a medical institute in state 3
(4) There is a medical institute in state 4
(5) There is a management institute in state 4
20. If one of the states contains exactly two medical institutes and exactly one technical institute, then
which combinational of three states might contain no medical institute?
(1) 1, 4, 5 (2) 2, 3, 5 (3) 2, 4, 6 (4) 1, 3, 5 (5) 4, 5, 6

Test Prep
Answers and Explanations
10. 1 The following are the advertising costs (in Rs. Per sq.
LRDI – 1 cm per 1000 readers for these newspapers :
1. 4 None of the option (1), (2) and (3) are false since all of 600 650
X= = 6.89;Y = = 7.14;
these can be checked visually. 87 91
2. 3 The graph clearly depicts that South Asian region has 500
Z= = 8.92.
the largest number of out of school children. 56
So, the combination giving minimum advertising cost is
3. 3 The breadth of share of west and central Africa from X and Y.
2001 to 2006 in increasing with a very slow rate
whereas in South Asia, it is decreasing with slow 11. 1 The minimum expenditure (in Rs./cm2) on advertising
rate. Hence the ratio is lower with a lesser margin. required to reach at least 12 lakh readers
= 5000 + 6000 = 11000
4. 4 All the statements in option A, B, and C can be deduced.
Hence option (4) is the correct choice. 12. 1 Profit = Sales – Cost . It can be easily seen that for the
month 1, the difference between sales and cost is
5. 4 Since we do not know the total number of children in maximum. Hence (A) is the correct option.
different regions of the world, we cannot calculate
the total number of children who did not go to school. 13. 2 Graph clearly suggests that in the month of 4,
maximum sales growth is witnessed as from 3 to 4
For questions 6 to 11: line is the most steepest.
As per the direction given, the following Venn diagram can be
formed: 14. 5
X Y LRDI – 2
2 .5 4 .6
4 .7
0 .5
1 .0 1 .5 1. 3 None of the options (1), (2), are false.
For employment, the increase is 53% and for GDP
2 .6 the increase 1621%.
Z 2. 3 Option (3) is the correct choice. Options (1) and (2)

can be easily checked visually. Between 1970 and
6. 3 Number of people (in lakhs) who read at least one 1994, the GDP is Rupee terms has risen by 17 times
news paper for lines for both services and industry.
= 2.5 + 0.5 + 1.5 + 1.0 + 4.7 + 4.6 + 2.6 = 17.4.
3. 2 Since 30% of Rs.570,934 crores is 800% more than
7. 2 Number of people (in lakh) who read only one news 45% of Rs.42,222 crores, therefore option (2) is the
paper correct choice.
= 4.7 + 4.6 + 2.6 = 11.9.
4. 3 The contribution to GDP from services in rupee term
8. 3 Number of people who read at least two news papers is approximately Rs.14000 crores.
= 105 × (2.5 + 1.5 + 1 + 0.5) = 5.5 × 105
Total population = 14 × 106. 5. 3 If the share of industry in output (GDP) was 30%
instead of 28%, then
55
So, the required percentage = = 3.9 (Approx) 0.3 × 570,954 = Rs.1,71,286 crores.
14
6. 1 Since the maximum number of candidates (i.e. 10885)
9. 1 The ratio of readers reading only one newspaper to. got marks in the range of 21-30 in English. Hence
Those reading only two newspapers Option (1) is the correct answer.
11.9 11.9
= = = 2.38 : 1 7. 4 Since the maximum number of candidates got 30
(2.5 + 1.0 + 1.5 ) 5 and above in English so the correct answer is option
(4).
Questions Bank / Explanations MBA Page 75

Test Prep
8. 4 On adding the total number of candidates for any of 16. 3 It can be checked visually.
the subject we get the total number of candidates
as 27,000. 17. 1 Contraceptive prevalence for India which 43, is closer
to that of South Asia which is 40.
9. 2 Average marks scored in art =
18. 4 Under 5 mortality rate, the difference between South
220 × 45 + 2145 × 35 + 10140 × 25 + 11858 × 15 + 2637 × 5
= Asia in 1990 and low income country in the same
27000 year = 143 – 123 = 20
9900 + 75075 + 253500 + 177870 + 13185
= 19. 4 The growth rate of population for India, South Asia
27000 and low income countries between 1990 and 2006
529530 is 30.6%, 33.86% and 38.4% respectively. Hence,
= = 19.61 ; 20 option (4) is the correct answer.
27000
Hence Option (2) is the correct answer. 20. 3 Infant mortality rate in South Asia is 62 and under
five mortality rate in South Asia is 83. Hence, infant
10. 2 Since more number of students got higher marks in mortality in South Asia contributes 75% to under five
Science, the average marks will be maximum in mortality rate.
case of Science.
Hence option (2) is the correct answer. 21. 2 It can be easily checked through the figures
mentioned in the table.
11. 4 Number of students getting 40% and above in Maths
= (6 + 199) = 205 22. 4 Only Oceania amongst high income countries has a
Number of students getting 40% and above in Arts positive net FDI inflows.
= (220 + 2145 + 10140) = 12505
205 23. 4 Option (4) is the correct answer as Eastern Europe
Required ratio = = 1 : 61 has gain in net percentage point of FDI inflows.
12505
24. 4 Option (4) is the correct answer as apart from
12. 1 Percentage fall in average calling cast to U.S Oceania there are other countries also with positive
4 − 1.4 net FDI inflows.
= × 100 = 65%
4
25. 4 Option (4) is the correct answer as inflows increased
Hence, option (1) is the correct answer. approximately by 36 times but outflows increased
13. 2 The contracted capacity for internet connections by almost 231 times.
for developing economies = 150
The contracted capacity for internet connections
for high income countries = 5000.
LRDI – 3
150 For questions 1 to 3:
Required percentage = × 100 = 3%
5000 From the information given in the question we can only infer
Hence, option (2) is the correct answer. that each of A, D, E and F is a male and C is a female. Had it
been mentioned that F is the only child of C and is a son, then
14. 1 The contracted capacity for internet connections we could have determined the gender of B as she would have
for low income countries = 20. been the wife of F. But in the question it is only given that F is
The contracted capacity for internet connections the only son of C and E, so there could be a possibility that C
for high income countries = 5000. and E have a girl whose husband is B.
20 1. Since, the gender of G is not known, then can be

Required percentage = × 100 = 0.4%
5000 either 2 or 3 females.
Hence, option (1) is the correct answer.
2. 4 Gender of G is not known, so relationship with A cannot
15. 4 In south Asia, percentage increase in access to be established.
150 − 3 3. Cannot be determined as explained above.

telephone = × 100 = 4900%
3
Page 76 MBA Questions bank / Explanations

Test Prep
For questions 4 to 8: For questions 9 to 11:
From the given data, we cannot find any answers of these From statement (ii), the positions of Tiger flag and Rose flag
questions. are as follows:
T R
If we check back ward logically options.
From statement (i), positions of the flags are
In Q.7, Amisha is one who stays at floor 3. Only option (1) is fit
P-Q or Q-P and S-R or R-S
in this contest. So other person stays at floor 3 is Binaya who
is a chess player and engineer. So option (1) is right for question
After combining statement (i), (ii) and (iii), we get the positions
8.
of the flags i.e.
For question 5, If we check Q.6, then somebody’s age who T Q P R S
plays football, is between Daisy and Eshaan.
So, we can conclude that Eshaan plays cricket. So answer of Also, combining statement (i), (ii) and (iv), we get the positions
question 5 is (3) of the flags i.e.
But Q.4 and Q.6 answers cannot be found out. Without options
T Q P R S
answer for all the five questions should be “cannot be
determined”.
So, either (iii) or (iv) is required for getting flags positions.
4. (NA) 5. (NA) 6. (NA) 7. (NA) 8. (NA)
9. 2 Either (iii) or (iv) is redundant.
10. 3 11. 3
For questions 12 and 13:

If D gets assignment F does not or vice-versa.
C wants only HRM or Finance or none
If D gets Psychology B must get Trade policy D – Trade policy then B must get Psychology
If A gets a assignment E should get.
12. 2 (1) gets eliminated because C can have either HRM or finance.
(3) gets eliminated because F and D cannot be in the same team.
(4) gets eliminated because C cannot have Trade policy.
Hence (2) is correct.
13. 4 B-Development Studies, D – Trade policy because if D gets Trade policy then B must get Psychology
For questions 14 to 17:
Sons – Arun(A), Mahi (M), Rohit (R), Nitesh (N), Sorav (S)
Daughters – Tamanna (T), Kuntala (K), Janaki (J)
From the given information, we can arrange the sons & daughters in descending orders of Age.
Son/Daughters Son Son Son Daughters Daughters Son Son Daughters

Name S M/N M/N K T A R J
School Trinity Mansarover Mansarover Trinity Stefan Stefan Stefan Trinity
Game Cricketers Cricketer Chess Football Hockey
14. 3 15. 1 16. 4 17. 2

According to the information given in the question, following table for the given informations can be drawn.
Monday Tuesday Wednesday Friday Saturday

M A M A M A M A M A
Conduct-Quiz √ √ √ X X
Evaluate Quiz √ √ √ √
Lecture √ √ X X
Work on Consultancy Project √

Test Prep
Subscriptions M and A stand for morning and afternoon. Now, 26. 3 From the information given, we can make the
referring the above table, answers for the given questions following family tree
are as follows.
18. 1 Refer the conduct quiz and lecture column.

G ra nd fa th er X X G .m
19. 5
20. 5 Fa th er - M othe r
f m
21. 4 She must lecture on Tuesday otherwise the condition
G ra nd So n G ra nd So n gd gd
that “she lectures in the afternoon on exactly two
consecutive calendar days” will not be satisfied.
For questions 22 to 25: For questions 27 to 29:

From the given mother data we have Following table can be prepared according to the statements
HßJ mentioned in the question
G G
J or O Movie Theatre
Veena Hero Satyam
K = Week 1 or 2
Week 3 = O Seema Salam Namaste PVR
Week 4 = product that is advertised twice. Mona Iqbal Chanakya
Neeta Khiladi M2K
22. 2 J should come after H so, (1) and (5) are eliminated.
Reema Gangster Priya
G cannot be with M, so (3) is also eliminated.
(4) cannot be the correct choice as K is not present in 27. 4
the first 2 weeks.
So option (2) is the correct choice. 28. 2
23. 3 The two possible cases can be 29. 2
Week 1 = H,K
Week 2 = L,J For questions 30 to 35:
Week 3 = O,G From Information 7, the occupant of room number 103 owns
Week 4 = L,M 12 cars and he donated to 8 institutions. Then from Information
Or 3, occupant of room number 102 must be having 24 cars.
Week 1 = H,L From information 6, occupant of room number 104 must be
Week 2 = K,J having 4z number of cars and donated to y number of
Week 3 = O,G institutions where 4z < y. From information 9, occupant of
Week 4 = L,M room number 105 owns 8 cars and if the businessman from
So, option (3) is correct Canada donated to ‘x’ number of institutions, then the occupant
of room number 105 must have donated to (x–2) number of
24. 2 One more case can be institutions.
Week 1 = H,K
Week 2 = G,J From information 10, residents of Canada, England and Brazil
Week 3 = O,L are staying in alternate rooms in that order starting from left.
Week 4 = K,M Though room numbers of residents of Canada, England and
So. L can occupy any place. Brazil can also be 102, 104 and 106 respectively. But from
question 80 we can conclude that room numbers are 101,
25. 1 G and H as well as H and J can never be together, so 103, and 105 respectively as room number 106 is not given for
(2) and (3) are eliminated. Brazilian Businessman.
K and O cannot be together other wise K cannot be in
the first two weeks.
H and O cannot be other wise J would have to come
before H.
Hence M and O can be together.

Test Prep
Although the nationality of the occupant of room number 106 is 2. 3 Option (1): Required percentage in 1995 and 2001 is
not known from the information given, it can be found out to be 0.16449 and 0.17500 respectively.
Germany from the options of the 3rd question in the set. Option (2): Required percentage in 1998 and 2004 is
We can compile the following table now and answer all 0.16612 and 0.173 respectively.
questions. Option (3): Required percentage in 2000 and 2002 is
0.172 and 0.172 respectively.
Room No 101 102 103 104 105 106 Option (4): Required percentage in 1993 and 1994 is
Nationality Canada Uruguay England Argentina Brazil (Germany) 0.14896 and 0.15751 respectively.
Number of
Cars
24 12 4 8 16 Hence, option (3) is the correct choice.
Number of
Institutions in 3. 3 Required percentage in 2002, 2005, 2004 and 2003 is
x 8 18 x-2 24
which they
have donated 0.044, 0.0493, 0.05 and 0.04991 respectively.
30. 4 Room No. 105 4. 1 Option (1): Required growth rate is – 0.04181
Option (2): Required growth rate is – 0.04142
31. 3 18 Option (3): Required growth rate is – 0.04138
32. 4 Germany Hence, the lowest of all the growth rate is – 0.04181.
33. 4 Germany
5. 3 The statement given in option (3) is false as the annual
34. 2 Uruguay percentage growth rate of average wagon capacity
is maximum in the year 2001.
35. 2 12 Hence, option (3) is false.
6. 2 Option (1): Required growth rate is – 0.06736

LRDI – 4 Option (3): Required growth rate is – 0.08254
1. 2 Option (1): Hence, option (2) is the correct choice.
Year Required % For questions 7 to 11:

1993 0.467
7. 3 Option (1): Required growth rate is 1.7925
1994 0.444 Option (2): Required growth rate is 1.8429
1995 0.419 Option (3): Required growth rate is 1.8860
Option (4): Required growth rate is 1.7863
1996 0.406 Hence, option (3) is the correct choice.
1997 0.392
1998 0.387 8. 1 Option (1): Required growth rate is – 0.6852
1999 0.381 Option (3): Required growth rate is – 0.6778
2000 0.367 Option (4): Required growth rate is – 0.6783
2001 0.341
2002 0.333 9. 3 Option (1): The annual FDI growth rate for Gujarat in
2003 0.319 2001 is – 0.2328 and corresponding figure for
Karnataka in 2005 is – 0.2251.
Hence, option (1) is not true. Option (2): The annual FDI growth rate for Kerala in
Option (2):The special type wagons expressed as a 2001 is 0.4229 and corresponding figure for Uttar
percentage of total wagons is 17.531 % and is Pradesh in 2004 is 0.4399.
maximum. Option (3): The annual FDI growth rate for Kerala in
Hence, option (2) is true. 2005 is 0.4573 and corresponding figure for Punjab in
Option (3): The open high sided wagons expressed 2007 is 0.4555.
as a percentage of total wagons increased during Hence, option (3 ) is the correct choice.
1994 to 2001 and also from 2001 to 2002.
Hence, option (3) is not true.

Test Prep
10. 3 Option (1): The absolute annual increase in FDI inflow 15. 4 Option (1): Export from Argentina expressed as a
in Bihar in 2001 is 4927 and the corresponding figure proportion of export from Latin America in 2001 is
for Rajasthan in 2007 is 4957. 0.14074 and export from Nigeria expressed as a
Option (2): The annual FDI growth rate for West Bengal proportion of export from Africa in 2004 is 0.13548.
in 2006 is – 0.1405 and corresponding figure for Uttar Option (2): Export from UK expressed as a proportion
Pradesh in 2003 is – 0.1656. of export from Europe in 2000 is 0.10837 and export
Option (3): The absolute annual increase in FDI inflow from Argentina expressed as a proportion of export
in Madhya Pradesh in 2004 is 3870 and the from Latin America in 2005 is 0.11366.
corresponding figure for Maharashtra in 2005 is 3766. Option (3): The annual export growth rate in Argentina
Hence, option (3 ) is the correct choice. in 2004 is 0.16945 and the corresponding figure for
Asia in 2005 is 0.15299.
11. 3 Option (1): The absolute annual increase in FDI inflow Option (4): Export from South Africa expressed as a
in Haryana in 2006 is 2892 and the corresponding proportion of export from Africa in 2001 is 0.21294
figure for Punjab in 2007 is 2888. and export from China expressed as a proportion of
Option (2): Among all the States, in 2003 the absolute export from Asia in 2003 is 0.20494.
annual increase in Hence, option (5) is the correct choice.
FDI inflow was maximum for Maharashtra.
Option (3): The absolute annual increase in FDI inflow 16. 2 Option (1): The absolute annual increase in exports
in Bihar in 2003 is 294 and the corresponding figure from Asia in 2003 is 330500 and the corresponding
for Karnataka in 2001 is 254. figure in 2006 is 518700.
Option (4): The FDI inflow in Kerala over 2002 to 2007 Option (2): The absolute annual increase in exports
was not the lowest across all the states. For, example from Germany in 2001 is 19827 and the corresponding
in 2002, the FDI inflow was lowest in Bihar. figure for US in 2003 is 31668.
Hence, option (3) is the correct choice. Option (3): The absolute annual increase in exports
from Brazil in 2005 is 21833 and the corresponding
For questions 12 to 16: figure for Japan in 2002 is 13230.
12. 4 Option (1): Export from 3anada expressed as a
proportion of export from North America in 2000 is LRDI – 5
0.22583.
Option (2): Export from Germany expressed as a For questions 1 to 5
proportion of export from Europe in 2004 is 0.22461.
Option (3): Export from China expressed as a
proportion of export from Asia in 2004 is 0.22363. P Q R S Total
Option (4): Export from Japan expressed as a
proportion of export from Asia in 2003 is 0.22065. 1990 45 99 75 115 334
1991 25 41 93 158 317
13. 3 Option (1): The annual export growth rate of Argentina
in 2003 was 0.15267 and the corresponding figure 1992 40 108 107 166 421
for US in 2006 is 0.14603.
Option (2): The annual export growth rate of Africa in 1993 38 60 63 139 300
2004 was 0.30329 and the corresponding figure for
Latin America in 2004 is 0.29941. 1994 76 41 132 88 337
Option (3): The annual export growth rate of US in
2004 was 0.12935 and the corresponding figure for 1995 56 70 120 97 343
Canada in 2005 is 0.13537.
Total 280 419 590 763 2052
14. 2 Option (1): Required growth rate is 0.13702

1. 2 It can be easily concluded from the data given in the
table that the annual growth rate of total production is
highest in 1992.
2. 4 The stability of the production during 1990 to 1995 for
product P, Q, R and S is 0.92, 1.04, 1.43 and 1.63
respectively.
Hence, product S is the most stable.

Test Prep
For questions 3 to 5: Question Bank 1
P ( Rs. 9) Q (Rs.4) R (Rs.13) S(Rs. 3) Total
1990 405 396 975 345 2121 Five shopping women spending various amounts with
conditions
1991 225 164 1209 474 2072
One of the women spent 2517 – 1378 = 1139 who is
1992 360 432 1391 498 2681 Chandrima. This is the only possibility as if we add 1378 even
to the least amount of 1193, we will not be able to satisfy all the
1993 342 240 819 417 1818 conditions given simultaneously.
1994 684 164 1716 264 2828
Aradhana Chndrima Deepika Heena Sumitra
1995 504 280 1560 291 2635
2234 1139 1193 1340 2517
Total 2520 1676 7670 2289
1. 2
2. 1
3. 3 The total revenue of all the products is lowest in the
year 1993. 3. 3
4. 1
4. 2 The product Q fetches the lowest revenue.
5. 3 It can be concluded from the data calculated in the N

table given above, that the statement given in option
(3) is true. W E
Question from 6 to 9 cannot be answered as the data S

given is inconclusive. FINISH Vth Signal
@ 4 km p h
@ 1 0 km ph
t = 1 5 m inu te s
t = 2 4 m inu te s 1 km
LRDI – 6 s = 4 km \ s = 1 km
IIIrd
Signal IV TH
Questions from 1 to 3 cannot be answered as data @ 4 km p h 4 km
t = 3 0 m inu te s Signal
given is inconclusive
\ s = 2 km
2 km @ 4 km p h
t = 1 5 m inu te s
\ s = 1 km
I Signal
1 km
IInd M ove s @ 2 km ph ,
Signal t = ½ h r = 3 0 m inu tes
1 km
30
\ s=2× = 1 km
S 60
START
Note: s = Distance covered; v = Velocity (km/hr)

t = Time taken; s = v × t
The total distance travelled by the motorist from the starting
point till last signal is 1 + 1 + 2 + 4 + 1 = 9 km

Test Prep
5. 1 2. 4 Total cost when 1 lac units were sold when the variable
cost has increased by 10 %
1 km = Rs. 40 lac + Rs. 110 lac = Rs. 150 lac
S ign al 1 S ign al 2
Initial Profit at normal variable cost
1 km = Rs. 200 lac – Rs. 140 lac = Rs. 60 lac
3
2 km New Profit = Rs. 200 lac – Rs. 150 lac
1 = Rs. 50 lac
S ign al 3 Therefore percentage decrease in the profit
S ign al 4
1 km  10 
=   x 100 = 16.67%
 60 
S ign al 5
3. Data Insufficient to find the exact answer.
6. 3
For question 4 to 8:
According to the given data provided in the question, direct
For questions 7 and 8: Cannot be answered as the data inferences that can be made are:
given is inconsistent
1. Only one college was rated as 3-star and one as five
For questions 9 to 12: star.
2. Barla college was rated as 5-star.
If we move from the fourth round, after which each of them
had Rs.32000 with him, and move to the third, second, first
It is also given that Ms. Reddy joined ‘Anipal Institute’
and finally to the beginning of the game then we can draw the
Since, Sarah(Ms.) joined at ‘Techno institute’, Mohan and Jackie
following table.
are not Ms. So either Priya or Swati has to be Reddy. Also,
(The figures are in Rs’000) Mohan cannot study in Techno, Anipal or Barla. So, he joined
either Deccan or Chemical.
Mohit Mania Peasants Dinesh It is given that Ms. Kumar and Jackie joined a 4-star college and
Initially 66 34 18 10 Swati’s last name was not Chatterjee. Chemical college had a
rating one less than that of the college where Sanyal joined.
Round – 1 4 68 36 20 So, it has to be either a 3-star or a 4-star college. But Mohan
Round – 2 8 8 72 40 joined Deccan or Chemical, a 4-star. Barla is a 5-star. Deccan,
Round – 3 16 16 16 80 Techno and Chemical are 4-stars.
Round – 4 32 32 32 32
So Anipal is a 3-star and Priya Reddy joined Anipal. Sanyal
joined a 5-star rated college, so Swati should have joined
there. Based on the inferences, the following table can be
9. 3
formed:
10. 1 Name (Sex) Surname College Rating
(In star)
11. 1 Sarah (F) Kumar Techno 4
Swati (F) Sanyal Barla 5
12. 4 Jackie (M) Chatterjee Deccan 4
Mohan (M) Gupta Chemical 4
13. 3 Options (C) is the correct answer. Priya (F) Reddy Anipal 3
Question Bank 2 4. 4 5. 1 6. 2 7. 5 8. 2
1. 1 Let the break even point be attained on the sale of ‘x’

units.
Therefore, 4000000 + 100x = 200x
Or, x = 40000
So, the total sales = 40000 x Rs. 200 = Rs. 80 lac

Test Prep
For question 9 to 13: Waheda is in ‘Sweet Couple’ as she is not in ‘New Singers’.
1 Stage 3 finished at point P1 and the work in the stage 4 was Based on the inferences, the following table can be formed:
done by F4.
It is given that one of the stage starts with P5 and ends with
P3, and that stage cannot be the stage 1 (Condition 4), stage 3 Teams Points Team Members
(Condition 6), stage 4 (Condition 6) or stage 5 (Condition 4).
Sweet Couple 2 Laxman & Waheda
Hence, stage 2 starts and ends with point P5 and P3 Bindas Singers 4 Sanjeev & Lina
respectively.
Therefore, F3 has ploughed in stage 1 (Condition 7). Just Singing 6 Tapas & Sania
So stage 5 will start and end with P4 and P2 respectively New Singers 8 Mukesh & Divya
(Condition 3)
So the work of stage 2 and stage 3 will be done by F1 and F2
respectively (Condition 6). 14. 5
Based on the inferences, the following table can be formed:
15. 4
Stage Starting point End Farmer 16. 4
point
1 P2 P5 F3 For questions 17 to 20:
For the given question, we can draw the following diagram
2 P5 P3 F1 and conclusions.
3 P3 P1 F2
4 P1 P4 F4 M ed ica l Techn ica l
1 2 (M an a ge m e n t X )
5 P4 P2 F5 M ed ica l
(M an g em et x) 3 4
Techn ica l
5 6 M an ag e m e nt
9. 5 M ed ica l
M ed ica l
10. 2
(i) State 3 contains technical Institute and state 6 contains
11. 1 a management Institute. State 6 cannot contain a
technical institute and also state 1, 4 and 5 cannot
12. 1 contain a technical institute as they share the common
boundary. Therefore state 2 contains a technical
13. 5 institute.
(ii) State 6 will contain at least one medical institute. Since
For questions 14 to 16: only four medical institutes are given and none of the
It is given that Mukesh’s score = 4 + Lina’s score. states can contain more than one institute, therefore
available sates for medical institutes are 1, 4, 5, 6.
Since Lina’s team didn’t score the least number of points, the
points of Mukesh’s team and Lina’s team will be 8 and 4 17. 5
respectively.
18. 3
Since Mukesh will be in the group with a score of 8 and
Sanjeev and Lina in the group with a score of 4, Tapas and 19. 4
Sania will necessarily be in ‘Just Singing’.
20. 4
Now since Bindas team had a score of 2 more than that team
in which Laxman is there so the score of ‘Bindas Singers’ will
be 4 and Laxman will be in ‘Sweet Couple’. Therefore Sanjeev
and Lina will be in ‘Bindas Singers’.

Test Prep

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LRDI

Faculty Manual 2010

Career Launcher Team

1. Logic and Puzzles 1

2. LRDI 1: Data Comprehension 5

3. LRDI 2: Data sufficiency and DI based on Percentages 17

4. LRDI 3: Analytical Reasoning 28

5. LRDI 4 _ Based on Ratio, Mixtures, Averages 42

6 LRDI 5 _ Based on Logic 52

7. LRDI 6 _ Based on Logic 60

10. Answers and Explanations 75

• Give students a feel of reasoning questions.

Time management & overview of lecture:

• Informal introduction (5 min)

• Take Questions 1-2

• Explain the questions in (8-10) min.

Note: Questions 8 to 12 came in XAT 2009

LRDI Faculty Manual MBA Page 1

Introduction to logic and puzzles

Step 1: A, B, C, D, E, F, G are seven consecutive integers hence it can be 51 to 57 or 52 to 58 or 53 to 59

Step 2: Read all the conditions to the students.

Step 5: E – D = 3 (substituting value of G). Now two cases exists

LRDI Faculty Manual MBA Page 2

e.g. A is beginning the game

A has 5 sticks in front o f him

A P icks 2 B w ill have 3

LRDI Faculty Manual MBA Page 3

Stress on practice in DI & reasoning

LRDI Faculty Manual MBA Page 4

Material: LRDI Class Exercise – 1

Importance of Data Analysis:

What is data analysis?

Ask the students:

LRDI Faculty Manual MBA Page 5

Number of vehicles sold in year

Annual Sales of 2-w heelers in India, 2000-2004

LRDI Faculty Manual MBA Page 6

What is a bar graph?

Annual Sales of 2-wheelers in India, 2000-2004

Mopeds Scooters Motorcycles

LRDI Faculty Manual MBA Page 7

0 200 400 600 800 1000

Mopeds Scooters Motorcycles

Annual Sales of 2-wheelers in India, 2004-2008

Mopeds Scooters Motorcycles

LRDI Faculty Manual MBA Page 8

Mopeds Scooters Motorcycles

What is a pie chart?

LRDI Faculty Manual MBA Page 9

Runs scored in Runs scored Runs scored in

LRDI Faculty Manual MBA Page 10

Runs scored in Runs scored Runs scored in

Rankings depends on various possibilities.

LRDI Faculty Manual MBA Page 11

4. 20% of SUVs = 90,000. Auto midsize = 11 + 9 = 20 whereas auto compact = 13.

1.3 × 1000 1.3 × 10 ton

LRDI Faculty Manual MBA Page 12

LRDI Faculty Manual MBA Page 13

Directions for questions 1 to 5 are based on the following graph:

140000 Latin America and the

1. Which of the following is FALSE:

2. Which of the following is TRUE: