WRITE YOUR

EXAMINATION
NUMBER HERE

SOLOMON ISLANDS SCHOOL CERTIFICATE

2000
10
SCIENCE PAPER

FRIDAY 6TH OCTOBER 8.00 A.M TIME: 3 HOURS plus 10

minutes reading time

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES For Official Use Only

1. YOU ARE ALLOWED 10 MINUTES READING TIME. Sections Score
DURING THIS TIME YOU ARE NOT ALLOWED TO
WRITE ANYTHING IN YOUR BOOKLET.
Total

2. SECTION A: 40 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (40 MARKS) A

(A) IN EACH QUESTION YOU ARE REQUIRED TO
SELECT THE ANSWER FROM FOUR ALTERNATIVES.
(B) ALL ANSWERS ARE TO BE WRITTEN IN THE
ANSWER SPACE PROVIDED. B. Q1
(C) YOU ARE ADVISED TO SPEND APPROXIMATELY
ONE (1) HOUR ON THIS SECTION.
Q2.
3. SECTION B: 12 LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (120 MARKS)
(A) ALL QUESTIONS ARE COMPULSORY.
ATTEMPT ALL QUESTIONS. Q3.
(B) ANSWERS ARE TO BE WRITTEN IN THE SPACE
PROVIDED UNDER EACH QUESTION. Q4.
SHOW ALL WORKING WHERE NECESSARY.
(C) YOU ARE ADVISED TO SPEND APPROXIMATELY
Q5.
TWO (2) HOURS ON THIS SECTION.

Q6.
4. PERIODIC TABLE & FORMULAS ARE PROVIDED AT
THE END OF THE EXAM BOOKLET. Q7.

Q8.

Q9.

Q10.

THIS BOOKLET CONTAINS 31 NUMBERED PAGES. Q11.

Q12

TOTAL
 1

SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Select the LETTER which corresponds to the BEST alternative and write it on the
space provided.

1. An element has six electrons in its outer shell. It is most likely that the element is

A. an inert gas.
B. a halogen.
C. a nonmetal.
D. a metal. 1. ________

2. An element X with the atomic number 10 is most likely to have similar properties to
the element with the atomic number:

A. 8
B. 12
C. 20
D. 18 2. ________

3. If an atom of an element has 64 neutrons and 30 electrons, its atomic number is

A. 64.
B. 34.
C. 30.
D. 94. 3. ________

4. Ionic compounds are made from

A. atoms held together by covalent bonds.

B. ions held together by covalent bonds.
C. atoms held together by electrostatic attraction.
D. ions held together by electrostatic attractions. 4. _________

5. Which of the following chemical formulae represents an alcohol?

A. Ca (OH)2
B. C6H12O6
C. C3H8
D. C2H5OH 5. ________
 2

6. Which of the following sets of alkanes is arranged in order of increasing size?

A. octane, propane, methane.

B. ethane, butane, hexane.
C. propane, methane, ethane.
D. methane, heptane, hexane. 6. ________

7. Which of the following is an alloy of tin and copper?

A. brass.
B. bronze.
C. solder.
D. stainless steel. 7. ________

8. In producing aluminium, bauxite is melted with the mineral cryolite. The cryolite
is designed to:

A. lower the melting point of bauxite.

B. increase the melting point of bauxite.
C. reduce the aluminium oxide.
D. enable the molten bauxite to conduct electricity. 8. ________

9. Dilute sulfuric acid will react with zinc metal to form

beaker
H2SO4 acid

zinc granules

A. zinc sulfate and water.

B. sulfur and hydrogen gas.
C. zinc sulfate and hydrogen gas.
D. hydrogen gas and water. 9. ________
 3

10. In which of the following ways do most plants obtain the nitrogen they require for their
metabolic processes?

A. by taking up nitrate ions from the soil through the roots.

B. by taking up ammonium ions, produced by denitrifying bacteria through the roots.
C. by absorbing, through the roots, amino acids from the remains of dead organisms.
D. by absorbing nitrogen directly from the atmosphere. 10. ________

11. Graphite conducts electricity because

A. graphite is a metal.
B. the layers of graphite can slide past each other.
C. the carbon atoms in graphite are free to move.
D. electrons between the layers of graphite atoms are free to move. 11. ________

12. Compared with white phosphorus, red phosphorus has a

A. higher melting temperature and is less reactive with air.

B. higher melting temperature and is more reactive with air.
C. lower melting temperature and is less reactive with air.
D. lower melting temperature and is more reactive with air. 12. ________

13. A container at normal air pressure contains 50 cm3 of gas. What pressure is required
to reduce its volume to 20 cm3 ?

What pressure
is required ?

50 cm3 of gas ⇒ 20 of cm3 gas

A. 2.0 atm
B. 2.5 atm
C. 3.0 atm
D. 5.0 atm 13. _______
 4
14. If the acceleration due to gravity on the moon’s surface is 1.6 ms-2 , a mass of 60 kg
has a weight on the moon of

moon

60 kg
A. 37.5 N.
B. 60.0 N. weight?
C. 96.0 N.
D. 58.8 N. 14. ________

15. A woman walks 4 km due east in one hour and 3 km due north in the next hour.
Her average velocity in the two hours is

N
end of journey
W E

starting point

A. 2.5 km h-1
B. 3.5 km h-1
C. 5.0 km h-1
D. 7.0 km h-1 15. _______

16. What does the symbol shown below represent in an electrical circuit?

A. capacitor
B. transistor
C. diode
D. resistor 16. _______

17. An electric motor is a device which is designed to convert

A. heat energy into electrical energy.

B. mechanical energy into electrical energy.
C. electrical energy into heat energy.
D. electrical energy into mechanical energy. 17. _______
 5
18. If a tropical cyclone develops 100 km South of Guadalcanal, you would expect the
atmospheric pressure in that area to

A. change rapidly.
B. be higher than normal.
C. be normal.
D. be lower than normal. 18. _______

19. The diagram below represents a cardboard which is positioned in front of a plane
mirror. On the card is written a large letter p.

cardboard
p

mirror

The image of this letter that we are likely to see in the mirror is

A. p
B. q
C. b
D d 19. _______

20. A solid cube with a side of 10 cm has a mass of 11,500 g. A data book gives the
following densities of some metals:

magnesium…………1.74 g cm-3 10cm

copper………………8.96 g cm-3
lead…………………11.4 g cm-3 10cm
gold…………………19.3 g cm-3
10cm

Of these substances, the cube is most likely to be made of

A. copper.
B. gold.
C. lead.
D. magnesium. 20. _______

21. If the temperature of a gas in a sealed tube is increased, provided its volume is kept
constant,

A. the density of the gas will decrease.

B. the pressure of the gas will increase.
C. the pressure of the gas will decrease.
D. the density of the gas will increase. 21. _______
 6
22. In the circuit shown below a current of 2 A flows through a conductor. The conductor
has a voltage of 12 V across it. The resistance of the conductor is:

A. 0.6 Ω A I = 2A
B. 6.0 Ω
C. 2.4 Ω
conductor

D. 24.0 Ω v 12v 22. _______

23. The diagram below represents the likely positions of a fish (in the sea) which a
fisherman is aiming at with his spear. The light ray travelling from the fisherman’s
eyes to the fish is represented by m. The four positions of the fish are represented by
w, x, y, z. At what position must the fisherman throw his spear to kill the fish?

normal
m
A. position w
B. position x air
C. position y
D. position z water w
x

z y 23. _______

24. The diagram shows a tank that can store 2000 L of rain water.

At what depth (h) would the rain water

give a pressure of 1500 Nm-2, h
given that the density of water
is 1.00 g cm-3 and g = 10 ms-2 ?

A. 0.15 m
B. 1.5 m
C. 15.0 m
D. 150.0 m 24. _______

25. Which of the following facts is not true about viruses?

A. They may be crystalised.

B. They cannot reproduce outside the living cells.
C. They do no ‘good’ to their hosts, causing only ‘diseases’.
D. They are cultured for study on agar plates. 25. _______
 7
26. The diagram below shows a fishing boat which is sending a pulse of sound out from
the boat until it returns. The speed of sound in water is 1500 ms-1.

sea level

seabed

If it takes the pulse 0.2 seconds from the ship until it returns, what is the total distance
between the boat and the seabed?

A. 150 m
B. 300 m
C. 1500 m
D. 3000 m 26. _______

27. A doctor prescribes antibiotics when we have a cold in order to:

A. kill the virus

B. ease the pain
C. combat associated bacterial infections
D. build up an antibodies in the blood. 27. _______

28. Respiration is a process by which an organism

A. exchanges gases with its surroundings

B. releases energy for its own use
C. speeds up the rate of gaseous exchange.
D. survives where oxygen is absent or in short supply. 28. _______

29. The chief adaptation of mangroves that enables them to grow in waterlogged mud is:

A. pneumatophores or stilt roots.

B. vivipary (partial growth and nourishment of the embryo plant on the parent).
C. salt glands.
D. availability of nutrients. 29. _______
 8
30. In fruit flies, grey body (G) is dominant to black body (g). Two grey-bodies flies are
mated, giving 52 black-bodied offspring and 277 grey-bodied offspring. The
genotype of the parents would be:

A. GG and gg.
B. Gg and gg.
C. Gg and Gg.
D. GG and GG. 30. ______

31. Urea is produced as a result of the

A. breakdown of excess protein in the kidneys.

B. breakdown of old red blood cells by the liver.
C. deamintion of amino acids by the liver.
D. destruction of excess vitamins, hormones and enzymes. 31. _______

32. Homeostasis is best described as:

A. maintenance of a stable cellular environment.

B. control of the concentration of substances in the blood.
C. control of the supply of nutrients and removal of wastes from cells.
D. maintenance of a steady temperature and chemical compositions in the animal
body.
32. _______

33. Fossils cannot be used as evidence for:

A. the type of environment in that place at the time.

B. the climate at the time of formation.
C. the body colouration of the fossil animal.
D. the age of deposits from which they came. 33. ______

34. Which of these does not facilitate evolution?

A. asexual reproduction.
B. rapid reproduction.
C. variation within species.
D. a changing environment. 34. _______

35. Which of these food chains is correct?

A. phytoplankton → zooplankton → krill → whale

B. algae → carnivore → filter feeders → detrital feeder
C. zooplankton → phytoplankton → small fish → big fish
D. sun → plankton → dolphin → human 35. _______
 9

36. Mitosis results in

A. two cells with double the number of chromosomes of the parent cell.
B. two cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
C. two cells with half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell.
D. four cells with half the number of chromosomes. 36. _______

37. When yeast cells undergo fermentation or anaerobic respiration the products are

A. carbon dioxide and water.

B. lactic acid and water.
C. carbon dioxide and ethanol.
D. glucose and oxygen. 37. _______

38. Which of the following environmental problems is not linked to increased amounts of
carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

A. Warmer temperatures
B. Rising sea levels
C. Ozone depletion
D. Increased number of cyclones 38. _______

39. The most serious threat to native animals from human activity is:

A. hunting of animals for food.

B. burning of fossil fuels.
C. the clearing of their native habitat.
D. the elimination of pests using biological poisons. 39. _______

40. Pollution is a significant and highly publicised problem in the world today despite our
tremendous scientific advancements. The main reason pollution is still a problem is
that:

A. most people will not believe it is serious.

B. the technology of pollution reduction has not kept pace with the rest of
technological development.
C. most people are unwilling to pay the costs involved.
D. the majority of people are illiterate and could not participate actively.
40. _______
 10

SECTION B: 12 LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

ALL question in this section is compulsory. You must answer the questions in the
space provided after each question. Show ALL working where necessary.

QUESTION 1:

You are given a list of metals below which you must arrange based on their reactivity:

• sodium
• silver
• copper
• magnesium
• iron
• zinc

(a) What do you understand by the Reactivity series of metals ?

___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
(1 mark)

(b) Describe two ways in you would find out the order of reactivity for the metals, stating
exactly what you would observe in your tests.

(i) ________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________

(ii) _______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________
(4 marks)
 11

(c) Arrange the metals in order of their reactivity, starting with the most active and
ending with the least active.

___________________________________________________________________
(2 marks)

(d) Name a metal (from the list) which reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid and give a
steady supply of hydrogen. Give the balanced chemical equation for this reaction.

_____________________________________ (1 mark)

Balanced Equation:

_________________________________________________
(2 marks)

10
 12

QUESTION 2:

(a) Elements A, B and C have atomic numbers of 6, 9 and 19 respectively.

(i) Write down the electron configuration of their atoms.

Element A: _____________________

Element B: _____________________

Element C: _____________________ (3 marks)

(ii) Draw a simple diagram showing all the electronic orbits (or shells), to represent
how atom B combines with C.

(4 marks)

(b) A certain amount of sodium hydroxide solution was added to dilute sulfuric acid to
form sodium sulfate and water.

(i) What ions is sodium sulfate made from ?

___________________________________ (2 marks)

(ii) Determine the chemical formula of sodium sulfate:

_____________________________________

_____________________________________ (1 mark)

10
 13

QUESTION 3

The graph below shows the heating curve when 0.5 kg of wax was heated from 0°C at a
constant rate of energy input. It is assumed that there are no heat losses to the
surroundings.

200 D E

150

100
Temp (°C)
50 B C

0
0 A 100 200 300 400 500 600 700

Thermal energy input in kilijoules (kj).

(a) Use the graph above to answer the following questions.

(i) What was happening to the wax in section AB ?

_________________________________________________________________
(1 mark)

(ii) What was the boiling point of the wax ?

___________________________________________________________________
(1 mark)

(iii) What was the melting point of the wax ?

___________________________________________________________________
(1 mark)

(iv) What was the thermal energy input when the temperature of wax was 25°C ?

_____________________________________________ (1 mark)
 14

(b) Use the particle theory to explain why the temperature of the wax did not increase
while the energy input increased from 200kj to 300 kj (see section BC of the graph)

__________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________
(1 mark)

(c) (i) Explain what specific heat capacity mean ?

___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
(2 marks)

(ii) Calculate the specific heat capacity of the liquid wax, given that the
temperature increased from 50°C to 200°C and the energy input is 300 kj.

______________________________________

______________________________________

______________________________________

______________________________________ (3 marks)

10
 15

QUESTION 4

Below are the “skeleton” formulae of two hydrocarbon molecules that show only the
carbon atoms and the bonds between them.

C—C C—C=C

(a) With reference to the equation CnH2n+2 and CnH2n,

(i) Calculate the number of hydrogen atoms for each molecule.

Number of hydrogen atoms for C----C : _________________

Number of hydrogen atoms for C----C=C : _________________

(2 marks)

(ii) Redraw the two molecules to show their structural formulae – that is write the
hydrogen atoms to the carbon atoms to complete the structural formula of each
molecule.

C---C C---C = C

(2 marks)

(iii) Name the two hydrocarbon molecules.

Name of C---C _____________________

Name of C---C=C _____________________ (2 marks)

 16

(b) Describe a test you should carry out to distinguish the two hydrocarbons, include the
expected results of the test.

___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
(2 marks)

(c) The C---C, hydrocarbon can burn easily. Show this by writing a balanced chemical
equation for the complete burning of this hydrocarbon.

___________________________________________________________________
(2 marks)

10
 17

QUESTION 5

An object accelerates constantly from rest to 50 ms-1 in 25 seconds. It then travels at this
speed for 30 seconds before slowing down to a stop. It took the object 25 seconds to
slow down.

(a) Plot a speed-time graph (speed on vertical axis) for the object’s motion. (4 marks)

(b) Use your graph to find the total time it took the object to complete the journey.

__________________________________________________________
(1 mark)

(c) Calculate the acceleration of the object during the first 25 seconds.

________________________________________________
________________________________________________
________________________________________________ (2 marks)

(d) Calculate the total distance travelled by the object.

________________________________________________
________________________________________________
________________________________________________ (3 marks)

10
 18
QUESTION 6

(a) Explain the scientific meaning of the word “Work” :

___________________________________________________________________________
(2 marks)

(b) A man uses 5.0 kJ of energy to move a dug-out canoe of mass 110 kg from the
canoe-shed to the sea.

(i) If the man applied a force of 1100 N, calculate the distance through which the
canoe is moved.

______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(3 marks)

(ii) Suggest one way the man might be able to reduce the friction between the
surface and the canoe.

______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(1 mark)

(c) (i) Explain what the word ‘power’ means.

______________________________________________________________
(1 mark)
 19
(ii) An aluminium dingy is being pulled by an outboard motor with a
horizontal force of 250 N, so that it moved a distance of 500 m.
If it takes the outboard motor 5 minutes, to move the dingy
through the distance, what is the average power exerted by
the outboard motor ?

F= 250N

outboard motor aluminium dingy

Average power exerted :

________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________
(3 marks)

10
 20
QUESTION 7

The diagram shows three positions of a bob of a simple pendulum when released. The
bob is released from position 1.

Position 1 Position 3
h = 45cm

Position 2

(a) Complete the statements below by adding the following words:

zero K.E, max K.E, zero P.E, max P.E

(i) At position 1, the bob would have ________ and __________.

(ii) At position 2, the bob would have ________ and __________.

(iii) At position 3, the bob would have ________ and __________. (3 marks)

(b) The pendulum bob has a mass of 10g and was raised to a height of 45cm above its
lowest point. It was then released.

(i) Calculate its P.E at this height (Use g = 10ms-2 where necessary)

______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(3 marks)
 21

(ii) Calculate its K.E at its lowest height.

____________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(1 mark)

(iii) Calculate its maximum velocity :

______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(3 marks)

10
 22
QUESTION 8

(a) A student was given the following electrical equipment.

• a voltmeter • a 12V battery

• an ammeter • connecting wires
• a resistor • a switch

The student was asked to design a circuit so that he could measure the amount of
current flowing through and the potential difference across the resistor.

(i) Draw a circuit diagram to show how the electrical components are
connected.

(3 marks)

(ii) One of the electrical equipment provided must be connected in parallel.

Identify which one it is, and explain why it has to be connected in parallel.

______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(2 marks)

(b) If a current of 5 A flows through a 12 volt heater, how much energy

will it transfer in 3 minutes?

___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
(2 marks)
 23
(c) This is a diagram of a transverse wave.

0.5
Displacement
of medium (m)
0
0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7 0.8

Distance from source (m)

(i) Use the diagram to find the wavelength of the wave?

____________________________________________________________
(1 mark)

(ii) If the speed of the wave is 25 ms-1, calculate the frequency of the wave.

____________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________
(2 marks)

10
 24
QUESTION 9

(a) A student took a sample of 10 mL of water from a local pond using a sterile
container. She diluted it with 90 mL distilled water. She then diluted 10 mL tap
water in a sterile container with 90 mL distilled water. Five drops of each were
spread over three different types of agar plates using separate, sterile eye droppers.
She then spread five drops of distilled water over another three types of agar plate,
making nine plates in all. She incubated at 37°C for 2 days.

dropper

agar plate

10 mL tap water 10 mL pond water

90 mL distilled water 90 mL distilled water

Her results are shown in the table below.

Bacteria type MaCockney Beef agar Blood serum

agar agar
A 3 7 5
B 0 4 7
River water C 4 5 4
D 1 0 5
E 10 0 0
Tap water B 0 4 1
E 1 0 2
Distilled water B 0 1 0

(i) What hypothesis was she trying to test?

____________________________________________________________________
(1 mark)

(ii) Why was distilled water tested like the others?

____________________________________________________________________
(1 mark)
 25
(iii) Why were three types of nutrient agars used?

____________________________________________________________________
(1 mark)

(iv) Write a valid conclusion to the student’s experiment.

____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
(1 mark)

(b) Fungi belongs to a special group of heterotrophic organisms which are generally put
into separate kingdom. Fungi may be unicells, e.g yeast, but most are larger and
formed of tube-like filaments.

(i) What are Heterotrophic organisms

______________________________________________________________
(1 mark)

(ii) How do heterotrophic organisms obtain their food?

______________________________________________________________
(1 mark)

(iii) Complete the sentence by writing the missing words.

Heterotrophic organisms can be classified on the basis of

_____________________ and ____________________________

(1 mark)

(iv) Describe how the fungi feed itself in order to survive.

______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(3 marks)

10
 26
QUESTION 10

(a) “Genetic Engineering” is a term which is becoming popular but controversial

amongst the different communities world wide.

(i) What is genetic engineering about?

______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(1 mark)

(ii) What is it used for at present?

______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(2 marks)

(iii) What are the inherent dangers and possible benefits of genetic
engineering now and in the future?

______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(2 marks)

(b) The amount of blood glucose in human beings is normally kept within precise limits.
This is important for the health of human beings.

(i) What organs control the level of glucose in the blood ?

______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(1 mark)
 27

(ii) How are the actions of the organs regulated?

______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(2 marks)

(iii) What happens when the system of control breaks down?

______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(2 marks)

10
 28
QUESTION 11

(a) Many insects (including malarial parasites) have become resistant to

insecticides such as DDT. Suggest an explanation for this fact.

___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
(4 marks)

(b) The human body possesses many natural defences against infection.
Describe briefly, the differences between

(i) natural and acquired immunity;

______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(2 marks)
 29

(ii) active and passive immunity.

______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(2 marks)

(c) “A small amount of alcohol (found in beer) gives a person a sense of well-being,
with a release of anxiety. A concentration of 500 mg of alcohol in 100 cm3 of a
person’s blood can be risky”.

Describe the effects in a person who frequently takes excessive

amounts of alcohol.

___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
(2 marks)

10
 30
QUESTION 12

(a) “Most of our environmental problems are caused by man’s tendency to do

what is economical or profitable rather than ecologically sound”.
Discuss this statement in relation to what you see in Solomon Islands
and the world today.

___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________
(4 marks)

(b) (i) During your science course, you have probably undertaken a number of field
trips to investigate different aspects of the environment.
Assuming that you were studying a natural community, state the
factors for which you would test to evaluate the physical and
chemical features of the area.

______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(2 marks)
 31
(iii) When studying abundance and distribution in the field, organisms must be
counted. For some organisms, this is relatively simple, but for plants such as
moss, or animals such as ants, this is very difficult if not impossible.

How would you “count” these organisms ?

______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________
(4 marks)

10

THE END