1) Given the following:

True Course: 315°

Wind velocity: 230/40
TAS: 420 knots

What is the wind correction angle and the groundspeed? (WCA / GS)

A) -6° / 415
B) +6° / 425
C) +6° / 415
D) -6° / 425

2) VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than:

A) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft
B) 2000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft
C) 500 ft above the highest obstacle
D) the highest obstacle

3) The measured course 042° T

The variation in the area is 6° W and the wind is calm
The deviation is 4° W
In order to follow this course, the pilot must fly a compass heading of:

A) 044°
B) 040°
C) 052°
D) 058°

4) ATC require a descent from FL270 to FL160 to be level 6 NM before a VOR. If rate of descent is 800 feet per minute,
mean groundspeed is 256 kts, how far out from the VOR must descent be started?

A) 59 nm
B) 144 nm
C) 65 nm
D) 150 nm

5) A descent is planned from 7500 ft MSL so as to arrive at 1000 ft MSL 6 NM from a VORTAC. With a GS of 156 kts and a
rate of descent of 800 ft/min. The distance from the VORTAC when descent is started is:

A) 30,2 NM
B) 15,0 NM
C) 27,1 NM
D) 11,7 NM

6) After flying for 16 min at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind component, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You
will arrive after:

A) 16 min
B) 24 min
C) 20 min
D) 10 min 40 sec
7) An aircraft flying at 7500 ft is cleared to descend to be level at 1000 ft, 6 NM before reaching a beacon. If ground speed is
156 kt and Rate of Descent is 800 fpm, how many miles before the beacon should descent begin?

A) 27.1
B) 11.1
C) 30.2
D) 15.0

8) In the cruise at FL 155 at 260 kt TAS, the pilot plans for a 500 feet/min descent in order to fly overhead MAN VOR at 2
000 feet (QNH 1030). TAS will remain constant during descent, wind is negligible, temperature is standard. The pilot must
start the descent at a distance from MAN of:

A) 120 NM
B) 140 NM
C) 130 NM
D) 110 NM

9) From the options given below select those flights which require flight plan notification:

1. Any Public Transport flight

2. Any IFR flight
3. Any flight which is to be carried out in regions which are designated to ease the provision of the Alerting Service or
the operations of Search and Rescue
4. Any cross-border flights
5. Any flight which involves overflying water

A) 1 + 5
B) 2 + 4
C) 3 + 4+5
D) 1 + 2+3

10) A CURRENT flight plan is a:

A) filed flight plan

B) filed flight plan with amendments and clearance included
C) flight plan in the course of which radio communication should be practised between aeroplane and ATC
D) flight plan with the correct time of departure

11) On an ATC flight plan, an aircraft indicated as H for HEAVY:

A) requires a runway length of at least 2 000m at maximum certified take-off mass

B) is of the highest wake turbulence category
C) has a certified take-off mass greater than or equal to 140 000 kg
D) has a certified landing mass greater than or equal to 136 000 kg

12) For a flight plan received from an aircraft in flight the time used in Item 13 is:

A) Actual time of departure

B) The time of requesting the flight plan
C) EOBT
D) The estimated or actual time over the first point of the route to which the flight plan applies

13) In the ATS flight plan Item 10 (equipment), the letter to indicate the carriage of a serviceable transponder - mode A (4
digits-4096 codes) and mode C, is:

A) C
B) B
C) P
D) A