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JEEM Mock Test-4 - 24-1-20
JEEM Mock Test-4 - 24-1-20
▪ Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You ar e allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
Important Instructions:
A. General Instructions
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of
pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out
the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. This question paper contains Three Parts.
6. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
7. Each Part has only one section: Section - A.
8. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough
work.
9. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in any
form, are not allowed.
10. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the
Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
11. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall / room.
12. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room / Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
13. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
(i) Section-A (01 – 20, 26 – 45, 51 – 70) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-A (21 – 25, 46 – 50, 71 – 75) contains 15 Numerical based questions, the answer of which
maybe positive or negative numbers or decimals and each question carries +4 marks for correct
answer. There is no negative marking.
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JEEM Mock Test-IV
PART – I: PHYSICS
Section – A: Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A boat having length of 3 metres and breadth 2 metres is floating on a lake. The boat
sinks by one cm when a man gets on it. The mass of the man is
(A) 60 kg (B) 62 kg (C) 72 kg (D) 128 kg
3. A hydrogen atom and a Li + + ions are both in the second excited state. If H and Li are
their respective electronic angular momenta, and E H and E Li their respective energies,
then
(A) H Li and EH ELi (B) H = Li and EH ELi
(C) H = Li and EH ELi (D) H Li and EH ELi
5. Wavelength of light used in an optical instrument are 1 = 4000 Å and 2 = 5000 Å, then
ratio of their respectively resolving powers (corresponding to 1 and 2) is
(A) 16 : 25 (B) 9 : 1 (C) 4 : 5 (D) 5 : 4
6. A rain drop of radius 1.5 mm, experiences a drag force F = ( 2 10−5 v ) N , while falling
through air from a height 2km, with a velocity v. The terminal velocity of the rain drop will
be nearly (use g = 10m/s2-)
(A) 200 m/s (B) 80 m/s (C) 4.7 m/s (D) 3 m/s
Space for rough work
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JEEM Mock Test-IV
(B) VQ − VO = 2Ba 2
1
(C) VP − VO = Ba 2
4
a 2 B
(D) The maximum value of VP − VO =
2
8. A ball falls from rest from a height h onto a floor, and rebounds to a height h/4. The
coefficient of restitution between the ball and the floor is
1
(A) 1/2 (B) 1/4 (C) (D) ¾
2
12. Two rods are of same material and have same length and area. Heat R flow through
them in 12 minutes, when they joined side by side. If now both the rods are joined in
parallel, then in what time (in minutes) the same amount of heat R will flow.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Space for rough work
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JEEM Mock Test-IV
14. A train of mass M is moving on a circular track of radius R with constant speed v. The
length of train is half the perimeter of track. The linear momentum of the train will be
(A) 0 (B) 2M/ (C) MvR (D) Mv
15. A cube of side a is placed on an inclined plane of inclination . What is the maximum
value of for which cube will not topple?
(A) 150 (B) 300 (C) 450 (D) 600
16. A Carnot engine takes 3 × 106 cal of heat from a reservoir at 627°C and gives it to a sink
at 27°C. The work done by the engine is
(A) 4.2 × 106 J (B) 8.4 × 106 J (C) 16.8 × 106 J (D) zero
1
19. Two blocks A and B float in water. If A floats with of its volume immersed and B floats
4
3
with of its volume immersed, then the ratio of their densities is
5
5 7 9 11
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12 12 12 12
Space for rough work
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JEEM Mock Test-IV
Section – A
Numerical based questions
1 kg
4 kg
23. Nuclear reactions have been successfully demonstrated with the following energetic
projectiles: neutrons, -particles, protons and -rays. In the following reaction X is
13 Al +2 He → Si14 + X10n +11 H
27 4 28
V(m3)
C B
2
24. An ideal gas is taken through the cycle A→B→C→A as shown
in the figure. If the net heat supplied to the gas in the cycle is
5 J, the work done (in J) on the gas in the process C→A is 1 A
2
10 P(N/m )
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JEEM Mock Test-IV
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
27. ‘X’ is the smallest atom of its group and period of the periodic table. The correct
statement regarding ‘X’ is
(A) It is a metal
(B) It is the most electronegative element
(C) It has the highest value of electron affinity
(D) Its ionization energy is less than that of Na
29. The solubility product of two substances, M(OH)3 and N(OH)2 are respectively 27 10–8
and 4 10–6. Therefore, the two substance have same
(A) pH (B) Solubility(mol/L) in water
(C) Solubility(g/L) in water (D) [OH–] in saturated solution
31. X ( g) + Y ( g) ⎯⎯
→ XY ( g)
The rate of above reaction increases by four times if the concentration of both X and Y
gases are doubled. What is the rate equation of the reaction?
(A) Rate = k[X]2[Y]2 (B) Rate = k[X]2[Y]1 (C) Rate = k[X]2[Y]0 (D) Rate = k[X]0[Y]
Space for rough work
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JEEM Mock Test-IV
33. C2H5NH2
HNO2
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
or NaNO2 /HCl
→ ( X ) + ( Y ) +H2O
The correct statement regarding gas(Y) is:
(A) It is a reddish-brown gas (B) It combines with NO2 to form a blue
liquid
(C) It is formed by heating (NH4)2Cr2O7 (D) Its aqueous solution turns red litmus
blue
34. CH2OH
Conc.H2SO4
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
High temp
( X)
CH2OH
In the above reaction(X) is:
(A) HC CH (B) CH3CHO (C) CH3OCH3 (D) CH2 = CH2
36. Which of the following solutions on mixing form a red colouration mixture?
(A) FeSO4 + KCN (D) FeSO4 + KSCN (C) Fe2(SO4)3+ KSCN (D) Fe2(SO4)3 + NaCN
38. Addition of equimolar amount of which of the following complex can depress the freezing
point of water by maximum extent?
(A) [Cu(NH3)4] [NiCl4] (B) [Ag(NH3)2]NO3 (C) Na2[Zn(CN)4] (D) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
39. OH
KMnO /H+ /
CH3CHCH2CH2OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ 4
→ Product
The organic product of above reaction is:
(A) CH3CH2CH2OH (B) CH3COCH3 (C) CH3CH = CH2 (D) CH3CH2CHO
40. Which of the following substance displays van der Waal’s force of attraction?
(A) Silicates (B) Boron nitride
(C) Silicon carbide (D) Sodium metaborate
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JEEM Mock Test-IV
42. CH2CN
LiAlH4
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → ( X)
CH2NC
How many maximum number of moles of CH3I can be absorbed by the product(X) of
above reaction?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 3
43. Monomer of natural rubber is
(A) neoprene (B) isoprene (C) terylene (D) orlon
44. Which of the following is used as a preservative to protect processed food?
(A) Sodium tripolyphosphate (B) Saccharin
(C) Sodium metabisulphite (D) Sucrolose
45. The deficiency of vitamin C causes
(A) scurvy (B) rickets (C) pyorrhea (D) pernicious
Section – A
Numerical based questions
46. How many of the given molecules have central atom sp3 hybridized
SF4, XeO2F2, XeOF2, XeOF4, XeO4, CO2, SiO2, ClF3, CH3− , CH3+
47. The formula of an alkyl silicon chloride is Si(R)x (Cl)y. What will be the value of ‘y’ if it
forms cross-linked silicone upon hydrolysis?
48. The molar solubility of Fe(OH)3 in a buffer solution is 10−12 M at 25C. Find the pH of
buffer solution
Ksp of Fe(OH)3 = 10−36
49. How many of the following substance(s) form(s) alcohol when treated with CH3MgBr
followed by hydrolysis?
CH3CH2COOH, C2H5OCH3, HCHO, CH3COOC2H5, CH3COCH3,
CH 2 CH - CH 3 CHO
, CH3CH2CHO, C2H5NHC2H5, CH3NH2, CH3SH
,
O
50. How many of the given molecules are more reactive than benzene in Electrophilic
Aromatic Substitution?
NH2 NO2 Cl CH3
, , , , ,
, , N N
H
CH3
C=O
CH2Cl N-H
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JEEM Mock Test-IV
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
51. ( )
Range of the function f ( x ) = n x + 3 x + 2 is (where {.} is fractional part function)
2
1 2 3
52. If matrix A = −1 0 4 and the determinant of matrix A500 − 2A 499 is m. then number of
6 2 −1
zeros at the end of m is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 3
x
sin , x 1
53. The function f ( x ) = 2 , where [.] denotes the greatest integer function, is
2x − 3 x, x 1
(A) Continuous and differentiable at x = 1 (B) Continuous but not differentiable at x = 1
(C) Discontinuous at x = 1 (D) None of these
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JEEM Mock Test-IV
58. The value of −b. a a b ( ( )) is equal to ( a,b are non zero, non collinear vector)
(A) Area of quadrilateral whose two diagonals are a and b
(B) Area of triangle with a and b as two of its sides.
(C) Area of parallelogram with a and b as the adjacent side
(D) Projection of a on b
1 1 1 2a
59. If x = 2 + 5i (where i = −1 ) and 2 + + = then x3 − 5x 2 + 33x − 10 =
1!9! 3!7! 5!5! b!
(A) a + b (B) b − a
(C) a − b (D) −a − b
(2 )
10
r −1
61. The value of + 8r − 3 is equal to
r =1
(A) 1343 (B) 1234 (C) 1334 (D) 1433
62. How many perfect squares are divisors of the product 1!.2!.3!.........9! ?
(A) 504 (B) 672 (C) 1334 (D) 1433
5 9 4
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
4 4 5
65. The graph of the polynomial P ( x ) = x5 + ax4 + bx3 + cx2 + dx + e cuts x – axis at 5
different points ( a,b,c,d R ) , one of which is at (0, 0). Then which of the following
coefficient can’t be zero?
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d
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JEEM Mock Test-IV
20
66. If is a non real 7th root of unity and f ( x ) = A 0 + A k xk , then the value of
k =1
f ( x ) + f ( x ) + f ( x ) + ..... + f ( x ) is :
2 6
2 6 +1
67. The value of cos−1 − cos−1 is equal to
3 2 3
2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 4 3 3
68. All the face cards from a pack of 52 playing cards are removed. From the remaining pack
half of the cards are randomly removed without looking at them and then two cards are
simultaneously drawn from the remaining cards. The probability, that two cards drawn
are both aces, is
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
120 130 140 150
69. Let f : (0, ) → [0, ), y = f(x) be a differentiable curve which has property that for every
point P on the curve, length of subnormal is equal to abscissa of P. If f (1) = 3 , then
f ( 4 ) is equal to
(A) −2 6 (B) 2 6 (C) 3 5 (D) 0
Section – A
Numerical based questions
71. The distance of the plane passing through the point P (1, 1, 1) and perpendicular to the
x −1 y −1 z −1
line = = from the origin is m, then the value of 5m is
3 0 4
72. For two data sets, each of size 5, the variance are given to be 4 and 5 and the
corresponding means are given to be 2 and 4, respectively. The double of the variance
of the combined set is m, value of m – 2 is
Space for rough work
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JEEM Mock Test-IV
(x + 3x 2 + 3x + 3 + ( x + 1) cos ( x + 1) dx is )
3
74. The value of the definite integral
−2
75. If x,y 0,2 , then total number of ordered pairs (x, y) such that sin x cos y = 1 is
Space for rough work
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