D.S.

S AIIMS PREPRATION TEST SERIES – 8

Dr.SANJAY 7014964651

OBG QUESTION
1. The milk is secreted at the starting of regular breast feeding that contain more protein and sugar
is known as
a. Mature milk
b. Hind milk
c. Fore milk
d. Transitional milk
2. Painful menstruation is termed as:
A. Menorrhagia
B. Dysmenorrhea
C. Amenorrhea
D. Decreased production of prostaglandins
3. In following which is not a sexually transmitted disease?
A. Chancroid
B. Fibroid uterus
C. Syphilis
D. AIDS

4. When the umbilical cord lies in front of the presenting part and the membranes are intact it
is known as:

A. Cord prolapse
B. Cord pulsation
C. Cord presentation
D. Cord delivery

5. Starting of menstrual cycle is called:

A. Ovulation
B. Menarche
C. Menstruation
D. Menopause
6. Secretion from mother's breast following delivery is called:
A. Seduestrum
B. Colostrum
C. Leucorrhoea
D. Lochia
7. During which stage of labour placenta is delivered?
A. Stage -2
B. Stage -1
C. Stage -3
D. Stage -4
8. 'Pap's smear" is used for screening of which of the following:
A. Endometrial cancer
B. Ovarian cancer
C. Cervical cancer
D. Breast Cancer

9. Which abdominal grip is used to assess the desecent of head in a pregnant woman?
A. Lateral
B. Fundal
C. Pelvic 1
D. Pelvic 2

10. Movements of the baby felt by the mother are known as:
A. Lightening
B. Engagement
C. Balottment
D. Quickening
11. Bedrest is essential in pre-eclampsia since it:
A. Prevents eclampsia
B. Mobilizes tissue fluid thereby lowering blood pressure
C. Improves blood circulations and decreases oedema
D. Prevents premature labour
12. Bleeding after 24 hours of delivery is considered as past partum haemorrhage?
A. When blood loss is more than 500 ml.
B. When blood loss is more than 700 ml.
C. When blood loss is more than 100 ml.
D. When blood loss is more than 200 ml
13. In following which is the highest diameter of pelvis?
A. Anterio-posterior
B. Oblique
C. Lateral
D. All are equal

14. In following, which vaccine is given to a pregnant lady?

A. Measles
B. B CG
C. Tetanus
D. DPT
15. Primary feature of cervical cancer includes :
A. Polyurea
B. regular menstruation
C. Anorexia
D. Headache
16. Total number of antenatal visit by a pregnant lady should be at least:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. 5

17. Commonest complication of IUD insertion is:

A. Pain
B. Bleeding
C. Perforation
D. Ectopic pregnancy
18. In following which is the main cause of PID:
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Placenta previa
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. PPH
19. During +2 station, position of foetal head is:
A. Below ischeal spine
B. Above ischeal spine
C. Behind ischeal spine
D. Just above of pelvic inlet
20. Corpus luteum of pregnancy is active till :
A. 6 to 10 weeks
B. 12 to 14 weeks
C. 16 to 18 weeks
D. 20 to 22 weeks

21. When the placental villi invade the myometrium, the placenta is termed :
A. Placenta Accreta
B. Placenta increta
C. Placenta percreta
D. Placenta extrachorialis

22. Which of the following is not a presumptive sign of pregnancy ?

A. Increased frequency of micturition
B. Vomiting
C. Pain in breasts
D. Presence of foetal heart sound
23. By 28 weeks of pregnancy, the fundus of the uterus is :
A. Midway between the umbilicus Xiphisternum
B. At 1/3rd (one-third).of distance between the +umbilicus and xiphisternum
C. Just above the level of umbilicus
D. At 2/3rd (two-third).of the distance between the umbilicus and the xiphisternum
24. Spontaneous uterine contractions known a Braxton Hicks contractions begin by :
A. 14 weeks
B. 22 weeks
C. 10 weeks
D. 18 weeks
25. What is the best time to ask a woman to start taking folic acid supplements?
A. Second half of menstrual cycle
B. When she consult for a missed period
C. When pregnancy is confirmed
D. Once she plans a pregnancy
26. All of the following are characteristics of threatened abortion except:
A. Presence of vaginal bleeding
B. Pain in lower abdomen
C. Cervical os is open
D. Uterus corresponds to the period of gestation
27. For best result, medical method of termination of pregnancy is not recommended :
A. Beyond 5 weeks of pregnancy
B. Beyond 7 weeks of pregnancy
C. Beyond 9 weeks of pregnancy
D. Beyond 11 weeks of pregnancy
28. Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin levels are increased in all of the following, except:
A. Complete mole
B. Partial mole
C. Endo dermal sinus tumor
D. Embrional carcinoma
29. Functions of amniotic fluid include all of the following, except :
A. Cushioning effect to the fetus
B. Improves urine output
C. Maintains even temperature for the fetus
D. Promotes development of fetus
30. Which of the following movements occurs throughout labour in the mechanism of labour?
A. Restitution
B. Internal rotation
C. External rotation
D. Descent
31. If a newborn exhibits blue extremities and the body is pink the APGAR score should be?
a. 2.
b. 3
c. 0
 d. 1

32. When is fertilized ovum known as embryo?

A. 12-24 weeks
B. 8-32 weeks
C. 0-8 weeks
D. 0-12 weeks70.

33. Attitude of fetal head in occipito posterior position is:

A. Adduction
B. Defluxion
C. Extension
D. Flexion
34. Morbidly adherent placenta is called as?
a. Battledore placenta
b. Placenta accrete
c. Placenta succenturiate
d. Placenta circumvallate
35. Normal weight of placenta at term is:
A. 1/4th of baby weight
B. 1/6th of baby weight
C. 500 gms
D. 900 gms
36. Hormone hyperemesis gravidarum is:
A. Human chorionic gonadotropin
B. Human placentral lactogen
C. Progesterone
D. Relaxin
37. Specific manifestation in menopause is:
A. Hot flashes
B. Hypotension
C. Anorexia
D. Hypothermia
38. Which of the following is correct with respect to the gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)
technique?
A. It is recommended for those females cervical canal restricts the passage of sperms
B. Whose ovary doesn't provide suitable environment for fertilization
C. Who cannot produce an ovum
D. Whose uterus cannot retain the fetus inside it
39. Which one of the following statements is most mother appropriate to convince a mother for
immunization of her child?
A. Immunization is okay for your baby
B. Government will take care of all post-immunization complications.
 C. Vaccines are expensive and you are getting it free
D. Vaccines will prevent the occurrence of the disease in future for which it is meant

40. After ovulation corpus luteum formed in the ovary releases:

A. Testosterone
B. Aldosterone
C. Progesterone
D. Estrogen

41. Which of the following is a risk factor for development of breast cancer?
A. Late menarche
B. Early menopause
C. No pregnancies
D. Early first pregnancy
42. The prenatal technique to determine the genetic disorder in a fetus is called:
A. Amniocentesis
B. Laparoscopy
C. Coitus interruptus
D. Abstinence
43. If a newborn exhibits a heart rate of 80 bpm the APGAR score should be?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

44. Edward syndrome is characterized by :

A. Trisomy of 21 st chromosome
B. Trisomy of 18th chromosome
C. Trisomy of 13th chromosome
D. Monosomy of 21st chromosome
45. The most common cause of urinary tract infection (UTI) in community is :
A. Salmonella
B. Corny bacterium
C. Klebsiella
D. E-coli

46. A possible complication of an infant delivered by cesarean section is:

A. Respiratory distress
B. Hypothermia
C. Hyperthermia
D. Anaemia
47. Which out of the following is not a feature of pre -eclampsia?
A. Fits
 B. Oedema
C. Proteinuria
D. Hypertension
48. Abnormal proliferation of uterine endometrial tissue outside the uterus is known as
a. Metrorrhagia
b. Cystic fibrosis
c. Endometriosis
d. Menorrhagia

49. The primigravida reports that her last menstrual period started on January 15 and ended on
Janurary 20. Using nagele's rule, the EDD will be:
A. October 22
B. December 28
C. November 8
D. September 22
50. During which week of pregnancy lightening can be felt by the pregnant mother:-
A. 34 Weeks
B. 36 Weeks
C. 38 Weeks
D. 40 Weeks
51. Which of the following is most common cause of PPH?
A. Atonic uterus
B. Traumatic uterus
C. Clotting disorder
D. None of the above
52. During labour, the process of thinning and shortening of cervix is termed as:
A. Ballottement
B. Dilatation
C. Effacement
D. Insufficiency
53. Which of the following is main side effect of an intra uterine device:
A. Vaginal Bleeding
B. Pelvic Inflammatory disease
C. Uterine perforation
D. Ectopic pregnancy
54. A female who has given birth to the viable child first time, is termed as:
A. Primipara
B. Nulligravida
C. Multipara
D. Primigravida
55. "Crowning" is seen in which stage of labor :
A. Second Stage
B. Fourth Stage
 C. First Stage
D. Third Stage
56. Which of the following hormones would be administered for the stimulation of uterine
Contractions:
A. Prolactin
B. Fetal cortisol
C. Oxytocin
D. Progesterone
57. The best procedure to remove the embedded IUCD in the uterus with missing thread is:
A. Hysteroscopy
B. Cystoscopy
C. Laparoscopy
D. Laparotomy
58. Partograph is used for :
A. Admission of patient
B. Measuring progress of labor
C. Laparoscopy
D. Laparotomy
59. Which of the following pregnant woman would be considered as being at high risk:
A. Height less than 4ft 10 inch
B. Measuring process of labour
C. Details of medicines of patient
D. All of above
60. Which of the following cancer is found more in females:
A. Cervical Cancer
B. Stomach Cancer
C. Lung Cancer
D. Bone Cancer
61. A couple has a 2 years old child with cystic fibrosis. When planning their next pregnancy, the
couple should undergo:
A. Genetic counseling
B. Psychological counscling
C. Counseling regarding sexually transmitted diseases
D. TORCH test
62. During which of the following stages of labor would the nurse assess "crowning"?
A. First stage
B. Third stage
C. Second stage
D. Fourth stage
63. Before birth, which of the following structures connect the right and left auricles of the heart?
A. Umbilical vein
B. Ductus arteriosus
C. Ductus venosus
D. Foramen ovale
64. Which of the following when present in urine may cause a reddish stan on the diaper of
newborn?
A. Mucus
B. Uric acid crystals
C. Bilirubin
D. Excess Iron
65. Early amniocentesis is done in which period of pregnancy?
A. 6-10 weeks
B. 11-15 weeks
C. 16-18 weeks
D. 9-11 weeks
66. Endometrium in pregnancy is known as:
A. Decidua
B. Decubitus
C. Trophoblast
D. Gravid endometrium
67. Hypertrophic sebaceous glands around nipples during pregnancy:
A. Montgomery's tubercle
B. Sebaceous cyst
C. Chloasma
D. Linea nigra
68. Average total gain during pregnancy is:
A. 10-12 kg
B. 8-10 kg
C. 12-14 kg
D. 16-18 kg

69. Fertilization takes place in fallopian tube in the:

A. Infundibulum
B. Ampulla
C. Isthmus
D. Fumbriae

70. Umbilical cord contains:

A. Two arteries and two veins
B. Two arteries and one vein
C. Two veins and one artery
D. One artery and one vein
71. Engaging diameter of vertex presentation is :
A. Suboccipito frontal
B. Suboccipito bregmatic
C. Submento bregmatic
 D. Mento vertical

72. Which of the following matches the definition: abnormal placenta development covering the
cervix?
A. Placenta Previa
B. Abruptio Placentae
C. Multigravida
D. Proliferative phase

73. Physiologic anemia during pregnancy is a result of

A. Increased blood volume of the mother
B. Decreased dietary intake of Iron
C. Decreased erythropoietin after first trimester
D. Increased detoxification of iron by THE maternal lever
74. Sign and symptoms of placenta previa include:
A. Sharp abdominal pain
B. Early rupture of membranes
C. Increased low back pain
D. Painless vaginal bleeding

75. Which Of The Following Is Not Appropriate Matched With The Term Braxton Hicks Contraction?
A. Painless
B. Intermittent contractions
C. Edema
D. Irregular
76. Small nodules observed during 8 weeks of pregnancy on primary areola are known as:
A. Mask of pregnancy
B. Montgomery's tubercles
C. Areda tubercles
D. Linea nigra
77. Progesterone is secreted from a female's to help the implanted embryo and continue the
pregnancy.
A. Corpus luteum
B. Endoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. Thyroid
78. The average head circumference of newborn is:
A. 28 cms
B. 30 cms
C. 34 cms
D. 32 cms
79. In case newborn shows signs of asphyxia at birth, nurse should immediately:
A. Clear the airway
 B. Start oxygen
C. Stimulate crying
D. Inform the doctor
80. A postnatal mother receiving treatment for deep vein thrombosis should be watched for:
A. Dysuria, ecchymosis and vertigo
B. Epistaxis, hematuria and dysuria
C. Hematuria, vertigo and hematuria
D. Hematuria, ecchymosis and epistaxis
.
81. At the time of delivery umbilical cord lengthening and spurt of blood form vagina is suggestive
of :
A. Hematoma dislodgement
B. Uterine atony
C. Placental separation
D. Placenta previa
82. The most appropriate action by the nurse when the periodic acceleration in fetal heart rate is
observed :
A. Notify doctor
B. Continue monitoring fetal heart rate
C. Reposition mother and monitor her vital signs
D. Document findings and inform mother about baby's well being
83. Antidote of opioid that mother has received during labor pains is :
A. Naloxone
B. Clexane
C. Mephitine
D. Brome Xin
84. Which of the following hormones is produced by placenta:
A. Testosterone

B. Estrogen

C. Progesterone

D. Human chronic gonadotropin

85. Genital tuberculosis occur mainly in women in the following organ:

A. Fallopian tube

B. Cervix

C. Uterus

D. Vagina

86. A nurse perform the assessment of patient posted for cesarean section delivery, which
assessment would indicate the need to contact the doctor?

A. Hemoglobin of 11 gm
 B. Fetal heart rate 180 beats/min

C. Maternal pulse of 84 beats/min

D. White blood cells of 12,000/mm

87. Pfannenstiel incision is used for:

A. Caesarean section

B. Cholecystectomy

C. Inguinal Herniorrhaphy

D. Gastrectomy

88. Green Armitage forceps is used to arrest bleeding in:

A. Hysterectomy
В. Ovariotomy
C. Cesarean section
D. Myomectomy
89. Vaginal hysterectomy is done for:
A. Uterus prolapse
B. Fibroid uterus
C. Cervical erosion
D. Endometrial carcinoma

90. The most common side effect of IUCD insertion IS?

A. Bleeding
B. Pain
C. Pelvic Infection
D. Ectopic Pregnancy

91. Which of the following danger signs should be informed immediately during the antepartum
period:

A. Blurred vision
B. Nasal stuffiness
C. Breast tenderness
D. Constipation

92. If the LMP is 31 January the expected date of delivery (EDD.is

A. Oct 7
B. Nov 7
C. Nov 8
D. Oct 24
93. Sperm count less than 20 million/MI:
A. Oligospermia
 B. Asthenospermia
C. Aspermia
D. Azoospermia
.
94. Lactational Amenorrhea is due to
A. Prolactin induced inhibition of GnRH
B. Prolactin induced inhibition of FSH
C. Oxytocin induced inhibition of GNRH
D. Oxytocin induced inhibition of FSH

95. Diagnostic criteria of pre eclampsia includes:

A. Presence of pitting edema over the ankles after 12 hours bed rest
B. Presence of pitting edema over the ankles after 2 hours bed rest
C. Presence of pitting edema over the ankles after 6 hours bed rest
D. Presence of pitting edema over the ankles after just after bed rest
96. In primigravida time period of latent phase in partograph is about:
A. 4 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 16 hours

97. A woman who has delivered a baby of above 4 kgs weight is normally screened for which of the
following :
A. Malaria
B. Jaundice
C. Typhoid
D. Diabetes
98. Definitive treatment of placenta previa includes:
A. Bed rest
B. Supplementary hematinic
C. Use of tocolytics
D. Caesarian section
99. In following which statement is false :
A. At birth the uterine body and the cervix ratio is about 1:2
B. When Menarche occurs the ratio between uterine body and the cervix become 1:1
C. After menarche the ratio becomes 2:1
D. After menopause the ratio remains 3:1
100. The peak point of a uterine contraction is called the:
A. Acceleration
B. Deceleration
C. Acme
D. Axiom