IBPS CLERKS

MODEL GRAND TEST

Number of Questions: 200 Max. Marks: 200 Time: 2 Hours
REASONING
1. In a class of forty students, Samir's rank from the top is twelfth. Alok is eight
ranks below Samir. What is Alok’s rank from the bottom?
1) 20th 2) 21st 3) 22nd 4) 19th
5) None of these
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which
is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) Jowar 2) Paddy 3) Millet 4) Wheat
5) Sesame
3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GOLDEN each of which
has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three
5) More than three
4. In a certain code DAYLONG is written as ZBEKHOP. How is CORDIAL writ-
ten in that code ?
1) SPDCMBJ 2) SPDEMBJ 3) DPSCMBJ 4) SPDCJBM
5) None of these
5. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the third, the
seventh, the eighth and the tenth letters of the word PREDICAMENT, which of
the following will be the third letter of that word? If no such word can be made,
give 'X' as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as
the answer.
1) M 2) N 3) E 4) X 5) Y
6. If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is
replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining let-
ters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the fol-
lowing will be the fourth from the right end after the replacement ?
1) N 2) Q 3) J 4) M
5) None of these
7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which
is the one that does not belong to that group?
1) March 2) January 3) July 4) June 5) May
8. M is older than R. Q is younger than R and N. N is not as old as M. Who among
M, N, R and Q is the oldest?
1) M 2) R 3) M or R
4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
9. The positions of how many digits in the number 7354612 will remain unchanged
after the digits within the number are rearranged in descending order from left
to right?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three
5) More than three
10. If ‘M’ means ‘÷’, ‘R’ means ‘+’, ‘T’ means ‘−’ and ‘K’ means ‘×’, then 20 R 16
K 5 M 10 T 8 = ?
1) 36 2) 20 3) 36.5 4) 12
5) None of these
11. In a certain code ROBE is written as ‘5136’ and BIND is written as ‘3792’. How
is RIDE written in that code?
1) 5276 2) 5726 3) 5376 4) 5326
5) None of these
12. Pravin walked 30 meters towards East, took a right turn and walked 20 metres,
again took a right turn and walked 30 metres. How far was he from the starting
point?
1) 30 metres 2) 80 metres 3) 50 metres 4) 20 meters
5) None of these
13. In a certain code ‘good and bad’ is written as ‘7 2 5’; ‘one and all’ is written as
‘9 3 2’ and ‘this is good’ is written as ‘1 5 4’. How is ‘one’ written in that code?
1) 9 2) 3 3) 2
4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
14. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ENAL using
each letter only once in each word?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
5) More than four
15. Which of the following will be the middle digit of the second lowest number
among the five numbers given below?
317 528 439 254 861
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 5 5) 6
16. ‘BEAN’ is related to ‘NEAB’ and ‘SAID’ is related to ‘DAIS’ in the same way
as ‘LIME’ is related to……
1) MLEI 2) ELMI 3) EIML 4) EILM
5) None of these
Directions (Q.17-23): In each of these questions below are given three statements fol-
lowed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
1) If only Conclusion I follows.
2) If only Conclusion II follows.
3) If either Conclusion I or Conclusion II follows.
4) If neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows.
5) If both Conclusion I and Conclusion II follows.
17. Statements:
All poles are lights.
All lights are bulbs.
All bulbs are tubes.
Conclusions:
I. All tubes are poles. II. Some bulbs are poles.
18. Statements:
All tyres are wheels.
Some wheels are desks.
All desks are plates.
Conclusions:
I. Some plates are wheels. II. Some plates are tyres.
19. Statements:
Some Kites are threads.
Some threads are sticks.
All sticks are umbrellas.
Conclusions:
I. Some Kites are umbrellas. II. Some umbrellas are threads.
20. Statements:
Some flowers are trees.
No tree is room.
Some rooms are hotels.
Conclusions:
I. Some hotels are flowers. II. Some rooms are flowers.
21. Statements:
All jackets are shirts.
All shirts are trousers.
No trouser is bag.
Conclusions:
I. No jacket is bag. II. No bag is shirt.
22. Statements:
Some blades are knives.
Some knives are tables.
All books are tables.
Conclusions:
I. Some books are knives. II. Some books are blades.
23. Statements:
All windows are houses.
All roads are houses.
Some houses are hills.
Conclusions:
I. Some hills are windows. II. No hill is window.
Directions (Q.24-30): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer these
questions.
R 4 E J 5 T 1 A M Q 3 8 N
I K 7 W F 6 D 9 U 2 Y V
24. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in
the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
1) J54 2) 38M 3) 7WI 4) 2Y9
5) 8IQ
25. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a conso-
nant?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three
5) More than three
26. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a consonant but not immediately followed by a
consonant?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
5) More than four
27. Which of the following is exactly in the middle between A and D in the above
arrangement?
1) I 2) N 3) K 4) 8
5) None of these
28. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following
will be the ninth to the left of D?
1) T 2) A 3) V 4) J
5) None of these
29. Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the eleventh from the left end
of the above arrangement?
1) M 2) 9 3) W 4) 5
5) None of these
30. Which of the following is the fourth to the right of the tenth from the right end
of the above arrangement?
1) 8 2) D 3) I 4) T
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 31-40): In each of the questions given below which one of the five
answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the
sequence were continued?

31.

1) 2) 3) 4) 5)

32.

1) 2) 3) 4) 5)

33.

1) 2) 3) 4) 5)

34.

1) 2) 3) 4) 5)

35.

1) 2) 3) 4) 5)

36.

1) 2) 3) 4) 5)

37.

1) 2) 3) 4) 5)

38.

1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
39.

1) 2) 3) 4) 5)

40.

1) 2) 3) 4) 5)

General English
Directions (Q.41-50): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions

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below it. Certain words/ expressions are printed in bold in the passage to help you

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locate them while answering some of the questions.
Child psychology is certainly not a strong point with most Indian schools. Why

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else would it inflict a double trauma on a student faring badly in the pre-boards by ban-

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ning her from taking the exams often with fatal results as evidenced by reports of stu-

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dents suicides in the run-up to the board. Now the Central Board of Secondary

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Education (CBSE) has stepped in and put the brakes on. This is good news for parents

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and students, many of whom have had to live with the threat of the performance -

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linked department. While schools' logic is that in order to attract talented students, they

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need to maintain their performance records at high levels, the assumption that a student
faring poorly in the pre-boards will replicate this at the board is faulty. Chances are that

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the student will be spurred to work doubly hard. On the other hand, the threat of the

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department will almost certainly impact her performance adversely. Of course, linking

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pre-boards to the boards is only one of the problems with our system.
41. Which is good news for parents according to the passage?
1) Schools will take the responsibility of preparing students for the board.
2) Schools will provide study facilities to the poor students.
3) Schools will enforce discipline to ensure higher attendance of the students
4) No student can be barred from the boards without prior clearance from the
CBSE.
5) Teachers will be able to handle students well if they know child psychology.
42. What is the ruling of the CBSE?
1) Students must pass the pre-board exam before appearing for the board exam.
2) Schools should follow the practice of performance - linked department.
3) Schools should maintain performance record of students of high level.
4) Schools must motivate students to work hard.
5) Before barring any student, the board schools must take prior permission of
the CBSE.
43. What is the faulty assumption of schools according to the passage?
1) Students who do not do well at pre-boards will be motivated to work hard.
2) Pre-boards are generally easy and therefore students take them lightly.

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3) Students who fare poorly at the pre-board will fail at the boards.

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4) Learning by rote is a better method of learning.

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5) Students perform better in languages than in science subjects.
44.

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Which of the following according to the passage, is the problem with our school

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system?

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1) Providing study facilities to the students.

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2) Linking pre-board performance of the students to the boards.

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3) Teachers' lack of knowledge of child psychology.

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4) Attracting talented students.

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5) Low percentage of students passing the board exam.
45.

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According to the passage parents had to live with the threat of

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1) falling grades of their wards.

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2) not getting their wards admitted in quality schools.
3) Schools not treating their wards with the attitude of counsellor.
4) Linking performance of their wards in pre-boards to boards.
5) Schools creating traumatic situation for their wards.
46. Schools wanted to enforce performance - linked department in order to
1) get regular grant-in-aid from the education department.
2) improve their public image as a social institution.
3) attract better quality students.
4) make students aware that they would aspire for their all - round development.
5) provide better study material to the students.
47. Choose the word which is similar in meaning to the word 'replicate' as used in
the passage.
1) enhance 2) repeat 3) perform 4) achieve
5) plunder
48. Choose the word which is similar in meaning to the word 'assumption' as used
in the passage.
1) estimation 2) interpretation 3) intimidation
4) introduction 5) induction
49. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word 'spur'
1) depress 2) enlarge 3) explicate 4) sustain
5) activate
50. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word 'fatal'
1) precious 2) safe 3) ponderous 4) perilous
5) harmonious
Directions (51-60): In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been
numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five
words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appro-
priate word in each case.
Communicating in (51) is fascinating, some even say (52). There are none of the
physical (53) that, for good or bad, provide us with (54) judgement and about the peo-
ple we meet there. No clothes, no hair, no age, no body (55). No smile to (56) a poten-
tially sarcastic (57) is just a bit of (58). No conspiratorial whisper. Just computer type
- face. That's why the (59) has given rise to a whole new set of (60) called emotions.
51. 1) computer 2) telephone 3) cyberspace 4) space
5) spot
52. 1) enchanting 2) magical 3) attracting 4) pleasing
5) agonising
53. 1) solutions 2) nature 3) keys 4) symbols
5) clues
54. 1) instant 2) simultaneous 3) total 4) distinct
5) instance
55. 1) dialect 2) symbols 3) symptoms 4) language
5) shape
56. 1) signal 2) testify 3) indicate 4) evidence
5) judge
57. 1) friendship 2) remark 3) ignorance 4) game
5) smile
58. 1) observation 2) notice 3) kidding 4) mention
5) bonding
59. 1) language 2) medium 3) agency 4) computer
5) treatise
60. 1) figures 2) badge 3) letters 4) symbols
5) emotions
Directions (61-65): In each sentence below, four words / group of words which are
labelled (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been printed in bold type, one of which may be
either inappropriate in the context of the sentence or wrongly spelt. If all the four
are appropriate and also correctly spelt, mark (5) 'All correct' as the answer.
61. No contry (1)/ can isolate (2)/ itself from international (3)/ politics (4)/ All
correct (5).
62. The peculiar (1)/ dress he wear (2)/ gave him a comical (3)/ appearance (4) /
All correct (5).
63. To strengthen (1)/ his arguments (2)/ the lawyer showed to the judge some of
the experts (3)/ from a magazine (4)/ All are correct (5).
64. The committee (1)/ underestimates (2)/ the efforts involved (3) and hence falls
short of suggesting majors to solve the problem.(4)/ All are correct (5).
65. Jems (1)/ and jewellry (2)/ have very low export (3) / value (4) / All are cor-
rect (5).
Directions (66-75): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is
any error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of
that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5).
66. He was astonished to find, that (1)/ the gentry of the town (2)/ was not invited
(3)/ to the party. (4)/ No error (5).
67. We told him that (1)/ being a fine day (2)/ we wanted to go on a picnic and (3)/
would come back before 6. P.M. (4) / No error (5).
68. It is quarter (1)/ to eight by my watch (2)/ though the clock (3)/ has struck
eight.(4) / No error (5).
69. He is one of those (1) / cleverest boys that (2)/ has studied in this school (3) /
and we still remember him. (4) / No error (5).
70. As he went through the forest (1)/ Ram marked the trees (2)/ to let the rest
of the party knew (3)/ which way he had gone. (4)/ No error (5).
71. He took out his spare shirt (1)/ and was very disappointed (2)/ when he discov-
ered that (3)/ shirt is also torn. (4)/ No error (5).
72. Before the carpenter came (1)/ she covered the floor (2)/ with polythene sheet-
ing (3)/ to protect the carpet. (4)/ No error (5).
73. If I would have realized (1)/ what a clumsy person you were (2)/ I would not
have come (3)/ with you to this place. (4)/ No error (5).
74. While going to the office yesterday (1)/ he not only found a gold watch (2)/ but
also a thousand rupee note (3)/ and was extremely delighted. (4)/ No error (5).
75. If I were in your position (1)/ I would have respected (2)/ the wishes my parents
(3)/ and made them happy (4)/ No error (5).
Directions (Q.76-80): Rearrange the following five sentences A, B, C, D and E in the
proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions
given below them.
A) The purpose of this review is to offload public investments from certain low
priority areas.
B) The government has decided in principle to throw open to the private sector
industries reserved for the public sector.
C) Only those industries are proposed to be reserved for the public sector which
fall in the high priority areas.
D) In addition, the government is also engaged in a review of the existing port-
folio of public investment.
E) This will enable the government to abolish the monopoly of any sector in the
field of manufacture except these priority sectors.

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76. Which of the following should come second in the paragraph?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
77. Which sentence should come last in the paragraph?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
78. Which sentence should come fourth in the paragraph?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
79. Which sentence should come first in the paragraph?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
80. Which sentence should come third in the paragraph?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
NUMERICAL ABILITY
Directions (Q.81-100): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the
following questions?
81. 57834 + 12836 = ? + 43612
1) 27781 2) 26728 3) 26739 4) 27058
5) None of these
82. 46% of (?) = 1143.56
1) 3612 2) 2124 3) 2486 4) 3126
5) None of these
83. 14.8 × 13.2 × 8.3 = ?
1) 1621.488 2) 1525.431 3) 1625.564 4) 1665.623
5) None of these
84. 55% of 470 = 25% of ?
1) 1264 2) 1034 3) 1150 4) 924 5) None
85. 126 + 24 ÷ 6 − 3 × 4 = ?
1) 128 2) 13 3) 118 4) 88
5) None of these
86. 1 + 3
6 1 − 4
2 =?
3 2 5
13 13
1) 4 −1 2) 4 −1 3) 4  4) 5 
3 5 30 30
5) None of these
87. ? ÷ 52 × 12 = 2556
1) 11372 2) 12126 3) 11162 4) 11076
5) None of these
324 × 8 ÷ 2
88.  =?
16 ÷ 8 × 4
1) 162 2) 81 3) 324 4) 181
5) None of these

  
89. √ √ 3844 − √ 152 + 17 = √ ?
1) 2401 2) 7 3) 49 4) 98
5) None of these
90. 8636 ÷ 17 ÷ 127 = ?
1) 64516 2) 4 3) 1156 4) 198
5) None of these
91. 74 + 12 × 1.25 − 8 = ?
1) 64 2) 89 3) 96 4) 83
5) None of these
92. 743 + 958 = ?% of 2835
1) 32 2) 60 3) 30 4) 24
5) None of these

93. 72.25
 = 
?
? 16
1) 1156 2) 36 3) 24 4) 34
5) None of these
94. −1 of −3 of −5 of 4536 = ?
6 5 7
1) 324 2) 586 3) 124 4) 364
5) None of these
−
95. (84)2 ÷ √ ? = 336
1) 1681 2)1521 3) 441 4)1764
5) None of these
96. 68% of 595 – 43% of 372 = ?
1) 214.64 2) 212.84 3) 278.44 4) 244.64
5) None of these
97. 1
5 1
× 8 7
÷ 7 =?
7 6 8
7 1 7
1) 1  2) 5  3) 1− 4) 5 −2
9 3 8 3
5) None of these
98. (21)2 + (45)2 = (?)2 + 162
1) 51 2) 49 3) 45 4) 47
5) None of these
99. 63% of 962 + ? = 999
1) 316.94 2) 358.54 3) 392.94 4) 412.68
5) None of these


100.
√√ 2704 +12 = ?

1) 64 2) 8 3) 4096 4) √ 8
5) None of these
101. If the production of a factory grows at a rate of 6% p.a. what will be its produc-
tion for the year 2011 if its production in 2009 was 270 lakh tones?
1) 303.372 lakh tones 2) 347.684 lakh tones
3) 308.246 lakh tones 4) 316.628 lakh tones
5) None of these
102. The area of a rectangular field is 1728 sq metres. If the field is 48 metres long,
what is its perimeter?
1) 216 metres 2) 168 metres 3) 84 metres
4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
103. A, B & C started a business by investing Rs.72000, Rs.81000 & Rs.90000
respectively. Find the share of B out of the annual profit of Rs.51300
1) 15200 2) 17100 3) 18600 4) 19000
5) None of these
104. In an examination it is required to get 320 of the aggregate marks to pass. A stu-
dent gets 32% marks and is declared failed by 64 marks. What are the maximum
aggregate marks a student can get?
1) 600 2) 850 3) 800
4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
105. The cost of 12 Chairs and 16 Tables is Rs.4900. What is the cost of 9 Chairs and
12 Tables ?
1) Rs.7350 2) Rs.2550 3) Rs.3675
4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
106. A train running at speed of 54 km/hour crosses a platform double its length in 24
seconds. What is the length of the train in metres?
1) 360 2) 120 3) 240
4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
107. The difference between 67% of a number and 48% of the same number is 5130.
What is 35% of that number?
1) 8795 2) 7630 3) 9156 4) 9450
5) None of these
108. What is the compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs.12,000, at the rate of
4 p.c.p.a. at the end of 2 years?
1) Rs.960 2) Rs.979.20 3) Rs.945.60 4) Rs.986.40
5) Rs.992.50
109. The average age of a man and his son is 57 years. The ratio of their ages is 12 :
7 respectively. What was the ratio of their ages 4 years ago?
1) 13 : 17 2) 19 : 32 3) 38 : 23 4) 34 : 19
5) None of these
110. What should come in place of question mark(?) in the following number series
question?
5 13 29 61 125 253 ?
1) 509 2) 586 3) 567 4) 583
5) None of these
111. The average age of six employees in a department is 32 years. If the age of their
officer is also added the average increases by 1. What is officer's age?
1) 32 years 2) 41 years 3) 39 years
4) Can’t be determined 5) None of these
112. 28 men can complete a piece of work in 12 days. How many more men must be
hired to complete the same work in 8 days?
1) 42 2) 14 3) 28 4) 16
5) None of these
113. 24 percent of first number is 36 percent of the second number. What is the respec-
tive ratio of the first number to the second number?
1) 5 : 4 2) 4 : 3 3) 26 : 19
4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
114. A man sells an article for Rs.2640 at a loss of 12%. Find for how much did he
buy the article?
l) Rs.2850 2) Rs.3300 3) Rs.2800 4) Rs.3000
5) None of these
115. One-seventh of a number is 384. What will be 42% of that number?
1) 1164.66 2) 1152.68 3) 1128.96 4) 1182.44
5) None of these
116. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the
following question?
39.793 ÷ 16.041 × 6.427 = ?
1) 13 2) 19 3) 22 4) 16 5) 0.5
117. In how many different number of ways can the letters of the word DEBATE be
arranged?
1) 360 2) 720 3) 2520 4) 1440
5) None of these
118. If 279 is subtracted from square of a number, the answer so obtained is 3202.
What is that number?
1) 39 2) 47 3) 59 4) 68
5) None of these
119. In how many different number of ways can a committee of 3 persons be selected
from 6 men and 2 women?
1) 336 2) 56 3) 28 4) 112
5) None of these
120. The simple interest accrued on an amount of Rs.8950 at the end of 4 years is
Rs.2148. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.?
1) 4 2) 7 3) 5 4) 6
5) None of these
General Awareness
121. Present Cash Reserve Ratio is……………
1) 4.25% 2) 9.0% 3) 7.0% 4) 8.0%
5) 23.0%
122. Which among the following is not a private bank?
1) HDFC 2) ICICI 3) SBH 4) Axis Bank
5) Yes Bank
123. How many banks were nationalised by Smt. Indira Gandhi government in 1969?
1) 8 2) 20 3) 14 4) 19 5) 50
124. On 19th November 2012, World Peace and Prosperity Foundation conferred the
bravery award on …… for her bravery and commitment to education for girls in
adverse conditions in Swat, Pakistan?
1) Nasima Hones 2) Libana Younu
3) Hamida Begum 4) Nasinsa Yonu
5) Malala Yousafzai
125. NAM (Non-Aligned Movement) details are given. Pick the wrong statement.
1) Non-Aligned Movement was founded in Belgrade in 1961
2) Presently there are 120 members
3) 16th Summit recently held in Tehran, Iran on 26-31 August 2012
4) Manmohan Singh is the present chairman of the summit
5) 17th Summit will be held in Caracas (Venezuela)
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126. Which book not written by Chetan Bhagat?
1) 2 States 2) The 3 Mistakes of My Life
3) Swamy and His Friends 4) One Night @ the Call Center
5) Revolution 2020
127. 'Maa Thota' scheme in Andhra Pradesh sponsored by ……….
1) Andhra Bank 2) Union Bank of India
3) NABARD 4) NHB 5) RBI
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128. On 6 October 2012, who granted $ 500 million for the success of Rashtriya
Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) in India?
1) IMF

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2) IDA 3) IFC 4) ADB

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5) World Bank

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129. A customer agreed to deposit some amount monthly to reap a huge amount on

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maturity date. This deposit is called………………..

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1) Recurring account 2) Savings Account

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3) Fixed Deposit 4) Current Account

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5) Loan Account
130. The days list given. Pick the wrong one.

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1) 1 October - International Day of the Elderly

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2)14 November - National Diabetes Day

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3) 24 October - United Nations Day

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4) 27 September - World Tourism Day
131. 2012 ICC T20 world cup hosted by …………..
5) None

w 1) India
5) England
2) Sri Lanka 3) South Africa 4) Australia

132. In which event, the Silver medal got by Vijay Kumar in London Olympics 2012?
1) Men’s Kabaddi
2) Men’s freestyle 60kg category in wrestling
3) 1000 m Hurdles 4) 25 m rapid fire pistol 5) Boxing
133. I am visiting Bangladesh. So I should have ……, which is a local currency?
1) Rial 2) Dinar 3) Rupiah 4) Taka 5) Peso

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134. Financial inclusion means………
1) Providing banking services in rural areas with affordable cost
2) Providing corporate accounts in industrial area
3) Giving many joint accounts to save the money of banks
4) Not to allow the banks to open the branches in village area
5) All of the above
135. Which committee submitted a report on Micro Finance Sector?
1) K.C.Chakravarthy 2) Parthasarathy Shome
3) Y.H.Malegam 4) C.Rangarajan
5) Sri Krishna

et
a.n
136. 26th meeting of the International Monetary and Financial Committee held on
12th October 2012 at ……………… attended by Chidambaram.
1) New Delhi

ibh 2) Tokyo 3) Rio 4) Washington

t
5) Manila

ra
137. In 2012-13, the Public Sector Banks must disburse ………for Agriculture Loans.

up
1) Rs.6.5 lakh Cr 2) Rs.3 lakh Cr

d
3) Rs.16 lakh Cr 4) Rs.6 lakh Cr

na
5) Rs 3.75 lakh Cr

. e
138. BASEL committee stress on…………

e
1) Branch establishment 2) Risk management

ww
3) Appointment of clerical staff in banks
4) Loans to business people 5) Green banking

w
139. The chief of World Bank is……………
1) Christine Legarde 2) Vineeth Verman
3) Dominique Strauss Kahn 4) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
5) Jim Yong Kim
140. 19th International AIDS conference 2012 was held at………….. from July 22 to
27, 2012.
1) Washington DC 2) New York 3) Paris
4) Geneva 5) New Delhi

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141. Paradip sea port is in the state of…………
1) Odisha 2) Goa 3) Andhra Pradesh
4) West Bengal 5) Gujarat
142. 12th Five Year Plan (2012-17) GDP target is...
1) 8.2 percent 2) 9.5 percent 3) 9.0 percent
4) 9.2 percent 5) 10.25 percent
143. On 4th October 2012, to provide more powers to Forward Markets Commission,
Union Cabinet approved the amendment of FCRA Bill. FCRA means…
1) Forward Contract Regularization Act

t
2) Front Contract Regulation Act

e
n
3) Forward Company Regulation Act

a.
4) First Contract Regulation Act

ibh
5) Forward Contract Regulation Act

t
144. ‘Hyper inflation’ means……………

ra
1) Inflation and Deflation occurs one after another

p
2) Extremely slow growth of inflation

u
d
3) Extreme inflation which is out of control

na
4) No inflation seen

.ee
5) Inflation is there but it is not seen
145. On 20th October 2012, Manmohan Singh launched Aadhaar-enabled service

ww
delivery system at....
1) Thambeli 2) Uppugundur 3) Bandlapalli 4) Manwel

w 5) Dudu
146. Punch Line used in the logo of ‘11th Conference of Parties ‘(COP-11)
Convention on Biological Diversity, ‘Hyderabad is…………
1) Nature Protects if she is protected
2) Green Economy! Does it include you?
3) Save Earth, You are Protected
4) Plant Tree, It plants your future
5) Do not do harm to Nature

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147. Who puts the signature on Rs.1 paper currency note?
1) RBI Governor 2) RBI Deputy Governor
3) Finance Secretary 4) Finance Minister
5) Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
148. On 29th Oct 2012, RBI decided to do open market operations worth of ………
by purchase of government securities.
1) Rs.14,000 Cr. 2) Rs.18,000 Cr. 3) Rs.4,000 Cr.
4) Rs.5,000 Cr. 5) Rs.12,000 Cr.
149. ……..is not the wing of World Bank Group.

et
1) MIGA (Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency)

.n
2) IDA (International Development Association)

a
3) IFC (International Finance Corporation)

bh
4) ADB (Asian Development Bank)

i
t
5) IMF (International Monetary Fund)

a
r
150. The list of Noble Prize winners 2012 given. Pick the wrong one.

p
u
1) Serge Haroche of France and David J. Wineland of USA got Noble in Physics

d
a
2) Robert J. Lefkowitz and Brian K. Kobilka (both belong to USA) got Noble in

n
Chemistry

ee
3) Sir John B. Gurdon of UK and Shinya Yamanaka of Japan got Noble in

. Medicine

ww
4) Mo Yan of China was conferred with Noble in Literature

w
5) Red cross was conferred with Noble in Peace
151. Which Scheme was introduced to encourage the savings of the small investors
in domestic capital market investing up to Rs.50,000 in the share market
directly?
1) Rajiv Gandhi Small Investors Scheme
2) Rajiv Gandhi Integrated Income Tax Scheme
3) Rajiv Gandhi Equity Saving Scheme
4) Rajiv Gandhi Investors Friendly Scheme
5) Rajiv Gandhi Equity Share Scheme

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152. Pick the wrong statement relating to Syria.
1) Syria is in Africa having border with Lebanon, Turkey, Iraq and Jordan
2) Syria capital is Damascus
3) Syrian president is Bashar al Assad
4) There is civil war and the uprising against the President Bashar al Assad
5) UN -Arab League appointed Lakhdar Brahimi as the special envoy to Syria
153. On 3rd October 2012, Shubhalaxmi Panse took oath as the Chairperson and
Managing Director (CMD) of..
1) Union Bank of India 2) Andhra Bank 3) ICICI

et
4) Punjab National Bank 5) Allahabad Bank

n
154. Who are the present Deputy Governors of RBI?

a.
1) Depak Mohanthy, Subhir Gokarn, Anand Sinha and H.R.Khan

bh
2) D.Subba Rao, Subhir Gokarn, Anand Sinha and K.C.Chakravarthy

i
t
3) K.C.Chakravarthy, Subhir Gokarn, Anand Sinha and H.R.Khan

a
r
4) Raghuram Rajan, Kaushik Basu, Y.V.Reddy and D.Subba Rao

p
u
5) Kaushik Basu, Y.V.Reddy, Amartya Sen and Chidambaram

d
155. Round Revolution refers to the boosting production of ………………..

a
n
1) Tomato 2) Bamboo 3) Potato 4) Mango 5) Egg

.ee
156. Who was appointed as International Goodwill Ambassador for the United
Nations Programme on HIV / AIDS (UNAIDS)?

ww
1) Amitabh Bacchan 2) Sachin Tendulkar

w
3) Aishwarya Rai 4) Mahendra Singh Dhoni
5) Amir Khan
157. A person who expects share prices are going to decline is called ……………
1) Bear 2) Bull 3) Vostro 4) NRI 5) Stale
158. Periyar Tiger Reserve is in the state of………..
1) Kerala 2) Andhra Pradesh 3) Tamilnadu 4) Bihar 5) Goa
159. In the World Economic Forum Global Competitiveness Index 2012-13, India’s
rank is..
1) 100 2) 75 3) 15 4) 59 5) 109

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160. Sports terms are given. Pick up incorrect one.
1) Cricket - Appeal, Beamer, China man, Fine Leg, Hat-trick, Umpire Decision
Review System.
2) Chess - Bishop, Capture, Grand Master, King, Pawn, Queen, Rook, Stalemate
3) Basket Ball - Basket, Blocking, Free Throw, Jump Ball, Multiple Throws
4) Hockey - Advantage, Bully, Corner, Free-hit, Goal Line, Green Card, LBW
5) Tennis - Ace, Break point, Court, Deuce, Fault, Grand Slam, Love, Referee,
Set
Computer Knowledge

t
161. Specialised programs that assist users in locating information on the web are
called:

.ne
1) Information engines 2) Locater Engines

ha
3) Web Browser 4) Resource Locater

ib
5) Search Engines

t
a
162. Which of the following parts of computer does arithmetical calculations?
1) OS
pr 2) ALU 3) CPU 4) Memory

u
5) Printer

d
a
163. Peripheral devices such as Printer, Keyboard, Speakers are considered to be:

en
1) Hardware 2) Software 3) Data 4) Information

.e
5) None of these

ww
164. Which of the following is not true about Control Unit?
1) Implementing Instruction set of the CPU

w 2) It performs Fetching and Decoding

3) It coordinates the component of a computer system
4) It manages the computer resources
5) All are true
165. The computers which are generally used for engineering applications, which
require relatively high quality graphic capabilities are called:
1) Mainframe Computers 2) Mini Computer
3) Super Computer 4) Workstation
5) None of these
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166. USB is the acronym for:
1) Universal Security Block 2) Universal Security Bus
3) Universal Serial Bus 4) Under Security Block
5) None of these
167. Fourth Generation computers contain:
1) Vacuum tubes 2) Transistors 3) LSI
4) Microprocessor 5) None of the above
168. Which of the following is a permanent memory?
1) ROM 2) PROM 3) RAM 4) DRAM
5) Both 1 and 2

et
1) Cache
a.n
169. Which of the following is the fastest memory?
2) RAM 3) ROM 4) HDD
5) Registers

ibh
t
170. “TUX” is the term associated with which of the following ?

a
1) Google

pr 2) Yahoo 3) Linux 4) Windows

u
5) Mac

d
171. The access method used in Magnetic tape is:

a
n
1) Random 2) Sequential 3) Serial 4) Direct

ee
5) Parallel

.
172. Which of the following data transmission method allows simultaneous bi-direc-

ww
tional data
1) Simplex 2) Half duplex 3) Duplex 4) Digital

w 5) Analog
173. Expand MP4
1) Music Player 4 2) MPEG layer 4 3) Movie Player 4
4) All the above 5) None of the above
174. The bar which is usually located at the bottom of the desktop of Windows XP is
known as:
1) Task bar 2) Icon 3) Start menu
4) Menu bar 5) Control panel

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175. The most reliable network topology is:
1) Mesh Topology 2) Bus Topology
3) Star Topology 4) Ring Topology
5) Tree Topology
176. Which of the following is an example of transmission media?
1) Fiber Optics 2) Coaxial Cable
3) Microwaves 4) Satellites 5) All the above
177. Which of the following units decodes data and presents it to the user is:
1) Output Unit 2) Memory Unit 3) Control Unit

et
4) Arithmetic and Logical Unit 5) Central Processing Unit
178. Which of the following is a part of CPU?
1) Monitor

a.n 2) Keyboard 3) Control Unit 4) Mouse

5) Joystick

ibh
179. Which of the following converts an entire program into Machine Language?

at
r
1) Compiler 2) Interpreter 3) Translator 4) CPU

up
5) All the above
180. ..... are privately-owned network within a single building or a campus of up to a

ad
few kilometres in size.

en
1) LAN 2) WAN 3) MAN 4) Internet

.e
5) All the above
181. In MS word, a green line under a word means it is :

ww
1) Grammatically Incorrect 2) No specific meaning

w 3) Spelling mistake
5) None of the above
182. RAM stands for:
4) All the above

1) Read Access Memory 2) Random Access Memory

3) Reading Accessing Memory 4) Random Address Memory
5) None of these
183. The short cut key in Windows XP to copy the selection is:
1) Ctrl + X 2) Ctrl + V 3) Ctrl + C 4) Ctrl + Y
5) Alt + C

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184. HTML stands for:
1) Hyper Transfer Model Language 2) Hyper Transfer Markup Language
3) Hyper Text Model Language 4) Hyper Text Mark-up Language
5) None of these
185. Which of the following is a personal, online journal that appears on a website?
1) Wiki 2) IM 3) Blog 4) Email
5) Chat room
186. A .... is used to connect a computer to a network
1) Network Intermediate Unit 2) Network Interconnection Card

t
3) Network Interface Card 4) Network Conversion Card
5) None of these

.ne
187. A ........... is a privately owned 'Organisation-Wide' network.
1) Internet
ha 2) Intranet 3) Subnet 4) Monnet

tib
5) None of the above

a
188. Which of the following technology is used for Internet Connectivity?

r
p
1) ISDN 2) Dial UP 3) Broadband 4) Wireless

u
5) All the above

d
a
189. Sending already received email to another recipient is:

en
1) Replying 2) Forwarding 3) Answering 4) Drafting

.e
5) None of the above

w
190. Which of the following is a valid power point view?

w
1) Normal View 2) Slide Sorter View

w3) Note Page View

5) All the above
4) Slide Show View

191. Which of the following memory allows simultaneous read and write operation?
1) RAM 2) EPROM 3) EEPROM 4) ROM
5) EAPROM
192. A....... enables traffic between two networks
1) Gateway Server 2) Web Server
3) E mail server 4) Database server
5) None of the above
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193. Pick the odd one out.
1) Microsoft 2) Ubuntu 3) Windows XP 4) MAC
5) Unix
194. Function key to get help is:
1) F1 2) F2 3) F3 4) F4 5) F12
195. Which of the following is the way of connecting computer in a network?
1) LAN 2) Internet 3) Intranet 4) MAN
5) Topology
196. .... is a set of software components that adds specific abilities to a larger software
application?

et
n
1) Gateway 2) Internet 3) Patch 4) Plugin

a
5) None of these
.
ibh
197. What is an email attachment?

t
1) A receipt sent by the recipient

ra
2) A separate document from another program sent along with an e-mail

p
3) A malicious Virus that feeds on the messages and destroys the contents

u
d
4) A list of CC or BCC recipients

na
5) A friend to whom e-mail is sent regularly

.ee
198. A ... is a pre-designed document that already has coordinating fonts, a layout, and
a background.

ww
1) Guide
4) Template
2) Model
5) None of these
3) Ruler

w
199. Linux is an example of:
1) Freeware 2) Open source software
3) Shareware 4) Complimentary
5) None of these
200. In Windows XP, ...... shows the files, folders and drives on the computer, making
it easy to navigate from one location to the another?
1) Microsoft Internet Explorer 2) Windows Explorer 3) My Computer
4) Folders Manager 5) Windows Locater

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KEY
1-2; 2-5; 3-3; 4-1; 5-5; 6-3; 7-4; 8-1; 9-4; 10-2; 11-2; 12-4; 13-4; 14-3; 15-1;
16-3; 17-2; 18-1; 19-2; 20-4; 21-5; 22-4; 23-3; 24-5; 25-3; 26-3; 27-1; 28-1;
29-4; 30-2; 31-3; 32-1; 33-2; 34-3; 35-5; 36-3; 37-2; 38-1; 39-1; 40-3; 41-4;
42-5; 43-3; 44-2; 45-4; 46-3; 47-2; 48-1; 49-1; 50-2; 51-3; 52-1; 53-5; 54-1;
55-4; 56-3; 57-2; 58-3; 59-2; 60-4; 61-1; 62-2; 63-3; 64-4; 65-1; 66-3; 67-2;
68-1; 69-3; 70-3; 71-4; 72-2; 73-1; 74-2; 75-1; 76-3; 77-1; 78-4; 79-2; 80-5;
81-4; 82-3; 83-1; 84-2; 85-3; 86-4; 87-4; 88-1; 89-3; 90-2; 91-5; 92-2; 93- 4;
94-1; 95-3; 96-4; 97-2; 98-5; 99-3; 100-4; 101-1; 102-2; 103-2; 104-3; 105-3;

t
106-2; 107-4; 108-2; 109-4; 110-1; 111-3; 112-2; 113-5; 114-4; 115- 3; 116-4;

e
n
117-1; 118-3; 119-2; 120-4; 121-1; 122-3; 123-3; 124-5; 125-4; 126-3; 127-3;

.
128-5; 129-1; 130-5; 131-2; 132-4; 133-4; 134-1; 135-3; 136-2; 137-4; 138-2;

a
ibh
139-5; 140-1; 141-1; 142-1; 143-5; 144-3; 145-5; 146-1; 147-3; 148-5; 149-4;
150-5; 151-3; 152-1; 153-5; 154-3; 155-3; 156-3; 157-1; 158-1; 159-4; 160-4;

at
161-5; 162-2; 163-1; 164-5; 165-4; 166-3; 167-4; 168-5; 169-5; 170-3; 171-2;

r
172-3; 173-2; 174-1; 175-1; 176-5; 177-1; 178-3; 179-1; 180-1; 181-1; 182-2;

p
du
183-3; 184-4; 185-3; 186-3; 187-2; 188-5; 189-2; 190-5; 191-1; 192-1; 193-1;
194-1; 195-5; 196-4; 197-2; 198-4; 199-2; 200-2.

na
.ee
ww
w

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