Name:
Date:
Exam number 11
A. True or False
Encircle T if the statement is true, F if the
statement is false.
T / F 1. Pressurized irrigations are an
effective way to reach the frontal and
sphenoid sinuses in an unoperated
patient.
T / F 2. Inadequate reconstruction of the
orbital floor can result in hypoglobus and
proptosis.
T / F 3. The major histological subtypes and
variants of anaplastic carcinoma have no
known prognostic significance
T / F 4. The stapedius muscle is absent in
1% of patients.
T / F 5. Infiltration of peritonsillar space
with local anesthetic and epinephrine has
been shown to be effective in reducing
intraoperative blood loss, but not in
decreasing postoperative pain.
Year Level:
Score: /20
B. Multiple Choice
Each question has three or more
answer choices. Read each question
carefully and choose the best answer.
1. Which of the following improves after
supraglottoplasty?
a. Growth curve percentile
b. Sleep mechanics
c. Incidence of aspiration
d. Frequency of stridor
e. All of the above
2. A 60-year-old man with a 45 pack year
history of smoking and heavy drinking
presents with stridor. He has had a hoarse
voice for about 4 months. He has been
waking at night for a week with difficulty
breathing, relieved by sitting up. He is
sitting upright in bed with moderate
inspiratory stridor. His SaO2 on air is 95%.
Which of the following should be the next
step in his management?
a. Awake fiberoptic intubation
b. Computed tomography scan of the neck
c. Examination under anesthesia following
gaseous
induction
d. Nasendoscopy under topical anesthesia
e. Tracheostomy under local anesthetic
3. HPV-associated oropharyngeal carcinoma
is most
commonly caused by which HPV strain?
a. 6
b. 11
c. 16
d. 69
4. Lateral osteotomies are best performed
with a 2 to 3mm microosteotome because:
a. There is limited space in the area of the
pyriform aperture.
b. This minimizes the need for periosteal
elevation and/or disruption.
c. The nasal/maxillary bones require a larger
force per unit area to successfully break.
d. This allows micromanipulations as the
osteotome is advanced.
5. Following tracheostomy for facial trauma,
an increase in peak inspiratory pressure does
NOT indicate which of the following?
a. Malpositioned ETT
b. Bronchospasm
c. Debris or secretions in the trachea
d. Pneumothorax
e. Edematous upper airway
6. A patient complains of hearing loss and
has a negative Stenger test.
a. This suggests that the patient is not
exaggerating his/her hearing loss.
b. This suggests that the patient is
exaggerating his/ her hearing loss.
c. This test result is impossible to obtain in
this clinical context.
7. Which of the following statements are
correct regarding chondromas of the neck?
i. They most frequently arise from the
larynx.
ii. They may present as a lateral neck mass.
iii. They arise from immature hyaline
cartilage.
iv. They have been reported arising from the
hyoid.
a. i and ii
b. i, ii, and iii
c. i and iv
d. i, iii, and iv
e. i, ii, and iv
8. Disadvantages of SCIT (Subcutaneous
Immunotherapy) include all of the following
EXCEPT:
a. Slow onset of action
b. Long duration of therapy
c. Decreased effectiveness over the course
of therapy
d. Need for high degree of patient
compliance
e. Potential for local and systemic adverse
reactions
9. Regarding Stevens-Johnson syndrome,
which of the following statements is
INCORRECT?
a. Adult cases are usually infectious in
nature.
b. Fever and malaise are common first
symptoms,
followed by cutaneous and mucosal lesions.
c. It is characterized by erythema and
blistering of the skin and mucous
membranes of less than 10% of
body surface area.
d. Oral corticosteroids used after substantial
desquamation have been shown to increase
morbidity.
10. Occlusion can be assessed by Angle
classification; which of the following is the
correct description of class I occlusion?
a. Mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first
molar is anterior to the buccal groove of the
first mandibular molar.
b. Mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first
molar is posterior to the buccal groove of the
mandibular first molar.
c. Mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first
molar is sitting in the mesiobuccal groove
of the first mandibular molar.
d. Mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary molar
falls lingual to the mandibular molar
mesiobuccal groove.
11. Which of the following statements is
true?
a. A change in a patient’s position causing
vertigo is due to BPV.
b. A change in a patient’s position resulting
in lightheadedness on upright positioning
indicates a vestibular disorder.
c. A change in a patient’s position causing
vertigo is nonspecific and cannot be
attributed to positional vertigo alone.
d. All of the above are true.

12. Symptoms and signs of hypercalcemia

include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Bone fractures
b. Renal calculi
c. Fatigue
d. Band keratopathy
e. Diarrhea

13. Which of the following is the most

common complaint of those presenting with
laryngeal trauma?
a. Hoarseness
b. Dysphagia
c. Pain
d. Surgical emphysema

14. Which of the following is NOT

associated with Gorlin syndrome?
a. Bifid ribs
b. Microcephaly
c. Ovarian fibromas
d. Basal cell carcinoma

15. Which of the following statements is

true of vertigo?
a. It is a hallucination of movement.
b. It can be rotatory
c. It can be described as swaying.
d. All of the above are true