GTM-4 Code-B DT 03-04-2019

Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy.
, India
A.P, TELANGANA, KARNATAKA, TAMILNADU, MAHARASHTRA, DELHI, RANCHI
ICON CENTRAL OFFICE, MADHAPUR - HYD

Sec: Sr. ICON ALL Date: 03-04-19
Time: 09:00 AM to 12:00 Noon Max.Marks:360
Name of the Candidate (in Capital letters):_______________________________________________
Roll Number : in figures
: in words______________________________________________________________
Examination Centre number:
Name of Examination Centre (in Capital letters):___________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature:_______________________ 1. Invigilator’s Signature:_____________________
Jee Main_GTM-4
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 03-04-19_Sr.ICON ALL_JEE-Main_GTM-4_Q’P_Code-B
This booklet contains 24 printed pages. The Booklet Code
PAPER: PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS: 12 th April Students
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with only Black Ball Point Pen.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
4. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each
correct response.
5. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 4 for correct response of each question
1/4 (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from
the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
6. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question will
be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 5
above.
7. Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking responses on the Answer Sheet.
8. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.
9. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given
at the bottom of each page.
10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
11. Also tally the serial number of the booklet and Answer sheet are the same as that on this booklet in case of
discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for replacement of both the
test booklet and Answer Sheet.
12. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet.
Sec: Sr.ICON ALL space for rough work Page 2

PHYSICS
x2
1. The trajectory of a projectile is y 3x . Here x and y are in metres.
80
The radius of curvature of its trajectory when this particle making an angle
450 with the horizontal is R. Neglecting air resistance and taking
acceleration due to gravity g 10 m / s 2 , the value of R is:

1) 40 2m 2) 80m 3) 160 2m 4) 80 2m
2. A hydrogen atom, initially in the ground state is excited by absorbing a
photon of energy 12.75 eV. The radius of the orbit in the excited state, in
terms of Bohr’s first orbit radius r0 , will be
1) 9r0 2) 36r0 3) 16r0 4) 4r0
3. In the given circuit the current through zener Diode is close to:
300
110V
300 300
300
20V
1) 0.5 A 2) 0.1 A 3) 0.01 A 4) 0.2 A

4. Two solenoids of equal of turns have their lengths and radii in the same
ratio 1:2. The ratio of their self inductances will be
1) 1:2 2) 2:1 3) 1:1 4) 1:4

5. A particle undergoing simple harmonic motion has time dependent
t
displacement given by y t y0 sin . The ratio of kinetic to the total
300
energy of this particle at t 100s will be:
1) 3:1 2) 1:3 3) 3:4 4) 1:4
6. A satellite is revolving in a circular orbit at a height h from the earth
surface, such that h < < R where R is the radius of the earth. Assuming that
the effect of earth’s atmosphere can be neglected the minimum percentage
of the velocity to be increased, so that the satellite could escape from the
gravitational field of the earth is:
1) 1.414 2) 14.14 3) 4.14 4) 41.4
7. If E, m, l and G denote energy, mass, angular momentum and gravitational
El 2
constant respectively, the quantity 5 2 has the dimensions of
mG
1) mass 2) length 3) time 4) angle

8. In Young’s double slit experiment, one of the slits is wider than the other,
so that the amplitude of the light from one slit is double that from the other
slit. If I m be the maximum intensity, the resultant intensity when they
interfere at phase difference is given by
Im Im
1) 1 2cos 2 2) 1 4cos 2
3 2 5 2
Im Im
3) 1 8cos 2 4) 8 cos 2
9 2 9 2
9. In the circuit shown in the figure. switch S is closed at time t 0s . The
charge that passes through the battery in one time constant is:
L R
E
eR 2 E EL EL eL
1) 2) 3) 4)
L R eR 2 ER
10. Four charges Q, q, 2q and q are placed at the vertices of a square as
shown below. The net electric energy of the configuration is zero, if the
value of Q is
q 2q
Q q
q 4 2 1 q 4 2 1 q 4 2 1 q 4 2 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
11. Refractive index of glass for red and violet colours are1.50 and 1.60
respectively. Then the dispersive power of the medium is
1) 0.18 2) 0.16 3) 0.14 4) 0.12

12. Moment of inertia of a square lamina ABCD about an axis passing through
centre O and perpendicular to the plane is I 0 . It is divided into nine equal
square laminas. A square lamina EFGH is removed from it at shown in the
figure. the moment of inertia of the remaining square lamina about the same
axis is I. Then
3
D C
H G
O
3
E F
A B
I0 I0 80 26
1) I 2) I 3) I I0 4) I I0
9 81 81 27
13. A uniform rod of length 1 m and mass 4 kg is supported on two knife –
edges placed 10 cm from each end. A 60 N weight is suspended at 30 cm
from one end. The reactions at the knife edges is
1) 60 N, 40 N 2) 75 N, 25 N 3) 65 N, 35 N 4) 55 N, 45 N
14. 100 g ice at 200 C is added to 100 g of water at 500 C . The mixture contents
are: (specific heat of water = 4.2 J / g / 0 C , specific heat of ice 2.1J / g / 0 C .
Heat of fusion of water at 00 C 334 J / g )
1) 50 g ice and 150 g water at 00 C
2) 50 g ice and 150 g water of 100 C
15. A particle is moving along a circular path with a tangential acceleration
2m / s 2 . What is the magnitude of the change in angular momentum during
10s , after starting from rest. (mass of the particle m 1 kg , radius of the path
r 0.2m )
1) 4 kg m 2 / s 2) 1 kg m2 / s 3) 2 kg m 2 / s 4) 8 kg m2 / s
16. A message signal Cm t 0.4sin 4.4 104 t is modulating with a carrier wave
Cc t 20sin 9.9 105 t . The side band frequencies in kHz are,
22
Given
7
1) 160.5 and 150.5 2) 164.5 and 160.5

3) 164.5 and 150.5 4) 160.5 and 150.5
17. An object is at a distance of 20 cm from a concave lens of focal length 10
cm. The lens forms an image of the object. If the object moves away from
the lens at a speed of 18m/s, the speed and direction of the image will be:
1) 6 m / s away from the lens 2) 2 m / s towards the lens
3) 6 m / s towards the lens 4) 18 m / s away from the lens
18. 3 moles of oxygen at temperature 2T and 5 moles of helium at temperature
T are mixed, the total internal energy of the system is:
45RT 33RT
1) 2) 45RT 3) 4) 33RT
2 2

19. A 100 W bulb B1 and two 60 W bulbs B2 and B3 , are connected to a 250 V
source, as shown in figure. Now W1 , W2 and W3 are the output powers of the
bulbs B1 , B2 and B3 , respectively. Then
1) W1 W2 W3 2) W1 W2 W3 3) W1 W2 W3 4) W1 W2 W3
20. In a potentiometer a cell of emf 1.5 V in the secondary circuit gives a
balance point at 32 cm length of the wire. If the cell is replaced by another
cell then the balance point shifts to 65.0 cm then the emf of second cell in
the secondary circuit is
1) 3.05 V 2) 2.05 V 3) 4.05 V 4) 6.05 V
v
21. An electromagnetic wave E1 100 sin 3 106 t 2 10 2 x is propagating in
m
the medium – 1. The same electromagnetic wave propagating in the another
medium – 2, represented by E2 100 sin 4 106 t 3 10 2 x V / m . the relative
refractive index of medium – 1wrt to the medium – 2 is:

8 3 6 8
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 8 4 9

22. In the figure shown below, the charge on the left plate of the 6µF is 180µC .
The charge on the right plate of the 2µF capacitor is:
4µF 3µF 6µF 2µF
8µF
1) 450µC 2) 450µC 3) 900µC 4) 800µC
23. A rigid monoatomic ideal gas undergoes an adiabatic process at room
temperature. The relation between temperature and volume for this process
is TV x constant, then x is:
3 2 2 5
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 3 5 2
24. A liquid flows through a horizontal tube as shown in figure. The velocities
of the liquid in the two sections, which have areas of cross – section A1 and
A2 , are v1 and v2 , respectively. The difference in the levels of the liquid in
the two vertical tubes is h . Then
1) v22 v12 2 gh 2) v22 v12 2 gh 3) v22 v12 gh 4) v22 v12 gh

25. The speed of electron is 7.25 106 m / s . If the debroglie wave length of an
electron is equal to the wavelength of a photon, then the energy of the
photon is: (near value of photon energy) (Speed of light 3 108 m / s planks
constant 6.63 10 34 J .s . Mass of electron 9.1 10 31 kg )
1) 12400 eV 2)1240 eV 3) 12.4 eV 4) 1.24 eV
26. The given graph shows variations (with distance r from centre) of:
r r0 r
1) Electric field of uniformly charged non – conducting sphere

2) Potential of a uniformly charged spherical shell
3) Potential of a uniformly charged non – conducting sphere
4) Electric field of a uniformly charged spherical shell
27. Equation of travelling wave on a stretched string of linear density 5g/m is
Y 10 sin 450t kx where distance and time are measured in SI units. The
tension in this string is 50 N. The value of k is:

1) 45 m 1
2) 4.5 m 1
3) 0.45 m 1 4) 450 m 1

28. In an experiment, electrons are accelerated, from rest by applying a voltage
V volt. A magnetic field B tesla is applied then the radius of the path is r . If
the electrons are accelerated by voltage 4V volt. Then the radius of the path
is:
r
1) 2r 2) r 3) 4) 4r
2
29. A particle of mass 1 g moving with a velocity v1 3iˆ 2 ˆj ms 1 experiences a
perfectly inelastic collision with another particle of mass 2 g and velocity
v2 4 ˆj 6kˆ ms 1 . The velocity of the particle is
1) 2.3 ms 1
2) 4.6 ms 1
3) 9.2 ms 1
4) 6 ms 1
30. In a Wheatstone’s network, P 2 Q R and S 3 . The resistance

with which S is to be shunted in order that the bridge may be balanced is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 6

CHEMISTRY
31. Which of the following bases are found in both DNA and RNA
1) Adenine, cytosine 2) Adenine, uracil
3) Cytosine, Thymine 4) Guanine, Uracil
32. Glycerol from spent – lye in soap industry can be separated by
1) steam distillation 2) sublimation
3) chromatographic method 4) Distillation under reduced pressure
33. Which of the following most readily give precipitate with AgNO3 solution.
Br
Br
1) 2)
Br Br
3) 4)
34. The edge length of unit cell of a metal forming ‘fcc’ lattice is 4.07 10 8 cm
and density is 10.5 g cm 3 . The atomic mass of metal is
1) 200.7 u 2) 106.6 u 3) 154.3 u 4) 50.1 u
35. The standard reduction potential values of some electrodes are given below
A) EZn0 2
/ Zn
0.76V B) ECu
0
2
/ Cu
0.34V
C) EBr0 / 2 Br
2
1.09V D) EFe0 2
/ Fe
0.44V
Which of the following combinations of the electrodes give maximum Ecell
0
?
1) A & B 2) B & D 3) C & D 4) A & C
36. Arsphenamine is an example of
1) Antibiotic 2) Antipyretic 3) Antihistamine4) Antifertility drug
37. A polymer produced by the monomer caprolactam contains the following
link
R
O O O
Si O
C O C NH O C O
1) 2) 3) 4) R
38. Electron deficient hydride of the following is

1) NH 3 2) BaH 2 3) C2 H 6 4) B2 H 6
39. The possible oxidation states of Nickel are
1) 2, 3, 4 2) 1, 3 3) 2, 4, 6 4) 2 only
40. A cell fluid is an example of
1) solid in solid sol 2) Gas in solid sol
3) Emulsion 4) Solid in liquid sol
41. Maximum prescribed concentration of cadmium in drinking water is
1) 0.2 ppm 2) 3.0 ppm 3) 0.05 ppm 4) 0.005 ppm
42. Among the following fuels, energy released on combustion per mole is
highest for
1) H 2 2) CH 4
3) LPG 4) octane (liquid)
43. What is the end product of the following reaction?
OH
HCl / H 2O SOCl2
PhCN A B C
O O
1) 2)
O
O N
3) 4)
44. The amount of CaCl2 i 2.47 dissolved in 2.5L of water such that its
osmotic pressure is 0.75 atm at 270 C is
1) 3.42 g 2) 2.47 g 3) 4 g 4) 1.2 g
45. The rate constant of a reaction is 2.5 10 2 m 2 s 1 . Calculate the initial rate
with concentration 0.2M.
1) 5 10 4 ms 1
2) 5 10 3 ms 1
3) 0.04 ms 1
4) 1 10 3 ms 1
46. A 2g sample containing Na2CO3 and NaHCO3 loses 0.248 g when heated to
3000 C . The percentage of Na2CO3 in the given mixture is
1) 20.2 2) 40.8 3) 87.3 4) 66.4

47. The order of solubility of sulphates of alkaline earth metals is
1) CaSO4 SrSO4 BaSO4 2) CaSO4 SrSO4 BaSO4
3) SrSO4 CaSO4 BaSO4 4) SrSO4 CaSO4 BaSO4
48. Which of the following is one of the secondary precursors of photochemical
smog
1) NO2 2) CH 4 3) O3 4) NO
OH
Br2 H 2O
White ppt
49.
The white ppt is
OH OH OH
Br Br Br
OH
1) 2) Br 3) 4) Br
50. 0.465 g of an organic compound upon combustion produced 1.32 g of CO2

and 0.315 g of H 2O . 0.2325 g of the same compound gave 27.8 ml of dry
N 2 at NTP. If the compound contained C, H and N, formula of the
compound is
1) C6 H 7 N 2) C4 H 6 N 2 3) C5 H 5 N 4) C3 H 4 N
51. If 1: 3 (molar ratio) mixture of N 2 and H 2 yields 17.8% (by volume) of
NH 3 at 30 atm, K P for the equilibrium N 2 3H 2 2 NH 3 is
1) 4.5 10 5 2) 3.1 10 6 3) 6.5 10 5 4) 7.1 10 4

NHCH 3
CH3CH 2 I i ) H 2SO5
excess ii ) Heat
product
52. CH 3
The main product is
1) 2) 3) 4) CH 2 CH 2
53. For the equilibrium 2H 2O H 3O OH . The value of G at 298 K is
approximately:
1) 80 kJ / mol 2) 100 kJ / mol 3) 100 kJ / mol 4) 80 kJ / mol
54. Match the following enzymes with reactions.
Column-I Column-II
A) Maltase p) Glucose Ethyl alcohol CO2
B) Urease q) Starch Maltose
C) Diastase r) Maltose glucose
D) Zymase s) Urea NH 3 CO2
1) A-r, B-s, C-p, D-r 2) A-r, B-s, C-q, D-p

3) A-r, B-p, C-q, D-s 4) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s
55. H 0 and S 0 values of Br2 l Br2 g are 30.91 KJ / mole and 93.2 J / mol.K
respectively. The boiling point of bromine is

1) 225 K 2) 331.6 K 3) 450 K 4) 305.7 K

56. The basic carbonate ore of copper is
1) Azurite 2) Copper pyrites
3) Cuprite 4) Copper glance
57. The energy of the electron in the second and third Bohr orbit of hydrogen
atom is 5.42 10 12 erg and 2.41 10 12 erg respectively. The wave length of
the emitted radiation when the electron drops from the third to second orbit
is
1) 540 nm 2) 75 nm 3) 61 nm 4) 660 nm
58. fH values of graphite, diamond and fullerene respectively are
1) 1.90, zero and 38.1 KJ mol 1 2) zero, 38.1 and 1.90 KJ mol 1
3) 1.20, 1.90 and 38.1 KJ mol 1 4) zero, 1.90 and 38.1 KJ mol 1
59. The first ionization enthalpy values of Na, Mg and Si are 496, 737 and 786
KJ mol 1 respectively. The first ionization enthalpy of Al can be
1
in KJ mol
1) 575 2) 760 3) 800 4) 450
KMnO4
dil H 2 SO4
P, the product P is
60.
COOH CHO
COOH CHO
1) 2)
O
COOH
COOH
3) 4) O

MATHS
61. If the system of linear equations:
x1 2 x2 3 x3 6
x1 3 x2 5 x3 9
2 x1 5 x2 ax3 b
Is consistent and has infinite number of solutions, then:

1) a 8, b can be any real number
2) b 15, a can be any real number
3) a R 8 and b R 15
4) a 8, b 15
1
62. Let f k x sin k x cosk x where x R and k 1 and f 4 x f6 x equals to
k
P then p = _____ (here . denotes greatest integer function)
1) 1 2) 0 3) 1 4) 2
63. A square is inscribed in the circle x 2 y 2 6 x 8 y 103 0 with its sides
parallel to the coordinate axes. Then the distance of the vertex of this
square which is farthest to the origin is
1) 137 2) 265 3) 365 4) 41
64. p ~q ~p q is
1) tautology 2) contradiction
3) duality 4) double implication

65. The area (in sq. Units) of the region described by
x, y : y 2 2 x and y 4 x 1 is
15 9 7 5
1) 2) 3) 4)
64 32 32 64
2
sin 2 x
66. The value of integral dx (where x denotes the greatest integer
2
x 1
less than or equal to x ) is:

1) 0 2) sin 4 3) 4 4) 4 sin 4
67. In a set of 2n observations, half of them are equal to ‘a’ and the remaining
half are equal to ' a ' . If the standard deviation of all the observations is 2;
then the value of a is:
1) 2 2) 2 3) 4 4) 2 2
x 3 y 2 z 1
68. The plane containing the line and also containing its
2 1 3
projection on the plane 2 x 3 y z 5 , contains which one of the following
points?
1) 2,2,0 2) 2,2,2 3) 0, 2,2 4) 2, 0, 2
69. One ticket is selected at random from 50 tickets numbered 00,01,02,........,49 .

Then the probability that the sum of the digits on the selected ticket is 8,
given that the product of these digits is zero, equals to
1 5 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
7 14 50 14
70. Two circles with equal radii are intersecting at the points 0,1 and 0, 1 .
The tangent at the point 0,1 to one of the circles passes through the centre
of the other circle. Then the distance between the centres of these circles is:
1) 1 2) 2 3) 2 2 4) 2
m
10 20 p
71. The sum , where 0 if p q , is maximum when m is
i 0 i m i q
equal to
1) 5 2) 10 3) 15 4) 20
x2 y2
72. A tangent to the hyperbola 1 meets x axis at P and y axis at Q .
4 2
Lines PR and QR are drawn such that OPRQ is a rectangle (where O is the
origin). Then R lies on:
4 2 2 4 2 4 4 2
1) 1 2) 1 3) 1 4) 1
x2 y2 x2 y2 x2 y2 x2 y2
1, 2 x 0
73. Let f x be defined in the interval 2,2 such that f x
x 1, 0 x 2
and g x f x f x . Test the differentiability of g x in 2,2 .
1) differentiable at all points

2) not continuous
3) not differentiable at two points
4) not differentiable at one point

..
y.
y dy
74. If y log e x log e x ...... then at x e2 2, y 2 is
dx
log e / 2 log 2 2 log e / 2 log e / 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 e2 1 2 2 e2 1 e2 1 e2 1
dx
75. The integral 2
is equal to: (where C is a constant of
1 x x x
integration)
1 x 1 x 1 x 1 x
1) 2 C 2) C 3) 2 C 4) 2 C
1 x 1 x 1 x 1 x
76. Let x denote the greatest integer less than or equal to x . Then:
2
2
tan x x x x
lim :
x 0 x2
1) does not exist 2) equals 3) equals 4) equals 0
77. The maximum value of the function f x 2 x 3 15 x 2 36 x 48 on the set
A x | x2 20 9 x is..............
1) 6 2) 5 3) 7 4) 4
x
78. The range of the function f x , x R , is
1 x
1) R 2) 1,1 3) R 0 4) 1,1
79. Sum of infinite number of terms of GP is 20 and sum of their square is 100.
The common ratio of GP is
1) 5 2) 3/5 3) 8/5 4) 1/5
80. The straight line 3 x y 1 meets the coordinate axes at A and B. A circle is
drawn through A, B and the origin. Then the sum of perpendicular
distances from A and B on the tangent to the circle at the origin is:
10 10
1) 10 2) 3) 4) 3 10
2 3
81. In a triangle, the sum of lengths of two sides is x and the product of the
lengths of the same two sides is y . If x2 c 2 y , where c is the length of the
third side of the triangle, then the circumradius of the triangle is:
3 c c y
1) y 2) 3) 4)
2 3 3 3
82. Equation of common tangent of y x2 , y x2 4 x 4 is
1) y 4 x 1 2) x 0 3) y 4 x 1 4) y 30 x 50
83. The product of the real values of x for which the middle term in the
8
x3 3
binomial expansion of equals 5670 is:
3 x
1) 0 2) 3 3) – 3 4) – 9
84. In a geometric progression, if the ratio of the sum of first 5 terms to the sum
of their reciprocals is 49, and the sum of the first and the third term is 35.
Then the first term of this geometric progression is:
1) 7 2) 21 3) 28 4) 42

1 2 2
85. If A 2 1 2 is a matrix satisfying the equation AAT 9 I , where I is
a 2 b
3 3 identity matrix, then the ordered pair a, b is equal to:
1) 2,1 2) 2, 1 3) 2, 1 4) 2,1
1
86. Consider the differential equation y 2 dx x dy 0 . If y 1 1, then x is
y
given by:
1 1 1 1
y y y y
2 e 2 e 1 e 1 e
1) 4 2) 3 3) 1 4) 1
y e y e y e y e
87. The d.r’s of normal to the plane through 1,0,0 , 0,1,0 which makes an
angle with plane x y 3 are
1) 1, 2,1 2) 1,1, 2 3) 1,1, 2 4) 2,1,1
88. Let a iˆ 2 ˆj 4kˆ, b iˆ ˆj kˆ and c 2iˆ 4 ˆj 2
kˆ be coplanar vectors.
Then a . c is:
1) 40 2) 41 3) 42 4) 31
89. The value of ' a ' for which one root of the quadratic equation
a 2 5a 3 x 2 3a 1 x 2 0 is twice as large as the other is
1 2 2 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 3 3 3
3
1 x iy
90. Let 2 i i 1 , where x and y are real numbers, then x y
3 27
1) 91 2) 305 3) –307 4) 91
Read the following instructions carefully:
1. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet
with Black Ball Point Pen.
2. For writing/marking particulars on the Answer Sheet, use Black Ball Point Pen only.
3. The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified
space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
4. Out of the four options given for each question, only one option is the correct answer. 5. For
each incorrect response, ¼ (one–fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the question
(i.e. 1 mark) will be deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score,
however, will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.
6. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except for
discrepancy in Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code), another set will be provided.
7. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet.
All calculations/writing work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test
Booklet itself, marked ‘Space for Rough Work’. This space is given at the bottom of each
page of the booklet.
8. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator
on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet
with them.
9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
10. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should
leave his/her seat.
11. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electronic device like mobile phone, pager etc. is
prohibited.
12. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Examination body with
regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as
per Rules and Regulations of the Examination body.
13. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
14. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers,
pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the
examination room/hall.

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy.

ICON CENTRAL OFFICE, MADHAPUR - HYD

Name of the Candidate (in Capital letters):_______________________________________________

Roll Number : in figures

Examination Centre number:

Name of Examination Centre (in Capital letters):___________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature:_______________________ 1. Invigilator’s Signature:_____________________

2. The test is of 3 hours duration.

Sec: Sr.ICON ALL space for rough work Page 2

acceleration due to gravity g 10 m / s 2 , the value of R is:

1) 0.5 A 2) 0.1 A 3) 0.01 A 4) 0.2 A

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1) mass 2) length 3) time 4) angle

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Cc t 20sin 9.9 105 t . The side band frequencies in kHz are,

1) 160.5 and 150.5 2) 164.5 and 160.5

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refractive index of medium – 1wrt to the medium – 2 is:

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1) v22 v12 2 gh 2) v22 v12 2 gh 3) v22 v12 gh 4) v22 v12 gh

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1) Electric field of uniformly charged non – conducting sphere

tension in this string is 50 N. The value of k is:

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30. In a Wheatstone’s network, P 2 Q R and S 3 . The resistance

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38. Electron deficient hydride of the following is

1) 20.2 2) 40.8 3) 87.3 4) 66.4

50. 0.465 g of an organic compound upon combustion produced 1.32 g of CO2

1) 4.5 10 5 2) 3.1 10 6 3) 6.5 10 5 4) 7.1 10 4

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The main product is

1) A-r, B-s, C-p, D-r 2) A-r, B-s, C-q, D-p

respectively. The boiling point of bromine is

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Is consistent and has infinite number of solutions, then:

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less than or equal to x ) is:

69. One ticket is selected at random from 50 tickets numbered 00,01,02,........,49 .

and g x f x f x . Test the differentiability of g x in 2,2 .

1) differentiable at all points

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