Download as pdf or txt
Download as pdf or txt
You are on page 1of 100

TABLE OF CONTENTS

LISTENING......................................................................................................... 1
PART 1.............................................................................................................. 2
Practice 1 ....................................................................................................... 2
Practice 2 ....................................................................................................... 3
Practice 3 ....................................................................................................... 5
Practice 4 ....................................................................................................... 6
PART 2.............................................................................................................. 9
Practice 1 ....................................................................................................... 9
Practice 2 ..................................................................................................... 10
Practice 3 ..................................................................................................... 11
Practice 4 ................................................................................................... 112
Practice 5 ..................................................................................................... 13
SPEAKING ........................................................................................................ 11
PART 1 INTERVIEW................................................................................ 16
PART 2 TALKING ABOUT THE TOPIC................................................ 19
PART 3 DISCUSSION TO THE TOPIC .................................................. 30
READING ............................................................................................................ 1
PART 1............................................................................................................ 32
PART 2............................................................................................................ 32
Practice 1 ..................................................................................................... 43
Practice 2 ..................................................................................................... 46
Practice 3 ..................................................................................................... 48
Practice 4 ..................................................................................................... 50
Practice 5 ..................................................................................................... 52
PART 3............................................................................................................ 51
Practice 1 ..................................................................................................... 51
Practice 2 ..................................................................................................... 53
Practice 3 ..................................................................................................... 58
Practice 4 ..................................................................................................... 60
Practice 5 ..................................................................................................... 62
PART 4............................................................................................................ 60
Practice 1 ..................................................................................................... 61
Practice 2 ..................................................................................................... 62
Practice 3 ..................................................................................................... 62
Practice 4 ..................................................................................................... 66
Practice 5 ..................................................................................................... 67
WRITING .......................................................................................................... 68
PART 1............................................................................................................ 69
Practice 1 ..................................................................................................... 69
Practice 2 ..................................................................................................... 69
Practice 3 ..................................................................................................... 70
Practice 4 ..................................................................................................... 67
Practice 5 ..................................................................................................... 68
PART 2............................................................................................................ 72
Practice 1 ..................................................................................................... 69
Practice 2 .................................................................................................... .73
Practice 3 ..................................................................................................... 73
Practice 4 ..................................................................................................... 73
SAMPLE TEST ................................................................................................ 74
ANSWER SHEETS
INDEX
LISTENING 1

LISTENING

Part Task Type and Format Task Focus Questions Marks

1 - Multiple choice - Listening to identify 5 10


+ Short neutral or informal key information from
monologues or dialogues. short exchanges.
+ Five discrete three –
option multiple choice items
with visuals, plus one
example.
2 - Cloze test -Listening to identify, 10 10
+Longer monologue or understand and
dialogues interpret information.
+Candidates need to write
one or more words in each
space.
Limited time: 35 minutes

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


2 LISTENING

PART 1

HINTS:

* Before hearing, you have to look at


the question and the pictures quickly
(five seconds)
* Immediately in your mind, you need to
notice the differences of time, place,
shape, size, quantity, colour, design,
variety... in the pictures

Practice 1
Questions 1-7: There are seven questions in this part. For each question there
are three pictures and a short recording. For each question, circle the correct
answer A, B or C.
Example: Where is the girl’s hat?

1. Which dish did Mark cook in the competition?

2. Where is the girl’s book now?

3. Who lives with Josh in his house?


LISTENING 3

4. What will the girl take with her on holiday?

5. What time will the train to Manchester leave?

6. Where will the friends meet?

7. Which sport will the boy do soon at the centre?

Practice 2
Questions 1-7: There are seven questions in this part. For each question there
are three pictures and a short recording. For each question, choose the correct
answer A, B or C.
Example: Where is the girl’s hat?

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


4 LISTENING

1. Which can’t the woman find?

2. What is the weather forecast for tomorrow?

3. What did the boy buy?

4. Which present has the girl bought her mother?

5. Which TV programme will they watch together?


LISTENING 5

6. What time is the swimming lesson today?

7. Which subject does the boy like best?

Practice 3
Questions 1-7: There are seven questions in this part. For each question there
are three pictures and a short recording. For each question, choose the correct
answer A, B or C.
Example: Where is the girl’s hat?

1. Which T-shirt does the boy decide to buy?

2. Who will be on the stage next?

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


6 LISTENING

3. What time will the pie be ready?

4. Which photo does the girl dislike?

5. What should the students take on the school trip?

6. Where do the boys decide to go?

7. What has the girl lost?

Practice 4
Questions 1-7: There are seven questions in this part. For each question there
are three pictures and a short recording. For each question, choose the correct
answer A, B or C.
Example: Where is the girl’s hat?
LISTENING 7

1. When will Jack’s mum pick him up?

2. Which postcard will they send?

3. What do they decide to buy?

4. What has the girl forgotten to bring?

5. How does the man want his son to help him?

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


8 LISTENING

6. Which TV programmer is on at nine o’clock tonight?

7. What will the boy do first?

------ END OF PART 1 -----


LISTENING 9

PART 2

HINTS:

* Before hearing, you read


through information and
imagine the context.
* Do you think the missing
word will be…...?
- nouns, verb or
adjective…?
- singular or plural form?
- numbers, prices or

Practice 1
Questions 1-10: You will hear a woman talking on the radio about a singing
course she attended. For each question, find the missing information in the
numbered space.
I've just come back from a short music course called Singing for
Beginners. It was at Brownstoke College, which is just to the north of
London.
A woman called Lena Phipps runs these three-day courses for people
with no (1)…………….. experience of singing. Lena used to be an opera
singer, but no longer appears on the stage. Nowadays she (2)……………..
sings in jazz clubs, but spends most of her time teaching. She was
(3)……………..!
There were only nine of us on the course I attended, five men and four
woman, and Lena never takes more than ten students on a course. This means
that everyone has lots of attention and plenty of (4)…………….. to sing.
We were all very (5)…………….. at the beginning, but every class
begins with some exercises to help students relax. These are followed by
warm-up exercises to improve the (6)…………….. of the voice.

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


10 LISTENING

During the three days, students learn around twenty songs in a variety
of different styles, depending on the interests of the class members. There are
classical and modern songs, including pop songs. By the last day, everyone
was (7)…………….. enough to perform their favourite song on their own!
I would really recommend this course. Brownstoke College is an old
building (8)…………….. by a beautiful garden. Accommodation is very
comfortable - the single and twin rooms are clean and warm, and three meals
a day are included in the cost; a cooked breakfast, lunch and an evening meal.
The lunch is very good, and the salads can be recommended.
Courses begin on the last Tuesday of the month, so the next one begins
on the (9)…………….. and continues until Thursday the 26th of September. I
would advise you to (10)…………….. a place early, because it's certain to be
very popular!

Practice 2
Questions 1-10: You will hear a radio programme about some historic
places to visit. For each question, find the missing information in the
numbered space.
Are you interested in history? Well. I'd like to tell you about some of
the historic places open to visitors in this part of the country.
Let's start with the (1)…………….. first. Black Rock Caves have been
here for over two million years. And, for half a million years, they were home
to people and various animals, particularly tigers. You can explore there
(2)…………….. homes and imagine what life was like for the people who
lived there. The caves are open daily from April to October. A special
attraction on evenings in August is a walk by (3)……………... Don't take this
tour if you are afraid of the dark!
Next I recommend a visit to Salter House. This was built by Sir Joshua
Salter and dates back to (4)……………... The Salter family are still living
there today. The house (5)…………….. famous in nineteen eighty-two when
the television series Aunt Dorothy was filmed there. The furniture and
LISTENING 11

paintings are well (6)…………….. seeing, but the attraction nobody wants to
miss is the kitchen. This is where Aunt Dorothy cooked her (7)……………..
meals and gave advice to anyone who passed through this part of the house.
And don't forget to visit The Old Port. You will need several hours to
see everything there, especially if you take a trip along the (8)…………….. in
an old tram as far as the fishing village. The guides there all wear traditional
(9)…………….. and you too get the chance to try on clothes from a hundred
years ago. You can buy gifts in the old village stores and eat
(10)…………….. snacks in the Tea Shop. If you visit the village factory, you
can see how sweets were made a hundred years ago, and taste them, too.
So, you see there's plenty of....

Practice 3
Questions 1-10: You will hear a radio presenter talking about a museum
where you can see a new film. For each question, find the missing information
in the numbered space.
Next on the programme, we're offering free tickets to go and see a
brand new film called A Year in Greenland. The film, which tells you all
about the plants and animals in that wonderful country, has won a prize at the
national film (1)…………….. - it's well worth seeing.
The film can only be seen at a fantastic new cinema that has just been
(2)…………….. inside the Science Museum in the city centre. It's showing
this Sunday with (3)…………….. every hour from midday onwards, with the
last showing at five o'clock, two hours before the museum closes at seven. So
there're six times to choose from.
So why not take the whole family to the museum this Sunday - there's
lots to do. Children will want to head straight down to the (4)……………..
where the computers are kept. I promise you they'll come away with all sorts
of exciting pictures they've (5)……………...

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


12 LISTENING

Moving to the first floor, a working steam engine and a life-sized


model of a (6)…………….. are among the favourite exhibits, and these are
popular with people of all ages, not just children.
And if you get thirsty or if you want to have lunch out, there's an
(7)…………….. café with wonderful views of the city on the top floor of the
building.
(8)…………….. to the museum is free on Sundays, but it would
normally cost (9)…………….. to go and see the film. To get your free tickets,
you should email this programme by midday on Friday. We've only got a
(10)…………….. number of tickets, so the earlier you contact us, the more
likely you are to get one. We'll then get back in email contact with you before
12 o'clock on Saturday if you've been successful.
So have a pencil and paper ready after this song.

Practice 4
Questions 1-10: You will hear Frank, talking on the radio about looking for
ships that sank at sea long ago. For each question, find the missing
information in the numbered space.
W: Frank, tell us about some of the ships you've discovered.
M: Well, there's nothing quite like finding your first old ship - it was
(1)…………….. years old. It was just lying at the bottom of the sea, so it
wasn't difficult to find. Most are covered in sand and rocks - but this one
wasn't.
I'm actually a teacher, not a full-time diver - I dive in my free time but I
often get to them before the (2)…………….. divers, because I have good up-
to-date equipment. Another thing that helps is talking to (3)…………….. who
tell me about their local area. I've even written a book about some of their
(4)……………...
At the moment, I'm looking for the gold from a ship called The Seabird.
It was an (5)…………….. well-built ship and it was coming from Australia
on a winter night in (6)……………... Everything was going fine until the ship
LISTENING 13

reached the English coast, when it crashed into some rocks in a very strong
wind and sank to the bottom of the sea. It was carrying gold from Australia,
and most of it is still at the bottom of the sea.
My wedding ring is actually made from gold which I found on an
eighteenth-century sailing ship. A friend of mine, another diver, has already
found (7)…………….. worth of gold from different ships. He's now decided
to give up his job and become a full-time diver.
My house is full of things like coins, bottles and old guns. My wife is
always (8)…………….. about the number of objects around the house - she
says I should open an (9)…………….. shop - but I love all these old things.
Anyway, in the end, I gave some things from my collection to
(10)…………….., because I didn't want to sell them. But my wife still wasn't
very pleased, I'm afraid.
As diving is a dangerous hobby, it's not a good idea to try to teach
yourself. I'd advise anyone interested to do what I did. There are some
excellent diving clubs like the one I joined, which run courses for beginners.
It is best to do one of these before you go on a diving holiday.

Practice 5
Questions 1-10: You will hear some recorded information about a museum.
For each question, find the missing information in the numbered space.
Thank you for calling the Central Museum information line.
Central Museum is open every day from 2nd January through 31st
December and is open daily from 10 am until 5 pm. The museum itself is a
wonderful example of local (1)…………….., completed in the year 1889, and
the gardens, still in their original (2)…………….. design, surprise and delight
visitors of all ages.
The museum contains an important 19th-century English furniture
collection as well as a (3)…………….. Japanese art exhibition and admission
is free to all visitors. Admission includes a free pre-recorded audio guide and
we are fully (4)…………….. to welcome wheelchair users.

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


14 LISTENING

Our museum shop sells a variety of books, cards, gifts. You’ll find all
kinds of interesting ideas for both adults and children. The museum also has a
café, offering a selection of hot and cold dishes throughout the day from 10
until (5)……………...
For visitors travelling by car, parking is available at the hotel next door.
It’s just metres away from the museum. There is also frequent local
(6)…………….. transport with buses to and from the town centre. There are
also buses from the (7)…………….. station every ten minutes throughout the
day.
For further information about the museum, its history and its collection,
please call 01202 451800. You can also call (8)…………….. for information
about group visits, or if you’re interested in (9)…………….. a room at the
museum. Teachers can look at our website or www.centralmuseum.uk where
they find lots of ideas for (10)…………….. work. Thank you for calling the
Central Museum information line.

------ END OF PART 2 -----


READING 15

SPEAKING

Part Task Type and Format Task Focus Timing

1 - Introduction - Giving information of a


+ Candidates say some factual, personal kind.
words about themselves. - The candidates respond
- Interview to questions about 2-3 minutes
+ Candidates answer some present circumstances,
Examiner’s questions about past experiences and
hobbies, works, routines… future plans.
2 - Speaking topic - Using appropriate
+ Candidates get one of the vocabulary, grammar
fourteen topics and have 1 correctly. 5 minutes
minutes
+ Candidates present the
topic
3 - Discussion more about the - Using background
topic knowledge to express
+Examiners asks candidates ideas. 3-5 minutes
some questions

Limited time: 10 - 15 minutes

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


16 READING

PART 1 INTERVIEW

Examiners will ask the candidate some questions

HINTS:

* Try to tell much about yourself


* Respond directly to the examiners’
questions; do not be verbose.
* Pay special attention to grammar
and pronunciation.

Suggested questions:
1. What’s your name?
My name is…
2. Can you spell your name?
It’s …
3. Where are you from?
I’m from Quang Ninh, which is a province in the north west of Vietnam.
4. What’s your phone number?
It’s …
5. What are you going to do next weekend?
I’m going to hold a party for my mom since it’s her birthday.
6. What kind of music do you like?
I love pop. It’s very lively, suits me at my age. It also has a good rhythm and
simple to understand.
7. How often do you watch TV?
I would watch TV usually in the weekdays after ten, when I finish all the
cooking, freshening up and playing with my baby.
READING 17

8. How much free time do you have in a week?


At the moment, I’m working full time and have some extra classes in the
evening. So I’m only free at the weekend.
9. What do you like to do in your free time?
I do quite a lot of sports actually. I play football mostly, on Wednesday nights
and Sunday afternoon with a local team. I also play tennis when I can but I
don’t really get the time to do them as well every week.
10. What sports do you enjoy playing?
To be honest I don’t play sports. I just played some volleyball when I was in
high school.
11. What are you going to do tonight?
Go to my English class as usual. It’s from 7 to 9 pm.
12. Where were you born?
I was born in Australia because my parents used to work there. Then we
moved back to Vietnam in 2009.
13. How many brothers and sisters do you have?
I have an elder brother.
14. What is your favorite color?
Black. I know it’s a bit strange, but I love it.
15. What are your hobbies?
Just cooking. Although I am so busy with my work and my baby, I try to cook
at least one meal a day.
16. How many hours a day do you work?
8 hours at work like others. Besides, I also have my own English class in the
evening. So it’s around 10 to 11 hours totally.
17. What can you do to help your parents at home?
At the moment I’m not living with my parents. They are in Quang Ninh and
I’m here in Hanoi. So, to be honest, there’s nothing I could do to help them
but visit them sometimes.
18. Do you live in a house or a flat?

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


18 READING

I live with my parents in our family home. It's a small house in the suburbs of
Hanoi.
19. What sports do you like?
I’m really into soccer. I can play or watch soccer everyday.
20. When do you play/ watch sports?
At the weekend, normally, when I have spare time.
21. How many languages can you speak?
I can speak three languages: Chinese, English and Vietnamese.
22. Why are you learning English?
Because I love it. It started when I was at grade 5, my parents took me to an
English class. Since then, I found out that I have huge passion for English.
23. Which country would you like to visit?
I think I would be America. I have few friends who live in America and they
tell me that this country has almost everything.
24. What did you do yesterday evening? / last weekend?
Last weekend is Independence day of Vietnam and we had 3 days off. My
family had a short trip to Ninh Binh.
25. What do you enjoy doing in your free time?.
Reading, I love reading. I like reading fiction, mainly thrillers.
READING 19

PART 2 TALKING ABOUT THE TOPIC

The candidate will draw one of the fourteen topics. He / She will have from
one to two minutes to prepare the speech, and then speak in front of the
examiners.

HINTS:

* Write down some notes about the topic


on a piece of paper.
* Try to be confident while describing
your opinions
* Respond directly to the examiners’
questions; do not be verbose.
* Pay special attention to grammar and
pronunciation.
* Using body language would make your
speech more attractive.

Suggested speaking topics:


Topic 1:
Describe a place that you would like to visit.
You should say:
Where it is
When you would like to go there
Who you would like to go with
And explain why you would like to visit this place.
Model answer:
The place I would like to visit is Dalat. Dalat is the flower city. There have
many flowers and the weather is cool. Dalat is famous for many beauty spots
and fog. When you visit Dalat you will feel comfortable. You should get up
early at 5 o’clock in the morning and can go for a walk along Xuan Huong

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


20 READING

lake, and enjoy fresh air. You can go to the market to buy some special foods
such as strawberry, tea, coffee…, or go shopping. If you are interested in
sightseeing, you can visit to valley of love, Mong Mo hill, Tuyen Lam lake,
Than Tho lake, Datanla waterfall... etc. At night, you can drink coffee in the
center of city. On Saturday and Sunday nights, you can come to Hoa Binh
Street where you can enjoy special foods in the night market like bean milks,
egg rice-paper, baked snails or buy souvenir.

Topic 2:
Describe a well-known person you like or admire
You should say:
Who the person is
What the person has done
Why this person is well-known
And explain why you admire this person.
Model answer:
Everyone has an idol. Some people like a star movie and the other like a
famous singer. If I could travel back in time to meet a famous person in
history, I would like to meet Uncle Ho because of the following reasons. First
of all, I have seen a lot of films about Uncle Ho, read a lot of books and
studied his ideology. He is always my greatest idol to study and follow.
Secondly, I knew that Uncle Ho was very good at foreign languages. He could
speak fluently fifteen languages. I would ask him how he studied English,
Russian, and French. In fact, I have been studying English for ages but I
haven't been satisfied with my English. I think this is a good opportunity to
learn his experiences. Finally, I would like to show the respect to Uncle Ho,
and I would say that, all Vietnamese people should study and follow his
ideology. I believe that Ho Chi Minh will exist forever in hearts of all
Vietnamese people.
READING 21

Topic 3:
Speak about your eating habit.
You should say:
What your favourite food and drinks are
Whether you prefer eating at home or in a restaurant
What kinds of food you choose to eat that are good for your health.
Model answer:
I have three meals a day: breakfast, lunch and dinner. In the morning, I often
eat bread or rice and drinking fruit drink, sometimes I eat porridge. At noon, I
often eat rice with foods and in the evening, I eat rice with foods, too. I want
to cut down my fat belly, so I eat one rice bowl per meal. I also have snacks in
the afternoon every day, I sometimes eat with my friends and we are very
happy, I prefer eating at home to eating out, because I don’t like eating pizza,
spaghetti. I always drink milk at before go to bed in the evening. I also eat
fruit, because they are delicious and nutritious. I can cook, but I am not good
at this.

Topic 4:
Speak about an interest or hobby that you particularly enjoy.
You should say:
What it is
How long you have been doing it
Who you do it with
And explain why this is important to you.
Model answer:
Reading books
I have many hobbies, but I like reading most. Books are always a good friend
to me. It is a good way to improve my vocabularies by exposing many new
words. By reading, I get better at concentration because it requires me to
focus on what I am reading for long periods. It also opens up the knowledge

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


22 READING

door for me. Reading books tell me about the world's history, let me see the
structure of the brain, or bring me a story of Sherlock Holmes. I think reading
is one of the most interesting indoors activity.
Watching movies
I like watching movies, especially horror and action movies. I find myself a
stronger person when I watch these films. There is another hobby that I really
enjoy – gathering with my friends for chatting. I like the Thailand and
Chinese cuisines because they are tasty and spicy. Moreover, I enjoy myself
by swimming and reading books when I am alone

Topic 5:
Describe your favourite book.
You should say:
What the title of the book is
What kind of book it is
What it is about
And explain why you enjoy the book.
Model answer:
I am usually in habit of reading books. Addition to books that offer me much
useful information, I also like comic book. I am in fond of it for some
following reasons. To begin with, comic books bring me a great deal of
relaxation. One of them is Doreamon story, which tells many funny short
stories about 2 main characters, Doreamon and Nobita,who are close friends.
The author of that comic creates so many amusing situations among
characters that I can’t help laughing. It’s actually a hard-to-put-down book. It
attracts not only children but also adults as me. Another good point of it I
want to mention about is creative imagination. I mean children need to have
imaginative mindset, which helps them be more active in life. By and large,
comic book is worth reading after hard work. It is nice for everyone.
READING 23

Topic 6:
Talk about a house or an apartment you would like to live in.
You should say:
What it would look like
How big it would be
Where it would be located
And explain why you would like to live there.
Model answer:
I’m currently living with my children in a two-storey house in Hanoi. But in
future I would like to live in a farm house in my hometown. The house would
be a small one with 4-5 rooms in it. There would be plenty of trees, gardens,
ponds and open spaces in front of the house. I want to live close to nature
rather than living in a crammed metropolitan building. The house would be
built with woods, leaves, some modern materials and tin. There would be a
big veranda in front of the house. Trees would be all around the house. This
would not be a very big house in terms of the size of the rooms. But definitely
the total farm house would be well over 1 acre. I would not require a very big
house because I won’t have so much furniture. I will have only necessary
household appliances and furniture.

Topic 7:
Describe a traditional festival in Vietnam.
You should say:
What it is
When it is celebrated
How it is celebrated
And say what you like and don't like about it.
Model answer:
All of the special holidays in my country, I like Tet the most. Tet is an
occasion for everyone to get together in warm atmosphere. Before Tet

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


24 READING

holiday, everyone prepares many things and decorates their house. I plant a
lot of flowers in front of my house and buy many things such as clothes, foods
... Besides, most of the streets also are decorated beautifully with colorful
lights and flowers. During Tet, I spend more time on visiting my relatives,
friends and colleagues. Especially, I give to each other the best wishes for the
New Year. Tet is an opportunity for children receive lucky money. There is a
funny thing that people try to avoid argument or saying any bad things at Tet.
I love Tet holiday!

Topic 8:
Describe a memorable event in your life.
You should say:
When the event took place
Where the event took place
What happened exactly
And explain why this event was memorable for you.
Model answer:
The most important day in my life was the day when my parents decided to
send me to school. I was then about seven years old. I had been playing with
the children living around my house for some years. I had no thought of ever
going to school. I enjoyed playing to catch fish from the shallow streams
nearby. Sometimes we went to the forest to catch birds and squirrels, and I
had always thought that life would continue to be the same for me. But, one
day, to my great sorrow, my parents suddenly announced that I was no longer
allowed to play about and I had to go to a school. Words can hardly describe
how sad I felt at the thought of having to go to a school. I had often heard that
school teachers were very strict and cruel.

Topic 9:
Speak about a friend you will never forget.
READING 25

You should say:


Who he/she is
What he/she is like
How often you meet that person
And explain why that person is a friend you will never forget.
Model answer:
In the life of everybody who also have a close friend to share happiness and
sadness. I have a close friend who grew up with me from childhood to now.
He is Nam. He looks very handsome. His hobbies is playing sports and the
guitar especially football. Although his life is always busy but he can still
arrange his time to play football with his friend every evening. He also plays
the guitar very well. When he was pupil, he played the guitar for a lot of
group music in my hometown. He is a very hard working and intelligent
person. He is friendly person. Although he always busy with his life but he
always smile on his face when he talk with everybody. He has many friends.
He usually organizes parties to invite his friend come so that they can see and
exchange together. He always finds and make with everybody to exchange
and learn them. He is a wonderful person. I really admire him. I think I
should learn from him a lot of things. I am very happy because I have a friend
like him.

Topic 10:
Describe one of your typical days.
You should say:
How you start your day
How long you have been following this routine
Your favourite time and activity of the day
And say what you often do in a typical day of your life.
Model answer:

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


26 READING

I wake up every morning at about six o'clock or six thirty. I do that


automatically. The first thing I do is to turn on the radio to listen to the news
and see what's happened. And then I look to see what time it is. Then I get up
and make coffee, and once I have my coffee I go back upstairs and I turn on
my computer and I start writing in my journal while I am drinking my coffee.
And after I do that I pay my bills and take care of what other… whatever
household things I have to do, like I might sweep the floor or just clean up a
little bit. Then I take a shower and get dressed. Then after I do that I go back
downstairs and I cook something to bring for lunch. And sometimes I just
bring leftovers from the night before. But sometimes I’ll make rice and
vegetables. And then I get in my car and drive about ten minutes or so to
work. I work at a small publishing company outside of Princeton. The first
thing I do when I get to work is to check my e-mail. And I read my letters and
then I answer them. And then I start doing… like I look at my daily schedule
and see what needs to be done. First if anything's an emergency. And then
after a couple hours I go to lunch. I either eat lunch or I go and run errands on
my lunch break like I might go to the health food store and pick up stuff that I
need. And then after that I come back and work for another couple of hours.
And then I leave work about five thirty, drive back home, get home, watch the
Simpson and Seinfeld. And after that, sometimes I meet a friend for a drink or
something, beer, coffee or whatever, or walk around. But after that I usually
just read for a while and then I go back upstairs and go to bed.

Topic 11:
Describe a subject you enjoyed at school or college.
You should say:
What the subject was
How long you studied it
What kind of topic the subject included
And tell what you liked most about this subject.
READING 27

Model answer:
Of all the subjects that I study in school, I think that English is the most
important subject. It is mainly through the English language that we gain
access to the various sources of knowledge.
English is a language which is spoken and understood by many people in
most countries of the world. It is, in fact, the most important means of
communication among the various countries of the world. Knowledge of new
discoveries and inventions in one country is transmitted to other countries
through English for the benefit of the world. In this way English helps to
spread knowledge and progress.
It is true, however, that in the modern age, the study of Science and
Mathematics too should be considered very important. Science has conferred
many benefits in man. But it requires little thought to realize that scientific
principles cannot be understood well without a good knowledge of a
language.

Topic 12:
Describe your favourite TV programme.
You should say:
What is the name of the programme
What it is about
How often you watch it
And explain why you like it.
Model answer:
Watching TV is one of the activities I like to do in my free time. The program
I like most is the News at 7 p.m. on VTV3. The reason why I like this
program is that it’s very informative. It seems to be a “window to the world”
with me. By watching it, I can learn about many things that are happening in
the world without going there. Thanks to the News, I can proudly say I am not
just a “frog in the well”.

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


28 READING

I watch TV every day and I have a television in my bedroom, living room and
in my kitchen. I watch TV whenever I can. My favorite programs are
comedies. I like them because I like to laugh. After studying hard for hours,
it’s time for me to relax and refresh myself.
Among all the TV programs, I like the game shows on VTV3 such as X-
Factor, Your Face Sounds Familiar, and Who Wants to Be a Millionaire.
They are all really interesting, entertaining and exciting. I can also see many
famous people in these programs. I like sitting on my sofa and enjoying these
game shows; it’s so comfortable.

Topic 13:
Describe something you own which is very important to you.
You should say:
Where you got it
How long you have had it
What you use it for
And explain why it is so important to you.
Model answer:
Cell phone is the one of the most important things in my life. It keeps me in
touch with my family and friends. Even if I don’t want to text I can always
call or go on the internet to contact my friends when I have a cell phone. Cell
phone is a wonderful thing to have because it can help me when I am
lost. When I have a free time, I can play games with my cellphone or listen to
music, read news, even I can learn everything on the internet via my
cellphone. I can’t go one day without my cellphone. Contacting my friends
and family is so important to me. I can text or call anyone, anywhere when I
have my cellphone in my hands. Without cell phone, I would only sit at home
waiting for the phone to ring, or even go into my room and look for someone
I want to call. With my cell phone I can have my plans, contacts and
READING 29

information all in one thing and not lose anything. I just want to say, I am so
thankful to have my cellphone.

Topic 14:
Talk about the best holiday you ever had
You should say:
When and where you had it
How you reached there
What you did and with whom
And explain why it’s so special.
Model answer:
The best holiday I would like to talk about is my holiday in Nha Trang. My
first visit to Nha Trang, the coastal city, was three years ago. It was a pleasant
and memorable trip. Nha trang, the capital of Khanh Hoa province, has one of
the most popular municipal beaches in all of Viet nam. In Nha Trang, nature
beauties are so tempting. Waves crashing onto the cliffs, the soft sigh of the
sea breeze, clean white sands and turquoise waters, it all makes for a stunning
landscape. On my visit to Nha Trang, I used to get up early each morning to
stroll along the beach - a chance to breath in the fresh sea air and enjoy the
sunrise across the water. One attraction that captivated me three years ago and
still it does is the collection of small offshore islands, that is Hon Tre where is
the largest of the islands.
Nha Trang is famous for its harmony, its fine weather, its favorable position
and friendly people. Nha Trang is a great holiday destination and I hope to
have chance to come back.

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


30 READING

PART 3 DISCUSSION TO THE TOPIC

The examiners and the candidate will discuss to expand more things
concerned with the topic. For this part, the examiners have responsibility to
give questions to discover more about the candidate’s background knowledge.

HINTS:

* You should actively give the


examiners questions concerned with
the topic to have more ideas
* Be friendly with the examiners
while you speak, do not be
stressed.
* Using body language would make
the conversation more attractive.
READING 31

READING

HINTS
To prepare for the Reading module, you should read a variety of authentic texts, for
example, newspapers and magazines, non-fiction books, and other sources of
factual material, such as leaflets, brochures and websites. It is also a good idea to
practice reading short communicative messages, including notes, cards and emails.
Remember you won’t always need to understand every word in order to be able to
do a task in the exam.

Part Task Type and Format Task Focus Questions Marks

1 - Four-option multiple choice - Reading a sentence and 10 10


then choosing a correct
answer.
- Understanding of
vocabulary, grammar,
preposition, social
comprehension.....
2 - Three-option multiple - Reading real-world 5 5
choices. notices and other short
- Five short discrete texts: texts for the main
signs and messages, message.
postcards, notes, emails,
labels etc.., plus one example.
3 - Four-option multiple choice - Reading for detailed 5 5
- Five items with an adapted- comprehension:
authentic long text. understanding attitude,
option and writer purpose.
- Reading for gist,
inference and global
meaning
4 - Gap -filling using given - Understanding of 10 10
words vocabulary and grammar
- Choose 10 words out of 15 in a short text, and
to fill in the blanks, with an understanding the lexical-
adapted-authentic text drawn structural patterns in the
from a variety of sources. text.
- The text is of a factual or
narrative nature.
Limited time: 50 minutes

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


32 READING

PART 1
Read the following sentences and circle the best answer A, B, C or D.
Example:
0. Elena ………… a Saturday Job working in a library a few months ago.
AA. got B. became C. was D. saw

Vocabulary
1. Could you please _________ me the way to the post office?
A. speak B. tell C. talk D. ask
2. We are planning to go on a _________ holiday this summer.
A. package B. packing C. pack D. packed
3. Every passenger is required to _____ their seatbelt when they are on board.
A. hold B. take C. leave D. fasten
4. The holiday price is inclusive so our breakfast is _________ by the hotel.
A. taken B. served C. eaten D. arranged
5. _______ class allows students to acquire knowledge about living things.
A. Geography B. Chemistry C. Biology D. History
6. Since we came late we _________ the first part of the film.
A. missed B. caught C. forgot D. left
7. A _________ is a man whose job is to stop fires from burning.
A. fire service B. fireplace C. firewall D. fireman
8. Lan always _________ her bike to school.
A. rides B. drives C. travels D. runs
9. It is good to _________ up early for school.
A. catch B. take C. get D. climb
10. What is the _________ like today?
A. climate B. weather C. air D. sky
11. She stays at home because she feels _________.
A. sick B. well C. fine D. strong
12. He goes to the library to _________ some reference books.
A. pay B. borrow C. buy D. lend
13. No one _________ the lesson interesting.
READING 33

A. things B. believes C. hopes D. finds


14. This school is _________ from most others.
A. same B. special C. different D. similar
15. He’s _________ a lot of subjects this semester.
A. getting B. taking C. doing D. setting
16. The _________ is the family name.
A. surname B. first name C. given name D. middle name
17. Students often have a three-month _________ every summer.
A. holiday B. rest C. break D. relaxation
18. In class students must pay _________ to the teachers.
A. attendance B. concentration C. focus D. attention
19. In an English class, working in _________ seems helpful.
A. two B. couples C. both D. pairs
20. She has the habit of drinking _________ after every meal.
A. cup of tea B. a cup for tea C. a teacup D. a cup of tea
21. These students are nervous _________ the Maths exam.
A. with B. by C. on D. about
22. She has got a bad _________ for definitions.
A. memory B. mind C. brain D. nerve
23. They _________ his name from the enrolment list.
A. deleted B. cut C. left D. moved
24. He got his finger ________ in the hole.
A. kept B. jammed C. stuck D. caught
25. He is a lawyer by _________.
A. job B. occupation C. profession D. work
26. On the _________ of the teachers’ day, we wish you all the best.
A. situation B. occasion C. opportunity D. chance
27. There’s no _________ to discuss this before class.
A. matter B. point C. effect D. need
28. What is the teacher’s _________ towards his bad behavior?
A. opinion B. attitude C. idea D. thought
29. _________ is the science of numbers and shapes.

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


34 READING

A. Mathematics B. Chemistry C. Physics D. Sports


30. She has to work _________ hard to earn a living.
A. quiet B. such C. extremely D. her
31. “Oops! Go and clean your room. It’s a real _______.”
A. kitchen B. garden C. mess D. nest
32. He turned on a _______ when the electricity was off.
A. fire B. torch C. lamp D. light
33. She received a _______ after a two-year course.
A. diploma B. book C. document D. essay
34. These pills will _______ your pain.
A. prevent B. ease C. simplify D. avoid
35. Her _______ is business study.
A. education B. teaching C. specialization D. are
36. He was a(n) _______ man who was determined to be rich by any means.
A. ambitious B. mature C. brilliant D. romantic
37. Marie Curie realized her humanitarian dream with the _______ of the
Radium Institute.
A. reception B. finding C. work D. establishment
38. She studied hard and got a degree with _______ colors.
A. scarlet B. red C. soaring D. flying
39. I work as a _______ tutor to earn money for a summer trip.
A. general B. private C. secret D. single
40. What a _______ girl! Nothing can stop her from realizing her decisions.
A. strong-willed B. good C. powerful D. mature
41. It is __ for you to stay in New York with just a few dollars in your pocket.
A. incapable B. unable C. impossible D. irresponsible
42. Being unfamiliar with the living ___in Africa, he came back to his
hometown.
A. work B. conditions C. life D. cost
43. The old manager has just retired, so Jack takes _______ his position.
A. on B. out C. in D. up
44. We used to work together _______ a project.
READING 35

A. on B. by C. about D. at
45. He was _______ the “Golden Kite” for being the best film director.
A. awarded B. enjoyed C. given D. sent
46. Mary _______ the dream of becoming an actress as she was a child.
A. liked B. received C. fed D. harboured
47. She was so _______ that it took her only a short time to learn her lessons.
A. ambitious B. romantic C. intelligent D. quick
48. He was impolite to _______ me while I was speaking.
A. interrupt B. take up C. determine D. follow
49. A _______ person cannot hear any kind of sound.
A. mute B. deaf C. blind D. dumb
50. 6 _______ from 9 is 3.
A. subtracted B. added C. divided D. multiplied

GRAMMAR & STRUCTURE


1. “How are you feeling?”
“I’ve been feeling better since the doctor_________”.
A. has come B. had come C. comes D. came
2. Water and oil _________.
A. do not mix B. does not mix
C. has not mixed D. is not mixing
3. Playing computer games for 12 hours every day _____ him exhausted.
A. make B. making C. makes D. made
4. “How does Amy like her new school?” “Fine, she is doing ____ in her
course.
A. extreme good B. extremely good
C. extreme well D. extremely well
5. Linh’s house is near his school and it ______ him only 15 minutes to go
there on foot.
A. takes B. took C. has taken D. is taking
6. It is _____ that every pupil will have to follow the school timetable strictly.
A. certainly B. surely C. obviously D. certain

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


36 READING

7. She was so surprised ____ the exam result that she could not say anything.
A.in B. at C. of D. for
8. She was so surprised ____ the exam result that she could not say anything.
A. in B. at C. of D. for
9. Spain _________ at one time a very powerful country.
A. was B. is C. has been D. was being
10. ‘‘Who ate all the cookies?” “ Cuong _________ ”.
A. has B. ate C. did D. had
11. Binh ____ to England to visit one of her cousins at the end of this month.
A. went B. has gone C. goes D. is going
12. Before electricity was discovered, oil lamps _________.
A. used B. has used C. has been used D. had been used
13. Almost every household _________ a computer nowadays.
A. have B. has C. has had D. had
14. Did you say that you _________ here only three days ago?”
A. came B. had come C. have come D. come
15. This is the _________ film I have watched.
A. most excited B. most exciting
C. most excite D. most excitement
16. The excuse Hanh gave for her absence seems _______ unbelievable.
A. to being B. be C. being D. to be
17. Would you like _________ with me tonight?
A. going out B. go out C.to go out D. to be going out
18. On ____ at the airport, I was very worried to find that no one ___ for me.
A. arriving / was waiting B. arrive / was waiting
C. arriving / waited D. arrive / is waiting
19. “To take off’ ________to move off the ground.
A. meant B. means C. is meaning D. has meaning
20. If he’s eaten all that food, he’s eaten _________.
A. too much B. too many C. quite much D. quite many
21. They’ll certainly come _________ them.
A. when calling B. you’re calling
READING 37

C. if you call D. do you call


22. “Why was Mr. Hoa so angry with his student?”
“Because of _________ late.”
A. her to be B. her being C. she is D. she was
23. You needn’t _________ the money back for a year.
A. to pay B. pay C. paid D. be paid
24. It was kind of _________ to remember my birthday.
A. yourself B. your C. yours D. you
25. _________ that reason, I don’t agree with you.
A. Because B. Instead C. But D. For
26. _________ don’t like English.
A. Some student B. Some of students
C. Some of the student D. Some of the students
27. Can you tell me _________?
A. which book you want to buy B. which book you want to buy it
C. you want to buy which book D. you want which book to buy
28. If anybody __________ question, please ask me after class.
A. has B. have C. have a D. has a
29. _________ to look at old family photographs.
A. It’s fun B. There’s a fun
C. It has fun D. There’s funny
30. “What did you want to talk about, Mai?’’
"I’m considering _________ home.”
A. go B. going C. to go D. about going
31. “_________ did they arrive?” - “Ten minutes ago.”
A. How long B. How much time
C. How many minutes D. when
32. You’d better _________ early.
A. to arrive B. arriving C. arrive D. arrived
33. “Did you check your paper?” “No, I _________ it”.
A. checking B. am checking C. check D. checked
34. If you keep _________, that dog won’t hurt you.

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


38 READING

A. slowly a walk B. a slow walk


C. walking slowly D. to walking slowly
35. It’s difficult _________ on time.
A. get there B. to get there
C. in getting there D. for getting there
36. It’s a lovely day, but I _________ staying at home with you.
A. don’t mind B. haven’t mind
C. am not minding D. mind
37. I wouldn’t waste time _________ that book if I were you.
A. to reading B. reading C. read D. to be read
38. You haven’t got _________ luggage, have you?
A. many B. much C. few D. a few
39. I _________ to visit Australia in the future.
A. like B. am liking
C. will like D. would like
40. I _______ as a hotel receptionist from May 2001 to March 2002.
A. had worked B. would work
C. worked D. get used to working
41. His ambition is _________ the richest man in the world.
A. becomes B. will become
C. became D. to become
42. Mary is such a humorous girl. She always makes me _________.
A. laugh B. laughing C. to laugh D. laughed
43. Although his early education______, Peter is now the best clerk in our
company.
A. interrupted B. had interrupted
C. was interrupted D. interrupting
44. By the time they came, we _________ our dinner.
A. had finished B. finished C. would finish D. were finishing
45. Neil Armstrong was the _________ man to set foot on the moon.
A. only B. first C. one D. individual
46. She studied hard _______ her parents’ expectation.
READING 39

A. meeting B. to meet C. meet D. met


47. Sally was disappointed with the exam result. She ___ a bad mark before.
A. had got B. have ever got
C. never had got D. had never got
48. It was impossible _______ his room. The door was locked.
A. to enter B. entering C. enters D. entered
49. The thieves ran away _______ they could.
A. quick B. quickly so that
C. quicker as D. as quickly as
50. He said that no one could love me _______ he did.
A. so much like B. as much like
C. as much as D. that much
51. Marie Curie was the first woman I France _______ a university professor.
A. was B. to be C. used to be D. is
52. In spite of _______ up late, she got up early the next morning.
A. staying B. to stay C. stayed D. stay
53. When he _______, everyone _______.
A. arrived / had left B. had arrived / left
C. would arrive / leaves D. arrived / has left
54. I suddenly remembered I _______ my wallet on the bus.
A. leave B. had left C. have left D. would leave
55. I _______ the washing up before my mother came home.
A. was doing B. did
C. had done D. must have done
56. After her husband’s accident, she ___ the sole breadwinner of the family.
A. had become B. became
C. would become D. used to be
57. The room smelled terrible. Someone _______ before I came.
A. had smoked B. smoked
C. seem to smoke D. would smoke
58. Céline Dion _______ to receive recognition for her talent in 1982.
A. had begun B. began

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


40 READING

C. probably begins D. would have begun


59. In 1994, Céline Dion and René Angélil _______ at Notre Dame Basilica
in Montréal.
A. had married B. married
C. marry D. got married
60. He lighted the candle I was able to read the note.
A. as long as B. so that C. because D. and

61. My teacher _______ a successful photographer.


A. used to be B. uses to be
C. used to being D. uses to being
62. My father _______ morning exercises.
A. wasn’t used to do B. didn’t use to do
C. didn’t used to doing D. didn’t use to doing
63. Since the new road was built, traffic is not a problem _______.
A. any long B. no long C. any longer D. no longer
64. Melissa was so satisfied _______ her success that she laughed all day.
A. with B. for C. about D. of
65. Even twins are _______ from each other in some aspects.
A. identified B. similar C. same D. different
66. There _______ a big demonstration along the streets on the previous
Independence Day.
A. has been B. was C. is D. will be
67. The child _______ having no ability to study because he was mentally
retarded.
A. considers B. will be considered
C. was considered D. considered
68. A devoted teacher continues to explain _______ his students understand his
lessons thoroughly.
A. if B. when C. although D. until
69. My house, ___ has been decorated many times, now looks like a new one.
A. what B. which C. that D. whom
READING 41

70. Tell me immediately if you are _______ to my plan.


A. disagree B. dissatisfied C. suspicious D. opposed
71. The model is having her photographs _______ at the moment.
A. take B. taking C. taken D. to take
72. A man _______ Hopkins came to invite you to the ceremony.
A. call B. to call C. calling D. called
73. I love sitting _______ the river looking at boats moving around.
A. in the bank of B. around the bank of
C. to the bank of D. on the bank of
74. Student life is hard _______ I like it.
A. if B. but C. although D. as
75. After school, I _______ to continue my university study.
A. hope B. will hope
C. would hope D. is going to hope
76. The artist _______ his works in the Canter Gallery next month.
A. exhibits B. will exhibit
C. used to making D. would exhibit
77. Tom is famous because he _______ great efforts to survive in the storm.
A. was making B. had made
C. used to making D. made
78. He came to congratulate me, _______ seemed a surprise to everyone.
A. who B. that C. which D. whom
79. My school has got new classrooms, all of _______ are air-conditioned.
A. what B. which C. that D. them
80. He keeps complaining _______ me _______ his motorbike.
A. Ø / to B. to / about C. to / Ø D. about / to
81. I haven’t heard from Maria _________.
A. since many months before B. for many months
C. for many months ago D. since a long time
82. This book is so long that I _________.
A. haven’t finished it yet B. haven’t finished it already
C. still have finished it D. still haven’t finished it already

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


42 READING

83. “Why is Teddy so sad?” “Because his bird _________ away.”


A. flown B. flew C. fly D. had flown
84. His salary is not to support his whole family.
A. too big B. so big C. big enough D. very big
85. They lost the key yesterday but it .
A. has already found B. was found already
C. has already been found D. found already
86. He decided to buy a computer he didn't have much money.
A. because B. after C. although D. despite
87. I don’t know what make you _________ so.
A. to think B. thinking C. think D. have thought
88. His parents object strongly ______ his playing too much computer games.
A. at B. to C. in D. against
89. TV instructions are too complicated for her _________.
A. understanding B. understood
C. to understand D. Having
90. Can you tell her where ?
A. Phuong lives. B. does Phuong lives.
C. Phuong lives? D. does Phuong lives?
91. CPU stands for central unit.
A. processed B. processing
C. process D. procession
92. Several _________ in the office _________ yesterday.
A. of floppy disks / were damaged.
B. floppy disks /have been damaged
C. floppy disks / was damaged.
D. floppy disks / were damaged
93. He made the soup by mixing _________ meat with some rice.
A. little B. few C. a little D. a few
94. The train will be leaving in five minutes so you ________ better hurry up.
A. had B. should C. have D. would
95. He finds the new computer game so .
READING 43

A. excited B. exciting C. excite D. excitement


96. You have two minutes answer as many questions as possible
A. that B. to C. so that D. so
97. What do you hope to do when you _________ school next year?
A. leave B. will leave
C. is leaving D. will be leaving
98. A woman walking to work was killed by a _________ chimney.
A. fill B. fell C. falling D. filled
99. That mobile phone looks _________ big for you to carry.
A. bit B. rather C. much D. ever
100. “I wish you would just forget about it.”
“I can’t. I want to know she said about us.”
A. that B. which C. what D. it

PART 2
Practice 1
Questions 1-5: Look at the text in each question. What does it say? Circle the
correct letter A, B, C or D.
Example:
0. A. Go to the office if you have lost a
floppy disc
LOST FLOPPY DISC B. Make sure all schoolwork is given
Lost on Tuesday-
contains important in on floppy disc to the office
schoolwork. C. If you have found a floppy disc,
Hand in to office.
please leave it at the office
D. Put the lost floppy disc contained
important schoolwork on the table
in the office

STUDENTS!
1. A. Lost locker keys can be replaced
YOUR 6€ DEPOSIT FOR LOCKER for a charge of 6 €
KEYS WON'T BE REFUNDED IF
B. You cannot collect your locker key
KEYS ARE LOST.
until you have paid a 6 € deposit

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


44 READING

C. We cannot return your 6 € deposit


if you lose your locker key
D. You will receive 6 € if your locker
key is lost

2. A. Hannah has got a purple 'Fast


Boys' T-shirt and wants one in
another colour
B. Hannah would rather have a purple
'Fast Boys' T-shirt if possible
C. Hannah only wants a 'Fast Boys'
T-shirt if it's a purple one
D. Hannah hasn't got one purple T-
shirt in her size

3. What has changed about Class 5's


Class 5 Garden Party
17 July 3.30 pm party?
Because of bad weather, A. the time
tomorrow's party will now be in
the School Hall. Please give party B. the place
food and drink to Mrs Bloom by
11a.m
C. the refreshments
D. the weather

4. Mum is writing to
Becky,
A. tell Becky to stay at home to see
Don't forget your Aunt
Jane's coming to stay aunt
tonight, so can you make B. ask Becky to tidy the house before
sure the house is neat when she leaves
you go out this afternoon? C. remind Becky to go to her aunt's
Mum
house
D. tell Becky to go out with her aunt
Jane
School Fitness Centre
5. From the end of August, the The school fitness centre will
fitness centre will be closed
A. close all days in week, except
during the weekends and
evenings. weekends and evening
B. have shorter opening hours until
the end of August
READING 45

C. open again to students at the end


of August
D. change its opening hours at the
end of August
Practice 2
Questions 1-5: Look at the text in each question. What does it say? Circle the
correct letter A, B, C or D.
Example:
0. A. Go to the office if you have lost a
floppy disc
LOST FLOPPY DISC B. Make sure all schoolwork is given
Lost on Tuesday-
contains important in on floppy disc to the office
schoolwork. C. If you have found a floppy disc,
Hand in to office.
please leave it at the office
D. Put the lost floppy disc contained
important schoolwork on the table
in the office

1. A. The English class must take their


workbooks to the language
Mr Wright's English
lesson today will be in laboratory.
Room 24D beside the B. The room for English lessons is
language laboratory.
He's off sick, so use
changing because of the test.
the lesson to revise for C. The usual English teacher cannot
the test. attend today's lesson.
Bring your workbooks!
D. Today's English lesson will be
beside the laboratory because the
teacher is sick

2. A. Application forms are


Trip to New York unavailable after 1st November.
Application forms will be B. The earliest that students can pick
available from the school
office from 1st November up their application forms is 1st
November.
C. Students should give in their
application forms on 1st
November.

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


46 READING

D. Application forms will be given


on 1st November.
3.
A. Louis went windsurfing after he
went to the funfair yesterday.
B. Louis played beach volleyball
before he went windsurfing
C. Louis went to the funfair before he
had lunch.
D. Louis had a barbecue before
playing beach volleyball.
4.
A. Don't sit at the front of the café
Jungle Café
unless you're attending the party.
SORRY!
Tables at the front of the B. Only people invited to the party can
café are reserved for a come into the café.
birthday party C. If you're coming to the party you
shouldn't use the tables at the front.
D. The café says "sorry" because of
closing today.
From: Marie

5. To: Sylviane A. Marie is offering to lend Sylviane


Subject: Science Textbooks a book/
B. Marie wants to return one of
Thanks for lending me that
biology book - I'm glad you
Sylviane's books to her
got it back OK. You can C. Marie is asking Sylviane to give
borrow my chemistry one and
return it next week if you back a book she has borrowed
want D. Marie is glad to lend Sylviane a
book.
Practice 3
Questions 1-5: Look at the text in each question. What does it say? Circle
the correct letter A, B, C or D.
Example:
READING 47

0. A. Go to the office if you have lost a


floppy disc
LOST FLOPPY DISC B. Make sure all schoolwork is given in
Lost on Tuesday-
contains important on floppy disc to the office
schoolwork. C. If you have found a floppy disc,
Hand in to office.
please leave it at the office
D. Put the lost floppy disc contained
important schoolwork on the table in
the office

1. A. The homework given out on Friday


must be returned by Monday.
B. Students who wish to hand in their
homework on Monday should tell
Mr Peters.
C. Anyone having problems with their
homework may have extra time to
complete it.
D. The maths homework must be
handed in on Friday.
2. What does Dan have to do?
A. Remember to make sure his football
shirt is clean in time for the match.
B. Remember where he put the football
shirt that he needs for the match.
C. Remember to wash his football shirt
after the match.
D. Dan's mum asked him not to put his
shirt in the washing machine.
3
What does Sarah need to know?
A. If Janine will be available to go to
the restaurant.
B. If the food at the restaurant will be
all right for Janine.
C. If Janine wants to see the restaurant
menu before Saturday.
D. if Janine's birthday meal will start at
6.30 Saturday at Luigi's restaurant.

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


48 READING

4. A. Part of the pool is not deep enough for


diving.
B. Diving is forbidden in all areas of the
pool.
C. The far end of the pool is reserved for
divers only.
D. The Parkside pool is only used for
diving.

5. A. Juan will sell Maria his guitar if she


wants it.
B. Pedro has a guitar which Maria might
want to buy
C. Juan would prefer to sell his guitar to
Pedro.
D. Juan asked Maria to buy the guitar.

Practice 4
Questions 1-5: Look at the text in each question. What does it say? Circle
the correct letter A, B, C or D.
Example:

0. A. Go to the office if you have lost a


floppy disc
LOST FLOPPY DISC
Lost on Tuesday- B. Make sure all schoolwork is given in on
contains important floppy disc to the office
schoolwork.
Hand in to office. C. If you have found a floppy disc, please
leave it at the office
D. Put the lost floppy disc contained
important schoolwork on the table in the
office
READING 49

1. A. Do not read our books while you are


eating in the café.
B. Pay in the café for any books that you
want to buy.
C. Do not take books which you haven't
bought yet into the cafe.
D. Don't take books into the cafe.
2. A. A new 22 bus will operate along Regent
Street from January.
B. After 3 January you can catch a 22 bus
all day on Regent Street.
C. There will be a limited 22 bus service
along Regent Street from 3 January.
D. The 22 bus service will operate along
Regent Street on 3 January.

3. A. Save our money by switching off fans


when you finish using a room.
B. When you leave, please replace any fans
you have borrowed from other rooms.
C. Please lock away all fans before leaving
the room.
D. Turn off all fans to save electricity costs.

4. A. Equipment is available for a maximum


of 15 minutes at any time.
B. The time limit for using the equipment
is 15 minutes.
C. When the gym is crowded, there is a
time limit for using the equipment.
D. At busy times you may have to queue to
use the equipment.

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


50 READING

5. A. Be careful with this parcel as the goods


might break.
B. Use the handle to pick up this parcel so
the goods won't break.
C. Take care when wrapping parcels with
breakable goods inside.
D. Be careful when handle breakable
goods in parcel.

Practice 5
Questions 1-5: Look at the text in each question. What does it say? Circle
the correct letter A, B, C or D.
Example:

0. A. Go to the office if you have lost a


floppy disc
LOST FLOPPY DISC
Lost on Tuesday- B. Make sure all schoolwork is given in
contains important
schoolwork.
on floppy disc to the office
Hand in to office.
C. If you have found a floppy disc,
please leave it at the office
D. Put the lost floppy disc contained
important schoolwork on the table in
the office

1. A. Keep this item of clothing in a dry


place.
B. You must dry this item of clothing
before you wear it.
C. This item of clothing keeps you dry
and clean
D. Do not use water to clean this item
of clothing
READING 51

2. A. You cannot walk your dog here.


B. Dog owners must wear a lead.
C. Owners must lead their dogs
D. You may walk your dog if it’s
wearing a lead.

3. A. The bank is open every 24 hours.


B. Bank employees work 24 hours a
day.
C. You can use the banking system at
any time, day or night.
D. You can get a bank loan in 24
hours

4. A. You mustn’t smoke here.


B. You must say thank you to smokers.
C. Say thank you if they let you smoke.
D. Smoking is bad for your health.

5. A. Broken glass may cause a fire


B. When there is a fire, the glass
breaks.
C. If there is a fire, you should break
the glass to ring the alarm.
D. Be careful, there is broken glass

PART 3
Practice 1
Questions 1-5: Read the text and questions below. For each question, circle
the correct letter A, B, C or D.
Example:
0. What is the meaning of "seafront"?
A. beach

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


52 READING

B. before sea
C. area around sea
D. sea side
Imagine if everyone in your street suddenly came out into the road
one day and started singing together. Singing teacher Ruth Black believes it
would make everyone so friendly that they would never walk past each
other again without saying hello.
Singing helps people live in peace together, she says. All over the
world people have always sung together and in most places they still do, but
in England it is no longer traditional. Nowadays, says Ruth, people only
sing together in churches and football grounds, although it could be done
anywhere. Everyone is able to sing, she says, but most of us either think we
can't or have forgotten what we learned as children.
However, as with everything musical, you need to practise and the
same applies to your voice. Ruth believes that singing itself brings other
benefits. It encourages good breathing, for example. Through singing,
people often become more confident and also learn to control stress. But
more than anything, it brings people together.
When Ruth first started singing, there was little opportunity to sing
with others. Then, through a friend, she discovered an excellent singing
class and became so keen that she started running her own classes. These
are held twice a month for all singers, whatever their level, and are now
enormously successful.

1. What’s the writer trying to do?


A. explain why singing has become less popular everywhere.
B. describe a teacher’s ideas about the importance of singing
C. advertise a teacher’s singing classes
D. encourage children to learn to sing
2. What can the reader find out from the article?
A. how singing is something anyone can do
B. where the best places to learn to sing are
C. why traditional singing has disappeared
D. how to improve your singing voice
3. Ruth believes the main benefit of singing with other people is that ______.
READING 53

A. you learn to breathe more easily.


B. you are able to improve your speaking.
C. you can get to know other people.
D. you become a confident musician.
4. What made Ruth start her own class?
A. She couldn’t find a suitable class.
B. She was asked to teach people she knew.
C. She wanted to improve her own teaching.
D. She enjoyed going to a singing class herself.
5. Which is the best advertisement for Ruth’s singing classes?

A. CALLING ALL SINGERS! B. THE SOUND OF MUSIC


Want an opportunity to sing Our class wants individual
with others? We need singers for a neighborhood
professional singers to join street concert. Come and
our group. Come along. join us.

C. SING WITH US D. SONGS FOR ALL


Think you can’t sing? Can you sing?
See how you improve with Try our “Singing for
practice! Everyone’s Class every
Our popular class is for week and find out! Make
singers, both with and new friends.
without experience.

Practice 2
Questions 1-5: Read the text and questions below. For each question,
circle the correct letter A, B, C or D.

Example:
0. What is the spy James Bond?
A. The name of a film
B. The name of a famous actor
C. The name of the writer who writes the essay
D. The name of the director of the film

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


54 READING

New TV Star!
Caroline Benson talks about her first TV roles
I never expected to spend more time of my first year at university
filming The Finnegan. I’d only ever acted at school, but I’d loved the book
since I was eleven. My grandmother used to say I was just like Polly
Finnegan and I always imagined myself playing her.
I’d taken a year off to go travelling before university. While I was in
Chile, my mother emailed me to say there were plans to turn the book into a
TV drama. I knew I had to go for the part. She was surprised at first, but sent
my photograph to the director and persuaded him to meet me. I flew back
and got the part.
The outdoor filming started a week into term, so I got permission
from the university to be away for three weeks. Once I was back at
university, I got up at 6.00 AM every day to write the essay I’d missed. I
didn’t tell my university friends about the film, but they found out and
thought it was great.
It was an amazing experience – I’m so lucky. After university, I
definitely want to make acting my career. I’m not from an acting family,
though my grandfather was an opera singer. I’ve tried for other TV parts but
haven’t received any offers yet.
I don’t know how I managed it all, because I had a full social life too.
When the filming finished, I hardly knew what to do. I’ve since appeared in
two college plays. Unfortunately, I haven’t been home much and now my
first year at university is over, I’m off to Greece for the summer with my
family.

1. In this text, Caroline Benson is_______.


A. warning other young people that acting is a difficult career.
B. describing how pleased she was about this opportunity to act.
C. explaining why she has always wanted to be an actor.
D. advising students to finish studying before taking up acting.
2. Why did Caroline decide to try for a part in The Finnegan?
A. She agreed with her grandmother that she should apply.
B. She was anxious about starting university.
C. She felt she was perfect for the part of Polly.
READING 55

D. She thought the book would make a great TV drama.


3. What does Caroline say about her mother?
A. She helped Caroline to get the part.
B. She encouraged Caroline to keep travelling.
C. She was sorry she had emailed Caroline.
D. She felt Caroline would be a good actor.
4. How did Caroline manage to find time to do the filming?
A. She missed lectures and hopes nobody would notice.
B. She took time off and did her college work later.
C. She asked her friends to help with her essays.
D. She delayed going to the university until the filming was over.
5. Which of the following would Caroline write to a pen friend?

A. I’m going to continue with B. Now I’ve finished and my


my studies, but hope to have first year at university, I
opportunity to do another plan to spend more time
TV programme soon with my family.

C. I enjoyed filming the TV D. Acting is more difficult


drama but I’ve missed than I’d expected, but I’ve
having a social life – I don’t learned a lot from other
know what to do at members of my family
weekends who work in the business.

Practice 3
Questions 1-5: Read the text and questions below. For each question, circle
the correct letter A, B, C or D.

Example:
0. What is the meaning of "cycling"?
A. riding a bike
B. a circle
C. a bike
D. riding a horse

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


56 READING

Maria Mutola
Former 800 metres Olympic champion
In 1988, Maria Mutola was playing football as the only girl in an all-
boys team in a local competition in Mozambique. “We won” she said. “At
first no one thought it was a problem that I was a girl. But then the team we
beat complained”.
The story appeared in a local newspaper and Jose Craveirinha, who
had encouraged other African athletes, learnt about Maria. He went to meet
her and found her kicking a ball around outside the football club. He
realized immediately that she was fast. 'He talked to me about athletics. I
had no idea what he meant. The only sport I knew about was football. Then
he bought me running shoes and took me training. It was such hard work
and my legs really ached.' But Jose visited her parents and persuaded them
she could be successful and this would help end their poverty. They agreed
to let him take her away to train.
In 1991, she finally accepted an invitation to train in the United
States. She had refused previously because she knew she would miss her
family. Her background was unlike those of the girls she met in the US. She
explains, “They were good athletes but, while I worried about my parents
having enough to eat, they worried about dresses and make-up. They knew
very little about me and even less about my problems. But I knew I was
lucky to be there. The trainers were brilliant and I learnt a lot”.
Today, Maria still runs and for most of the year she lives happily in
South Africa with her mother.

1. What is the writer trying to do in the text?


A. persuade more Africans to take up athletics.
B. describe how Maria became a top athlete.
C. give information about Mozambique.
D. explain how Maria manages to stay fit.
2. Jose Craveirinha found out about Maria when _______.
A. he went to watch a local football competition.
B. she was blamed for her team losing a football competition.
C. he saw an article about her role in a football match.
D. people complained about another member of her football team.
READING 57

3. When Jose first introduced Maria to athletics, she _______.


A. didn’t know what she was involved.
B. was worried about being injured.
C. was keen to learn everything he knew.
D. didn’t think her family would improve.
4. What does Maria say about the girls she met in the United States?
A. They did not make full use of their abilities.
B. Their training programmes were less demanding than hers.
C. They did not show enough respect for the trainers.
D. Their experiences of life were very different from hers.
5. What would Maria say about her life?

A. Jose has made all my B. My life hasn’t always been


dreams possible. From the easy but I’ve had many
first day we met, I was opportunities. Running is
certain I wanted to become important to me and so is
a top athlete. my family

C. I regret becoming involved D. The US has some


in athletics. It was horrible wonderful training
leaving Mozambique and facilities, so I’m glad that I
my parents. I’d like to go agreed to go when I was
back to football. first offered the chance.

Practice 4
Questions 1-5: Read the text and questions below. For each question, circle
the correct letter A, B, C or D.
Example:
0. What is the meaning of "cycling"?
A. riding a bike
B. a circle
C. a bike

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


58 READING

D. riding a horse
The food we eat seems to have profound effects on our health.
Although science has made enormous steps in making food more fit to eat, it
has, at the same time, made many foods unfit to eat. Some research has
shown that perhaps eighty percent of all human illnesses are related to diet
and forty percent of cancer is related to the diet as well, especially cancer of
the colon. People of different cultures are more prone to contract certain
illnesses because of the characteristic foods they consume.
That food is related to illness is not a new discovery. In 1945,
government researchers realized that nitrates and nitrites (commonly used
to preserve color in meats) as well as other food additives caused cancer. Yet,
these carcinogenic additives remain in our food, and it becomes more
difficult all the time to know which ingredients on the packaging labels of
processed food are helpful or harmful.
The additives that we eat are not all so direct. Farmers often give
penicillin to cattle and poultry, and because of this, penicillin has been found
in the milk of treated cows. Sometimes similar drugs are administered to
animals not for medicinal purposes, but for financial reasons. The farmers
are simply trying to fatten the animals in order to obtain a higher price on
the market. Although the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has tried
repeatedly to control these procedures, the practices continue.
A healthy diet is directly related to good health. Often we are unaware
of detrimental substances we ingest. Sometimes well-meaning farmers or
others who do not realize the consequences add these substances to food
without our knowledge.
1. How has science done a disservice to mankind?
A. Because of science, disease caused by contaminated food has been
virtually eradicated
B. It has caused a lack of information concerning the value of food
C. As a result of scientific intervention, some potentially harmful
substances have been added to our food
D. The scientists have preserved the color of meats, but not of
vegetables
2. What are nitrates used for?
READING 59

A. They preserve flavor in packaged foods


B. They preserve the color of meats
C. They are the objects of research
D. They cause the animals to become fatter
3. The word “carcinogenic” is closest in meaning to ______.
A. trouble-making B. color-retaining
C. money-making D. cancer-causing
4. What does FDA mean?
A. Food direct Additives
B. Final difficult Analysis
C. Food and Drug Administration
D. Federal Dairy Additives.
5. What is the best title for this passage?
A. Harmful and Harmless Substance in Food
B. Improving Health through a Natural Diet
C. The Food You Eat Can Affect Your health
D. Avoiding Injurious Substances in Food

Practice 5
Questions 1-5: Read the text and questions below. For each question, circle
the correct letter A, B, C or D.
Example:
0. What is the meaning of "cycling"?
A. riding a bike
B. a circle
C. a bike
D. riding a horse
Many people now think that teachers give pupils too much
homework. They say that it is unnecessary for children to work at home in
their free time. Moreover, they argue that most teachers do not properly
plan the homework tasks they give to pupils. The result is that pupils have
to repeat tasks which they have already done at school.
Recently in Greece many parents complained about the difficult
homework which teachers gave to the children. The parents said that,
most of the homework was a waste of time, and they wanted to stop it.

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


60 READING

Spain and Turkey are two countries which stopped homework


recently. In Denmark, West Germany and several other countries in
Europe, teachers cannot set homework at weekends. In Holland, teachers
allow pupils to stay at school to do their homework. The children are free
to help one another. Similar arrangements also exist in some British
schools.
Most people agree that homework is unfair. A pupil who can do his
homework in a quiet and comfortable room is in a much better position
than a pupil who does his homework in a small, noisy room with the
television on. Some parents help their children with their homework.
Other parents take no interest at all in their children’s homework.
It is important, however, that teachers talk to parents about
homework. A teacher should suggest suitable tasks for parents to do with
their children. Parents are often better at teaching their own children.

1. According to the writer, ______.


A. a lot of homework is well planned
B. teachers are allowed to give children homework
C. many parents would like their children to have less homework
D. pupils should do homework in their leisure time
2. In which countries is homework completely stopped?
A. Spain and Holland B. Turkey and Spain
C. Turkey and Greece D. Holland and Britain
3. What does “set" in bold in the passage mean?
A. assign B. handle
C. design D. send
4. ______ think home work is fair.
A. many people
B. only a small number of people
C. the majority of people
D. almost all people
5. The following can be inferred from the passages EXCEPT that _____.
A. many teachers think that pupils should have homework
B. teachers’ homework is different from the work the pupils have done
in class
C. teachers should advise parents about how to work with the children at
home
D. it’s advisable for the children to re-do the class-tasks.
READING 61

PART 4

Practice 1
Questions 1-10: Read the text below and choose the correct word given in the
box to fill in each space.
much on really by during to learn
large great lay laid hardly
present of both for learning

The first question we might ask is: What can you learn in college that
will help you in being an employee? The school teach a (1) ___ many things
of value to the future accountant, doctor or electrician. Do they also teach
anything of value to the future employee? Yes, they teach the one thing that it
is perhaps most valuable for the future employee to know. But very few
students bother (2) ___ it. This basic is the skill ability to organize and
express ideas in writing and in speaking. This means that your success as an
employee will depend on your ability to communicate with people and to (3)
___ your own thoughts and ideas to them so they will (4) ___ understand
what you are driving at and be persuaded.
Of course, skill in expression is not enough (5) ___ itself. You must have
something to say in the first place. The effectiveness of your job depends (6)
___ your ability to make other people understand your work as they do on the
quality of the work itself.
Expressing one’s thoughts is one skill that the school can (7) ___ teach.
The foundations for skill in expression have to be (8) ____ early: an interest
in and an ear (9) ___ language; experience in organizing ideas and data, in
brushing aside the irrelevant, and above all the habit of verbal expression. If
you do not lay these foundations (10) ___ your school years, you may never
have an opportunity again.

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


62 READING

Practice 2
Questions 1-10: Read the text below and choose the correct word given in the
box to fill in each space.
view fell noisily room extremely
city neighbourhood accommodation easy little
basement fall too sharing parking

When I first arrived here to take up my new job, I stayed in a hotel, but
I soon started looking for some permanent (1) ___. The first flat I looked over
was in a (2) ___, and was obviously (3) ___ damp in winter. Quite apart from
the fact that the only (4) ___ was of a brick wall. Then I had a look at a small
flat in a modern block. It had a (5) ___ space and a garden, but the rent was
far (6) ___ high for me. I didn’t want to end up in a tiny place, so I answered
an ad for house-sharing. The house was in a quiet (7) ___ and as soon as I saw
it I (8) ___ in love with it. There was a high overgrown hedge around the
front garden, and (9) ___ to park cars in the drive. The room to let looked out
over the back garden, and had a big bay window. Although it meant (10) ___
the kitchen and living room, I did have my own bathroom, really just a
shower and washbasin crammed into what must have once been a cupboard.

Practice 3
Questions 1-10: Read the text below and choose the correct word given in the
box to fill in each space.
countries uniform culture about popular
class traditional is overseas occasions
impress famous poor often live

There are many things that deeply (1) ______________ people about
Vietnam, among them is the Ao Dai. Those who know about Vietnamese (2)
______________ or have visited Vietnam are often fond of Ao Dai. The Ao
Dai is found in every part of Vietnam, and in (3) _____________ Vietnam
READING 63

communities. The prefix Áo classifies the item as clothing and Dài means
“long”. Ao Dai is Vietnam’s national outfit; it is usually worn during special
(4) ____________ such as Tet, holidays, or weddings. Beside special
occasions, Vietnamese high school girls also wear Áo Dài to (5)
___________ every day.
The popularity of Vietnamese (6) __________ Ao Dai is not only
limited to Vietnam but also spreads beyond the Vietnam’s borders. To
overseas Vietnamese, they (7) __________ far from their hometown, but they
always want to bring with them the cultural tradition of their country. They
want to show their heritage to all the (8) _____________ all over the world.
The Vietnamese Ao Dai has also inspired French (9) ____________ designers
such as Christian Lacroix and Claude Montana.
To Vietnamese women, rich or (10) ____________, old or young, the
Ao Dai is always their favourite choice in most special occasions.

Practice 4
Questions 1-10: Read the text below and choose the correct word given in the
box to fill in each space.
least wrist shopping enough increase
clocks walking fingers usually for
fatty normal stronger lower vessels

Doctors say that regular aerobic exercise leads to a healthier heart.


Jogging, (1)…………., riding a bicycle, and other aerobic exercises
(2)…………. the risk of heart disease. In one kind of heart disease,
(3)…………. stuff called plaque builds up in blood (4)…………. going to
the heart. Aerobic exercise helps prevent this buildup. Aerobic exercise
also makes the heart and lungs (5)…………..
Doctors say you should do 20 to 30 minutes of aerobic exercise at
(6)…………. three times a week. You need to exercise hard (7)………….

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


64 READING

to get your heart beating faster than (8)………….. You can feel your heart
beating. You can use two (9)…………. to feel a beat, or pulse, in your
(10)…………. or neck.

Practice 5
Questions 1-10: Read the text below and choose the correct word given in the
box to fill in each space.
stars fewer belonged music popular
many sound consisted audiences produced
silent much improvements famous favorite

The world’s first film was shown in 1895 by two French brothers.
Although it only (1)…………. of short, simple scenes, people loved it, and
films have been (2)…………. ever since. The first films were (3)………….,
with titles on the screen to explain the story.
Soon the public had their (4)…………. actors and actresses and, in this
way, the first film (5)…………. appeared in 1927, the first “talkie”, a film
with (6)…………., was shown and from then on, the public would only
accept this kind of film.
Further (7)…………. continued, particularly in America, where most
of the world films were produced. With the arrival of television in the 1950s,
(8)…………. people went to see films, but in recent years cinema
(9)…………. have grown again. More countries have started to produce films
that influence film making and there are currently (10)…………. national
film industries.
WRITING 65

WRITING

Hints for part 1


You have to complete five sentences which will test your grammar. There is an
example, showing exactly what the task involves. You should write between one and
three words to fill this gap. The second sentence, when complete, must mean the
same as the first sentence.
It is essential to spell correctly and no marks will be given if a word is misspelled.
You will also lose the mark if you produce an answer of more than three words,
even if your writing includes the correct answer.
Hints for part 2
You have a choice of task. You need to write about 100 – 120 words for the task.
Answer below 100 words will receive fewer marks.
Make sure you practise enough before the exam. Reading simplified readers in
English will give your ideas for your writing. Also writing to a penfriend or e-pal
will give you useful practice.

Writing
No of
Part Task Type and Format Task Focus Marks
questions
1 - Sentence transformations. - Control and 5 10
Five items, plus an integrated understanding of
example, that are theme – related. grammatical
-Candidates are given sentences and structures.
then asked to complete similar - Rephrasing and
sentences using a different reformulating
structural pattern so that the information.
sentence still has the same meaning
2 - A longer piece of continuous - Writing about 100 – 20
writing. 120 words focusing
-Candidates are primarily assessed on control and range
on their ability to use and control a of language.
range of Threshold-level language.
-Coherent organisation, spelling and
punctuation are also assessed.
Limited time: 40 minutes

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


66 WRITING

PART 1
Practice 1
Questions 1-5: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it
means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it.
Example:
0. The library was opened by the college president.
The college president ………………………………

Answer:
1. What is your date of birth?
 When ...............................................................
2. Be sure to lock the door before you leave.
 Don’t................................................................
3. Why were you absent from class last Monday?
 Why didn’t .......................................................?
4. Mr. Thanh couldn’t enjoy the meal because of the stomachache
 The stomachache prevented .............................
5. Do you have a cheaper computer than this?
 Is this ...............................................................?

Practice 2
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the
same as the sentence printed before it.
Example:
0. The library was opened by the college president.
The college president ………………………………

Answer:
1. What is your daughter’s age, Mr. Lan?
 How .................................................................?
2. How much is this dictionary?
WRITING 67

 How much does.................................................?


3. I get to work in half an hour.
 It takes...............................................................
4. I have never eaten such a delicious dish before.
 This is ...............................................................
5. The rail workers do not intend to call off their strike.
 The rail workers have no ....................................

Practice 3
Questions 1-5: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it
means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it.
Example:
0. The library was opened by the college president.
The college president ………………………………

Answer:
1. This is the first time I have met him.
 I have ...............................................................
2. He has worked as a teacher since 2009.
 He began............................................................
3. The children love to play in the rain.
 The children enjoy .............................................
4. How long is the Mekong River ?
 What……………………… .............................?
5. It takes me about two hours each day to do my homework.
 I spend ...............................................................

Practice 4
Questions 1-5: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it
means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it.
Example:
0. The library was opened by the college president.

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


68 WRITING

The college president ………………………………

Answer:

1. Could you please turn off the light?


 Would you mind ...............................................................?
2. She wouldn’t allow me to read the letter.
 She wouldn’t let ................................................................
3. Nobody else in the class is fatter than Mary.
 Mary is …………………………………………………..
4. Although they were very poor, the children seemed happy.
 Despite their .............................
5. Sally finally managed to get a job.
 Sally finally succeeded ...............................................................?

Practice 5
Questions 1-5: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it
means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. For questions 1-5,
write only the missing words in boxes 1 - 5 on your answer sheet.
Example:
0. The library was opened by the college president.
The college president ………………………………
Answer:
0 opened the library

1. The weather was so warm that they had a walk in the garden.
It was…………………………………………………………
2. My father plays soccer very well.
My father is ………………………………………………………………
3. Study hard or you won’t pass the exam.
If ……………………………………………
4. Volleyball is not as exciting as football.
WRITING 69

Football is………………………………………………………………….
5. Because of the cold weather, the crops are late this year.
Because…………………………………………………………........

PART 2
Practice 1
This is part of a letter you receive from a British friend.

I went to a great restaurant with my family last night.


Which do you prefer: eating at home or in restaurants?
Tell me about your favourite place to eat.

Write a letter to answer her question, using about 100 – 120 words.

Sample answer 1:
This candidate has a clear form of a letter. The sentences are quite clear,
simple and structurally accurate. He/she has finished requirement of the
task.

Dear Tristan,

I am very happy to hear from you. How are you? I


hope you are fine. I am writing to tell you
everything about restaurants.

I would like to tell you that I love to have


meals at home because it is the time I can talk
together with my family after a hard working
day. However, I make meals not well.

Also, I would like to go out to eat for my


business because it is the best place for
discussion or negotiation.

I look forward to hearing from you soon.

Love,

Rebecca

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


70 WRITING

Practice 2
Your English friend is going to buy a new house. She wants to know about
the house or apartment you would like to live in. Write a letter to answer her
question. You should mention:
• What it would look like
• How big it would be
• Where it would be located
• Why you would like to live there
Write the letter to Ann, using about 100 – 120 words.
Sample answer 1:
Dear Jim,

In your last letter, you mentioned that you were going


to buy a new house and you would like to get my opinion.
I am happy to share with you about my dream house at the
moment. I have to stay in a small house in Minh Khai
street with my family. It is quite inconvenient and not
safe. I would like to live in an apartment located in a
modern building like Mulberry or Sala. My apartment will
have 3 bed rooms, one living room and one kitchen. It is
painted by light pink for bed room and blue for living
room and kitchen. Living in an apartment is cheaper than
buying a house in Hanoi now and it is also clean with
good security.

I think that an apartment at Mulberry building is


suitable with your condition.

Best regards

Tom

Sample answer 2:
Dear Ann,

If you are going to buy a new house, I have a suggestion


for you. In my opinion, I would like to live in a small
WRITING 71

house near the mountain because it is quite peaceful and


full of fresh air. Also, it is good for my parents and
my children’s health. We can plant a lot of vegetables,
small trees and raise some chickens around my house. My
existing apartment is so inconvenient that I can hear
many sounds from the next apartment. Therefore, I like a
house which is in a quiet place. My house will be on
three floors and painted dark green color. The living
room will be equipped with modern furniture and the
biggest room in my house.

I hope that it is good idea for you.

Best regards

Tom

Sample answer 3:
Dear Jenny,

It is lovely to hear that you are planning to buy a new


house. I am also thinking about getting my own. Can you
guess that I always desire to live in a moderate house
decorated with vintage style? It will be next to the
beach and have 2 or 3 bedrooms, one living room, one
kitchen and a garden around it. Every morning, I would
sit in the yard in front of the house, breath the fresh
air from the sea and read newspaper. The atmosphere and
open space of the sea make me extremely relax and happy.

What about you? What is the house that you intend to


possess? I would love to hear from you soon.

Yours sincerely,

Ben

Sample answer 4
Dear Ann!

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


72 WRITING

How are you? I’m very delighted to hear that you’re


going to buy a new house. Congratulation! Last time you
asked me about the house I would like to live in. My
dream lovely house would look like a little castle with
five rooms. It would be very charming in the middle of a
big garden full of flowers and trees. Inside, it’s very
comfortable with two bedrooms, a lovely living room, a
kitchen and a bathroom because I could enjoy fresh air
and peaceful life. What about your new house? Please
write and let me know all about it.

Hope to see you soon

Lovely

Tom

Practice 3
You English friend, Jim, wants to know about a place that you would like to
visit. You should write:
 Where it is
 When you would like to go there
 Who you would like to go with
 Why you would like to visit this place.
Write the letter on your answer sheet, using about 100 – 120 words.
Sample answer 1:
Dear Jim,

I am very happy to hear from you. How are you? I hope you are
fine. I am writing to tell you about the place that I would like to
visit.

I've always dreamt of visiting Dalat which is considered to be


the flower city. There have many flowers and the weather is very
cool. Dalat is famous for many beauty spots and fog. When you
visit Dalat, you will feel comfortable. You should get up early at
5 o’clock in the morning and can go for a walk along Xuan
WRITING 73

Huong lake, and enjoy fresh air. You can go to the market to
buy some special foods such as strawberry, tea, coffee…, or go
shopping. If you are interested in sightseeing, you can visit to
valley of love, Mong Mo hill, Tuyen Lam lake, Than Tho lake,
Datanla waterfall... etc. At night, you can drink coffee in the
center of city. On Saturday and Sunday nights, you can come to
Hoa Binh Street where you can enjoy special foods in the night
market like bean milks, egg rice-paper, baked snails or buy
souvenir.

This is great city and worth for living. If you come to Vietnam, I
will take you to Dalat city.

I look forward to hearing from you soon.

Love,

Linh

Sample answer 2:
Dear Jim,

I am very happy to hear from you. How are you? I hope you are
fine. I am writing to tell you about the most interesting place
that I would like to visit.

I've always dreamt of visiting Ho Chi Minh city which is


considered to be the most dynamic city of Vietnam. The first
image when arriving at HCM city is crowded streets full of yellow
sunlight. People seem to be rushing all the time as if they would
be late for something. Taking a walk around the streets at the
center of the city such as Le Loi, Dong Khoi, Ham Nghi, etc.,
tourists would be soon in harmony with HCM city's fast modern
rhythm of life. High buildings, luxurious hotels, fashion shops,
souvenirs stores are places taking much time of travelers.

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


74 WRITING

Also, four main gates - East, West, South and North are always
wide open to welcome travelers. Ben Thanh market is considered
a highlight that tourists should not miss. The market is one of
some HCM attractions with a full collection of all goods and
products from every part of Vietnam.

I hope to see you some day in Vietnam and have chance to take
you to Ho Chi Minh city.

I look forward to your reply.

Best wishes

Nam

Sample answer 3:

Dear Jim,

I am very glad to receive your letter. How are you? I hope you
are fine. I am writing to tell you about Nha Trang city, the most
interesting place that I would like to visit.

Nha trang, the capital of Khanh Hoa province, has one of the

most popular municipal beaches in all of Vietnam. In Nha

Trang, nature beauties are so tempting. Waves crashing onto

the cliffs, the soft sigh of the sea breeze, clean white sands and

turquoise waters, it all makes for a stunning landscape. One

attraction that captivates tourist is the collection of small

offshore islands, that is Hon Tre which is the largest of the

islands.

Also, Nha Trang is famous for its harmony, its fine weather, its

favorable position and friendly people. Nha Trang is a great

holiday destination and I hope to have chance to visit there

Love

Mai
WRITING 75

Sample answer 4:
Dear Jim,

I’m glad to hear from you. Last time you asked me to tell you

about the place that I would like to visit. Well, that is Singapore.

When I read magazines or watch TV, I realize Sing is very

beautiful, safe and crime rate is low. People are attracted by

stable conditions, amazing places and delicious cuisine. Firstly,

Singapore has established good study environment so that

many students in Asia want to study in here. Secondly, there are

many interesting places in Singapore such as museums, parks

and nature preserves. Beside, you can take some photograph or

go sight seeing around the city. I think its will be funny. Finally,

the traffic here is wonderful. When you go out, you will have

fresh air because people always use buses and trains.

I hope to visit Singapore in the near future. What about you?

Tell me about the place you would like to visit.

Love,

Nam

Practice 4
You have just made an English pen friend. Write a letter to him/her and tell
him/her about the best holiday you ever had. You should write:
 When and where you had it
 How you reached there
 What you did and with whom
 Why it’s so special.
Write the letter on your answer sheet, using about 100 – 120 words.
Sample answer 1:
Dear Peter,

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


76 WRITING

How are you? Hope you are ok. I will tell you about the
best holiday that I’ve ever had. That is my honeymoon.
I went to Cat Ba with my wife two years ago. We stayed
for a week in a small hotel named Hoang Long. Although
it was small, it was nice and had great view.
Cat Ba was a wonderful island. The sight was beautiful
and the atmosphere was clean and fresh. We went sight
seeing, went hiking in the national park and went
fishing. My wife liked going shopping and she bought a
lot of souvenirs and seafood.
People were friendly and the food was delicious. The
weather was nice as it was sunny all the time. We had a
great time. We also took a lot of photos.
We hope to go there again some day with our son.
Yours sincerely
Thanh

Sample answer 2:

Dear Peter,

I'm glad to receive letter what do you do? In your


letter you asked me about my best holiday.

Well, the best holiday that I’ve ever had is to be with


my friends to come to DaLat City in Lam Vien Highland.
The special weather which was not too hot nor too cold
made everyone feel very comfortable. It was just a
little windy so that people could sit near to each
other. Besides, there are a lot of historical and
romantic places to visit such as Dreaming Mount, Domain
Church, Love valley, especially Lang Biang Peak. When
coming to DaLat, we enjoyed a diversity of plans, fruits
and flower.

If you love strawberry, this city will be wonderful


place to visit because visitors can come to strawberry
WRITING 77

garden, take it by themselves and pay for bringing home.


The food is very delicious too. We had hotpot in the
cold a lot. If I have chance, for sure, I will come back
here again.

I'm looking forward to hearing from you.

Best wishes

Sample answer 3:

Dear Tom,

Nice to hear from you! How are you? I hope you are fine.
Last time you asked me about the best holiday that I've
ever had.

The best holiday I would like to talk about is my


holiday in Danang city. My first visit to Danang, the
coastal city, was three years ago. It was a pleasant and
memorable trip. Danang has one of the most popular
municipal beaches in all of Vietnam. In this city,
nature beauties are so tempting. Waves crashing onto the
cliffs, the soft sigh of the sea breeze, clean white
sands and turquoise waters, it all makes for a stunning
landscape. On my visit to Danang, I used to get up early
each morning to stroll along the beach - a chance to
breath in the fresh sea air and enjoy the sunrise across
the water. One attraction that captivated me three years
ago and still it does is Hoi An ancient street.

Danang is famous for its harmony, its fine weather, its


favorable position and friendly people. Danang is a
great holiday destination and I hope to have chance to
come back.

Write to me soon!

Lan

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


78 WRITING

Practice 5

You English friend, Jim, wants to know about the weather in Vietnam for his
project at school. Write a letter to tell him about the weather in Vietnam. You
should write:
 How many seasons there are
 What the typical weather in each season is
 Which season you like most and explain the reason why.
Write the letter to Jim, using about 100 – 120 words.
Sample answer 1:
Dear Jim,

I am very happy to hear from you. How are you? I hope you are

still fine. I am writing to tell you all about the weather in

Vietnam.

As you know, there are four seasons in the northern part of

Vietnam: spring, summer, autumn and winter. Typically, in

spring, the weather is warm while it is cool in autumn. Summer

and winter are quite opposite. It is very hot in summer but

extremely cold in winter.

My favorite season is summer because students often have a long

break then. Besides, in summer I can go swimming everyday.

I look forward to hearing from you.

Love,

Mai

Sample answer 2:
Dear Jim,

I am very happy to hear from you. How are you? I hope you are

still fine. I am writing to tell you all about the weather in

Vietnam.
WRITING 79

Generally, there are 3 regions in Viet Nam: north VietNam,

south VietNam and middle Vietnam. So, the weather in each

region is different. In North Vietnam, there are 4 seasons:

Summer, winter, spring and autumn but there are only 2

seasons in South and middle Vietnam. In winter it is very cold

but there’s no snow in Vietnam. In summer, it is ho and there

are many things to play such as swimming, football and

camping.

And spring is my favorite season because there is a long holiday

in the season, do you know? Tet holiday is the most

important holiday in a year in Vietnam. Tet holiday

begins at the end of spring and lasts seven days . In autumn, it

is wet and the sky is clear. The trees are beginning to shed their

leaves.

I look forward to hearing from you.

Love,

Long

Sample answer 3:
Dear Jim,

I am very glad to hear from you. How are you? I hope you are

still fine. I am writing to tell you all about the weather in

Vietnam.

I live in the south of Vietnam where there are only 2 seasons:

Rain and Dry. The rain season usually from June to November,

it rains a lot and wet. In this time, it usually has hurricane

and thunderstorm. So, you need to be careful when you go

outside because the rain might cause thunder or lightning, you

cannot use a phone, under the tree and no umbrella.

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


80 WRITING

Thankfully, the rain season it's good for crops. On the other

hand, the dry season is very hot. The temperature it's about 36-

40 degree Celsius and it usually begins from the end of January

to May. In this time, the weather it's very muggy and easily to

get fire.

I live in the dry season now. So, I'm dying for a lot of rains. To

me, I think I like the rain season the most because the rain

season brings the cool weather and convenience for the crops.

I look forward to hearing from you.

Love,

Nam

Sample answer 4:
Dear Jim,

I am very glad to hear that your family is going to Vietnam

next month. I hope we are going to have a good time together.

Now I am writing to tell you all about the weather in Vietnam.

There are two seasons in Vietnam: the rainy season and the dry

season. It usually rains during the rainy season but it doesn’t

rain everyday. During the dry season, there are a lot of things

you can do. People usually enjoy seeing the beach. You can’t do

that during the rainy season. They also like going to the beach.

I’m glad that you are going to visit me during the dry season.

We will have a lot of fun together. Get here soon!

Linh
81

PHỤ LỤC 1: MẪU BÀI THI TIẾNG ANH B1


**********

MINISTRY OF PUBLIC SECURITY SOCIALIST REPUBLIC OF VIETNAM


PEOPLE'S SECURITY ACADEMY Independence - Freedom - Happiness

SAMPLE TEST 01
B1 Skill: LISTENING
Time allowance: 25 minutes
Candidate's Name: …………………………..… Candidate No
Examiner 1:……………………………….. Examiner 2:……………………………..

The test includes 03 pages

Exam Code
LISTENING L G 6 2 1

PART 1 (Questions 1-5) (10 points)


Look at the instructions for part 1. For each question, there are three pictures and a short
recording. For each question, choose the correct answer (A, B or C) and write the
appropriate letter in boxes 1 - 5 on your answer sheet.
Example: What is the boy going to buy?

1. Which house did the woman stay in?

2. How does the man want the woman to help him?

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


82

3. What time will the writer arrive at the bookshop?

4. Which calendar will the boy buy?

5. What should Suzie take to Emma’s house?

PART 2 (Questions 6-15) (10 points)


You will hear a group leader talking to some students who are going to visit an important
athletics event in Birmingham. For each question, find the missing information in the
numbered space. Write the information in boxes 6 – 15 on your answer sheet.

Right everyone! Some important information about the three college trips before
the end of June. Firstly, we’re all going to Birmingham to see the (6)………………..
Athletics Championships. That’s the only trip we’ve planned during March because I know
that April is such a busy time for students. We’re going on the (7)………………... For
those of you who haven’t heard of this event before, it’s the largest single sports
83

competition in Britain, so we’re really pleased that we’re going. A hundred and forty
different national teams will take part, which means you’ll see (8)……………….. world-
class sportsmen and women there, and you’ll be amongst thousands of other fans. The
(9)……………….. seats seventeen thousand!
We’ll be leaving here early and we’ve decided to go by train this time and not hire
a coach, because we got delayed in (10)……………….. when we went to Birmingham
before. I hope everyone’s pleased about that.
Next, someone asked me what to take. Firstly, what not to take! Leave your
cameras behind because taking photos is (11)……………….., but you must have your
(12)……………….. with you as we’ve bought a group ticket, and you may need to show
it. Mobile phones are okay, but you’ll have to turn them off during the event, so it’s
probably better not to take them.
If you want to read some more about the event on the Internet, go to Birmingham’s
(13)………………... Then look for the word “Birinfo” in the page index, that’s spelt B-I-
R-I-N-F-O. You’ll find all kinds of information about the Championships there.
As for our trip, I don’t have the final (14)……………….. of journey times yet, but
I will by this afternoon. So, I think I’ll write an information sheet with answers to all your
questions on it. You’ll get (15)……………….. of this on Friday, so you can read through
everything over the weekend.
Right….the second trip will……

----THE END---

TRƯỞNG BAN ĐỀ TRƯỞNG MÔN THI CÁN BỘ PHẢN BIỆN ĐỀ

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


84

KEY ANSWER
Exam code: LG621

LISTENING

PART 1 (Questions 1-5) (10 points)


1. A
2. B
3. B
4. C
5. C
PART 2 (Questions 6-15) (10 points)
6. International
7. 15th
8. five hundred and twenty / 520
9. stadium
10. traffic jams
11. forbidden
12. identity card
13. website
14. details
15. copies

--------***---------

THE END
85

MINISTRY OF PUBLIC SECURITY SOCIALIST REPUBLIC OF VIETNAM


PEOPLE'S SECURITY ACADEMY Independence - Freedom - Happiness

SAMPLE TEST 02
B1 Skills: READING & WRITING
Limited time: 90 minutes
Candidate's Name: ...……………Candidate No

Examiner 1:………………………. Examiner 2:……………………….

The test includes 06 pages


Exam Code
READING
W R 6 2 1
PART 1 (Questions 1-10) (10 points)
What is the word or phrase which best completes each sentence? For questions 1 - 10,
write the appropriate letter (A, B, C or D) in boxes 1 – 10 on your answer sheet.
Example:
0. Elena …………… a Saturday Job working in a library a few months ago.
A. got B. became C. was D. saw
Q Answer
0 A

1. “How much time do you spend reading a week?” - “ ________________”


A. It’s 2 o’clock B. 2 hours a day
C. Once upon a time D. Twice a week
2. “Let’s go to the movie now.” – “Oh, ________”
A. Good idea! B. I don’t
C. Why's that? D. I need it
3. The __________ curriculum is usually set by the government.
A. national B. nation C. nationally D. nationality
4. Mary always takes great care………….her children.
A. for B. of C. to D. with
5. Many people are dying _________________various types of cancer.
A. with B. at C. of D. by
6. He performed very well in the interview; ___________, he didn’t get the job.
A. since B. but C. therefore D. however
7. You won’t pass the examination ____ you study more.

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


86

A. unless B. as long as C. if D. whether


8. When I came to the party, Sally and Tom _________.
A. were dancing B. are dancing
C. have danced D. have been dancing
9. My brother _________for a job since he graduated from college.
A. is looking B. looked C. was looking D. has been looking
10. The more electricity you use, ___________ your bill will be.
A. the highest B. the more high C. higher D. the higher

PART 2 (Questions 11-15) (5 points)


Look at the text in each question. What does it say? Write the appropriate letter (A, B, C or
D) in boxes 11 – 15 on your answer sheet.
Example:
0. A. Please give up your seat for elderly or
handicapped people.
B. Elderly or handicapped people must leave
their seats.
C. This seat is not for elderly or handicapped
people.
D You can reserve seats for elderly or
handicapped people.
11.
Aziz wants Abdul to
A. take his homework to college for him.
B. call their college to say that he is not
well.
C. pick up any new homework given out at
college today.
D. pick him up at the college.
87

12. A. You need to phone Sophie if you want


to come to this event.
B. Anyone wanting to take part in running
this event should sign the notice.
C. People who can attend this event should
put their names on the notice.
D. The term ends on December 15th.

13. A. To avoid us cancelling another Saturday


trip, tell us what your interests are.
B. Saturday’s coach trip is cancelled
because there are transport problems.
C. Not many students are interested in
joining the club.
D. We are cancelling the trip on Saturday
as numbers are too low.

14. A. You can keep your shoes on in the


changing room unless they are dirty.
B. Clean your shoes at the entrance to the
changing room before you come in.
C. All shoes must be taken off and left at
the changing room entrance.
D. You should change your shoes if they
are dirty.
15. What does Jake need to do?
A. open the garage when Ben arrives so he
can get his bike.
B. look in the garage and let Ben know if
his bike is there.
C. get Ben’s bike out of the garage and
take it to him.
D. stay at Ben’s house until 6.

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


88

PART 3 (Questions 16-20) (5 points)


Read the passage and answer the questions below. For each question, write the appropriate
letter (A, B, C or D) in boxes 16 – 20 on your answer sheet.
WOMEN
In developing countries, where three fourths of the world’s population lives, sixty
percent of the people who can’t read and write are women. Being illiterate doesn’t mean
they are not intelligent. It does mean it is difficult for them to change their lives. They
produce more than haft of the food. In Africa eighty percent of all agricultural work is
done by women. There are many programs to help poor countries develop their agriculture.
However, for years, these programs provided money and training for men.
In parts of Africa, this is a typical day for a village woman. At 4:45 am, she gets
up, washes and eats. It takes her a half hour to walk to the fields, and she works there until
3:00p.m. She collects firewood and gets home at 4:00. She spends the next hour and a haft
preparing food to cook. Then she collects water for another hour. From 6:30 to 8:30 she
cooks. After dinner, she spends an hour washing the dishes and her children. She goes to
bed at 9:30 p.m.
International organizations and programs run by developed nations are starting to
help women, as well as men, improve their agricultural production. Governments have
already passed some laws affecting women because of the UNO Decade for Women. The
UNO report will affect the changes now happening in the family and society.

16. By whom (what) was the Decade for Women organized?


A. by developing countries.
B. by the United Nations Organization.
C. by the World Health Organization.
D. by many African countries.
17. Why do people say women produce more than half of the food?
A. because 80 percent of all agricultural work is done by women.
B. because 60 percent of women are illiterate.
C. most women are not intelligent.
D. all are correct.
18. Why do people say that African women’s lives are hard?
A. because these women are busy with housework..
B. because they work all day in the fields.
C. both A and B are correct.
D. none are correct.
89

19. What do these women do after dinner?


A. they always go for a walk.
B. they collect water.
C. they collect firewood.
D. they always wash dishes and their children.
20. It is difficult for them to change their lives. Why?
A. because they are illiterate.
B. because they are afraid of changing.
C. because they do eighty percent of agricultural work.
D. all A, B and C are correct.

PART 4 (Questions 21-30) (10 points)


Read the text below and choose the correct word given in the box to fill in each space.
Write the appropriate words in boxes 21 – 30 on your answer sheet.
following symbolized good desperate prevent
inviting strange possibility mean encourage
interested last immediately normal ambition

HOPES AND DREAMS


Some years ago, my daughter was studying English at a university on the south coast.
One evening she phoned to tell me that what she really wanted to do was travel round the
world, so she was looking into the (21)…………. of working in another country. She had
seen several advertisements in the newspaper for student teachers of English abroad, and
she was (22)…………. in one in Italy, which she was (23)…………. to visit. She decided
that this would be a good way to achieve her (24)…………., so she was writing to apply
for the job. The reply took a long time to arrive, but eventually she received a letter asking
if she would go for an interview in London the (25)…………. week. She was so excited
that she (26)…………. got in touch with the school owner and agreed to attend the
interview. She was determined that nothing would (27)…………. her from doing what she
had set out to do. A few days before the interview she had a very (28)…………. dream in
which she gave birth to a beautiful baby. She was a little nervous and worried about the
dream and phoned to ask me what I thought it might (29)………….. As I knew something
about dreams, I was able to assure her that it only (30)…………. her desire to do well in
the interview.

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


90

WRITING
PART 1 (Questions 1-5) (10 points)
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
sentence printed before it. For questions 1-5, write only the missing words in boxes 1 - 5
on your answer sheet.
Example:
0. The library was opened by the college president.
The college president ………………………………

Answer:
1. “Let’s go swimming.”
She suggests…………………………………………………………
2. They think the owner of the house is abroad.
The owner ………………………………………………………………
3. I last saw Bob when I was in Hochiminh city.
I haven’t seen ……………………………………………
4. It’s a three-hour drive from Hanoi to Namdinh.
It takes………………………………………………………………….
5. The children couldn’t go swimming because the sea was very rough.
The sea was too …………………………………………………………........

PART 2 (20 points)


You have just made an English pen friend. Write a letter to him/her and tell him/her a
traditional festival in Vietnam. You should write:
 What it is
 When it is celebrated
 How it is celebrated
Write the letter on your answer sheet, using about 100 – 120 words.

THE END

TRƯỞNG BAN ĐỀ TRƯỞNG MÔN THI CÁN BỘ PHẢN BIỆN ĐỀ


91

KEY ANSWER
Exam code: WR621
READING AND WRITING
PART 1
1. B. 2 hours a day 6. D. however
2. A. Good idea! 7. A. unless
3. A. national 8. A. were dancing
4. B. of 9. D. has been looking
5. C. of 10. D. the higher
PART 2
11. A. take his homework to college for him.
12. C. People who can attend this event should put their names on the notice.
13. D. We are cancelling the trip on Saturday as numbers are too low.
14. A. You can keep your shoes on in the changing room unless they are dirty.
15. A. open the garage when Ben arrives so he can get his bike.
PART 3
16. B. by the United Nations Organization.
17. A. because 80 percent of all agricultural work is done by women.
18. C. both A and B are correct.
19. D. they always wash dishes and their children.
20. D. all A, B and C are correct.
PART 4
21. possibility 26. immediately
22. interested 27. prevent
23. desperate 28. strange
24. ambition 29. mean
25. following 30. symbolized

WRITING
PART 1( 1 - 5) (10 points)
1. She suggests going swimming.
2. The owner of the house is thought to be abroad.
3. I haven’t seen Bob since I was in Hochiminh city.
4. It takes three hours to drive from Hanoi to Namdinh.
5. The sea was too rough for the children to go swimming.
PART 2 (20 points)
- Task Achievement: 10 points
- Structures and Vocabulary: 5 points
- Coherence: 5 points

--------***---------
THE END

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


92

B1
MINISTRY OF PUBLIC SECURITY LISTENING ANSWER SHEET
PEOPLE'S SECURITY ACADEMY
Candidate's Name: …....Nguyễn Văn A.......................................... Date of birth: ……01/01/1970…….......……….... Paper code

Test Date: ………......01/01/2017.……………...……………Candidate No


0 0 0 1
Examiner 1: ……………………….…………………Examiner 2: …………………………………..…


Exam Code Paper code

B1 L G

0 A
 Write your choice (A, B, C or D) in the space next to the numbers like this.
 Write your answers clearly in the spaces next to the numbers like this. 0 Sample

Markers use only Markers use only


Q ANSWER Correct Incorrect Q ANSWER Correct Incorrect
v x v x
1. C 6. oldest
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.

Markers use only

Total of correct answers

Mark in numbers Mark in letters


Marker 1’s signature:………………………….

Marker 2’s signature:………….………………


93

MINISTRY OF PUBLIC SECURITY READING ANSWER SHEET B1


PEOPLE'S SECURITY ACADEMY
Candidate's Name: ……Nguyễn Văn A………………………Date of birth: ……01/01/1970……………… Paper code

Test Date: …………01/01/2017………………………Candidate No 0 0 5 1


Examiner 1: ……………………….…………………Examiner 2: …………………………………..…


Exam Code Paper code
B1 R W

0 A
 Write your choice (A, B, C or D) in the space next to the numbers like this.
 Write your answers clearly in the spaces next to the numbers like this. 0 Sample

Markers use only Markers use only


Q ANSWER Correct Incorrect Q ANSWER Correct Incorrect
v x v x
1. B 16.
2. 17.
3. 18.
4. 19.
5. 20.
6. 21. sample
7. 22.
8. 23.
9. 24.
10. 25.
11. 26.
12. 27.
13. 28.
14. 29.
15. 30.

Markers use only

Total of correct answers

Mark in numbers Mark in letters


Marker 1’s signature:……………………………….

Marker 2’s signature:…………………………..

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


94

MINISTRY OF PUBLIC SECURITY WRITING ANSWER SHEET B1


PEOPLE'S SECURITY ACADEMY
Candidate's Name: …Nguyễn Văn A……………………………………… Date of birth: ……01/01/2017…… Paper code

Test Date: ……05/07/2017………………………… Candidate No


0 0 0 1
Examiner 1: ……………………….………………… Examiner 2: …………………………………..…


Exam Code Paper code

B1 W G

PART 1 Marker’s use only


Q ANSWER Correct Incorrect
v x
1. turning off the light?

2. is the length of the Mekong River?

3. is the length of the Mekong River?

4. forget to lock the door before you leave

5. rough for the children to go swimming

PART 2
Dear Tom,

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….
95

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

……………………………………………………………………………………………….

Markers use only

Total of correct answers

Mark in numbers Mark in letters


Marker 1’s signature:…………………………..

Marker 2’s signature:………………………….

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


96

PHỤ LỤC 2: DẠNG THỨC ĐỀ THI TRÌNH ĐỘ B1


(Kèm theo Thông tư số: 05 /2012/TT- BGDĐT ngày 15 tháng 2 năm 2012
của Bộ trưởng Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo)

Đề thi gồm 3 bài, tổng thời gian 135 phút.


BÀI 1: ĐỌC VÀ VIẾT
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút. Điểm: 60 điểm/ 100 điểm
Mô tả các phần:
ĐỌC: 4 phần /20 câu hỏi (30 điểm)
- Phần 1: 10 câu hỏi (10 điểm). Đọc 10 câu độc lập mỗi câu có một từ
bỏ trống, chọn 1 từ đúng trong 4 từ cho sẵn (dạng trắc nghiệm ABCD) để điền
vào chỗ trống. Các chỗ trống này cho phép kiểm tra kiến thức ngữ pháp, từ
vựng, ngữ nghĩa và kiến thức văn hóa, xã hội.
- Phần 2: 5 câu hỏi (5 điểm). Có thể lựa chọn một trong hai hình thức
bài tập sau: 1) đọc 5 biển quảng cáo, bảng báo hiệu thường gặp trong đời sống
hàng ngày (dạng hình ảnh không có chữ hoặc có ít chữ) hoặc thông báo ngắn,
sau đó chọn một câu trả lời đúng trong 4 câu cho sẵn (dạng trắc nghiệm
ABCD); 2) đọc 5 đoạn mô tả ngắn, mỗi đoạn khoảng 3 câu, sau đó chọn các
bức tranh tương ứng với đoạn mô tả (5 bức tranh), có nội dung liên quan đến
đời sống hàng ngày.
- Phần 3: 5 câu hỏi (5 điểm). Đọc một bài khoảng 200 - 250 từ, chọn
các câu trả lời Đúng hoặc Sai hoặc lựa chọn câu trả lời đúng trong 4 khả năng
A, B, C, D. Bài đọc có thể lấy từ báo, tạp chí dễ hiểu, dạng phổ biến kiến
thức, thường thấy trong đời sống hàng ngày.
- Phần 4: 10 câu hỏi (10 điểm). Làm bài đọc điền từ (Cloze test), dạng
bỏ từ thứ 7 trong văn bản. Lưu ý: chỉ bỏ ô trống bắt đầu từ câu thứ 3, câu thứ
1 và thứ 2 giữ nguyên để thí sinh làm quen với ngữ cảnh. Bài đọc này dài
khoảng 150 từ trong đó có 10 từ bỏ trống. Chọn trong số 15 từ cho sẵn các từ
phù hợp để điền vào chỗ trống.
Yêu cầu chung: 1) Bài đọc viết theo ngôn ngữ đơn giản, có bố cục rõ
ràng; 2) Chủ đề quen thuộc, liên quan tới đời sống thường ngày (có thể lấy từ
báo, tạp chí, tài liệu giáo dục, truyện, các mục trong bách khoa toàn thư…);
3) Lượng từ mới không vượt quá 10% của trình độ B1.
97

VIẾT: 2 phần (30 điểm)


- Phần 1: 5 câu hỏi (10 điểm). Cho sẵn 5 câu, viết lại các câu đó với
những cách diễn đạt khác đã được gợi ý bằng 1-2 từ sao cho ý nghĩa các câu
đó không thay đổi.
- Phần 2: (20 điểm). Viết một bài viết ngắn khoảng 100 -120 từ. Đây là
dạng bài viết có nội dung liên quan đến đời sống hàng ngày, thường là viết
dựa trên một tài liệu gợi ý cho sẵn. Một số dạng bài thường dùng: viết một lá
đơn xin việc sau khi đọc một quảng cáo việc làm; viết một lá thư mời hay thư
phàn nàn về một sản phẩm hoặc dịch vụ sau khi đã mua hàng hoặc dùng dịch
vụ theo một quảng cáo; điền vào một mẫu tờ khai trong đó có 2 đoạn, mỗi
đoạn dài khoảng 4 - 5 dòng; viết 2 - 3 lời nhắn qua email, mỗi lời nhắn dài
khoảng 4 - 5 dòng; viết thư trả lời để cảm ơn, xin lỗi, giải thích một sự việc
hay dặn dò, đưa lời khuyên cho ai đó; viết một câu chuyện đã có sẵn câu mở
đầu và câu kết thúc...

BÀI 2: NGHE HIỂU


Thời gian: 35 phút. Điểm: 20 điểm/ 100 điểm
Bài thi Nghe hiểu gồm 02 phần:
- Phần 1: 5 câu hỏi (10 điểm). Có thể lựa chọn nghe 5 đoạn hội thoại
ngắn rồi đánh dấu vào 5 bức tranh/ hình ảnh đúng, mỗi hội thoại có 4 - 6 lần
đổi vai; hoặc nghe một đoạn hội thoại dài để chọn 5 câu Đúng hoặc Sai với
nội dung; hoặc nghe một đoạn độc thoại ngắn rồi đánh dấu vào 5 đồ vật/ sự
việc.
- Phần 2: 10 câu hỏi (10 điểm). Nghe một đoạn hội thoại hay độc
thoại. Điền vào 10 chi tiết bỏ trống trong bài. Chỗ trống thường là thông tin
quan trọng.
Yêu cầu chung: 1) Thí sinh có 5 phút để nghe hướng dẫn cách làm bài,
sau đó được nghe mỗi bài 2 lần, vừa nghe vừa trả lời câu hỏi; 2) Thời gian
mỗi phần nghe không quá 15 phút (kể cả thời gian làm bài); 3) phát ngôn rõ
ràng, tốc độ từ chậm đến trung bình; 4) chủ đề cụ thể, bối cảnh giao tiếp
quen thuộc, liên quan đến đời sống thường ngày; 5) lượng từ mới không quá
5% của trình độ B1.

BÀI 3: NÓI
Bài thi Nói gồm 3 phần, thời gian cho mỗi thí sinh từ 10 - 12 phút.

FLIC500 - Keys to Success


98

Điểm: 20 điểm/ 100 điểm


Mô tả các phần:
Thí sinh bốc thăm 1 trong số 14 chủ đề nói của trình độ B1 liên quan
tới 4 lĩnh vực cá nhân, công cộng, nghề nghiệp, giáo dục như: Bản thân; Nhà
cửa, gia đình, môi trường; Cuộc sống hàng ngày; Vui chơi, giải trí, thời gian
rỗi; Đi lại, du lịch; Mối quan hệ với những người xung quanh; Sức khỏe và
chăm sóc thân thể; Giáo dục; Mua bán; Thực phẩm, đồ uống; Các dịch vụ;
Các địa điểm, địa danh; Ngôn ngữ; Thời tiết.
Thời gian chuẩn bị khoảng 5 - 7 phút (không tính vào thời gian thi)
- Phần 1 (2 đến 3 phút): Giáo viên hỏi thí sinh một số câu về tiểu sử
bản thân để đánh giá khả năng giao tiếp xã hội của thí sinh.
- Phần 2 (5 phút): Thí sinh trình bày chủ đề đã bốc thăm. Phần trình
bày phải có bố cục rõ ràng, giới thiệu nội dung, phát triển ý, kết luận, biết sử
dụng phương tiện liên kết ý. Tránh liệt kê hàng loạt mà không phát triển kỹ
từng ý.
- Phần 3 (3 - 5 phút): Giáo viên và thí sinh hội thoại mở rộng thêm về
những vấn đề có liên quan đến chủ đề vừa trình bày. Trong phần hội thoại,
giáo viên đặt các câu hỏi phản bác hoặc thăm dò ý kiến, thí sinh phải trình bày
được quan điểm và đưa ra lý lẽ để bảo vệ quan điểm của mình.

You might also like