University of Negros Occidental-Recoletos

Bacolod City

COLLEGE OF NURSING/MEDTECH AND PHARMACY

LEVEL 1 MIDTERM EXAMINATION

NUCAMA130

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Read the questions carefully. Choose the best answer. Write your answer in a capital
letter.
2. Leave a space in every 5 numbers.
3. Avoid erasures.

1. What can be found in the skin outer layer that are converted to Vit. D by ultraviolet
rays?
A. Keratin
B. Modified cholesterol
C. Sebum
D. All of the above

2. Layer of the skin that contains the blood vessels, hair follicles, oil glands, sweat
glands/
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Hypodermis
D. Adipose tissue

3. Refers to foul smelling perspiration.

A. Hyperhidrosis
B. Bromhidrosis
C. Hirsutism
D. None of the above

4. Blister or chicken pox is an example of what lesion?

A. Pustule
B. Papule
C. Vesicle
D. Macule

5. The following are general guidelines for skin care EXCEPT:

A. An intact, healthy skin
B. Skin must always be moist
C. Choose appropriate skin care according to the type of skin
D. Cleanliness is the best prevention

6. Refers to hair loss or baldness.

A. Alopecia
B. Pediculosis
C. Dandruff
D. None of the above

7. An inflammatory condition of the skin which occurs in and around the sebaceous
glands.
A. Abrasions C. Acne
B. Dryness of the skin D. Patch
8. Superficial layers of the skin are scraped or rubbed away?
A. Abrasions C. Acne
B. Dryness of the skin D. Patch

9. Refers to redness of the skin which maybe associated with rashes and exposure
to cold.?
A. Abrasions C. Acne
B. Dryness of the skin D. Erythema

10. Refers to excessive growth of hair.

A. Bromhidrosis C. Vitiligo
B. Hirsutism D. Halitosis

11. Which of the following is the common cause of Hyperhidrosis?

A. Increase level of Androgen C. Decrease level of Androgen
B. Increase level of estrogen D. Decrease level of Estrogen

12. Which of the following is the common cause of Hyperhidrosis?

A. Genetics C. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism D. Addisons Disease

13. When developing a plan care for an older patient, the nurse pays special
attention to the patient’s skin based on an understanding of which of the
following?
A. Amount of subcutaneous fat increase C. Skin becomes increasingly dry.
B. Skin thickens B. Sebaceous glands secrete more
Oil

14. During a bath, the nurse observes that a client has dry skin. Which action would
do best?
A. Bathe the client more frequently C, Massage the skin with alcohol
B. Use lotion on dry skin D. Discourage fluid intake

15. Which recommendations by the nurse to an adolescent patient with acne would
be most appropriate?
A. Wash the skin frequently using soap C. Use mineral oil on the area
B. Squeeze the pimples as they appear D. Use strong cosmetics to cover
blackheads

16. A nurse is caring for an 80 y.o. client who requires total assistance with his
personal and oral hygiene. He is thin, weak and got tired easily and prefers to
remain on bed in a semi-setting position. Which nursing diagnosis would the
nurse identify as the priority?
A. Risk for impaired Skin integrity related to immobility.
B. Hygiene Self- care Deficit related to decreased strength and endurance
C. Social isolation related to lack of significant others
D. Activity intolerance related to body weakness

17. An older client with unsteady gait request the nurse for a tub bath. Which of the
following actions would be most appropriate?
A. Add oil to water to prevent dry skin
B. Allow client to lock the door to guarantee privacy
C. Assist client in and out of the tub to prevent falling
D. Keep the water temperature very warm because client chills easily
18. During morning care , the client ask the nurse to shave him with disposable
razor. Before shaving the client, the nurse should:
A. Have him sign a waiver
B. Check to see if the client is taking antibiotics
C. Tell him that only a family member may shave the client
D. Explain the procedure to the patient

19. Which of the following interventions would the nurse include in the plan of care
when providing foot care to an elderly client?
A. Trimming nails as very short as possible
B. Use an alcohol if the feet are dry
C. Trim the nails straight across
D. Bathe the feet twice a day

20. Providing perineal care to a client requires the following except:

A. Using a sterile cotton for each stroke
B. Use gloves
C. Use warm water with soap sud solution
D. Clean sing posterior to anterior direction

21. The glands which secrete sweat that may become unpleasant in odor when
acted upon by microorganisms:
A. Eccrine glands C. Sebaceous glands
B. Apocrine glands D. Meibomian glands

22. The most effective nursing measure to relieve dryness of the skin is:
A. Increase fluid intake C. Bathe the client daily
B. Apply cream on the skin D. Apply alcohol on the skin

23. The following are the appropriate nursing measures to manage acne EXCEPT:
A. Take a bath daily C. Adequate rest and sleep
B. Adequate exposure to sunlight D. Take foods rich in carbohydrates

24. The first line defense of the body is:

A. Antigen-antibody response C. Intact skin and mucous membranes
B. Immune response D. Body secretions

25. The initial nursing action when providing bed bath is:
A. Close the door and windows of the client’s room
B. Inform and explain the procedure
C. Remove client’s clothing
D. Place the bed in flat position

26. The position for female client during perineal care is:
A. Supine C. Lateral position
B. Dorsal recumbent D. Semi-fowlers position

27. Which of the following is inappropriate nursing action when performing genital
care to a male client?
A. Wear clean gloves
B. Use circular motion from penile shaft towards the glans penis
C. Retract prepuce or foreskin if uncircumcised
D. Use moist wash cloth with soap.
28. Which of the following should not be included when teaching client on foot care?
A. Wash feet daily and pat dry C. Do not go barefooted
B. Cut corns and calluses D. Use warm water for foot soak

29. A foot disorder caused by fungus, characterized by scaling and cracking of the
skin in the interdigital spaces of the toes is:
A. Tinea pedis C. Corns
B. Callus D. Unguis incarnates

30. Infestations of the scalp with lice is

A. Pediculosis humanis C. Pediculosis capitis
B. Pediculosis pubis D. Pediculosis corporis

31. Which of the following hygienic measures should be included when providing
teaching on client?
A. Remove cerumen from the ear using cotton-tipped applicator
B. Do not rub the eyes
C. Apply alcohol on the skin for disinfection
D. Trim the nails regularly

32. A flat circumscribed area of color, no elevation of its surface, less than 1 c, in
size:
A. Macule C. Bulla
B. Papule D. Pustule

33. A skin lesion which is fluid filled , less than 1 cm. in size is:
A. Macule C. Bulla
B. Papule D. Pustule

34. When performing nursing assessment of the skin, the following should be
included EXCEPT:
A. Assess the skin color C. Assess the texture
B. Assess the turgor D. Skin is cold to touch

35. The following are the functions of the skin EXCEPT:

A. Maintains body temperature C. Sensory organ
B. Secretion and excretion D. Maintains the acidity of the body

36. Rashes of the skin caused by a very high body temperature is called?
A. Petechiae C. Vesicle
B. Erythema D. Macule

37. The following are the causes of bromhidrosis EXCEPT:

A. Poor hygiene C. Nutrition imbalance
B. Fungal infection D. Eating spicy foods

38. Refers to patches of hypopigmented ski caused by destruction of melanocytes?

A. Erythema C. Vitiligo
B. Petechiae D. Hyperhidrosis

39. Pigmented nevi is a :

A. Macule C. Papule
B. Nodule D. Pustule

40. Spina bifida ( meningocele ) is a example of a:

A. Macule C. Bulla
B. Nodule D. Pustule
41. Refers to dried serum or pus on the skin surface.
A. Crust C. Bulla
B. Nodule D. Pustule

42. Refers to excavation of the extending into the dermis below?

A. Fissures C. Erosion
B. Excoriation D. Skin ulcer

43. The following are at risk to develop decubitus ulcer EXCEPT:

A. Neurologically impaired C. Elderly individuals
B. Acutely hospitalized D. Adolescents individuals

44. Impetigo( crust) is a superficial skin infection characterized by itchiness, blister

formation filled with yellow fluid, with oozing crust. This condition is caused by:
A. Viral infection C. Papiloma virus
B. Fungal infection D. Sterptococci

45. Which of the following is the alternative name of Telengiectasia?

A. Tinea pedis C. Purpuric
B. Petechiae D. Vascular ectasias

46. The following statements are true for skin care EXCEPT:
A. Intact skin is the body first line of defense
B. Skin sensitivity to irritation varies among individuals
C. Moisture in contact with the skin can result to hinders bacterial growth
D. Cleanliness is the best deodorant.

47. Stand bathes is contraindicated to the following EXCEPT?

A. Dizziness C. Weakness
B. Mental confusion D. Diarrhea

48. Foot soak is contraindicated to clients who are:

A. Hypertensive C. Hypotensive
B. Kidney problems D. Diabetic

49. The following statements are true in maintaining Foot care EXCEPT:
A. Change socks daily C. Use cream to moisten the skin
B. Exercise the feet D. Use constricting clothing/ garters to improve
circulation

50. Refers to keratosis caused by friction and pressure from the shoe, affects the 4 th
and 5th toe.
A. Callus C. Tinea pedis
B. Plantar warts D. Corns

51. The following are the causes of Corns EXCEPT:

A. Tight shoes C. Deformed toes
B. Fungal infection D. Stich inside the shoe that rubs the toe

52. Plantar warts are contagious?

A. False C. Maybe
B. True D. Not sure

53. What is the alternative name of tinea pedis:

A. Onychymosis C. Fissures
B. Athletes foot D. None of the above
54. Which of the following are the causes of Tinea pedis:
A. Imbalance nutrition C. Skin produce high fatty acids
B. Viral infection D. Exposed to spores during recreational activities

55. Which of the following is the diagnostic test to rule out TINEA PEDIS?
A. Ultasound C. X-ray
B. Culture and sensitivity test D. All of the above

56. The following are the alternative names of Pediculosis pubis EXCEPT:
A. Pthiriasis C. Crab lice
B. Pubic louse D. Itch mite

57. Which of the following is the mode of transmission of Pediculosis pubis?

A. Direct contact C. Sexual contact
B. Airborn D. Enteric

58. Which of the following is the mode of transmission of Scabies?

A. Direct skin contact C. Sexual contact
B. Airborn D. Enteric

59. Crab lice are difficult to remove, so the shampoo maybe applied and left for how
many hours?
A. 10-15 HOURS C. 5-10 HOURS
B. 12-24 HOURS D. 2-3 HOURS

60. What is the alternative name of Dandruff?

A. Chronic dermatitis C. Seborrheic dermatitis
B. Psoriasis D. Warts

61. The following statement are correct about Ear care EXCEPT
A. Clean the pinna with moist wash cloth
B. Remove the cerumen by retracting the pinna upward.
C. Do not use toothpick tp remove the cerumen
D. Irrigate the ears as ordered.

62. Gums appear spongy and bleeding.

A. Gingivitis C. Pyorrhea
B. Glossitis D. Stomatitis

63. Refers to accumulation of foul matter on the gums and teeth.

A. Sordes C. Pyorrhea
B. Glossitis D. Stomatitis

64. Inflammation ad dryness of the oral mucosa?

A. Gingivitis C. Pyorrhea
B. Glossitis D. Stomatitis

65. Parotitis is usually caused by:

A. Bacterial infection C. Viral
B. Fungal D. None of the above

66. The following are the treatment of Halitosis EXCEPT:

A. Good oral hygiene C. Have dental check up every 6 months
B. Decrease oral fluid intake D. Use mouthwash
67. The following are the causes of Glossitis EXCEPT:
A. Fungal infection C. Allergic reaction( toothpaste)
B. Bacterial or viral infection D. Exposure to irritants( tobacco,alcohol)

68. Which of the following is the major sign of glossitis?

A. Presence of thrush C. Pain upon swallowing
B. Tonge appears to be roughD. Dark beefy red tongue, smooth and tender

69. Refers to cracking and dryness of the mouth?

A. Periodontal C. Sordes
B. Cheilosis D. Dental caries

70. What is the alternative name of Gingivitis?

A. Periodontal C. Sordes
B. Cheilosis D. Dental caries

71. Which of the following is at risk for developing Gingivitis?

A. Good Oral hygiene C. Client with misaligned teeth
B. Client who eats fruits and vegetables D. Visits the dentist

72. Which of the following measures are recommended to treat Stomatitis?

A. Brush teeth regularly C. Visit the dentist every 6 mos.

B. Rinse the mouth every after meals D. All of the above

using baking soda

73. Teeth maybe be darkened in color and painful, this refers to?
A. Periodontal C. Sordes
B. Cheilosis D. Dental caries

74. Plantar warts is caused by:

A. Staphyloccocus aureus C. Papova virus hominis
B. Streptococci D. Herpes simplex virus

75. Striae gravidarum and aged skin are examples of :

A. Fissure C. Atrophy
B. Erosion D. Crust

76. Refers to localize perspiration which can be found in the face, hands and axilla.
A. Primary Hyperhidrosis C. Bromhidrosis
B. Secondary Hyperhidrosis D. Vitiligo

77. What is the Primary cause of Primary Hyperhidrosis?

A. Genetic C. Poor hygiene
B. Idiopathic D. Hyperthyroidism

78. Refers to invisible soft film of bacteria, saliva, epithelial cells, leukocytes that
adheres to the enamel surface of the teeth?
A. Plaque C. Periodontal disease
B. Tartar D. Dental caries

79. The following are the causes of Glossitis EXCEPT:

A. Bacteria and virus C. Allergic reactions
B. Fungal D. Mechanical injury
80. Alternative name of Gingivitis?
A. Plaque C. Periodontal disease
B. Tartar D. Dental caries

81. Refers to the inflammation of the oral mucosa?

A. Stomatitis C. Periodontal disease
B. Tartar D. Dental caries

82. Inflammation of the parotid glands?

A. Stomatitis C. Periodontal disease
B. Parotitis D. Dental caries

83. Refers to group of disease that affects the tissues of the gums:
A. Stomatitis C. Periodontal disease
B. Parotitis D. Dental caries

84. Medical term of tooth decay/ cavities?

A. Stomatitis C. Periodontal disease
B. Parotitis D. Dental caries

85. Which of the ff: is the cause of Plantar warts?

A. Staphylococci C. Fungal infection
B. Papova virus hominis D. Streptococci

***************************END OF EXAMINATION*****************************
Prepared by:

LIEZL R. UY, RN MAN

NUCAMA 130 LECTURER
 UNIVERSITY OF NEGROS OCCIDENTAL-RECOLETOS

COLLEGE OF NURSING/ MEDTECH & PHARMACY

NUCAMA130
nd
2 Semester, A.Y.2013-2014
KEY ANSWERS
1.B 38.C 75.C
2.B 39.B 76.A
3.B 40.C 77.A
4.C 41.A 78.A
5.B 42.B 79.B

6.A 43.D 80.C

7.C 44,D 81.A
8.A 45.D 82.B
9.D 46.C 83.C
10.B 47.D 84.D

11.A 48.D 85.B

12.B 49.D
13.C 50.D
14.B 51.B
15.A 52.B

16.B 53.B
17.D 54.D
18.D 55.BONUS
19.C 56.A
20.D 57.C

21.A 58.A
22.A 59.BONUS
23.B 60.C
24.C 61,C
25.B 62.A

26.B 63.A
27.B 64.D
28,B 65.C
29.A 66.B
30.C 67.A

31.C 68.A
32.A 69.B
33.B 70.A
34.D 71.C
35.D 72.B

36.A 73.D
37.B 74.C
Prepared by:

LIEZL R. UY, RN MAN

NUCAMA130 LECTURER
 University of Negros Occidental-Recoletos
Bacolod City

COLLEGE OF NURSING/MEDTECH AND PHARMACY

LEVEL 1 MIDTERM EXAMINATION

 NUCAMA12I (RLE)

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Read the questions carefully. Choose the best answer. Write your answer in a capital
letter.
2. Leave a space in every 5 numbers.
3. Avoid erasures.

HOT AND COLD COMPRESS (L. UY)

1. It is a method of heat application which is wet and causes dampness?
A. Moist heat C. Cold compress
B. Dry heat D. Soak technique

2. The ff: are the rationales of HOT APPLICATION EXCEPT:

A. To promote vasodilation C. To promote comfort
B. To improve tissue metabolism D. To promote vasoconstriction

3. What is the rationale of applying flannel or towel over the Hot water bag before
applying on the skin?
A. Acts as insulator to prevent burning C. To reduce blood viscosity
B. For aesthetic purposes D. None of the above

4. Cold compress is done every?

A. 30-40 MIN. C. 5-10 MIN.
B. 15-20 MIN. D. 1-2 MIN.

5. The ff: are at risk associated with the application of Heat except:
A. Burns C. Edema
B. Bleeding D. Pain

6. The ff: are the purposes of vasodilation EXCEPT?

A. To improve circulation C. Promote delivery of nutrients
B. Promote wound healing D. Prevent bleeding

7. What is the ideal temperature of the water in Hot application?

A. Above 45 C C. Below 36 C
B. 34-35 C D. 37-40 C

8. Cold compress is indicated for:

A. Inflammation/ Bleeding C. Low back pain
B. Abdominal cramping D. None of the above

9. The ff: are the equipments in Hot application EXCEPT:

A. Towel C. Hot water bag
B. Bath thermometer D. Ice water bag

10. Refers to direct immersion of the body in a medicated solution?

A. Dry Heat application C. Hot application
B. Soaking application D. None of the above

(ASSISTING IN IV INSERTION)
11. The ff; are the objectives of Intravenous therapy EXCEPT?
A. Maintenance of hydration C. Provide route for Administration
B. To replenish blood volume D. To maintain the client’s status
12. The nurse should check and examine the IV Solution for the ff: EXCEPT?
A. Expiration date C. Signs of contamination
B. Cracks or leaks D. Manufacturer’s no.

13. Which of the ff; are the signs of deterioration of IV Solution?

A. Clear
B. Cloudiness and presence of sediments
C. White in color
D. All of the above

14. Needle gauge use for newborn?

A. G 26
B. G23
C. G20
D. G18

15. Needle gauge use for Adult for surgery and blood transfusion?
A. G 26
B. G23
C. G20
D. G18

16. Nurse Hingel is aware that the ff: are the signs of phlebitis EXCEPT:
A. Redness
B. Swelling
C. Skin is cold to touch
D. Pain

17. The ff: are the assessment of Assisting in Intravenous Insertion Except:
A. Determine physician’s order for IV Therapy
B. Assess the level of understanding of the client
C. Assess clients need for psychological support
D. Assess the brand of the needle to be used

18. Needle gauge use for Pedia?

A. G 26
B. G23
C. G20
D. G18

19. Which of the ff: is the rationale of closing the control clamp or regulator of the IV
tubing?
A. To keep the tip sterile
B. To eliminate air bubbles that may cause air emboli in the circulation
C. To maintain sterility
D. All of the above

20. The ff: are important instructions about IVF, when to call or inform the nurse
immediately except:
A. Site is bulging
B. Pain on the site
C. Solution is almost consumed
D. Consistent in the flow rate
#s 21-30 . Identify the type of IVF Solution:
21. D5LR
22. D5NM
23. D10W
24. D5W
25. PLR
26. PNSS
27. .45% NaCl
28. .33% NaCl

#s 29- 33 ( 2 pts . each) State the formula of the following:

29. gtts/min .(Macro)
30. gtts./min. (Micro)
31. cc/Hr.
32. No. of hours.
33. What is the standard drop factor for Micro?
34. What is the standard gttfactor for Macro?

35. The ff; are the Evaluation of Assisting in IV insertion Except:

A. IV site is initiated without difficulty.
B. IV sire remains free from redness, edema and purulent discharges.
C. IV therapy is continued with complications
D. IV infusion is accurately calculated and reassessed.

36. Refers to setting of IVF to desired rate

A. IV calibration
B. Regulation of IV
C. Follow up an IV
D. Assisting in IV insertion

37. The ff. are the signs of Circulatory overload EXCEPT?

A. Edema C. Dyspnea
B. Periorbital edema D. Dizziness

38. IVF are usually ordered for how many hrs. period indicating how long each liter of
fluid should run?
A. 8H
B.24H
C.12H
D.10H

39. Process of determining by measurement of the correctness of actual IV Flow to the

prescribed flow rate?
A. IV calibration
B. Regulation of IV
C. Follow up an IV
D. Assisting in IV insertion

40-45. Give the equipments to prepare in assisting in IVF insertion.

Solve the ff: Write the formula: #s46-70.

Situation A. : Maria was admitted to the hospital due to Dengue fever. The physician
order for venoclysis, D5NM 1L. X8 Hrs.( 3pts each)

46. Solve for the gtts per minute.

47. Solve for cc/hr.
Situation B: Jason , 3 y.o was admitted to the hospital due to flu. The pediatrician
ordered D5NM 1 pint at 40cc/hr. ( 3pts each).

47. Solve for the no. of hrs.

48. Solve for the mgtts/min.

Situation C: Nelly was rushed to the emergency room with burns. D5LR 1L. was started
at 100cc/hr.( 3 pts each)
49. Solve for cc/hr
50. Solve for gtts/min.
51. Calibrate the IVF given on Situation A and label the bottle below.(7pts.)

71. After removing the cannula from the vein, it is important to apply pressure over the
site. Which of the ff. is the rationale?
A. Prevent damage to the vein
B. To control bleeding
C. To protect self from contact with blood
D. None of the above

72. Before the nurse will follow up the IVF, the nurse should check the IV bottle for the
signs of deterioration EXCEPT:
A. Expiration date C. Cloudiness of fluids
B. Gauze of needle D. Size of the needle

73. Before starting an IVF, the priority of the nurse is to check the:
A. Doctor’s order C. Need for psychological support
B. Type of IVF D. Size of the needle

74. The ff: are the equipments to discontinue an IVF EXCEPT:

A. Sterile cotton balls C. Alcohol
B. Plaster tape D. Tourniquet

75. Before you follow up an IVF, which of the ff: is the correct way to identify the right
client?
A. Check the name tag
B. Asking client to state his/her name
C. Check wrist band
D. All of the above

76. In changing the patient’s gown with an IVF the first thing that you are going to do is
to:
A. Count the rate of flow of the infusion
B. Remove the gown from the arm without infusion
C. Inspect the IV site and arm
D. None of the above

77. Equipments needed in changing the patient’s gown with an IVF are the ff: EXCEPT:
A. Clean hospital gown
B. Clean bed linens
C. Basin of water
D. Bed protector
78. In removing the soiled gown of the client the IV Bottle should passed from:
A. Outside sleeve going inside
B. Inside sleeve going outside
C. Any direction
D. All of the above.

79. After changing the client’s gown the nurse should?

A. Stop the IVF
B. Count the rate of the infusion to make sure it is correct
C. Close the regulator
D. Make sure the client is comfortable

80. Which of the ff: is the rationale of maintaining the position of the IVF by holding it
above the client’s arm?
A. To provide comfort for the client
B. Prevent backflow of the blood from the vein into the tubing.
C. Avoid kinks on the tubing
D. To maintain sterility

***************************************GOOD LUCK*****************************************

Prepared by:

LIEZL R. UY, RN MAN

NUCAMA12I(RLE) Lecturer

University of Negros Occidental-Recoletos

Bacolod City

COLLEGE OF NURSING/MEDTECH AND PHARMACY

LEVEL 1 MIDTERM EXAMINATION

 NUCAMA12I (RLE)

KEY ANSWERS
1. A
2. D
3. A
4. B
5. D

6. D
7. A
8. A
9. D
10. B

11. D
12. D
13. B
14. A
15. D

16. C
17. D
18. B
19. B
20. D

21. Hypertonic
22. Hypertonic
23. Hypertonic
24. Hypotonic
25. Hypotonic
26. Isotonic
27. Isotonic
28. Isotonic

29. amt. of sol’n.x gttfactor/ no . of hrs. x 60 min.

30. amt. of sol’n.x gttfactor/ no . of hrs. x 60 min.
31. amt. of sol’n. / no. of hrs.
32. amt. of sol’n/ cc. /hr.
33. 15gtts
34. 60gtts
35. C

36. B
37. D
38. B
39. A
40. Alcohol swab
41. tourniquet
42. plaster
43. IV solution
44.Pentel pen
45. splint
46. -70. COMPUTATION OF IVF & CALIBRATION

71. B
72. D
73. A
74. D
75. D

76. A
77. D
78. B
79. B
80. B

Prepared by:

LIEZL R. UY, RN MAN

NUCAMA12I Lecturer