1
ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY
1. According to the authors of your textbook,
the definition of a psychological disorder is
associated with ___________.
a. stress
b. impaired functioning
c. culturally expected responses
d. psychotic symptoms
2. Regarding the criteria that define
abnormality, it would be correct to state that
a. no one criterion has yet been developed that
fully defines abnormality.
b. personal distress is the one criterion that
defines abnormality.
c. the criteria differ depending on the cause of
the psychological disorder.
d. the criteria differ depending on whether the
individual has a psychological disorder or a
psychological dysfunction.
3. The criterion that because a particular
behavior be atypical or not culturally expected
is insufficient to define abnormality
a. behavior that occurs infrequently is
considered abnormal in every culture.
b. society is less willing to tolerate eccentricity
in people who are productive.
c. behaviors vary very little from one culture to
another.
d. many people behave in ways that deviate
from the average, but this doesn't mean that
they have a disorder.
4. A psychological dysfunction refers to
a. a breakdown in cognitive functioning.
b. a breakdown in emotional functioning.
c. a breakdown in behavioral functioning.
d. any one or combination of the above
5. Behaviors that deviate from the norm are
a. always seen as a disorder if they violate
social norms.
b. considered a disorder regardless of culture.
c. typically seen as a disorder when they impair
function.
d. never judged on the basis of the person who
does them.
6. A male college student begins feeling sad
and lonely. Although still able to go to classes
and work at his job, he finds himself feeling
down much of the time and worrying about
what is happening to him. Which part of the
definition of abnormality applies to his
situation?
a. Personal distress
b. Cultural factors
c. Impaired functioning
d. Violation of societal norms
7. The typical profile or prototype of a disorder
reflects the _________ as described in DSM-IV
as well as those emerging from DSM-5.
a. theoretical perspectives on abnormality
b. treatments for mental disorders
c. causes of mental illness
d. diagnostic criteria for psychological
disorders
8. Rocky Starr is a rocker who wears
outlandish female makeup and women’s
clothing when performing on stage. This
behavior is considered
a. more abnormal than that of a business man
who suddenly starts to do so.
b. less abnormal than that of the business man
because it contributes to his job success.
c. less abnormal than that of a female who
wears makeup every day.
d. just as abnormal as that of the business man
who starts wearing makeup.
9. The scientific study of psychological
disorders is called __________.
a. psychopathology b. psychoanalysis
c. pseudoscience d. parapsychology
10. After college graduation, two of your
friends are interested in careers in the helping
professions. Anna wants to become a
psychiatrist; Carl plans on becoming a
psychologist. Since you are taking a course in
Abnormal Psychology, they ask you for career
advice. You would tell
a. Anna to apply to medical school and Carl to
study psychology at the graduate level.
b. Carl to apply to medical school and Anna to
study psychology at the graduate level.
c. both of them to apply to medical school.
d. both of them to apply to graduate school.
11. Dr. Okalemi Watabe is a mental health
practioner. All of the following are ways in
which she might function as a scientist-
practitioner EXCEPT
a. analyzing her own motivations and reasons
for helping people with psychological problems.
b. evaluating her own assessments and
treatments for effectiveness.

c. conducting research leading to new
information about mental disorders and their
treatments.
d. using the most current diagnostic and
treatment procedures.
12. A ___________ is what first brought the
individual to therapy; the ____________
represents the unique combination of
behaviors, thoughts, and feelings that make up
a specific disorder.
a. diagnosis; symptoms
b. incidence, prevalence
c. clinical description; presenting problem
d. presenting problem; clinical description
13. Prevalence refers to
a. how many people in the population as a
whole have a particular disorder.
b. how many new cases of a disorder occur
during a given period of time.
c. the percentage of males and females who
have a disorder.
d. how many people have recovered from a
disorder in a given period of time.
14. Incidence refers to
a. how many people in the population as a
whole have a disorder.
b. how many new cases of a disorder occur
during a given period of time.
c. the percentage of males and females who
have a disorder.
d. how many people have recovered from a
disorder in a given period of time.
15. Statistical data are often relevant when
discussing psychological disorders. For
example, a researcher might want to know how
many new cases of depression are diagnosed
each year, a figure called the ___________ of
the disorder.
a. prevalence b. incidence
c. recurrence d. ratio
16. In terms of their typical patterns,
schizophrenia follows a chronic course, while
mood disorders, including depression, follow
a(n) _____________ course.
a. episodic b. time-limited
c. guarded d. insidious
17. A psychological disorder is described as
having an acute onset if the symptoms develop
__________, while it has an insidious onset if
the symptoms develop __________ .
a. suddenly; gradually
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b. suddenly; atypically
c. gradually; atypically
d. atypically; suddenly
18. A disorder that comes on slowly is said to
have a(n) _______ onset.
a. acute b. chronic
c. insidious d. overt
19. When Larry was diagnosed with
schizophrenia, his family wanted to know how
the disorder would affect him and how it would
progress. In medical terms, they wanted to
know Larry's _______.
a. diagnosis b. prognosis
c. psychosocial profile d. pathology
20. Developmental psychopathology refers to
the study of changes in
a. abnormal behavior.
b. normal behavior.
c. children's behavior, both normal and
abnormal.
d. normal adolescent behavior.
21. Dr. Littlefox studies the origins and causes
of psychological disorders, including the
biological, psychological, and social
dimensions. Dr. Littlefox studies the
___________ of a disorder.
a. prognosis b. etiology
c. outcome d. psychopathology
22. At various times in history, in an attempt to
explain problematic, irrational behavior,
humans have focused on supernatural causes
that include all of the following EXCEPT
a. magnetic fields. b. demons and evil spirits.
c. bodily humors. d. the moon and stars.
23. The biological and psychological models or
theories of abnormality derived originally from
the ancient Greek concept in which the
a. mind was considered separate from the
body.
b. flow of bodily fluids affected behavior and
personality.
c. female reproductive organs were associated
with psychopathology.
d. movement of the planets influenced human
behavior.
24. The best description of the
multidimensional integrative approach to
understanding psychopathology is that it is
based on

a. biological dimensions.
b. biological and psychological dimensions.
c. biological and psychological dimensions, as
well as emotional influences.
d. biological and psychological dimensions, as
well as emotional and developmental
influences.
25. Within the multidimensional integrative
approach to understanding psychopathology,
learned helplessness is considered a(n)
______ dimension.
a. biological b. psychological
c. emotional d. psychological
26. The basis of the multidimensional
integrative approach to understanding
psychopathology is that each dimension
(psychological, biological, emotional, etc.)
a. operates independently.
b. is sufficient to cause pathology.
c. builds on the dimension that precedes it.
d. is influenced by the other dimensions.
27. Your uncle spent most of his teen years in
a hospital undergoing treatment for a severe
physical illness. As an adult, he is rather shy
and withdrawn, particularly around women. He
has been diagnosed with social phobia, which
you believe is entirely due to lack of
socialization during his teen years. Your theory
or model of what caused his phobia is
________.
a. multidimensional b. integrative
c. one-dimensional d. biological
28. According to the multidimensional
integrative approach to psychopathology, the
following statement is true for most
psychological disorders:
a. If one monozygotic twin has a particular
disorder, the other twin will definitely have the
disorder as well
b. Monozygotic twins are no more likely to
share psychological disorders than any other
siblings
c. Monozygotic twins are no more likely to
share disorders than any other two people
selected at random from the population
d. If one monozygotic twin has a particular
psychological disorder, the other twin is more
likely to have the disorder than the rest of the
population
29. Amanda is 12 years old, and her sister
Samantha is five years old. While riding in a
car with their parents, the girls witness a major
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automobile accident where a number of people
are injured. The girls react very differently to
the accident. This is probably due to
a. biological differences.
b. developmental differences.
c. psychological differences
d. sociocultural differences
30. The most accurate way to think of genes is
that they
a. set boundaries for our development.
b. determine both our physical and
psychological characteristics.
c. determine physical but not psychological
characteristics.
d. actually have very little to do with any of the
characteristics that we display.
31. Referring to behavior and personality as
polygenic means that both are
a. influenced by only a few genes, but each
has a large effect.
b. influenced by many genes, with each
individual gene contributing a relatively small
effect.
c. influenced by individual genes only rarely.
d. a result of our genetic structure only.
32. The procedures referred to as quantitative
genetics are used to
a. determines the effects of multiple genes.
b. provide genetic counseling.
c. correct genetic abnormalities.
d. test the multidimensional integrative model.
33. Most psychological disorders appear to be
influenced by many individual genes rather
than caused by one single gene, a process
referred to as ________ influence.
a. multigenic b. polygenic
c. unigenic d. morphogenic
34. Inga is a charming and intelligent young
lady who is well-liked by family and friends.
Approximately ______ of Inga’s enduring
personality traits and cognitive abilities can be
attributed to genetic influence.
a. 25% b. 50%
c. 75% d. 100%
35. The most recent estimates are that
genetics contribute approximately __________
to the development of personality
characteristics such as shyness or activity
level.
a. 10-20% b. 30-50%
c. 75-85% d. nothing

36. According to recent estimates, genetic
contributions to the development of most
psychological disorders are ______________.
a. below 50%
b. above 50%
c. different for each disorder (estimates range
from 0 to 100%)
d. nonexistent
37. Recent evidence regarding the genetic
influence on most psychological disorders has
shown that
a. single genes are usually responsible for
psychological disorders.
b. genes that influence psychopathology are
usually recessive.
c. there is no evidence that genes influence
psychopathology.
d. multiple genes interact, with each gene
contributing a small effect.
38. In the diathesis-stress model, "diathesis"
refers to
a. an inherited disorder.
b. conditions in the environment that can
trigger a disorder depending upon how severe
the stressors are.
c. an inherited tendency or condition that
makes a person susceptible to developing a
disorder.
d. the inheritance of multiple disorders.
39. In the diathesis-stress model, "stress"
refers to
a. life events, in combination with an inherited
tendency, that trigger a disorder.
b. inherited tendencies, in combination with life
events, that trigger a disorder.
c. defective genes.
d. exposure to very unusual and extreme
environmental conditions.
40. According to the diathesis-stress model,
psychopathology is the result of the
a. interaction between normal and defective or
damaged genes.
b. stress level of an individual and how stress
is managed in a person's life.
c. family history of an individual.
d. interaction of an inherited tendency and
events in a person's life.
41. According to the diathesis-stress model,
monozygotic twins raised in the same
household will
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a. not necessarily have the same disorders
because of potential differences in their
diathesis.
b. have the same disorders because their
diathesis and stress are exactly the same.
c. not necessarily have the same disorders
because of potential differences in their stress.
d. have no more likelihood of sharing a
disorder than any other two randomly selected
individuals from the population.
42. According to the diathesis-stress model,
a. mental disorders will always develop given a
certain level of stress.
b. once a diathesis for a particular disorder is
inherited, the disorder will eventually develop.
c. an individual's inherited tendencies are not
affected by stressful life events he or she
encounters.
d. it is possible to inherit a diathesis and never
develop a disorder.
43. The model that describes the development
of psychopathology as a combination of an
inherited predisposition and the events that
have occurred in the individual's life is called
_____________.
a. diathesis-stress b. genetic
c. bio-behavioral d. psychoanalytic
44. In a landmark study by Caspi et. al. (2003),
researchers studied the stressful life events
and genetics of 847 individuals. For individuals
who had at least four stressful life events, the
risk of major depression
a. remained unchanged regardless of genetic
makeup.
b. doubled if they possessed two short alleles
of the gene being studied.
c. was reduced by half if they possessed two
short alleles of the gene being studied.
d. was entirely related to the genetic makeup
and not the number of life stressors.
45. The idea that our inherited tendencies
influence the probability that we will encounter
stressful life events is a characteristic of the
_________________.
a. diathesis-stress model
b. reciprocal gene-environment model
c. genetic model
d. psycho-social model
46. John has inherited a personality trait that
makes him more likely to keep to himself than
to socialize. As a result, he does not have
many friends and spends a lot of time alone. If
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John were to develop depression, the model conclude that the brief version had _________
that would probably best explain this situation validity.
and the cause of his depression is a. concurrent b. divergent
______________. c. predictive d. excessive
a. diathesis-stress
b. biological 54. Clifton had been experiencing a number of
c. reciprocal gene-environment psychological issues, so he decided to go to a
d. interpersonal psychiatrist to see what was wrong. Dr. A told
him he had major depressive disorder. He
47. The systematic evaluation and decided to seek a second opinion. Dr. B
measurement of psychological, biological, and diagnosed him with generalized anxiety
social factors in a person with a possible disorder. Wanting yet another opinion, he went
mental disorder is known as clinical to Dr. C who told him he was obsessive-
________________. compulsive. This demonstrate poor
a. assessment b. interpretation _______________.
c. validation d. standardization a. test-retest reliability
b. concurrent validity
48. The process of determining whether an c. descriptive validity
individual's symptoms meet the criteria for a d. inter-rater reliability
specific psychological disorder is called
_____________. 55. The process of clinical assessment results
a. prognosis b. diagnosis in narrowing the focus to
c. classification d. analysis a. concentrate on problem areas that seem
most relevant.
49. The process of clinical assessment is b. consider a broad range of problems.
psychopathology has been equated to using a c. cover all possible problems.
_________ to determine the source of the d. concentrate on all problem areas equally.
problem.
a. funnel b. hose 56. In order to develop useful standards for a
c. bucket d. plow test, it is important to use a normative group
that consists of a
50. In order to be useful, assessment a. small group of people who are very similar to
techniques should be based on each other.
_______________. b. large group of people who all share a key
a. beliefs b. attitudes characteristic.
c. evidence d. assumptions c. large group of very diverse people.
d. small group that differs from the population
51. In the first interview with Frank, a patient at large.
described in the textbook, he stated that he
had been having intrusive thoughts that he 57. Which of the following is NOT one of the
tried to prevent by performing certain three basic concepts that help determine the
movements. Based on this information, you value of a psychological assessment
might predict that Frank would be diagnosed procedure?
with _____________. a. Reliability b. Subjectivity
a. major depressive disorder c. Validity d. Standardization
b. obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. a personality disorder 58. Treminitia, who had recurrent headaches,
d. schizophrenia fatigue, and loss of appetite, received different
diagnoses from several psychologists. In terms
52. A measurement which is consistent is of assessment, this indicates a problem with
considered to be _____________. _______.
a. valid b. reliable a. reliability b. subjectivity
c. standardized d. accurate c. validity d. standardization

53. If the short version of a test yields the same 59. In terms of psychological assessment,
results as a longer version, then you could which of the following describes the concept of
validity?

a. Two or more "raters" get the same answers
b. An assessment technique is consistent
across different measures
c. Scores are used as a norm for comparison
purposes
d. An assessment technique measures what it
is designed to measure
60. Mr. J., a 40-year-old recent immigrant to
the United States, comes from a working-class
background and is just learning to speak
English. He applies for a job and is given a
test. His score is compared to others who have
taken the test, mostly young college graduates
whose native language is English. Mr. J. thinks
this is unfair. In fact, this is an issue of
__________.
a. reliability b. classification
c. validity d. standardization
61. A clinical interview should be based on
information from the client’s ___________.
a. past behaviors, attitudes, and emotions
b. interpersonal and social history
c. present behaviors, attitudes, and emotions
d. all of the above
62. In trying to understand and help an
individual with a psychological problem, the
psychologist will obtain detailed information
about the person's life as part of a
_____________.
a. physical exam b. clinical interview
c. mental status exam d. brain scan
63. As part of a psychological assessment, a
mental status exam is used to find out how a
person thinks, feels, and behaves; its primary
purpose, however, is to determine
a. if a psychological disorder might be present.
b. what type of treatment should be used.
c. which medication would be most effective.
d. whether the individual also has a medical
condition.
64. Observing appearance and behavior during
a mental status exam
a. is simply done to give the appearance that
the clinician is paying attention.
b. rarely yields useful information.
c. can yield clues regarding the presence of
certain disorders.
d. may just confuse the diagnostic process.
65. In a mental status exam, a psychologist
evaluates an individual's thought processes by
a. asking the person to read aloud.
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b. listening to what the person says.
c. reading what the person has written.
d. evaluating the person's dreams.
66. When Abernathy went to a psychologist for
the first time, the clinician asked him what the
date was, what time it was, what year was it,
and where they were. Which category of a
mental status exam do these questions cover?
a. Thought processes
b. Appearance and behavior
c. Sensorium
d. Intellectual functioning
67. Determining mood and affect is an
important part of the mental status exam.
Although both of these terms refer to feeling
states of the individual, it would be correct to
say that affect is more _____________ than
mood.
a. immediate b. severe
c. problematic d. stable
68. A mental status exam covers all of the
following categories EXCEPT ___________.
a. intellectual functioning
b. appearance
c. behavior
d. physical symptoms
69. In regard to a mental status exam, which of
the following questions is NOT related to the
concept of sensorium?
a. What is today's date?
b. Where are you?
c. Who are you?
d. How old are you?
70. In a mental status exam, it is important to
determine if the individual's sensorium is clear
and if he/she is "oriented times three." This
refers to
a. person, place, and time.
b. day, month, and year of birth
c. ability to follow directions.
d. spatial orientation.
71. Which of the following characterizes the
mood-state known as anxiety?
a. Positive mood state
b. Reduced heart rate
c. Apprehension about the future
d. Muscle relaxation
72. Anxiety is closely related to which of the
following psychological disorders?
a. Schizophrenia b. Depression
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c. Dementia d. Psychosis
80. Which of the following is NOT a basic type
73. People tend to have their best performance of panic attack?
on tasks when they are ___________. a. Expected b. Unexpected
a. very anxious b. not anxious at all c. Cued d. Situation inevitable
c. a little anxious d. fearful
81. Mrs. Pan has an anxiety disorder in which
74. When people experience severe anxiety, she has occasional panic attacks when
they shopping at the mall. This type of panic attack
a. often know it is irrational, but can’t help it. is referred to as _______________.
b. usually are able to just "turn off" those a. uncued b. diathesis-originated
feelings. c. cued d. situationally premeditated
c. often experience a break with reality.
d. don't recognize that the feelings are, in fact, 82. Which type of panic attack is most closely
anxiety. related to phobias?
a. Situationally predisposed
75. Which of the following is an accurate b. Expected
statement about anxiety? c. Unexpected
a. An inherited tendency can make us tense or d. Uncued
uptight.
b. A single gene makes us vulnerable to 83. Hideki was attending his fifth baseball
anxiety. game at Condor Stadium, where he had
c. Panic disorder does not "run in families." previously had a panic attack. He did not know
d. Stress is a direct cause of panic disorder. if he would have a panic attack today, but
shortly after entering the stadium, he did. This
76. According to Jeffrey Gray, a British type of panic attack is ____________.
neuropsychologist, the behavioral inhibition a. environmentally predisposed
system (BIS) is activated by danger signals b. situationally bound
___________, resulting in the experience of c. cued
anxiety. d. uncued
a. ascending from the brain stem
b. descending from the cortex 84. The behavioral inhibition system is
c. arising from the brain stem or descending activated by signals from the _____________.
from the cortex a. brain stem b. hypothalamus
d. within the amygdala only c. hippocampus d. cerebellum
77. Members of the Falcons High School
senior class will have an increased risk of 85. Stressful life events - such as marriage,
developing anxiety disorders if they divorce, familial death, or academic pressures -
a. smoke marijuana more than once per week. trigger our vulnerabilities to anxiety. These are
b. smoke 20 or more cigarettes daily. examples of a ______________ contribution.
c. drink alcohol every day. a. psychological b. biological
d. use anabolic steroids for 6 months or more. c. social d. cultural

78. According to Gray and Mcaughton (1996), 86. Having an anxiety disorder increases the
the fight-or-flight system is partially activated risk of ______________.
by deficiencies in the neurotransmitter a. depression b. migraines
_______ in the brain. c. suicidal ideation d. all of the above
a. serotonin b. dopamine
c. acetylcholine d. norepinephrine 87. Which of the following terms is most
associated with generalized anxiety disorder
79. "I've got to get out of here right now, or I (GAD)?
may not make it!" This statement is most likely a. Fear b. Panic
to be said by someone experiencing a(n) c. Worry d. Emotion
a. episode of depression.
b. future-oriented mood state. 88. Evidence now suggests that agoraphobic
c. fear reaction. avoidance behavior is one component of
d. parasympathetic "surge."

a. exaggerated obsessive-compulsive disorder.
b. major phobias.
c. severe, unexpected panic attacks.
d. mild generalized anxiety disorder.
89. Panic attack studies suggest that men
a. simply endure panic attacks better than
women.
b. don’t experience panic attacks.
c. mask panic attacks with depression.
d. consume alcohol to deal with panic attacks.
90. In treating panic disorder, all of the
following types of medications are used
EXCEPT ________.
a. SNRIs b. SSRIs
c. opiates d. benzodiazepines
91. In the type of specific phobia called "blood-
injury-injection," there is an inherited vasovagal
response and a tendency to faint due to
a. an increase in blood pressure.
b. a decrease in blood pressure.
c. an increase in body temperature.
d. a decrease in body temperature.
92. The setting for posttraumatic stress
disorder to occur follows an experience
accompanied by a triad of feelings, including all
of the following EXCEPT _______.
a. horror b. paranoia
c. helplessness d. fear
93. All of the following are classified as somatic
symptom and related disorders EXCEPT
a. dissociative identity disorder.
b. factitious disorder
c. conversion disorder.
d. illness anxiety disorder.
94. The common aspect of all somatic
symptom disorders is a maladaptive or
excessive
a. belief that a serious medical condition will
cause death.
b. belief that one's appearance is ugly.
c. response to physical or associated health
symptoms.
d. concern with the meaning of a physical pain.
95. Although it's name has changed from DSM-
IV to DSM-5, hypochondriasis is essentially an
emotional disturbance triggered by
a. physical pathology.
b. misinterpretation of normal physical
sensations.
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c. social concerns.
d. severe or unusual physical sensations.
96. Paradoxically, an effective treatment for
somatic symptom disorder and illness anxiety
disorder involves helping the patient to focus
on
a. creating their own symptoms.
b. ignoring their own symptoms.
c. getting reassurance about their symptoms.
d. understanding other life stressors.
97. With regard to the treatment of illness
anxiety disorder and somatic symptom
disorder, some research supports the use of
__________.
a. conditioning
b. psychoanalysis
c. cognitive-behavioral treatment and stress
reduction
d. humanistic therapy
98. One method that is used to reduce the
financial burden associated with somatic
symptom disorder is ____________.
a. psychoanalysis
b. encouraging patients to speak to family and
friends about their symptoms
c. exposure therapy
d. assignment of a gatekeeper physician
99. Joe injured his back at work several years
ago. Although he was treated and considered
healed by his physicians, he still complains of
severe and debilitating back pain. Other than
some minor scar tissue, his doctors can't find
anything that could be causing more than
some minor stiffness. It appears that Joe might
be diagnosed with _________________.
a. conversion disorder
b. depersonalization/derealization disorder
c. somatic symptom disorder with predominant
pain
d. illness anxiety disorder
100. George has completely lost his sight
during the past year, but medical experts can
find no physical reason for his blindness. This
could be an example of _______________.
a. somatization disorder
b. hypochondriasis
c. conversion disorder
d. dissociative disorder
101. Which of the following statements is
TRUE about factitious disorders?

a. Fortunately, the disorder does not seem to
extend to other members of
the family.
b. The symptoms are under involuntary control.
c. There is no obvious reason for voluntarily
producing symptoms.
The symptoms lead to a splintering off of one's
identity into several
“subpersonalities."
102. A person who fakes symptoms for a goal
is called a _________, while a person who
fakes a disease for no clear goal has a
________disorder:
a. malingerer; factitious
b. conversion disorder patient; malingering
c. fictitious disorder patient; conversion
d. hypochondriac; factitious
103. A mother who repeatedly seeks medical
treatment for her child’s unusual illness and is
overly involved in the child’s treatment might
need to be assessed for _____________.
a. factitious disorder imposed on another
b. malingering
c. conversion disorder
d. illness phobia
104. Depersonalization is defined as
a. altered perception including loss of the
sense of one's own reality.
b. altered perception involving loss of the
sense of reality of the external world.
c. vivid hallucinations.
d. the feeling that one is no longer a person.
105. Jason suddenly notices that the world
looks weird to him. Some objects look bigger
than normal and others look smaller. Cars
passing by seem oddly shaped and people
appear dead or mechanical. Joe is
experiencing ________.
a. derealization
b. depersonalization
c. classic early psychosis symptoms
d. mania
106. Losing your own sense of reality is called
______________.
a. depersonalization
b. a fugue state
c. a trance state
d. a dissociative disorder
107. In dissociative fugue, the term fugue
relates to ________________.
a. confusion
9
b. flight or travel
c. loss of consciousness
d. hallucination
108. An alter is
a. a separate identity experienced by someone
with dissociative identity disorder.
b. a new identity created by someone with
dissociative fugue.
c. a new identity created by someone with
generalized amnesia.
d. a physical symptom with no physical cause
experienced by someone with
somatic symptom disorder.
109. In studies conducted by Elizabeth Loftus
and her colleagues (Loftus, 2003; Loftus,
Coan, and Pickrell, 1996), individuals were told
about false events that had supposedly
occurred when they were children. The results
of this study indicated that
a. people cannot be convinced of events that
did not happen.
b. people can become quite convinced of
events that never happened.
c. only individuals with diagnosable disorders
can be convinced of events that never
happened.
d. people can become convinced of events that
did not happen only
during hypnosis or other dissociative states.
110. According to the autohypnotic model,
people who are suggestible may be
a. able to create false memories to ease their
trauma.
b. able to use dissociation as a defense
against extreme trauma.
c. able to remember the trauma that created
the false memories.
d. unable to switch at will.
111. Some theorists suggest that dissociative
identity disorder is an extreme subtype of
___________.
a. dissociative amnesia
b. obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. posttraumatic stress disorder
d. antisocial personality disorder
112. The causes of dissociative identity
disorder appear to be _____________.
a. physical abuse
b. sexual abuse
c. witness to a traumatic event
d. all of these
 10

113. Without treatment, it is expected that DID 121. The most usual pattern of a temporal
will last ___________. specifier in major depressive disorder occurs in
a. 10 years b. a lifetime the late fall and ends with the beginning of
c. several months d. 20 years spring. This type of depression is known as
__________.
114. The average length of time between an a. melancholic
individual's first symptoms of DID and the b. recurrent
identification and diagnosis of the disorder by a c. postpartum
professional is _____________. d. seasonal affective disorder
a. one year b. 20 years
c. less than a month d. seven years 122. Which of the following statements applies
115. Dissociative identity disorder is most to the condition known as seasonal affective
commonly found in ______________. disorder (SAD)?
a. females b. males a. Women with SAD reported more
c. children d. the elderly autonomous negative thoughts throughout the
year than women without SAD.
116. Dissociative identity disorder tends to be b. SAD can be treated with phototherapy, i.e.,
associated with _________________. 2 hours of exposure to bright light just before
a. child abuse going to sleep.
b. multiple psychological disorders c. People with SAD have symptoms of
c. dissociation decreased sleep and decreased appetite.
d. all of these d. Depression in vulnerable people might be
triggered by decreased production of the
117. In dissociative identity disorder, the hormone called melatonin.
transition from one personality to another is
called a ___________. 123. Andy is currently completing a chemical
a. transformation b. substitution formula that he knows will cure cancer. Shortly
c. switch d. alteration before, he had submitted a book to a publisher
and was sure that it would become a
118. The physical symptoms of a major bestseller. For several weeks prior to this, he
depressive disorder include was bedridden, morose, had no energy, and
a. changes in appetite or weight. lacked any spontaneity. He never left his bed
b. decreased ability to concentrate. and had to be cared for by his family. Andy's
c. increased energy. diagnosis is ________________.
d. decreased self-esteem a. major depressive disorder
b. persistent depressive disorder
119. The first episode of major depression is c. bipolar I disorder
usually time-limited - often lasting up to d. bipolar II disorder
________ - if left untreated.
a. 3 months b. 6 months 124. Recent evidence indicates a higher level
c. 9 months d. 1 year of ___________ in patients with bipolar
53. When used in connection with mood disorder that was marked by a rapid cycling
disorders, "flight of ideas" means pattern compared to those with a non-rapid
a. anxiety about airplane travel. cycling pattern.
b. rapid speech expressing many exciting a. treatment response
ideas at once. b. resistance to treatment
c. limited imagination reflected in a slow way of c. medication side effects
speaking. d. suicide
d. repression of all creative ideas.
125. At various times, Cynthia, a 20-year-old
120. Unipolar mania college student, has been considered by her
a. does not exist. family and/or friends to be moody, high-strung,
b. is rare. explosive, or hyperactive. She never fails to
c. is fairly common. take care of her responsibilities, but the fact
d. is a part of bipolar disorder. that she seems to experience mood swings
that are outside the norm has been noticed by
those around her. Knowing the criteria for
 11

mood disorders, you would diagnose Cynthia 132. All of the following are side effects of
with ___________. lithium therapy EXCEPT ____________.
a. major depressive disorder a. lowered thyroid functioning
b. panic disorder b. weight loss
c. persistent depressive disorder c. toxicity
d. cyclothymic disorder d. lack of energy

126. Recent research suggests that 133. Side effects of the tricyclic
social and psychological explanations seem to antidepressants include _______________.
account for factors that contribute to both a. weight loss
anxiety and depression. b. excessive urination
a. for mania, the biological vulnerability may c. sexual dysfunction
not be specific to that disorder. d. diarrhea
b. the same genetic factors contribute to both
c. c. anxiety and depression. 134. Which of the following is perhaps the
d. All of the above best-known and widely used SSRI medication?
a. Prozac b. Valium
127. In regard to most disorders, serotonin is c. Hypericum d. Thorazine
thought to
a. function independently of other 135. Which of the following factors contribute
neurotransmitters. to the integrative theory of depression?
b. regulate other neurotransmitters, such as a. Stressful life events
norepinephrine and dopamine. b. Stress hormones
c. be unrelated to symptoms. c. Neurotransmitter systems
d. none of the above d. All of these

128. Stressful events are strongly related to the 136. The chief motivating factor in both
onset of ____________. anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa is
a. depression b. bipolar disorder a. a desire to purge.
c. both d. neither b. an overwhelming drive to eat.
c. an overwhelming urge to be thin.
129. Impulsive suicidal behavior is often a d. a desire to starve oneself.
symptom of _____________ personality
disorder. 137. The strongest contributions to etiology of
a. schizoid b. borderline eating disorders seem to be _________.
c. obsessive-compulsive d. paranoid a. genetic b. psychological
c. somatogenic d. sociocultural
130. Statistics on suicide indicate that
approximately one-quarter to one-half of all 138. After engaging in an extended session of
suicides are associated with _____________. binge eating, Thomas goes to the bathroom
a. alcohol use b. guns and makes himself vomit. He thinks that he has
c. aggression d. work stress removed all of the food he consumed from his
stomach, but in fact he will only have removed
130. Research has found that low serotonin around _____ percent of the calories he
levels may be implicated in suicidal behavior consumed.
because they affect all of the following a. one-third b. one-quarter
EXCEPT _______. c. one-half d. two-thirds
a. impulsivity b. instability
c. agnosia d. overreactivity 139. People with bulimia nervosa often present
with additional psychological disorders,
131. A relative of yours has been diagnosed particularly ________ and ________.
with bipolar disorder. Your family is impressed body dysmorphic disorder; substance disorders
when you mention that the preferred drug for b. mood disorders; sexual disorders
this condition is ________. c. anxiety disorders; mood disorders
a. Prozac b. St. John's Wort d. obsessive compulsive disorder; sexual
c. an anticonvulsant d. lithium disorders

140. Recent research (Eddy, et al., 2002)
suggests that the restricting and
bingeing/purging subtypes of anorexia nervosa
a. are really different disorders.
b. have completely different causes.
c. show few differences in severity of
symptoms.
d. are useless distinctions of the same
disorder.
141. Which of the following diagnoses would
require the noticeable loss of weight?
a. Anorexia nervosa
b. Bulimia nervosa
c. Binge-eating disorder
d. Body dysmorphic disorder
142. The males most likely to develop an
eating disorder such as bulimia nervosa are
those who are _________.
a. overweight b. depressed
c. homosexual d. only children
143. Studies have found that adolescent girls
of which race/ethnicity had less body
dissatisfaction, fewer weight concerns, and a
more positive body image when compared to
Caucasian adolescent girls?
a. African Americans b. Hispanics
c. Native Americans d. Asians
144. Studies suggest that young males would
often prefer to be ____________ than they are.
a. thinner b. heavier
c. taller d. shorter
145. When men are asked to identify the ideal
male body, they typically select a body weight
that is about
a. equal to their own.
b. 28 pounds more muscular than their own.
c. equal to the average male of their age.
d. 15 pounds lighter than their own.
146. The most important and immediate goal in
the treatment of a patient with anorexia
nervosa is ________________.
a. family acceptance of the problem
b. weight gain
c. balanced diet
d. resolution of family issues
147. Bariatric surgery is
a. effective at any weight.
b. more successful than dieting for the
treatment of the very obese.
12
c. less successful than diet for the very obese.
d. always successful.
149. Sleep research suggests that
a. REM sleep is related to depression.
b. sleep abnormalities follow clinical
depression.
c. sleep problems don’t predict who is at risk
for later mood disorders.
d. sleep deprivation has permanent
antidepressant effects on some people.
150. Individuals who feel tired and cranky all
day despite falling asleep at a normal hour and
awakening at their usual time are most likely
suffering from a(n) _____________.
a. parasomnia
b. dyssomnia
c. type of REM sleep deprivation
d. anxiety problem
151. The most comprehensive evaluation of
sleep is performed by a(n) ______________
evaluation.
a. polysomnographic
b. actigraphic
c. electromyographic
d. electroencephalographic
152. While a patient sleeps, a
polysomnographic evaluation collects data on
all of the following characteristics EXCEPT
_________.
a. respiration b. muscle movements
c. brain waves d. metabolic rate
153. As we grow older, it seems that the
amount of sleep that we require __________.
a. decreases
b. increases
c. stays the same
d. decreases until early adulthood and then
begins to increase again
154. Sam sleeps for 8 or more hours every
night but never feels rested. He can't
understand why he is always tired despite the
fact that he reports no difficulties with the
quality or quantity of his sleep. Of the following,
Sam's most likely diagnosis is ____________.
a. hypersomnolence disorder
b. sleep apnea
c. narcolepsy
d. non-specific parasomnia

155. In which of the following situations is Bill,
who has narcolepsy, most likely to experience
cataplexy?
a. Immediately upon waking up after a long,
restful sleep
b. At any random moment
c. Under hypnosis
d. While jumping up and cheering for his
favorite team
156. Which of the following conditions is
thought to be a potential explanation for UFO
experiences?
a. Sleep paralysis b. Cataplexy
c. Hypnagogic hallucinations d. Sleep apnea
157. According to the text, some of the major
contributing factors to illness and death in the
United States are currently
a. viral and bacterial.
b. behavioral and psychological.
c. neurological and endocrinological.
d. pharmacological and hormonal.
158. Knowledge derived from the behavioral
sciences applied to the prevention, diagnosis,
and treatment of medical problems is called
a. health psychology.
b. behavioral medicine.
c. psychophysiological disorders.
d. psychosomatic medicine.
159. Health psychology, a subfield of
behavioral medicine, focuses on all of the
following EXCEPT
a. promotion and maintenance of health.
b. health policy formation.
c. improvements in healthcare systems.
d. psychosomatic effects on health.
160. According to the principles of health
psychology, which of the following is the best
protection against acquiring AIDS?
a. Getting an injection of the AIDS vaccine
b. Being treated for HIV before it develops into
AIDS
c. Changing risky behaviors that can lead to
disease acquisition
d. Deciding to be sexually abstinent after years
of being sexually active
161. Research has shown that increased levels
of cortisol in response to stress may cause
damage to parts of the _________________.
a. skeletal system b. brain
c. lungs d. stomach
13
162. Research has shown that excessive
secretion of the stress hormone cortisol can
result in cell death in the hippocampal region of
the brain in cases of ____________________.
a. substance abuse
b. mania
c. posttraumatic stress disorder
d. AIDS
163. Whether or not stress and/or anxiety
develop in a stressful situation appears to be
related to one's perceived sense of
________________.
a. happiness b. excitement
c. control d. acceptance
164. B cells are associated with ________
immunity, while T cells are associated with
______ immunity:
a. humoral; memory
b. humoral; cellular
c. cellular; humoral
d. vascular; suppressor
165. Too many T4 (helper) cells can result in
a. an autoimmune disease.
b. diminished antibody responses.
c. long-term immune activity.
d. diminished immune functions.
166. Group psychotherapy for cancer patients
tends to
a. reduce recovery times.
b. increase survival times.
c. affect mental but not physical health. d. cure
cancer.
167. Unhealthy and/or risky behaviors that
impact directly on the cardiovascular system
may contribute to
a. strokes and high blood pressure only.
b. coronary heart disease only.
c. strokes, high blood pressure, and coronary
heart disease.
d. reduced immunity to autoimmune diseases.
168. Essential hypertension refers to
a. the need to hold blood pressure levels
constant.
b. hypertension caused by a disease.
c. hypertension caused by pregnancy.
d. hypertension with no verifiable physical
cause.
168. Gregor has just learned that his spouse of
28 years has died in an automobile accident.
Upon hearing the news, Gregor collapsed and

was rushed to the hospital in apparent heart
failure. Gregor probably suffered
a. myocardial infarction.
b. tranischemic attack.
c. angina pectoris.
d. myocardial stunning.
169. People who experience phantom limb
pain
a. have lost an arm or a leg.
b. can describe in exquisite detail the exact
location and type of pain.
c. experience changes in the sensory cortex of
the brain.
d. all of the above
170. The development of chronic fatigue
syndrome is associated with
a. an extremely stressful life event.
b. over exercise.
c. achievement-oriented lifestyles.
d. a tendency to minimize pain.
171. All of the following are psychosocial
treatments that have been developed for
physical disorders and pain EXCEPT
______________.
a. biofeedback b. meditation
c. relaxation procedures d. acupuncture
172. The procedure known as biofeedback
involves a process by which a person is first
helped to become aware of his/her
________________.
a. physiological functions
b. psychological state of mind
c. negative thoughts
d. level of pain
173. Although the improvement is only
moderate, relaxation techniques have been
shown to have a positive effect on
_______________.
a. headaches
b. hypertension (high blood pressure)
c. pain
d. all of these
174. Studies of pain suggest that people who
are optimistic
a. use denial to cope.
b. use wishful thinking to manage.
c. deal with pain directly.
d. avoid treatment.
175. The leading preventable cause of death is
______________.
14
a. smoking
b. cirrhosis of the lever (from alcoholism)
c. poisoning
d. accidents
176. According to recent surveys, the following
statement is true regarding sexual activity of
the elderly:
a. very few individuals remain sexually active
beyond age 70.
b. more than half of the individuals over age 70
remain sexually active.
c. 80% of males and 50% of women aged 75-
79 remained sexually active
d. 38.5% of males and 16.7% of women aged
75-85 remained sexually active.
177. The largest difference in sexual behavior
for men versus women is that
a. men are more likely to engage in premarital
sex.
b. women are more likely to engage in
premarital sex.
c. men are more likely to masturbate.
d. women are more likely to masturbate.
178. Research regarding sexual orientation
suggests that homosexuality is
a. purely genetic.
b. that sexual orientation has an exclusively
biological cause.
c. based on learning and choice only.
d. influenced by biological/genetic,
psychological, and social factors.
179. Which of the following is NOT one of the
three stages of sexual response?
a. Desire b. Arousal
c. Orgasm d. Refractory period
180. Sexual dysfunction can be a(n)
_______________ condition.
a. lifelong b. acquired
c. situational d. all of the above
181. A person who suffers from a disorder of
sexual desire may
a. never think about sex.
b. never have sex
c. have sex (even frequently), but not because
of desire.
d. all of the above
182. The main feature of sexual arousal
disorders is
a. lack of desire for sex despite normal
physical sexual response.
 15

b. sexual arousal to inappropriate stimuli. a. graphology

c. the experience of pain during sex. b. parapsychology
d. lack of physical sexual response despite c. astronomy
d. astrology
desire for sex.
189. Until the 1970s, hysterical disorders were
183. The prevalence of sexual arousal diagnosed only in women. In fact, the term
disorders appears to be "hysteria" derives from the Greek hysteron,
a. much higher for men than it is for women. which means ___________.
b. much lower for men than it is for women. a. ovary
c. about the same in both sexes. b. uterus
c. pregnancy
d. slightly lower for men than it is for women.
d. vagina

184. Jody and Howard have been happily
married for several years. Howard reports that
in spite of being sexually aroused and having
an erection, he only reaches orgasm from
intercourse about half of the time. Howard
wonders if something is "wrong" with him.
Howard should
a. seek treatment for inhibited orgasm disorder.
b. realize that this problem means that he does
not really love his wife.
c. relax and realize that this is normal.
d. seek treatment for sexual aversion disorder.
185. One reason that it is difficult to provide a
precise diagnosis of premature ejaculation is
that
a. the concept of "too soon" is dependent on
the individual and the couple.
b. most men are too ashamed to admit the
problem.
c. women generally are reluctant to tell their
partners of the problem.
d. men are often unaware of what is
considered "normal."
186. A psychological dysfunction refers to
a. a breakdown in cognitive functioning.
b. a breakdown in emotional functioning.
c. a breakdown in behavioral functioning.
d. all of these
187. In regard to the criteria that define
abnormality, it would be correct to state that
a. no one criterion has yet been developed that
fully defines abnormality.
b. personal distress is the one criterion that
defines abnormality.
c. the criteria differ depending on the cause of
the psychological disorder.
d. the criteria differ depending on whether the
individual has a psychological disorder or a
psychological dysfunction.
188. The historic belief that the movements
and/or positions of the moon, stars, and
planets influence human behavior is still held
by followers of the pseudoscience called
_____________.
190. You are listening to old musical tunes,
including "My Melancholy Baby." Your friends
are impressed when you tell them that
"melancholic," referring to a depressive
personality, derives from a Greek word
meaning _________.
a. blood
b. phlegm
c. yellow bile
d. black bile
191. The treatment given to the mentally ill
King Charles VI of France showed that the
causes of his disorder were attributed to
______________ phenomena.
a. natural
b. supernatural
c. both natural and supernatural
d. neither natural nor supernatural
192. In terms of their typical course,
schizophrenia follows a chronic course, while
mood disorders, including depression, follow
a(n) _____________ course.
a. episodic
b. time-limited
c. guarded
d. insidious
193. The biological and psychological models
or theories of abnormality derived originally
from the ancient Greek concept in which the
a. mind was considered separate from the
body.
b. flow of bodily fluids affected behavior and
personality.
c. female reproductive organs were associated
with psychopathology.
d. movement of the planets influenced human
behavior.
194. In an attempt to rid the body of the
excessive humors thought to be causing
psychological disorders, physicians throughout
history have used treatments such as
________.
a. bloodletting
b. induced seizures
c. exorcism
d. drilling through the skull

195. During the Middle Ages, as well as at
other times, mentally ill people were
sometimes forced to undergo the religious
ritual called exorcism in order to
a. cure the mental illness by making the
individual more religious.
b. build up muscle strength and make the
person healthier.
c. rid the individual`s body of evil spirits.
d. prove that the person was not a witch.
196. The typical profile or prototype of a
disorder reflects the ___________ as
described in DSM-IV.
a. theoretical perspectives on abnormality
b. treatments for mental disorders
c. causes of mental illness
d. diagnostic criteria for psychological
disorders
197. Dr. Littlefox studies the origins and
causes of psychological disorders, including
the biological, psychological, and social
dimensions. Dr. Littlefox studies the
___________ of a disorder.
a. prognosis
b. etiology
c. outcome
d. psychopathology
198. A psychological disorder is said to have
an acute onset if the symptoms develop
__________, while it has an insidious onset if
the symptoms develop __________ .
a. suddenly; gradually
b. suddenly; atypically
c. gradually; atypically
d. atypically; suddenly
199. Based on Hippocrates' humoral theory,
"sanguine" describes a person who is
________.
a. pessimistic
b. pale
c. cheerful
d. humorous
200. In ancient Greece, "humoral excesses"
thought to be causing psychological disorders
were treated by
a. increasing or decreasing the person`s
exposure to heat, dryness, moisture, or cold.
b. herbal remedies.
c. decreasing both caloric and liquid intake.
d. lowering the person`s body temperature for
extended periods of time.
201. Somatoform disorders, a current DSM-IV
classification that evolved from the concept of
"hysteria," affect
a. adult males only.
b. adult females only.
c. both males and females of any age.
d. children only.
16
202. In the 1930s, when insulin shock therapy
was deemed too risky as a treatment for
mental disorder, __________________ began
to be used instead.
a. bromides
b. electroconvulsive therapy
c. megavitamin therapy
d. moral therapy
203. Induced vomiting was a 17th century
treatment for depression. As described in
Anatomy of Melancholy (1621), this could be
accomplished by eating _________.
a. raw meat
b. ice
c. coal
d. tobacco
204. In keeping with an accepted treatment for
mental illness in the 14th century, a physician
treating King Charles VI of France had him
moved to the countryside in order to
a. be closer to a hospital that treated mental
illness.
b. keep him away from his family.
c. restore the balance in his humors.
d. cure him of hysteria.
205. Developmental psychopathology refers to
the study of changes in
a. abnormal behavior.
b. normal behavior.
c. children`s behavior, both normal and
abnormal.
d. normal adolescent behavior.
206. According to the authors of your textbook,
the definition of a psychological disorder is
associated with ___________.
a. stress
b. impaired functioning
c. culturally expected responses
d. psychotic symptoms
207. A male college student begins feeling sad
and lonely. Although still able to go to classes
and work at his job, he finds himself feeling
down much of the time and worrying about
what is happening to him. Which part of the
definition of abnormality applies to his
situation?
a. Personal distress
b. Cultural factors
c. Impaired functioning
d. Violation of societal norms
208. One hot and humid night, one of your
friends suggests doing some really crazy
things. You look up at the sky and say, "It must
be the full moon." Your statement reflects the
concept from which the word ____________ is
derived.
a. lunatic
b. idiot
c. maniac

d. psychopath
209. During the Middle Ages, groups of people
would suddenly exhibit bizarre behavior such
as running out into the street, dancing,
shouting, and jumping around. This was known
as _________.
a. tarantism
b. lycanthropy
c. demonic possession
d. the chicken dance
210. After college graduation, two of your
friends are interested in careers in the helping
professions. Anna wants to become a
psychiatrist; Carl plans on becoming a
psychologist. Since you are taking a course in
Abnormal Psychology, they ask you for career
advice. You would tell
a. Anna to apply to medical school and Carl to
study psychology at the graduate level.
b. Carl to apply to medical school and Anna to
study psychology at the graduate level.
c. both of them to apply to medical school.
d. both of them to apply to graduate school.
211. Bloodletting, a treatment devised
centuries ago to restore the balance of humors,
was accomplished with the use of _________.
a. needles
b. leeches
c. tourniquets
d. bacteria
212. Toward the end of the 14th century and
continuing into the 15th century, the causes of
"madness" were generally attributed to
a. toxins in the blood.
b. religious delusions.
c. brain disease.
d. demons and witches.
213. The traditional tendency to stigmatize
women as "hysterical" derived from
Hippocrates' concept of ____________.
a. the `wandering uterus`
b. an `incompetent cervix`
c. `penis envy`
d. `pelvic dysfunction`
214. Since the time of ancient Greece, the
concept of a psyche or soul was similar to that
of the _______.
a. brain
b. mind
c. body
d. blood
215. The concept of hysteria, which
traditionally meant physical symptoms for
which no organic pathology could be found, is
now associated with which DSM-IV
classification?
a. Anxiety disorders
b. Neurosis
17
c. PMS
d. Somatoform disorders
216. The first significant supporting evidence
for a biological cause of a mental disorder was
the 19th century discovery that the psychotic
disorder called general paresis was caused by
the same bacterial microorganism that causes
__________.
a. malaria
b. Alzheimer`s disease
c. syphilis
d. hysteria
217. When Larry was diagnosed with
schizophrenia, his family wanted to know how
the disorder would affect him and how it would
progress. In medical terms, they wanted to
know Larry's _______.
a. diagnosis
b. prognosis
c. psychosocial profile
d. pathology
218. A disorder that comes on slowly is said to
have a(n) _______ onset.
a. acute
b. chronic
c. insidious
d. overt
219. A ___________ is what first brought the
individual to therapy; the ____________
represents the unique combination of
behaviors, thoughts, and feelings that make up
a specific disorder.
a. diagnosis; symptoms
b. incidence, prevalence
c. clinical description; presenting problem
d. presenting problem; clinical description
220. Behaviors that deviate from the norm are
a. always seen as a disorder if they violate
social norms.
b. considered a disorder regardless of culture.
c. typically seen as a disorder when they impair
function.
d. never judged on the basis of the person who
does them.
221. Rocky Starr is a rocker who wears
outlandish female makeup and women’s
clothing when performing on stage. This
behavior is considered
a. more abnormal than that of a business man
who suddenly starts to do so.
b. less abnormal than that of the business man
because it contributes to his job success.
c. less abnormal than that of a female who
wears makeup every day.
d. just as abnormal as that of the business man
who starts wearing makeup.
222. Incidence refers to
a. how many people in the population as a
whole have a disorder.

b. how many new cases of a disorder occur
during a given period of time.
c. the percentage of males and females who
have a disorder.
d. how many people have recovered from a
disorder in a given period of time.
223. At various times in history, in an attempt
to explain problematic, irrational behavior,
humans have focused on supernatural causes
that include all of the following EXCEPT
a. magnetic fields.
b. demons and evil spirits.
c. bodily humors.
d. the moon and stars.
224. The criterion that a particular behavior be
atypical or not culturally expected is insufficient
to define abnormality because
a. behavior that occurs infrequently is
considered abnormal in every culture.
b. society is less willing to tolerate eccentricity
in people who are productive.
c. behaviors vary very little from one culture to
another.
d. many people behave in ways that deviate
from the average, but this doesn`t mean that
they have a disorder.
225. In the 19th century, John Gray, a well-
known psychiatrist in the US, believed that
mental illness was due to ____________.
a. psychological factors
b. physical causes
c. social/environmental influences
d. unknown influences
226. Which of the following is NOT one of the
causes of psychopathology suggested by the
Greek physician Hippocrates (400 BC)?
a. Head injury
b. Brain pathology
c. Genetics
d. Spirit possession
227. Dr. Okalemi Watabe is a mental health
practioner. All of the following are ways in
which she might function as a scientist-
practitioner EXCEPT
a. analyzing her own motivations and reasons
for helping people with psychological problems.
b. evaluating her own assessments and
treatments for effectiveness.
c. conducting research leading to new
information about mental disorders and their
treatments.
d. using the most current diagnostic and
treatment procedures.
228. Statistical data are often relevant when
discussing psychological disorders. For
example, a researcher might want to know how
many new cases of depression are diagnosed
each year, a figure called the ___________ of
the disorder.
18
a. prevalence
b. incidence
c. recurrence
d. ratio
229. According to Hippocrates' humoral theory,
the "choleric" personality is ________.
a. hot-tempered
b. easygoing
c. kind
d. cheap
230. The scientific study of psychological
disorders is called __________.
a. psychopathology
b. psychoanalysis
c. pseudoscience
d. parapsychology
231. The significance of the cure for syphilis
was that
a. physicians were correct in prescribing rest
and relaxation.
b. all forms of “madness” now had a cure.
c. Paralysis was now curable.
d. behavioral and cognitive symptoms were
traced to a curable infection.
232. The belief of homophobic people that the
"sin" of homosexuality has resulted in
HIV/AIDS is related to the historical concept of
______________ as a cause of madness.
a. divine punishment
b. faith healing
c. hysteria
d. sorcery
233. Prevalence refers to
a. how many people in the population as a
whole have a disorder.
b. how many new cases of a disorder occur
during a given period of time.
c. the percentage of males and females who
have a disorder.
d. how many people have recovered from a
disorder in a given period of time.
234. In ancient Greece, a woman suffering
from "hysteria" might be told that her condition
could be cured by ________.
a. marriage
b. pregnancy
c. childbirth
d. divorce
235. Which of the following accurately
describes common beliefs about people with
psychological disorders during the
14thcentury?
a. They were considered to be suffering from
religious delusions and were cared for by
members of the church communities.
b. They were seen as possessed by evil spirits
and blamed for all misfortunes.

c. They were regarded as basically good
individuals who were not responsible for their
abnormal behavior.
d. They were provided with medical treatments
and sometimes hospitalized because mental
illness was regarded as equivalent to physical
illness.
236. Which is not true about abnormal
psychology?
a. It is concerned with describing the abnormal
and then coming up with psychodiagnosis.
b. It is concerned with developing new theories
about the relationship of behavior and mind.
c) It is concerned with explaining human nature
using different theoretical perspectives.
d) It is concerned with the future outcome of
abnormal behavior.
237. Which of the following is not true about
abnormal behavior?
a) Deviation from the optimal is one criterion
for abnormality.
b) The statistical criterion defines abnormality
as those behaviors that are frequent.
c) Both are correct
d) None is correct
Which of the following is true about the
multicultural perspectives of abnormality?
a) All normal behaviors but not abnormal
behaviors originate from a cultural context.
b) It is reflected in the two cultural perspectives
for explaining abnormality: cultural universality,
and cultural relativism.
c) All behaviors, both normal and abnormal,
originate from cultural context.
d) Biological origins of behavior are given more
importance than interpersonal factors.
They are trained in much the same way as
clinical psychologists, but they treat less
serious problems.
a) Social workers
b) Psychometricians
c) Psychiatrists
d) Counseling psychologists
Edward avoids interacting with other people for
fear of being criticized, embarrassed, or
humiliated. He is a Law student so this trait is
giving him a lot of problems. What disorder
does Edward possibly have?
a) Social Phobia
b) Specific Phobia
c) PTSD
d) GAD
For the past eight months Emily has been
unrealistically worrying about so many things,
even little trivial things in her daily routine. She
is anxious all day, from the time she wakes up
until she is about to sleep. What disorder does
Emily possibly have?
a) Social Phobia
19
b) Specific Phobia
c) PTSD
d) GAD
Which of the following is not true regarding the
causation of PTSD?
a) Social Theory states that PTSD is caused by
fears acquired from the brutality of social
catastrophes.
b) The behavioral model proposes that
conditioning and avoidance learning play roles
in the acquisition and maintenance of PTSD.
c) Biological explanations of PTSD explain that
a permanent impact on the nervous system
occurs after a life-threatening experience.
d) Cognitive-behavioral approaches believe
that PTSD is caused by negative, maladaptive,
and pessimistic thoughts.
These mental health professionals have
medical degrees and can prescribe
medications.
a) Social workers
b) Psychometricians
c) Psychiatrists
d) Counseling psychologists
Which of the following is not a goal of
epidemiology?
a) Determine the clinical manifestation of a
disorder
b) Determine the prevalence of a disorder
c) Determine the incidence of a disorder
d) Spot the changing trends in the
manifestation of a disorder
Which is not a myth about psychological
disorders?
a) Mental disorders cannot be cured.
b) Mental disorders stem from a lack of
willpower.
c) Mental disorders is not always inherited.
d) Mentally disturbed people can be readily
spotted.
Maggie’s third prominent symptom is the fact
that she laughs when there is no reason to
laugh and cries when there is no reason to cry.
What is this symptom?
a) Inappropriate affect
b) Flattened affect
c) Blunted affect
d) Stupor
Which of the following is true about the age of
onset of schizophrenia?
a) It usually starts in adolescence in females.
b) When onset occurs after 65, it is considered
late-onset.
c) It typically starts at the 4th decade for males.
d) It typically starts later in females than in
males.
All of the following are gestational etiological
factors for Schizophrenia except…
 20

a) Rhesus factor incompatibility Which of the following is not a characteristic of

b) Developmental fixation in the establishment abnormality according to DSM-IV-TR?
of the ego a) Distress
c) Excess of winter births b) Risk of harm
d) Maternal starvation during pregnancy c) Executive Functions
d) Loss of freedom
Which of the following is not true regarding the
neurostructural basis of Schizophrenia? Which of the following is true about the
a) Decrease in size of amygdala conception of abnormality?
b) Enlargement of lateral and third ventricles a) Deviation both from the average and the
c) Decrease in size in lateral and third optimum has been considered as criteria for
ventricles abnormality.
d) Decrease in size of parahippocampal gyrus b) It is always accompanied by a damage in
the person’s brain.
The Dopamine Hypothesis states that… c) The presence of insight about one’s disorder
a) Schizophrenia results from too much is a sign that it is very severe.
dopamine activity. d) Biology is always a more important
b) Schizophrenia is a result of presence of etiological factor of psychopathology than
dopamine. culture.
c) Schizophrenia is a result of absence of
dopamine. Which of the following is not a domain in the
Integrative definition of abnormality?
Schizophrenia increases levels of dopamine. a) Biological domain
This answers the question in a given period of b) Psychological domain
time how much of a given disorder occurred. c) Sociocultural domain
a) Epidemiology d) Spiritual domain
b) Incidence
c) Prognosis They are chronic, rigid, and maladaptive
d) Prevalence patterns of behavior.
a) Mood disorders
Inability to perform one’s work and personal b) Anxiety disorders
responsibilities is an example of this criterion of c) Personality disorders
abnormality. d) Psychotic Disorders
a) Dysfunction
b) Deviance This disorder involves the symptoms of
c) Discomfort paranoia, in which the individual is distressful,
d) Danger suspicious, guarded and vigilant toward other
people.
When a person has a significant tendency to a) Paranoid Personality Disorder
commit suicide, it is an example of this criterion b) Passive Aggressive Personality Disorder
of abnormality. c) Narcissistic Personality Disorder
a) Dysfunction d) Defiant Personality Disorder
b) Deviance
c) Discomfort People with this condition are very theatrical,
d) Danger extroverted and enjoy being the center of
attention. They are also typically flirtatious,
This perspective may claim that mourning seductive and vain.
about the death of a family member for one a) Paranoid Personality Disorder
whole year may be normal in some societies b) Passive Aggressive Personality Disorder
but not in others. c) Narcissistic Personality Disorder
a) Cultural ethnocentrism d) Histrionic Personality Disorder
b) Cultural relativism
c) Cultural universality People with this disorder rely excessively on
d) Cultural temporocentrism other people, and so they lack the skills and
abilities to handle problems and life tasks on
This perspective will consider a person’s neural their own.
conditions, unconscious motivations, and a) Paranoid Personality Disorder
interpersonal conflicts when understanding the b) Passive Aggressive Personality Disorder
beginnings and development of a c) Dependent Personality Disorder
psychopathology. d) Histrionic Personality Disorder
a) Psychodynamic perspective
b) Cultural perspective People from this cluster of personality
c) Cognitive Perspective disorders are avoidant of social relationships,
d) Integrated Perspective peculiar but not psychotic.
a) Cluster A

b) Cluster B
c) Cluster C
d) Cluster D
Which statement is true regarding the
causation of Narcissistic Personality Disorder?
a) The Biological perspective claims that there
is a neurotransmitter overproduction.
b) Behavioral theory claims that it originates
from a traumatic event during childhood.
c) Ego Psychology says that it stems from an
overuse of defense mechanisms.
d) Psychodynamic theory claims that they have
unresolved conflicts around sexuality.
Which statement is not true regarding the
causation of Antisocial Personality Disorder?
a) They grew up in homes with inconsistent
discipline.
b) They had impoverished standard of living.
c) One or both of the parents was/were absent
in their life.
d) They grew up having homosexual parents.
Which statement is true regarding the
causation of Dependent Personality Disorder?
a) Social theory claims that they grew up
financially dependent from a distant relative.
b) Psychodynamic theory believes that there
was a disturbance in the individual’s early
attachment patterns with caregivers.
c) They grew up in a politically chaotic
community.
d) They had a traumatic experience during
their puberty.
Which statement is true about the causation of
Borderline Personality Disorder?
a) There is usually significant neglect and
abuse during childhood.
b) Social theory claims that they grew up
financially dependent from a distant relative.
c) Psychodynamic theory believes that there
was a disturbance in the individual’s early
attachment patterns with caregivers.
d) They grew up in a politically chaotic
community.
Which statement is not true regarding the
treatment of Borderline Personality Disorder?
a) Treatment of BDP is difficult and
challenging.
b) It includes changing the neurotransmitter
concentration in the nervous system.
c) There is debate about whether to focus
more on confrontational or supportive
approaches.
d) Most clinicians believe that therapy should
focus on helping the client become more
emotionally stable and predictable.
Kelly does not trust any person in her life. She
is always vigilant and suspicious about the
actions of other people. She also often blames
21
others for her own faults and shortcomings.
What PD does Kelly possibly have?
a) Dependent Personality Disorder
b) Schizotypal Personality Disorder
c) Paranoid Personality Disorder
d) Avoidant Personality Disorder
Which is not a recommended treatment for
Agoraphobia?
a) Introspection
b) Relaxation training
c) Systematic Desensitization
d) Modelling
For the past 6 and a half months, Melinda has
been hearing voices inside her head almost all
day everyday. She also claims that ancestors
from another galaxy are on their way to fetch
her soon and that she must be ready for a long
travel ahead. What disorder does Melinda
possibly have?
a) Schizoid
b) Schizophrenia
c) Schizophreniform
d) Schizotypal
Gary has been strongly believing that the
coffee he drinks in the morning has poison,
and he’s been seriously claiming this everyday
for the past 5 weeks.What disorder does Garry
possibly have?
a) Delusional Disorder
b) Shared Psychotic Disorder
c) Caffeine Intoxication
d) Brief Psychotic Disorder
Gary’s wife Anna has also started believing
that Gary’s morning coffee is poisoned. Of
course, both of their beliefs are without any
substantial evidence or reason to support
them. What disorder does Anna possibly have?
a) Delusional Disorder
b) Shared Psychotic Disorder
c) Caffeine Intoxication
d) Brief Psychotic Disorder
It is a false sensory perception occurring in the
absence of any relevant external stimulus.
a) Illusion
b) Percept
c) Delusion
d) Hallucination
Which of the following symptoms responds well
to anti-psychotic medication?
a) Alogia
b) Anhedonia
c) Avolition
d) Delusion
Maggie, a patient from the psychiatric ward, is
so difficult to talk to. When she responds to
your questions, her responses are totally
unrelated. She is showing what symptom?
a) Derailment
 22

b) Tangetiality b) Defect in ego alters interpretation of reality

c) Perseveration and control of inner drives
d) Word Salad c) Defect in ego causes natural regulation in
defense mechanism usage.
Maggie also believes that people are removing d) There is excessive Primary Process
thoughts from her mind. What is this symptom? thinking.
a) Idea of reference
b) Thought withdrawal Who claimed that schizophrenia is due to
c) Thought insertion distortions in the reciprocal relationship of
d) Thought evolution infant and mother?
a) Harry Stack Sullivan
In this condition there is physical malfunction b) Sigmund Freud
without any physical or organic pathology, and c) Henry Murray
it can be accompanied by la belle indifference. d) Margaret Mahler
a) Conversion Disorder
b) Psychosomatic condition Who linked Schizophrenia to schisms and
c) Somatization disorder skewed families?
d) Pain disorder a) Harry Stack Sullivan
b) Lyman Wynne
The predominant disturbance in this disorder is c) Henry Murray
sudden unexpected travel away from home or d) Theodore Lidz
one's customary place of work with inability to
recall one's past. Which of the following is not part of the
a) Dissociative Amnesia biological therapy in Schizophrenia?
b) Dissociative Fugue a) Electroconvulsive Therapy
c) Dissociative Identity Disorder b) Psychosocial therapy
d) Depersonalization Disorder c) Pharmacological therapy
d) Antipsychotic drugs
The predominant disturbance in this disorder is
persistent or recurrent experiences of feeling Which is not part of the options of treatment in
detached from, and as if one is an outside Schizophrenia?
observer of one's mental processes or body. a) Imaginal flooding
a) Dissociative Amnesia b) Psychosocial rehabilitation
b) Dissociative Fugue c) Psychotherapy
c) Dissociative Identity Disorder d) Pharmacological treatment
d) Depersonalization Disorder
It is subaverage intellectual functioning: an IQ
This symptom is the disruption in the usually of approximately 79 or below on an individually
integrated functions of consciousness, administered IQ test.
memory, identity, perception. a) ADHD
a) Dissociation b) MR
b) Depersonalization c) Asperger’s
c) Disidentification d) Dementia
d) Daydreaming
Failure to use developmentally expected
Which statement is true regarding the role of speech sounds that are appropriate for age
serotonin in Schizophrenia? and dialect.
a) Elevated levels of serotonin contributes to a) ADHD
the emergence of negative, but not positive, b) Phonological Disorder
symptoms of schizophrenia. c) Asperger’s
b) Elevated levels of serotonin contributes to d) Dementia
the emergence of both negative and positive Gina is a 6-year-old boy who was observed to
symptoms of schizophrenia. have no eye contact when being talked to. In
c) Decreased levels of serotonin contributes to fact he is still not able to utter clear words at
the emergence of negative, but not positive, his age. He also has interesting
symptoms of schizophrenia. preoccupations with the keyboards of laptops
d) Decreased levels of serotonin contributes to playing with them for hours sometimes.
the emergence of both negative and positive
symptoms of schizophrenia. What possible disorder does Lordy have?
a) ADHD
Which is not true regarding the etiology of b) Phonological Disorder
Schizophrenia according to the c) Autistic Disorder
Psychoanalytical perspective? d) Dementia
a) It is due to ego decompensation.

What is true regarding the difference between
Autistic Disorder and Asperger’s Syndrome?
a) There psychotic symptoms in Autistic
Disorder but there is none in Asperger’s
Syndrome.
b) There is language delay in Autistic Disorder
but there is none in Asperger’s Syndrome.
c) There is impairment in social function in
Autistic Disorder but there is none in
Asperger’s Syndrome.
Angelo is 5 years old. His mom complains that
he is so energetic and seem to enjoy running
around and destroying the arrangement of
things in there house most of the time. He also
forgets to tie his shoes and button his shirt a lot
of times. When being scolded, Angelo always
don’t listen. What possible disorder does
Angelo have?
a) ADHD
b) Phonological Disorder
c) Autistic Disorder
d) Dementia
The following are linked to the causation of
Learning Disorder except…
a) Lead Poisoning
b) Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
c) Fragile X Syndrome
d) Traumatic event in childhood
The following are hereditary causation factors
of Mental Retardation except…
a) Inherited errors of metabolism
b) Single gene abnormalities
c) Chromosomal aberrations
d) Lead poisoning
George does not like social interactions with
anyone. He likes doing things alone and he
also seems to show no emotion. He also does
not enjoy any activity or hobby. What PD does
George possibly have?
a) Dependent Personality Disorder
b) Schizotypal Personality Disorder
c) Schizoid Personality Disorder
d) Avoidant Personality Disorder
This disorder is characterized by repeated
Panic Attacks.
a) Agoraphobia
b) Phobia
c) Anxiety Disorder
d) Panic Disorder
Which of the following is not true regarding the
causation or age of onset of OCD?
a) Cognitive-behavioral theory explains that
OCD is a learned association between anxiety
causing thoughts and the anxiety-relieving
acts.
b) Strong evidence supports a biological
explanation of the disorder, associating it to an
excess of serotonin.
23
c) OCD is found to be due to an excessive
usage of one’s executive functions at a very
early age.
d) The onset of the disorder is usually during
childhood or adolescence.
It is characterized by developmentally
inappropriate and excessive anxiety
concerning separation from home or from
those to whom the child is attached.
a) Social Anxiety Disorder
b) Separation Anxiety Disorder
c) Selective Anxiety Disorder
d) Selective Mutism
It is characterized by a consistent failure to
speak in specific social situations despite
speaking in other situations.
a) Social Anxiety Disorder
b) Separation Anxiety Disorder
c) Selective Anxiety Disorder
d) Selective Mutism
This disorder may be manifested by marked
delays in achieving motor milestones, dropping
things, clumsiness, poor performance in sports,
or poor handwriting.
a) Motor Skills Disorder
b) Motor Ability Disorder
c) Mental Retardation
d) Separation Retardation
This condition is characterized by the presence
of a cluster of cognitive, behavioral, and
physiological symptoms indicating the
individual’s continuous use of the substance
despite significant substance-related problems.
a) Substance intoxication
b) Substance Withdrawal
c) Substance Dependence
d) Substance Use
ASH has recently stopped drinking alcohol like
he used to. However he has worsen. is very
anxious at the same time that he is vomiting
often and having difficulty falling asleep. What
is the possible condition that Kevin has?
a) Alcohol Intoxication
b) Alcohol Dependence
c) Alcohol Abuse
d) Alcohol Withdrawal
Benedict ran into trouble with the police,
because he was reported to have started a
fight with many of his neighbors early this
morning. He wanted to punch everybody in the
face. He was very angry and vigilant of
possible attacks from birds from the sky. What
substance did he possible ingest?
a) Cocaine
b) Amphetamine
c) Any of A and B
d) Alcohol
 24

Jane came from a meeting at work. They all d) Diffuse atrophy in parietal and temporal
had coffee, and after the meeting she stated lobes
feeling nervous, a bit excited and restless. Her
heart beat was elevated, she had to urinate 5 Which is not a common pathological finding in
times in two hours and she is now having Alzheimer’s Disease?
difficulty falling asleep. How much coffee do a) Microtubule overproduction
you think she drank? b) Amyloid plaques
a) 1 cup c) Neurofibrillary tangles
b) Half a cup d) Protein fragments
c) 3 cups
d) 15 cups Examples of this type of memory are tying your
shoelace, playing the guitar, typing-writing.
What is the appropriate diagnosis for Jane? a) Declarative memory
a) Caffeine Abuse b) Sematic memory
b) Caffeine Nervousness c) Short-term memory
c) Caffeine Intoxication d) Procedural memory
d) Caffeine Withdrawal
This is the ability of the brain to receive and
Caffeine Withdrawal interpret sensory stimuli.
a) Delirium a) Cognition
b) Amnesia b) Consciousness
c) Dementia c) Sensorium
d) Dystonia d) Executive function

Five years ago his wife lola Venus was also Which is correct regarding the etiology of
brought to the doctor because of fading delirium?
memory, difficulty speaking and recognizing a) Increased acetylcholine appears to play a
close family members. What possible condition role in the delirium.
is lola Venus suffering from? b) Decreased acetylcholine appears to play a
a) Delirium role in the delirium.
b) Amnesia c) It is a sign that any other medical condition
c) Dementia that the patient has is improving already.
d) Dystonia d) It is always caused by a dysfunctional
family.
One of her other symptoms was the inability to
recognize her personal belongings such as her Which of the following is true regarding gender
purse, eyeglasses, and shoes. What is this and schizophrenia?
symptom? a) Males have better social functioning prior to
a) Apraxia the onset of the disease.
b) Aphasia b) Females have more negative symptoms.
c) Avolition c) Males have more negative symptoms
d) Agosia d) Males have more positive symptoms.

This is the type of amnesia wherein the person Which of the following is true regarding gender
cannot remember past events. and Personality Disorders?
a) Retrograde amnesia a) More females are diagnosed with Borderline
b) Anterograde amnesia and Histrionic Personality Disorders.
c) Organic Amnesia b) More males are diagnosed with Borderline
d) Apraxia and Histrionic Personality Disorders.
c) More females are diagnosed with Antisocial
Robert, a 67- year-old male patient, was and Narcissistic Personality Disorder.
recently diagnosed with dementia. What d) There is equal incidence of male and female
specific feature of his case indicates that it is a in all the Personality Disorders.
vascular dementia?
a) Amnesia If the client has an IQ level of 33, what is the
b) Agnosia correct code?
c) His age a) Moderate Mental Retardation
d) Weakness in his arms b) Profound Mental Retardation
c) Severe Mental Retardation
Which is not known as a neurostructural basis d) Mild Mental Retardation
of Alzheimer’s Disease?
a) Enlarged frontal lobe The inability to articulate verbally one’s
b) Flattened cortical sulci thoughts is…
c) Enlarged cerebral ventricles a) Verbal Agnosia
b) Broca’s Aphasia
 25

c) Wernicke’s Aphasia This is major depression that is associated with

d) Receptive Aphasia winter seasons and short days.
a) Masked Depression
When was trephining used as a treatment for b) Double Depression
demonic possessions? c) Major Depression
a) Greco-Roman Era d) SAD
b) Dark Ages
c) Pre-historic times If you have a client with expansive and
d) Reform movement elevated mood very often to the point that
his/her functionality in work and personal
When was witchcraft a common explanation for contexts are impaired, what disorder would you
abnormal behavior? most consider?
a) Dark Ages a) Bipolar 1
b) 15th-17th centuries b) Bipolar 2
c) 18th-19 centuries c) Unipolar Disorder
d) 20th century d) Double Depression

What is not a contemporary trend in abnormal Depression results from decreased levels of
psychology? serotonin. This explanation is called…
a) Some psychiatrists wanting legal privilege a) Catecholamine Hypothesis
for prescribing medicines b) Indoleamine Hypothesis
b) Some psychologists wanting legal privilege c) Neuronal Hypothesis
for prescribing medicines d) Dopamine Hypothesis
c) Growing respect for the diversity and
development of multicultural psychology It states that one gives up after learning that
d) Natural explanations of mental disorders one’s efforts are futile in avoiding pain and
frustration.
It is a pervasive and sustained emotion. a) Self Efficacy Hypothesis
a) Mood b) Low Empowerment Hypothesis
b) Affect c) Determinism Theory
c) Feelings d) Seligman’s Learned Helplessness Theory
d) Temperament
Beck’s Cognitive Triad is composed of…
Which is true regarding gender and Major a) Negative view of self, others and behavior
Depression? b) Negative view of self, identity and others
a) Females are less likely to have it than c) Negative view of self, others and world
males. d) Negative view of self, others and future
b) Males are more likely to have it than
females. In this disorder there is a preoccupation with
c) Females are 2-3 times more likely to have it fears of havinga serious disease based on the
than males. person’s misinterpretation of bodily symptoms.
d) There is equal prevalence among males and a) Hypochondriasis
females for Major Depression. b) Psychosomatic condition
c) Somatization disorder
It is low-level depression for at least two years. d) Pain disorder
a) Major Depression
b) Hypomania In this condition there is intense preoccupation
c) Bipolar Disorder and fixation with imagined defect in
d) Dysthymic Disorder appearance.
a) Hypochondriasis
It is the condition when a major depressive b) Psychosomatic condition
episode is superimposed on Dysthymic c) Somatization disorder
Disorder. d) Body Dysmorphic Disorder
a) Major Depression
b) Hypomania
c) Bipolar Disorder
d) Double Depression

Which of the following is not a Unipolar

Disorder?
a) Cyclothymic Disorder
b) Dysthymic Disorder
c) Major Depressive Disorder
d) Depressive Disorder NOS