TEST ID: 406

ESE- 2020 (Prelims) - Offline Test Series Test-11

CIVIL ENGINEERING

SUBJECT: Hydrology and Water Resources Engg. +

Environmental Engineering
Time Allowed: 90 Minutes Maximum Marks: 150
Read the following instructions carefully.

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3. This Test Booklet contains 75 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the
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 :2: Civil Engineering

01. What are the design periods for a Rapid 04. Which of the following pipes are best suited
Sand filter and a distribution system to resist pressurized flow of water?
respectively? (a) Cast-iron pipes (b) Steel pipes
(a) 15, 20 years (b) 15, 30 years (c) Wrought iron pipes (d) Copper pipes
(c) 10, 20 years (d) 10, 30 years
05. As per EPA, permissible limit of suspended
02. The average sewage from a city is 80 × 106 solids in drinking water is
l/day and the average 5-day BOD is 250 (a) 10 mg/l (b) 20 mg/l
mg/l. The domestic sewage quantity is 0.1 (c) 30 mg/l (d) 40 mg/l
kg/person/day. The population equivalent
of a city is 06. Alkalinity is defined as
(a) 200000 (b) 250000 (a) Quantity of ions that will react to
(c) 1600 (d) 800 neutralize hydrogen ions
(b) Quantity of ions that will react to
03. Consider the following statements neutralize hydroxide ions
regarding intakes for surface water (c) Quantity of ions that will react to
I. The intake should never be located neutralize both hydrogen and
near the navigation channels hydroxide ions
II. The intake must be located in deep (d) Quantity of all ions present in the
water sufficiently away from the shore sample
line
III. In meandering rivers, intakes should be 07. Match List-I with List-II and select the
located on convex banks correct answer using the codes given
Which of the above statements is/are true? below the lists:
(a) I only (b) I and II only List-I
(c) I, II & III (d) None of the above A. Free ammonia
B. Organic ammonia
C. Nitrite
D. Nitrate
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 :3: ESE - 2020 (Prelims) Offline Test Series

List-II 09. Find total hardness of water expressed as

1. Indicates partly decomposed conditions mg/l of CaCO3 for the given water sample
2. Indicates recent pollutions Ion Concentration (mg/l)
3. Indicates old pollution Na+ 46
4. Indicates quantity of nitrogen before K+ 39
2+
decomposition has started Mg 24
Codes: (a) 250 mg/l (b) 500 mg/l
A B C D (c) 50 mg/l (d) 100 mg/l
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 2 4 3 1 10. A standard multiple tube fermentation test
(c) 2 4 1 3 was conducted on a sample as water. The
(d) 2 1 4 3 results of the analysis for the confirmed test
are given below.
08. Consider the following statements: Positive Negative
Sample size (ml)
1. When chlorine gas added to water, it results results
tends to consume alkalinity and lower 10 4 1
the pH through the formation of 1 2 3
hydrochloric acid 0.1 1 4
2. The addition of hypochlorite to water 0.01 0 5
tends to rise the pH from the addition MPN index for combination of positive
of calcium or sodium hydroxide. results when 5 tubes used per dilution
3. Disinfection by UV light and (10ml, 1.0ml, 0.1ml)
mechanism of chemical disinfection is Combination of MPN Index
same positives per 100 ml
Which of the above statements are correct? 5-4-3 280
(a) 1, 2 and 3 4-3-1 33
(b) 1 and 2only 4-2-1 26
(c) 1 and 3 only 2-1-0 7
(d) 2 and 3 only

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 :4: Civil Engineering

Using the above MPN index table, the most 13. A water treatment plant is designed to treat
probable number (MPN) of the sample is 0.4 MLD of water. A flash mixing unit
(a) 280 (b) 33 imparts a velocity gradient of 700 Per
(c) 26 (d) 70 second, when 245 watts power is dissipated.
What is the detention time provided to flash
11. Which of the following methods of aeration (dynamic viscosity of raw water
will be most cost effective for large scale 1 103(Pa-sec).
industrial use (a) 2 min (b) 3.2 min
(a) Spray nozzle (c) 4 min (d) 1.8 min
(b) Diffused air aerator
(c) Trickling bed or tray tower 14. Which of the following statements is true?
(d) Cascade aerator (a) At pH > 5, chlorine does not react with
water and remains as free chlorine
12. Consider the following statements: (b) Chloramines are more effective than
1. The deviation of actual flow of tank free chlorine
from the ideal flow pattern is called (c) HOCL & Cl2 combined are called
short circuiting. freely available chlorine leaving out
2. In short circuiting, top layers of water OCl–
have detention time which is far less (d) In the usual chlorine treatment for
than the detention time of bottom layer. which pH < 7, dichloramine is the most
3. Degree of short circuiting is the predominant
deviation of actual flow pattern to the
ideal flow pattern 15. Consider the following valves used in rapid
Which of the above statements are true? sand filter unit
(a) 1 and 3 only 1. Influent valve
(b) 1 and 2 only 2. Effluent valve
(c) 2 only 3. Waste water valve
(d) 1, 2 and 3 4. Filtered waste water valve
5. Wash-water valve
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 :5: ESE - 2020 (Prelims) Offline Test Series

Which of these valves should be closed A B C D

during filtration? (a) 4 3 2 1
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 3, 4 and 5 (c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 1 4 3
16. Consider the following statements:
1. Refuse is waste that is generated in the 19. Match List-I(biological zones) with List-
form of solid, semisolid or liquid II (lakes) and select the correct answer
2. Garbage is dry form of refuse using the codes given below the lists:
3. Rubbish is non-combustible in nature List-I
Which of the above statements is/are true? A. Euphotic zone
(a) 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only B. Benthic zone
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only C. Littoral zone
List-II
17. An aeration tank of volume 300 m3 1. The zone near the shore where rooted
handling 1000 m3/day of sewage with plants grown
BOD: 300 mg/l. If MLSS concentration in 2. The upper layer of lake through which
aeration tank is 2000 mg/l then F/M ratio sunlight can penetrate
adopted in the design is 3. The bottom layer of lake which
(a) 0.5 day-1 (b) 0.4 day-1 contains bacteria
(c) 0.3 day-1 (d) 0.2 day-1 Codes:
A B C
18. Match the following (a) 2 1 3
Control Particle (b) 1 3 2
equipment removal “” (c) 2 3 1
A. Settling chamber 1. > 99 (d) 1 2 3
B. cyclone separator 2. 95-99
C. Electrostatic precipitator 3. 50 -90
D. Fabric filters 4. < 50

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 :6: Civil Engineering

20. The following factors relate to the organic Where v, a, r are the velocity, wetted area
polymers used coagulation and hydraulic radius under partial flow
1. Anionic polymers are often used to aid condition
in the formation of good floc for V, A, R are the velocity, wetted area and
settling hydraulic radius under full flow condition.
2. These polymers can increase the speed
of floc formation the strength of the 22. Consider the following statements:
floc, and the weight of the floc 1. Organic solids are removed in grit
3. The optimum dosage of the anionic channels
polymer is directly related to the 2. Primary treatment removes 20 – 30%
amount of coagulated material that is of BOD from raw sewage
present in the water 3. primary treatment does not remove
Which of the above statements are correct? colloidal organic content of waste
(a) 1, 2and 3 water
(b) 1 and 2 only 4. 50% of influent BOD is removed by
(c) 2 and 3 only primary treatment
(d) 1 and 3only Which of the above statement(s) is/are
correct?
21. Which of the following are true with (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
respect to the design of a sewer (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 3 only
2/3
v nr
(a)   
V NR D 23. If the initial quantity of sludge is ‘x’ with a
α
a  2 moisture content of 98% and after
(b)  
A 360 o
sin  digestion, its moisture content reduces to
r 360 sin  94%, then find the final volume of the
(c)  1
R 2 digested sludge
D (a) x (b) x/3
(d) R 
2
(c) 3x (d) x/6

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 :7: ESE - 2020 (Prelims) Offline Test Series

24. Consider the following design criteria for

grit chamber 26. Sedimentation with coagulation is generally
1. It removes particles of size  0.2 mm not used in sewage treatment
2. Detention time is 40 – 60 sec (1) Chemicals added in this process
3. Horizontal velocity of flow is 0.5-0.6 m/s destroy certain bacteria which are
Which of the above statements are correct? harmful for sludge digestion
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (2) It is costly
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (3) Large sludge volume produced in this
process is difficult to dispose off
25. Match List-I with List-II and select the (4) Coagulants may produce highly
correct answer using the codes given below poisonous gases here
the list. Which of these reasons are correct?
List-I (a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
A. Discrete settling (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
B. Flocculent settling
C. Hindered settling 27. Which of the following is an operational
D. Compression settling trouble in standard rate trickling filter
List-II (a) Mudball formation
1. Type-II settling (b) Cracking of filter
2. Stokes law can be applied (c) Odour problem
3. Found in bottom of SST following ASP (d) Air binding
4. Found in tanks used for thickening of
sludge 28. Sludge bulking can be reduced by all of the
Codes: following except
A B C D (a) Reducing the sludge age
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) Chlorination of returned activated
(b) 2 4 3 1 sludge
(c) 1 2 3 4 (c) Increasing the waste temperature
(d) 2 1 3 4 (d) Addition of nutrients if it is less

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 :8: Civil Engineering

29. Depths of penetration of water at (a) 20 – 30 kPa

equidistant locations in a border strip of (b) 20 – 30 MPa
irrigation are 2.0, 1.9, 1.8, 1.6, 1.5 m. Water (c) 30 – 300 kPa
distribution efficiency is (d) 300 – 3000 MPa
(a) 90.45% (b) 92.8%
(c) 94.6% (d) 91.87% 33. Forty sprinklers are arranged along two
lines spaced 20 m apart. On each line they
30. For a soil with field capacity 30% and Root are spaced 12 m apart. If the system is to
zone depth 1.8 m. 65  104 litres of water supply water at a rate of 1.5 cm/hour, the
has been supplied on 0.1 ha area. Losses discharge required by the system is, in lpm
due to deep percolation and evaporation is (a) 1440
10%. S = 1.45. At what moisture content (b) 2160
water has been delivered. (c) 1600
(a) 12% (b) 14% (d) 2400
(c) 10% (d) 8%
34. In a gravity dam, water storages are for
31. Water is released at the rate of 10 cumec at heights of H1 & H2 on U/s & d/s sides. Line
the head sluice. If duty at the field is 125 of action of resultant water force will be at
ha/cumec and loss of water in transit is what distance from toe
30%, the area of land that can be irrigated is H1
(a) above
(a) 675 ha (b) 1125 ha 3

(c) 750 ha (d) 875 ha H1 H 2

(b) Between &
3 3
H2
(c) below
3
32. Soil moisture stress is the sum of soil
H1  H 2
moisture tension and osmatic pressure of (d) at from toe
3
salt solution in the soil. Value of soil
moisture stress in the zone of readily
available moisture is
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 :9: ESE - 2020 (Prelims) Offline Test Series

35. The downstream face of a gravity dam has a Which of the above statements are correct?
slope of 0.707 H to 1 V. At the toe of this (a) 1, 3 & 4 only (b) 2, 3 & 4 only
dam, when there is no tail water, principal (c) 2 & 3 only (d) 1, 2 & 3 only
stress was estimated to be 2.25 Mpa. The
shear stress at the toe is (in MPa) 39. A trapezoidal unlined channel with side
(a) 1.10 (b) 1.65 slopes 1 H : 1 V in non-alluvial soil has
(c) 1.58 (d) 2.25 wetted area 50 m2 and wetted perimeter
29.5 m. Depth of the flow is nearly
36. The maximum height of a low gravity dam
(a) 2.6 m (b) 3 m
of elementary profile, to be built to
(c) 3.24 m (d) 2 m
concrete of relative density 2.4 on a
foundation material of safe allowable stress
40. In a Gravity dam, RL of Crest is + 200.00
7.5 MPa (with no uplift) is
m, wind velocity is 100 kmph. Fetch is 81
(a) 319 m (b) 484 m
km. RL of NPL is _____.
(c) 125 m (d) 225 m
(a) +197.12 m (b) + 195.68 m
(c) +202.88 m (d) +196.48 m
37. Length of the ogee spillway is 100 m. What
will be the discharge over the spillway, at a
41. Two irrigation channels M & N are
head of 2 m above the crest approach
designed using Lacey’s theory. If the
velocity is 0.8 m/s. Coefficient of discharge
median diameter of the silt particles are the
is 0.7
same for both the channels, and if the
(a) 610 cumec (b) 780 cumec
discharge in channel M is 50% greater than
(c) 800 cumec (d) 690 cumec
at N, then between these two channels
(a) Channel N has smaller longitudinal
38. Consider the following statements:
slope
Cavitation is likely to occur in
(b) Channel M has smaller longitudinal
(1) Conduit of shaft spillway
slope
(2) Baffle blocks
(c) Channel M has smaller hydraulic radius
(3) Siphon spillway
(d) Channel N has larger wetted perimeter
(4) Spillway buckets
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 : 10 : Civil Engineering

42. For the weir structure shown as per 44. In an aqueduct provided with a pucca
Khosla’s theory, uplift pressure at C is, if p bottom floor, the uplift will occur
= 30%, Q = 18%, R = 0% (a) on the roof slab
(b) on the bottom floor
 
(c) on both roof slab as well as bottom floor
H=6m H=6m
R A (d) no where
P C

45. The electrical conductivity of drainage

water from the soil is found as 20 milli
mho/cm at 20% reduction in yield of crop.

Q B What will be the required depth of water to

be applied if consumptive use is 55.5 mm.
Take Eci = 1.5 m mho/cm
(a) 36 kPa (b) 42 kPa
(a) 48 mm (b) 60 mm
(c) 24 kPa (d) 18 kPa
(c) 24 mm (d) 96 mm

43. The following data is available at the

46. An irrigation water has ion concentrations
proposed site of a canal crossing
of Na+, Ca++, Mg++ as 20, 10, 5 meq/litre.
Item Drain Canal SAR value of this water is
Bed level (m) 252.2 248.00 (a) 2.83 (b) 10.3
FSL (m) 253.2 253.00 (c) 7.30 (d) 1.30
Discharge
2 400
(cumec) 47. A confined aquifer of thickness 5 m with
permeability 23 m/day. The drawdown in
The most appropriate and economical CD two observation wells located at 10 m and
work at the above site will be 100 m be 3 and 2 m respectively then yield
(a) aqueduct (b) superpassage from the aquifer at equilibrium in m3/day is
(c) siphon aqueduct (d) siphon (a) 25 (b) 50
(c) 100 (d) 150
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 : 11 : ESE - 2020 (Prelims) Offline Test Series

48. Flow mass curve is used 51. Infiltration capacity of soil

(a) to develop synthetic unit hydrograph (a) increases with increase in temperature
(b) to develop instantaneous unit (b) increases with decrease in temperature
hydrograph (c) independent of temperature
(c) To check consistency of the flow (d) decreases with increase in temperature
record @ a given time
(d) To determine the storage capacity of 52. A 5 hour rainfall produced a rainfall of 10
the reservoir to meet a given uniform cm over a catchment, with a resulting
demand. runoff of 5 cm. The average loss rate ( -
index) would be ______ mm/hr
49. The isohyets due to a storm in a catchment (a) 0.1 (b) 1
were drawn, and the area of the catchment (c) 10 (d) 100
bounded by the isohyets were tabulated as
below. 53. The observed annual runoff from a basin of
Isohyets (cm) 25-35 35-45 45-55 area 250 km2 is 125 M m3 and the
Area (km2) 50 100 150 corresponding annual rainfall over the basin
during the same year is 80 cm. The runoff
The average precipitation due to the storm
co-efficient of the basin would be____
will be ______ cm
(a) 0.325 (b) 0.425
(a) 41 (b) 42
(c) 0.625 (d) 0.525
(c) 43 (d) 40

54. For a catchment of 1000 ha, the equilibrium

50. The ratio of the radiation reflected back by
discharge of an s-curve obtained by 5 hour
a surface to the radiation recieved by it is
unit hydrograph summation is____ cumecs
called its
(a) 555.6
(a) Bowen ratio
(b) 55.56
(b) absorption co-efficient
(c) 5.556
(c) radiation co-efficient
(d) 0.556
(d) Albedo

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 : 12 : Civil Engineering

55. Basic assumptions in unit hydrograph are 59. A stream which contributes runoff to
(a) Time variance and linear response ground water is known as
(b) Time variance and non-linear response (a) perennial stream
(c) Time invariance and non-linear (b) effluent stream
response (c) ephemual stream
(d) Time invariance and linear response. (d) influent stream

56. The direct runoff hydrograph was found to 60. In the application of instantaneous unit
have a peak discharge at 16th hour after the hydrograph which of the following
commencement of the effective rainfall and assumption of the unit hydrograph theory is
a base period of 48 hour. The duration of not required?
storm would be ________ (a) the rainfall is uniformly distributed
(a) < 16 hour (b) > 50 hour over the basin area
(c) = 48 hour (d) between 16 to 48 hour (b) the principle of linearity
(c) the principle of time invariance
57. A four hour unit hydrograph (UH) was used
(d) the rainfall is uniformly distributed
to derive a 12 hour unit hydrograph for a
with in the storm duration.
catchment. If the time base of four hour UH
was 48 hour, the time base of 12 .hour UH
61. Any cyclic trend present in the rainfall data
would be _____hour
can be ascertained from
(a) 48 (b) 52
(a) Mass curve of rainfall
(c) 56 (d) 60
(b) Double mass curve
(c) Moving average curve
58. The zone below the water table all the soil
(d) Mass curve of in flow
pores are completely filled with water and
hence it is called
62. Which of the following statements are
(a) vadozc zone (b) unsaturated zone
correct ?
(c) aeration zone (d) pheatic zone
1. Anemometers is used to measure wind
velocity

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 : 13 : ESE - 2020 (Prelims) Offline Test Series

2. As per IS codal provisions, atleast 10% (C) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is
of the raingauges provided should be false
non-recording rain gauges. (D) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is
3. Double mass curve is plot between true
cumulative depth of rainfall vs time
64. Statement (I): Fumigation represents quite
Select the correct answer using the codes
a bad case of atmospheric dispersion.
given below:
Statement (II): The conditions for
(a) 1 & 2 only (b) 2 & 3 only
fumigation are just the inversion of lofting
(c) 1 only (d) 2 only
plume.

63. Convective precipitation occurs in

65. Statement (I): Radiation inversion is
(a) Tropical region
characteristically a nocturnal phenomenon.
(b) Temperate region
Statement (II): Radiation inversion arises
(c) Equatorial region
from the unequal cooling rates of the earth
(d) Polar region
and the air above the earth.

Directions: Each of the next items consists of 66. Statement (I): Incineration method for
two statements, one labelled as the ‘Statement disposal of refuse is widely used in
(I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. You are to countries like USA.
examine these two statements carefully and Statement (II): Incineration method is
select the answer to these items using the codes superior because of its low levels of
given below: emissions of dioxins.
Codes:
67. Statement (I): Anaerobic contact (AC)
(A) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
process is generally used for treatment of
individually true and Statement (II) is the
industrial wastewaters.
correct explanation of Statement (I)
Statement (II): AC system involves a
(B) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are
closed storage tank reactor in which the
individually true but statement (II) is not
reactor effluent is recycled
the correct explanation of statement (I)

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 : 14 : Civil Engineering

68. Statement (I): An imhoff tank is an Statement (II): The trap efficiency is a
improvement over septic tank. function of ratio of reservoir capacity to the
Statement (II): Imhoff tank does not allow total inflow. A small reservoir on a large
outgoing effluent to carry with it large stream has a low trap efficiency.
amount of organic load.
73. Statement (I): In case of unregulated
69. Statement (I): IInd stage BOD i.e. reservoir the peak flow in the outflow
nitrogenous demand starts 2-3 days after the hydrograph always occurs at the
1st stage BOD i.e carbonaceous demand. intersection point.
Statement (II): The reproduction rate of Statement (II): The outflow from the
nitrification bacteria is slow. reservoir is unregulated, there will be one to
one correspondence between outflow and
70. Statement (I): Aeration is the main storage and hence the discharge is
treatment process in ground water treatment maximum when the storage in the reservoir
Statement (II): Ground water rich with is maximum.
undesirable dissolve gasses.
74. Statement (I): At high temperature high
71. Statement (I): In sprinkler irrigation as we infiltration capacities are expected.
supply water directly to the leaves of plants, Statement (II): At high temperature
plants will receive necessary water even viscosity of water is low
under steep slopes
Statement (II): A sprinkler irrigation 75. Statement (I): Climatic Factors dosen't
system is suitable when the land gradient is affect transpiration.
steep and the soil is easily erodible. Statement (II): The plant factor that affect
transpiration are the extent and efficiency of
72. Statement (I): The trap efficiency of a the root systems in moisture absorption,
reservoir increases with age, as the lead area, arrangement, structure and
reservoir capacity is reduced by sediment stomatal behaviour.
accumulation

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 TEST ID: 406

ESE- 2020 (Prelims) - Offline Test Series Test- 11

CIVIL ENGINEERING
SUBJECT: Hydrology and Water Resources Engg. + Environmental Engineering

01. Ans: (b) structures, interfering with metabolism, and

hindering growth. UV light destroys
02. Ans: (a) microorganisms by damaging their nucleic
Sol: Average sewage = 80 × 106 l/day acid and preventing them from replicating.
Average 5-day BOD = 250 mg/l
Domestic sewage quantity 09. Ans: (d)
= 0.08 kg/person/day
Sol: Total hardness =
Mg   50
2

Total BOD in sewage = 250 × 80 × 106 12

= 2 × 1010 mg/day 24
  50
= 20000 kg/day 12
Population equivalent = Total BOD = 100 mg/l of CaCO3
0.1
20000
 = 200000 10. Ans: (d)
0.1 Sol: Positive Combination = 2-1-0
MPN Index for this combination is 7
03. Ans: (b) 04. Ans: (b)
MPN Value = MPN Index Value × DF
= 7 × 10
05. Ans: (c) 06. Ans: (a)
= 70 per 100ml

07. Ans: (c)

11. Ans: (d)

08. Ans: (b)

12. Ans: (d)
Sol: Disinfection by UV light is very different
from the mechanisms of chemical
disinfection using chlorine, chloramines, or
ozone. Chemical disinfectants destroy
microorganisms by damaging cellular

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 :3: ESE - 2020 (Prelims) Offline Test Series

13. Ans: (d) 21. Ans: (c)

P Sol: Full Flow Condition:
Sol: G 
V 
A  D2
P 245 4
V 
G  700   1  10 3
2 2 P = D
245 A D
 R 
490  10 3  10  3 P 4
V = 0.5 m3 Partial Flow Condition:
V   2 1  
D.T  a  D    r cos (2r sin )
Q 360  4  2 2 2
0.5  24  60 D2   sin  
 
0.4  10 3 4  360  2 
D.T = 1.8 min
D 2   sin  
  
a 4  360 2 
14. Ans: (d) r 
P 
D
360
15. Ans: (d)
D  360 sin  
Sol: During filtration influent and effluent 1  
r 4 2  360 sin 
valves are open and remaining values are   1
R D 2
closed.
4

16. Ans: (d)

22. Ans: (b)

17. Ans: (a)

23. Ans: (b)
F Qyi
Sol: ratio  Sol: V1 (100 – P1) = V2 (100 – P2)
M VX
 x (100 – 98) = V2 (100 – 94)
1000  300
  V2 = x/3
300  2000
= 0.5 day–1
24. Ans: (a) 25. Ans: (d)

18. Ans: (a) 19. Ans: (c)

26. Ans: (a) 27. Ans: (c)

20. Ans: (a)

28. Ans: (c)

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 :4: Civil Engineering

29. Ans: (a) 34. Ans: (a)

 yi Sol:
Sol: y m   1.76 m
n
M
W 3
H1  H 32  
H 2  H1H 2  H 22 H
 yi  ym y  6  1 > 1
yd  = 0.168 m  H W H2  H2  3H1  H 2 
 3
n 1 2
2
 y 
d  1  d 100 = 90.45%
 ym 
35. Ans: (a)
Sol:  = Pn sec2  - P tan2  = Pn sec2  = 2.25
30. Ans: (d) 1
Tan  = 0.707 =
65 10 4 10 3 2
Sol: d w   0.9 = 0.585 m
0.110 4 1 3
dw = Sd [FC – mc] Sec2  = 1  
2 2
 30  mc  3
0.585  1.45 1.8  Pn  2.25
 100  2
 mc = 8% Pn = 1.5 MPa
1
 = (Pn – P) tan  = 1.5  1.06 MPa
31. Ans: (d) 2
Sol: Q = 0.7 (10) = 7 cumec
≃ 1.1 MPa
A
D   A  DQ
Q
36. Ans: (d)
= 125 (7) = 875 ha
f 7.5  10 6
Sol: H L   4
32. Ans: (a) w s  1 10 2.4  1
Sol: FC – OMC : RAM = 220.5 (nearest answer is 225)
1 1
SMT will be to th atm pressure
3 6
= 16.66 – 33.33 kPa
37. Ans: (a)
2 2
33. Ans: (d) Sol: C  Cd 2g   0.7  2  9.81
3 3
SSm I 12  20  1.5
Sol: q   = 1 lps per sprinkler = 2.07 ≃ 2.1
360 360
Q = n q = 40 q = 40 lps Va2
He = Hd + Ha = H d 
= 2400 lpm 2g
0.8 2
He  2  = 2.033 m
29.81

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 :5: ESE - 2020 (Prelims) Offline Test Series

Q = CLe H 3e / 2 MFLcanal = 253.00 m

BLdrain = 252.20 m
 2.1100 2.033 
3/ 2

 siphonic action takesplace

= 609 m3/s ≃ 610 m3/sec  canal siphon i.e, Siphon

38. Ans: (d)

44. Ans: (b)
Sol: Flow in spillway buckets will always be at
Sol: Uplift is due to pore water pressure, option
positive hydrostatic pressure or at atm
(b) is correct
pressure. In all other cases, pressure may
fall to a value less than atmospheric.
45. Ans: (b)
E 1.5
39. Ans: (d) Sol: L R  ci  100   100  7.5%
E cd 20
Sol: A = BD + mD2 = BD + D2 = 50
Depth of water required
P  B  2D 1  m 2  B  2 2D  29.5 m
Dc 55.5
= Di    60 mm
Solving, D = 1.96 m ≃ 2 m 1  L R 1  7.5
100
40. Ans: (b)
Sol: h w  0.032 VF  2.88 m 46. Ans: (c)
Na  20
Sol: SAR    7.30
FB  h w  2.88  4.32 m
3 3
Ca   Mg  10  5
2 2
2 2
RL of NPL = RL of Crest – FB
= + 195.68 m 47. Ans: (c)
Sol: b = 5 m
41. Ans: (b) k = 23 m/day
Sol: QM > QN  SM < SN r2 = 100 m; r1 = 10 m
f 5/ 3 yield from the aquifer = ?
S
3340 Q1/ 6 h1 = 5 – 3 = 2 m
h2 = 5 – 2 = 3 m
2kb (h 2  h 1 )
42. Ans: (b) Q
Sol: P = 30 %  c = 100 – 30 = 70% r 
log e  2 
hc = H c = 6 (0.7) = 4.2 m  r1 
uc = whc = 42 kPa 2  23  5(3  2)
 = 100
43. Ans: (d)  100 
n 
Sol: Qd < Qcanal type II  10 
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 :7: ESE - 2020 (Prelims) Offline Test Series

48. Ans: (d) 56. Ans: (a)

Sol:
49. Ans: (c)
D<16
 P1  P2   P  P4 
 A1  ........  3 A 3
Sol: Pa   2   2 
A1  ....... A 3 Qp

Pa 
30  50  40 100   50 150  O 16 48
50  100  150
Pa = 43.33 cm.
57. Ans: (c)
50. Ans: (d) Sol:

4- hr UH 12 hr
51. Ans: (a)
Sol: At high temperature since viscosity of water
it low, high infiltration capacities are O 48 O 4 8 48 52 56

expected.
58. Ans: (d)
52. Ans: (c) Sol
vadozc or un saturated
P  R 10  5 or aeration zone
Sol:   index   = 1 cm/hr
t 5
= 10 mm /hr saturate zone or GW zone or
phreatic zone
53. Ans: (c)
125 10 6
Sol: R   0.5 m  50 cm 59. Ans: (d)
250 10 6
Sol:
P = 80 cm STREM
R 50
K   0.625
P 80
GWT
54. Ans: (c)
A 10
Sol: Q e  2.778  2.778   5.556 cumecs 60. Ans: (d)
D 5
Sol: Advantage of IUH over UH is that it
eliminates the restriction of uniform
55. Ans: (d)
distribution of rainfall in time.

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 :8: Civil Engineering

61. Ans: (c) 72. Ans: (d)

Sol: Moving average curve smoothens out the Sol: The trap efficiency of reservoir decreases
extreme variations and indicate the trend on with the increasing age, the capacity of
cyclic pattern if any. reservoir decreases.
Trap efficiency is a function of
62. Ans: (c) 63. Ans: (c) (1) Ratio of reservoir capacity to mean
annual inflow
64. Ans: (a) 65. Ans: (b) (2) Sediment characteristics

66. Ans: (c) 67. Ans: (b) 73. Ans: (a)

Sol: Both statements true and Statement -(II) is
68. Ans: (a) 69. Ans: (d) correct explanation of Statement (I).

70. Ans: (a) 74. Ans: (a)

Sol: Both statements true and statement-(II) is
71. Ans: (a) correct explanation of statement (I)
Sol: From concept of sprinkler irrigation it is
preferred in 75. Ans: (d)
(i) hot arid zones Sol: False Statement - (II) true
(ii) water scarce areas Solar radiation, light intensity, atmospheric
(iii) steep slopes of field pressure etc climatic factors affect
(iv) Soil has higher permeability transpiration

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