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PSY30 – GROUP DYNAMICS

Final Examination Reviewer

1.1. According to the text, which one is NOT a key element in the definition of a group?
A. two or more members
B. members share some characteristic, such as eye color or gender
C. interpersonal connections among members
D. boundaried (connections enclose members within the group)

1.2. James’ studies of naturally forming groups indicated


A. most groups include a leader.
B. the most common group size was 2 members.
C. groups are small if deliberately formed, but larger if they form spontaneously.
D. groups include, on average, 4.2 members.

1.3. When researchers carefully recorded the size of groups in public places, such as parks, sidewalks,
cafeterias, and offices, they discovered that most of these groups were
A. small in size, including only 2 or 3 members.
B. large in size, ranging from 10 to 20 members.
C. short-lived, lasting for less than 30 seconds on average.
D. crowded together rather than well-spaced.

1.4. How many bidirectional relationships would be needed to link all members of a 20-person group?
A. almost 200
B. 20 if reciprocal, but 40 if directed (one-way)
C. it depends on the group’s overall cohesiveness
D. 105

1.5. Granovetter’s concept of the “strength of weak ties” accounts for the
A. strength of groups relative to social networks.
B. tendency for relationships to deteriorate over time.
C. tendency for weak ties to become stronger the longer their duration.
D. the unique value of weak social ties.

1.6. Taylor, when registering for classes in college, is searching for an interesting elective taught by an
easy grader. His roommates and close friends all recommend the same small set of possible courses,
but one of Taylor’s more casual acquaintances tells him about a great course taught in a small, little-
known department. This process illustrates
A. the rule of the few.
B. the strength of weak ties.
C. the value-added effect.
D. collective dynamism.
E. the distinction between structure and process.

1.7. What word is critically important to remember when distinguishing between a group and a
network?
A. interaction
B. boundary
C. relations
D. ties
E. communication

1.8. Network is to relational ties as group is to


A. interaction.
B. boundary.
C. task.
D. cohesion.

1.9. Which is true?


A. People who communicate with one only using computers and the Internet are not a true group.
B. Networks establish membership, but groups usually do not.
C. Group interaction generally takes one of two forms: social interaction and task interaction.
D. Dyads, because they include only two individuals, are not groups.

1.10. Which one is task-focused rather than relationship-focused?


A. feeling anger toward a coworker
B. complimenting a group member after a presentation
C. asking the group members if they are happy with the decision
D. offering a good solution to the problem the group faces

2.1. Which one is NOT a key element of scientific research, according to the text?
A. measurement
B. research design
C. theory
D. statistical analysis

2.2. As a scientist, you want to know if leaders who are authoritarian get more productivity out of their
followers than do leaders who are democratic. You should
A. ask politicians for their opinions on the matter.
B. consult experts on business management.
C. ask Kurt Lewin what he thinks.
D. conduct a study of the relationship between leadership and productivity.
E. ask several group members what they think.

2.3. Whyte’s study of “corner gangs”


A. experimentally manipulated norms.
B. used structured observations.
C. made use of participant observation.
D. was a self-report study.

2.4. A male researcher joins in with two different clubs—one containing all males and the other both
males and females—and unbeknownst to the club members takes notes on the group dynamics.
This study is an example of a(n) ___ measurement method.
A. participant observation
B. experimental covert observation
C. overt structured observation
D. subverted observation

2.5. Dr. Bynamic studies group performance by watching same- and mixed-sex groups in the library, and
recording how much time they spend talking versus studying. Bynamic is using a(n) ___
measurement method.
A. survey
B. experimental
C. observational
D. participant observation

2.6. The Hawthorne effect would likely be greatest in a(n) ___ study.
A. overt observational
B. experimental
C. field
D. quantitative
E. qualitative

2.7. The Hawthorne Effect, as applied to group dynamics research, suggests


A. sociometric methods should be used whenever possible.
B. research should be conducted, whenever possible, in the laboratory.
C. group processes cannot be understood using observational methods.
D. people may act differently when they know they are being studied.

2.8. A researcher wanted to observe a group but was afraid that his or her presence would cause group
members to question and rethink their decisions. The researcher decided to join the group and
observe members without their knowledge. This is known as a(n)___ observational method.
A. structured
B. layered
C. covert
D. survey
E. overt

2.9. Participant observational procedures have been used to study ___ groups.
A. Online gaming
B. Search and rescue teams
C. Gangs
D. Mushroom collectors
E. All of the above

2.10. Bainbridge’s analysis of an online gaming community (World of Warcraft) indicated that
A. online groups cannot be studied using participant observational methods.
B. individuals in online groups act in unusual and unpredictable ways, compared to members of
offline groups.
C. online groups are not that different from group in the physical (offline) world.
D. the relationships linking members of online groups tend to be superficial and temporary.
E. none of the above.
3.1. Which is FALSE?
A. Human beings are, by nature, a social species.
B. Baumeister and Leary maintain that the need to belong causes people to seek out and maintain
relationships with others.
C. People sometimes find that they are more creative when isolated from others.
D. Most people report that they would prefer to live alone rather than with other people.
E. People are less likely to join bowling leagues now than in the past.

3.2. Who is most likely to NOT suffer due to exclusion from a group:
A. An individual who is shunned.
B. A person who is ostracized from a computer-based group.
C. An individual who seeks self-discovery or spirituality through isolation.
D. An explorer who is cut off from human contact during his/her adventures.

3.3. Which is true?


A. Individuals sometimes prefer to be alone, often reporting they find it “rejuvenating.”
B. People isolated for long amounts of time write about the benefits of seclusion.
C. Telling individuals they will live their rest of their life alone does not bother them.
D. Rational thought and cognitive abilities are unaffected by being isolated.
E. People who are excluded from groups show a rise in self-esteem.

3.4. The largest percentage of Americans, when surveyed about the groups they belong to, reported
membership in ___ -related groups.
A. work
B. sports
C. hobby
D. educational
E. church

3.5. I have substantial ___ because I am linked to many individuals and groups through an extensive
network of interpersonal relationships.
A. social loneliness
B. social capital
C. belongingness
D. social extrapolation
E. dynamic inclusion

3.6. Cynthia is distressed because she has no best friend or lover, whereas Andrew suffers because he
has few friends or acquaintances. Cynthia is experiencing ___ and Andrew is experiencing ___.
A. downward social comparison; upward social comparison
B. love deprivation; social deprivation
C. emotional loneliness; social loneliness
D. group loneliness; dyadic loneliness
E. loneliness; social rejection

3.7. Which is true?


A. Crowds and audiences reduce social loneliness, but not emotional loneliness.
B. Due the illness transmission, people who belong to many groups tend to be less healthy than
people who belong to fewer groups.
C. Romantic relationships reduce emotional loneliness, but not necessarily social loneliness.
D. When people are alone they feel loneliness.

3.8. Putnam, in his book Bowling Alone, maintains that


A. Only people who suffer from social anxiety play sports (such as bowling) alone.
B. American’s are increasing the strength of their social relations by avoiding competitive play.
C. Social capital in America is growing weaker rather than strengthening.
D. Membership in traditional types of groups, such as community associations, is increasing.
E. Some individualized tasks are performed more effectively when alone rather than with others.

3.9. Judy does not know Roy, but she does know Don, who knows Roy. Judy’s relationship to Roy is
termed:
A. remote
B. two degrees of separation.
C. reciprocal
D. transitional
E. disjunctive

3.10. Researchers have studied the effects of ostracism by


A. telling individuals that, based on personality tests, they are likely to live their “life alone.”
B. arranging for individuals to be excluded from an informal game of ball toss.
C. telling individuals that they have been singled out to be dropped from membership in a group.
D. all of the above are methods used by researchers to study exclusion.

4.1. Why do groups form?


A. People join groups when they need information.
B. Group membership satisfies some basic psychological needs.
C. People join groups to associate with those they like.
D. People join groups to gain social support.
E. All of the above are possible explanations.

4.2. Group formation is influenced by


A. the personality characteristics of individuals who may become members.
B. situational forces that promote affiliation among individuals.
C. interpersonal forces that promote attraction among individuals.
D. the anticipated rewards and costs of membership.
E. all of the above.

4.3. An individual’s ___ is his or her distinctive but enduring dispositional characteristics, including traits
and temperament, that influence his or her responses across situations.
A. general action orientation
B. need orientation
C. integrative relationality
D. affiliative drive
E. personality
4.4. Which one is NOT one of the dimensions of personality in the Big Five theory?
A. Openness
B. Agreeableness
C. Conscientiousness
D. Extraversion
E. Assertiveness

4.5. After extraversion, which one of the factors in the five factor model of personality best predicts
engagement in groups?
A. Openness
B. Agreeableness
C. Conscientiousness
D. Neuroticism
E. Assertiveness

4.6. People who are ___ are less likely to join groups.
A. extraverted
B. high in need for power
C. introverted
D. high in need for affiliation

4.7. Which of the following is FALSE?


A. Across all cultures, extraverts have higher levels of positive affect than introverts do.
B. Introverts that act introverted are happier than when acting extraverted.
C. Extraverts tend to be happier than introverts when involved with groups.
D. Extraverts tend to be more sensitive to rewarding experiences.

4.8. Dimitry focuses more on the relationship aspect of his connection to others. His attitudes and values
are oriented around maintaining these connections. Dimitry is high in
A. need for control
B. task orientation
C. entravision
D. introversion
E. relationality

4.9. I value my relationships with others and spend time maintaining them. When asked to take pictures
that say “who I am,” I tend to include pictures of myself with other people. I prefer smaller, more
intimate groups to larger, more formal ones. I am likely
A. a man.
B. a woman.
C. Introverted.
D. preoccupied in my attachment style.
E. socially anxious.

4.10. Which one doesn’t belong with the others?


A. Anxiety
B. Power
C. Intimacy
D. Affiliation

5.1. What one characteristic of the U.S. Hockey Team most contributed to their win over the Russians?
A. training
B. cohesiveness
C. skill
D. youth
E. morale

5.2. The systems theory concept of equifinality suggests


A. cohesion cannot be defined.
B. cohesion influences outcome, but not process.
C. cohesion is influenced by a recursive feedback process.
D. a group’s cohesion can be traced back to one or more causes.
E. a group is more than the sum of its parts.

5.3. A multicomponent approach to cohesion assumes


A. cohesion is based primarily on interpersonal attraction.
B. there is no single sufficient condition that, when present, will generate group cohesion.
C. the concept of cohesion is, itself, not cohesive.
D. a group where members no longer feel emotionally connected to one another but are still proud
to be members does not qualify as being cohesive.
E. a highly productive group marked by high levels of integrated teamwork but where members
dislike each other does not qualify as being cohesive.

5.4. Who defined group cohesion as “the total field of forces which act on members to remain in the
group”?
A. Leon Festinger and his colleagues
B. Michael Hogg
C. Bruce W. Tuckman
D. Coach Paul (“Bear”) Bryant
E. Coach Herb Brooks

5.5. Rupert is on my soccer team and I like him a great deal, but I really admire Jill because she
epitomizes the qualities I look for in a teammate. As defined by social identity theorist Michael
Hogg, my feelings for Rupert are ___, but my feelings for Jill are ____.
A. individual cohesion; group cohesion
B. specific liking; diffuse liking
C. liking; cohesion
D. direct; reflective
E. personal attraction; social attraction

5.6. Liking for the group is ___ cohesion, whereas high levels of goal-focused team work is ___ cohesion.
A. emotional; team
B. social; structural
C. social; task;
D. attraction; performing
E. personal attraction; social attraction
5.7. Which one is true?
A. Most researchers currently agree that cohesion refers to attraction to the group, not attraction to
individual members.
B. Increases in attraction to the group as a whole increases a group’s cohesion, but increases to
specific individuals in the group lowers a group’s cohesion.
C. Social cohesion is multileveled: it includes attraction to individuals and attraction to the group
as a whole.
D. According to social identity theory, only relatively small groups (fewer than 50 members) can
develop the strength of association among members to become cohesive.

5.8. Which one illustrates the multilevel nature of cohesion?


A. A group where members no longer feel emotionally connected to one another does not qualify as
being cohesive.
B. A highly productive group marked by low levels of integrated teamwork does not qualify as being
cohesive.
C. Cohesion is based on attraction and teamwork..
D. Frank may feel that the group is a cohesive one, but his teammate Ed may not.
E. The members of a cohesive group like each other as individuals, but they also express liking for
the group as a whole.

5.9. Thomas believes that a group is cohesive when it is marked by strong positive bonds of affection
between members of a group. Thomas considers cohesion to be
A. a multidimensional construct.
B. group unity.
C. entitativity.
D. teamwork.
E. a form of attraction.

5.10. The group is high in ___ cohesion, for it gives members a feeling of belongingness, “weness,” and
inclusion.
A. attraction
B. social
C. collective
D. task
E. associative

6.1. Which of the following terms does NOT directly refer to group structure?
A. personality trait
B. norms
C. attraction relations
D. role
E. status

6.2. ___ norms describe what people typically do; ___ norms state what people should do.
A. Descriptive; expectational
B. Descriptive; injunctive
C. Prescriptive; proscriptive
D. Behavioral; preferential
E. Ought; should

6.3. Which one is a descriptive norm?


A. It is wrong to eat meat.
B. Cheating is immoral and should be punished.
C. Most people enjoy watching sports.
D. The leader should the meeting effectively.
E. Recycling is something everyone should do.

6.4. According to the text, ___ norms include an evaluative component.


A. descriptive
B. injunctive
C. expectational
D. preferential
E. base-rate

6.5. Researchers tested the idea that people conform to norms, not just to avoid social disapproval, but
also to avoid self-condemnation by arranging for students at Texas A&M University (nicknamed the
Aggies) to work collaboratively on tasks. They found that people felt the most negative when they
were told:
A. they did not act like most Aggies.
B. they had failed to uphold the Aggie motto.
C. other Aggies had excluded them.
D. they had failed to help a student who was struggling.
E. they had helped someone from another university.

6.6. Milgram (1992) instructed his research assistants to ask people on a busy New York City subway to
give up their seats. Milgram found that
A. most people would turn over their seats when asked.
B. the research assistants were verbally criticized for making the request.
C. response of the subway riders was the most interesting part of the study
D. his research assistants frequently could not carry out the request.

6.7. Sherif’s study of groups watching a pinpoint of light indicated that


A. norms could be created experimentally.
B. influence is a mystical process.
C. group behavior can be predicted from individual behavior.
D. norms are independent of individual perceptions.

6.8. Why did Sherif’s subjects act the way they did?
A. They had abnormal personalities.
B. They made cognitive errors.
C. They did not believe the cover story.
D. They buckled under the pressure.
E. Norms developed that structured their perceptions.

6.9. Sherif’s study of the autokinetic effect situation indicated that norms
A. emerge as members reach a consensus through reciprocal influence.
B. describe how members act, feel, and think.
C. define which behaviors are “bad” or “wrong.”
D. emerge from personal, idiosyncratic beliefs.
E. identify behaviors that should not be performed.

6.10. Sherif found that subjects who had conformed with their group’s judgments in the autokinetic
situation tended to ___ when later isolated and asked to make judgments.
A. return to their own idiosyncratic estimates
B. continue basing their judgments on the group norm
C. underestimate the distance moved
D. give variable and unpredictable responses

7.1. Asch studied influence by


A. measuring how much students’ attitudes changed during college.
B. asking people to judge the movement of a pinpoint of light in a dark room.
C. watching how people in groups responded to the commands of an authority.
D. having people make judgments about the length of lines.
E. asking groups to simulate juries making decisions.

7.2. Social ___ is an interpersonal process that changes the thoughts, feelings, or behaviors of another
person.
A. motivation
B. influence
C. comparison
D. divulgence
E. majority

7.3. Majority influence leads to ___ whereas minority influence leads to ___.
A. individuality; diversity
B. originality; similarity
C. consensus; innovation
D. unification; harmony
E. variety; novelty

7.4. When people change their opinions, judgments, and actions to match the group, they are
A. conforming.
B. forming.
C. performing.
D. reflecting.
E. leading.

7.5. The typical person conformed on about ___ of the trials in Asch’s experiment.
A. 1 in 20
B. one-third
C. two-thirds
D. nearly all

7.6. In the Asch experiment


A. subjects were seated in individual cubicles.
B. confederates gave wrong answers on some trials.
C. the problems the group worked on had no one “right” answer.
D. subjects made their judgments anonymously.

7.7. Asch’s findings are noteworthy in that he found that


A. the minority influenced the majority.
B. people were very obedient.
C. a substantial number of people conformed and gave the wrong answer.
D. conformity increased at a constant rate as new members joined the group.
E. people complied, but they did not conform.

7.8. Asch’s findings suggest that conformity begins leveling off when the group size reaches ___ people.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 12
E. 15

7.9. Drawing on Asch’s findings involve group judgments of line-lengths, how big must a group be before
the influence processes reach the “usual” or “typical” level?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 10
E. 12

7.10. Which statement is true?


A. Influence is unidirectional, for it flows from the majority to the minority.
B. A group of 8 against 4 is psychologically identical to a group of 2 against 1.
C. Asch’s subjects conformed for one of 2 reasons: they were fearful or weak-willed.
D. A majority of 4 is no more influential than a majority of 2.
E. None of the above are true.

8.1. Social power implies


A. social influence.
B. forces operating in opposition to one another.
C. inducing change in another person.
D. resisting other’s influence attempts.
E. all of the above.

8.2. The researcher who conducted the well-known study of obedience to authority was
A. Stanley Milgram.
B. Stanley Schachter.
C. Philip Zimbardo.
D. Solomon Asch.
E. Herbert Kelman.
8.3. Milgram found that
A. very few people are willing to obey another person if it will lead to harm.
B. only authoritarian persons are willing to obey.
C. approximately 65% of his subjects were highly obedient.
D. most people who obeyed did so happily.

8.4. Obedience rates in Milgram’s studies were lowest in the ____ condition.
A. voice-feedback
B. women only
C. remote
D. touch-proximity
E. proximity
8.5. Which is true?
A. About one quarter of Milgram’s subjects “saw through” the deception and were suspicious.
B. Participants stopped when they realized they were hurting the learner.
C. Initially, Milgram expected that very few of his participants would be fully obedient.
D. Milgram asked participants to judge the length of nearly identical lines in groups.
E. About 10% of Milgram’s refused to give even the mildest shock.

8.6. Which is false?


A. In the standard condition about 65% of the subjects obeyed to the 450 volt level.
B. In the standard condition 100% of the subjects obeyed up to the 300 volt level.
C. Individuals were more obedient when part of an obedient group.
D. When the victim complained of a heart condition only 12% were obedient.
E. Having to touch the victim reduced, but did not eliminate, obedience.

8.7. Milgram recorded the least obedience when


A. he replicated the study away from Yale (in downtown Bridgeport).
B. the shocks were being given to the experimenter who insisted he be released.
C. part of a group that refused to continue.
D. when the authority left the room.
E. when the victim complained of a heart condition.

8.8. Most of the participants in the Milgram experiment


A. did not take the situation seriously.
B. did not think they were harming the learner.
C. struggled to resist the orders of the experimenter.
D. did not notice the harm they were causing.
E. enjoyed the part the played in the research study.

8.9. From a group dynamics perspective, obedience was high in the Milgram experiment because of the
A. immorality of the participants.
B. persuasiveness of the experimenter.
C. power of the experimenter in the situation.
D. ambiguity of the situation.
E. frustration and anger of the subjects.

8.10. Subsequent studies of obedience in situations like that studied by Milgram suggest that
A. Milgram’s findings apply only to that period in American history, and cannot be replicated.
B. most of the participants were not taken in by his deceptions.
C. the people he studied were unusual—their personalities prompted them to obey.
D. the obedience to authorities he documented is common in military and organizational settings.
E. obedience is higher in the U.S. and Germany than in other countries.

9.1. Leadership is best defined as


A. manipulating others to do one’s bidding.
B. power over people.
C. an innate skill in taking charge.
D. knowing how to work well with people.
E. guidance of others in their pursuits.

9.2. A leader often emerges in a group when the


A. task to be completed is complex and unstructured.
B. group grows in size.
C. group faces a crisis.
D. task to be completed requires collective effort.
E. all of the above.

9.3. Which statement is true?


A. Not all groups require a leader.
B. Leadership is power over other people.
C. Good leaders are innately qualified to manage people.
D. A group’s success or failure depends, ultimately, on its leader.
E. Groups prefer to be leaderless rather than led.

9.4. The romance of leadership explains


A. why leaders are loved.
B. why so much theory is devoted to the concept of leadership.
C. people’s tendency to overestimate a leader’s influence and control.
D. why most assume that leadership is an inborn talent.
E. sex differences in leadership.

9.5. It is “a reciprocal, transactional, transformational, cooperative, and goal-seeking process in which


individuals are permitted to influence and motivate others.” What is being described?
A. power
B. influence
C. an agentic state
D. Leadership

9.6. Leadership is closely associated with what two aspects of the group?
A. fighting and fleeing
B. conflict and authority
C. status and power
D. task and interpersonal relations
E. power and submissiveness

9.7. Alice is a ___ leader: she lets her employees know what is expected of them. She organizes her work
force, sets definite standards for performance, and gives frequent feedback of employee progress.
A. least preferred
B. relationship oriented
C. task oriented
D. production focused

9.8. The Ohio State Studies identified which of the following leadership dimensions?
A. Concern and initiating communication
B. Consideration and initiating structure
C. Goal emphasis and interaction support
D. Work facilitation and assertiveness
E. Task (initiating structure) and relationship (consideration)

9.9. Meta-analytic review (Judge, Piccolo, & Ilies, 2004) indicates that relationship leadership is most
strongly associated with
A. leader effectiveness
B. group performance
C. follower motivation
D. follower satisfaction with the leader
E. follower job satisfaction

9.10. The theory of “leadership substitutes” argues that


A. in some cases leadership is unnecessary and/or unlikely.
B. the need for a leader is influenced only by members’ basic needs.
C. groups should be organized so that leaders are unnecessary.
D. groups work best when each member substitutes as the leader.

10.1. Which one is NOT one of the types of tasks identified by McGrath in his circumplex model?
A. choosing
B. generating
C. executing
D. negotiating
E. effecting

10.2. McGrath’s model of group tasks distinguishes among tasks that require
A. task-focus and relationship interaction.
B. generating, choosing, negotiating, and executing.
C. conflict and cooperation.
D. rational analysis and emotional reactivity.

10.3. When researchers measured “group intelligence” by having groups complete a series of tasks that
sampled from many sectors of the McGrath circumplex they discovered groups
A. of mostly men outperformed groups of women or ones with many female members.
B. performed best when members contributed at nearly equal rates when working on the tasks.
C. that did well on performance type tasks did poorly on decision-making tasks.
D. with many intelligent individual members performed no better than groups whose members
were less intelligent.

10.4. People turn to groups to perform tasks when the


A. task is beyond the skills and resources of a single person.
B. consequences of poor performance would be catastrophic.
C. task is so complex that it can only be successfully performed through integrated action.
D. All of the above.

10.5. Steiner’s “law” of group productivity assumes that you must take into account ___ to predict a
group’s actual performance level.
A. losses due to faulty process
B. the personalities of the group members
C. the performance of other groups
D. the extent to which the group functions as a team
E. communication, leadership, and motivation

10.6. Steiner’s “law” of group productivity states Actual Productivity (AP) =


A. PP – PL.
B. P + PG.
C. PP + AP – PL.
D. PO + PL.
E. PG + PL.

10.7. Triplett (1898) found that children would reel faster when
A. they were timed.
B. next to another reeling child.
C. an experimenter was in the room.
D. in a large group of observers.
E. a cockroach was placed next to them.

10.8. Which conceptual distinction is most relevant to understanding social facilitation?


A. task vs. socioemotional
B. dominant vs. nondominant
C. internal vs. external
D. unitary vs. discretionary

10.9. According to Zajonc, for ___ tasks the presence of others ___ performance.
A. simple; detracts from
B. conjunctive; detracts from
C. complex; enhances
D. simple; enhances
E. conjunctive; enhances

10.10. A meta-analysis of 241 social facilitation studies (Bond & Titus, 1983) concluded that
A. the presence of others increases the quality of task performance on simple tasks.
B. performance decrements on complex tasks are more pronounced that performance gains on
simple tasks.
C. people perform complex tasks more rapidly when others are present.
D. social facilitation rarely occurs.

11.1. Which statement is true?


A. Kennedy’s advisors experienced so much social loafing that they did not exert sufficient effort.
B. The individuals on the committee lacked the skills they needed to work in groups.
C. Kennedy did not exert enough authority during the discussions.
D. The Bay of Pigs planners made a series of errors in judgment.
E. The Bay of Pigs invasion would have exceeded if not for the bad weather.

11.2. The functional model traces good group decision-making to


A. the intelligence of the group members.
B. members’ ability to resist their biases.
C. the degree of training the group members have received.
D. the use of teamwork procedures.
E. using proper procedures when making the decision.

11.3. According a functional model of group decision making, which sequence is correct?
A. orientation, discussion, implementation, decision
B. discussion, orientation, decision, implementation
C. orientation, discussion, decision, implementation
D. discussion, decision, orientation, implementation
E. implementation, discussion, decision, orientation

11.4. By the third week of the project, the group was starting to gel; the members shared a common
understanding of who was supposed to do what, who could be counted on to keep up with their
responsibilities, and how each person’s contribution fit in with the group’s goals. The group had
developed a
A. shared mental model.
B. primed goal orientation.
C. transportational memory
D. collective heuristic.
E. attributional framework.

11.5. Studies of groups making decisions indicate that they spend too little time in the ___ stage of
decision-making.
A. orientation
B. identity
C. decision
D. implementation
E. judging

11.6. A collective information-processing model of group decision making assumes that


A. groups are motivated to make good decisions.
B. when individuals join groups they are instinctively driven to seek information.
C. groups seek out and process information to formulate decisions.
D. group member’s thoughts are sometimes inconsistent with their behaviors.
E. social loafing is a cognitive deficit.

11.7. When Bales used his Interaction Process Analysis (IPA) to study the content of group’s discussions
during decision making he discovered that the most frequent type of behavior displayed by group
members was
A. showing solidarity.
B. giving opinion.
C. asking for suggestions.
D. planning the process.
E. disagreeing.

11.8. While collective memory is good, it is NOT better than ___ memory
A. an average individual’s
B. the best member’s
C. a nominal group’s
D. dyadic

11.9. Ben is struggling to remember the name of the theorist who developed the theory of groupthink.
When he says, “I think it was Joplin,” Angela says, “Oh, I remember. It was Janis.” This process
illustrates
A. cross-cueing.
B. groupthink.
C. transactive memory.
D. collective induction.
E. collective deduction.

11.10. The group is sharing information, planning, evaluating ideas, monitoring its progress on the task,
and expressing commitment. It is most likely in the ___ stage.
A. orientation
B. discussion
C. decision
D. implementation
E. judging

12.1. Which is true?


A. “Team” is another word for “group.”
B. A team is basically a leader-centered group.
C. Groups are teams, but teams are not groups.
D. Teams were used in work settings before they were applied to sports.
E. Teams are groups, but not all groups are teams.

12.2. Which is true?


A. Most Fortune 500 companies use teams, but nonprofit organizations tend to be individually
focused.
B. The scientific management approach to productivity, popular early in the 20 th century,
discouraged the use of teams.
C. After peaking in the mid-1950s, team approaches have been declining in popularity.
D. The word “team” was first used to describe military squads within the Roman legions.

12.3. Teams are


A. usually self-managed; they rarely have leaders.
B. used primarily in educational settings.
C. noteworthy in that members are pursuing personal goals rather than collective ones.
D. possess all the basic qualities of a group, but to a more extreme degree.

12.4. What does it mean to say that teams are “hypergroups?”


A. Teams are highly energized groups.
B. Teams are more far more effective than ordinary groups.
C. Teams are groups, but not all groups are teams.
D. Teams possess all the basic qualities of any group, but to a more extreme degree.

12.5. In true teams the team members


A. Are pursuing goals that each one finds personally meaningful.
B. Compete with each other, any one person’s success means someone else in the group will fail.
C. Seek communal goals.
D. Realize that, should they fail as individuals, others will step in and help them.
E. Monitor their progress toward their goals through group discussion.

12.6. Which one is NOT a quality that is characteristic of teams, in general?


A. Teams have leaders who provide support and guidance to the team members.
B. Team member interaction tends to be concentrated and continuous.
C. Teams have collective goals, meaning that success and failure occurs at the group level.
D. Team members are highly interdependent rather than self-sufficient.
E. Teams tend to be well structured, in that roles, norms, and relations are stable.

12.7. Paramedics, a surgery team, an infantry squad, a baseball team, and an airliner’s flight crew are
examples of ___ teams.
A. project
B. advisory
C. management
D. service
E. action

12.8. They plan, direct, strategize, integrate, coordinate, and prioritize. They are ___ teams.
A. project
B. advisory
C. management
D. service
E. action

12.9. The work group is appointed by the president to develop a specific action plan for decreasing the
negative impact of the organization on the environment, and when it delivers its plan, it will
disband. This work group is BEST described as a(n)
A. action group.
B. team.
C. crew.
D. task force.
E. service team.

12.10. The find out what caused an explosion on an oil rig, the company created a team that
investigated the accident and wrote up their findings in a detailed report. This work group is BEST
described as a(n)
A. action group.
B. team.
C. crew.
D. advisory team.
E. service team.

13.1. Groups experiencing ___ have differences of opinion, disagreements, and show signs of discord
and friction between members.
A. mixed-motives
B. conflict
C. pluralistic ignorance
D. evolution

13.2. The Eskadors battle with a neighboring group, the Uminiacs, for control of a valley that contains
rich, productive farmland. The Eskadors and Uminiacs are experiencing ___ conflict.
A. personal
B. substantive
C. procedural
D. mixed-motive
E. Intergroup

13.3. Person A vs. Person B is to ___ as Group X vs. Group Y is to ___.


A. tension; conflict
B. intragroup conflict; intergroup conflict
C. intergroup conflict; intragroup conflict
D. interindividual conflict; interpersonal conflict
E. conflict; tension

13.4. For Deutsch, cooperation is to competition as ___ is to ___.


A. mixed; motive
B. promotive; contrient
C. individual; group
D. group; individual
E. goal; path

13.5. Studies of neural activity suggest that regions of the brain associated with
A. processing social rewards are active when individuals are cooperating.
B. making choices are active when people are cooperating and when they are competing.
C. perceiving other people's motives are more active during competition.
D. distinguishing oneself from other people are active during competition.
E. all of the above.

13.6. A mixed-motive situation occurs when


A. some group members want to compete, but others want to cooperate.
B. conflict shifts over time from high to low.
C. the group’s goal structures include elements of both cooperation and competition.
D. individuals aren’t certain what their goals are.
E. group members must work with those they dislike.

13.7. Deborah and Frank are studying together for the next test. Deborah wants to help Frank do well
but at the same time she also wants to get a better score on the test than he does. Deborah is in
a(n) ___ situation
A. anomic
B. individualistic
C. mixed-motive
D. contrient
E. promotive
13.8. Bill and Ted have been captured and placed in a “prisoners’ dilemma.” If Bill confesses to the
crime, he would be ___ Ted.
A. cooperating with
B. independent of
C. competing with
D. Helping

13.9. The PDG (Prisoners’ Dilemma Game) involves desires to ___ and ___.
A. fight; flee
B. cooperate; compete
C. work; play
D. help; harm
E. affiliate; remain alone

13.10. Frank and Dinah are playing the PDG (Prisoner’s Dilemma Game). If they both pick A, they both
win $2. If they both pick B, they both lose $1. If one picks A and the other picks B, the one who picks
A loses $1 and the one who picks B wins $4. If Frank picks B he is making the ___ choice.
A. mixed-motive
B. neutral
C. cooperative
D. competitive
E. Individualistic

14.1. At the Robbers Cave, the Sherifs fueled intergroup conflict by


A. manipulating the group leaders.
B. promoting intergroup competition.
C. faking intergroup attacks.
D. giving one group special privileges.
E. promoting intragroup competition.

14.2. In the Robbers Cave experiment the Sherifs formed groups by


A. letting the boys join the team they preferred.
B. assigning the boys to two groups so that friends were clustered together.
C. contacting already existing groups and asking them to participate.
D. picking up the boys on different days and keeping them apart for one week.

14.3. The boys who participated in the Robbers Cave study were
A. from inner city juvenile delinquent gangs.
B. identified by their teachers as very aggressive.
C. normal, well-adjusted 11-year-old boys.
D. repeatedly reminded by the staff that the other group was the “enemy.”
E. not permitted to talk to the other group.

14.4. Sue has hated Eskadors ever since the scholarship to college she sought was given to an Eskadorian
rather than her. Her reaction illustrates ___ theory.
A. scapegoat
B. realistic conflict
C. discontinuity
D. evolutionary
E. social categorization

14.5. Realistic conflict theory emphasizes the link between conflict and
A. perceptions.
B. competition.
C. aggression.
D. social categorization.

14.6. The studies conducted by Blake and Mouton with business executives encouraged conflict by
A. manipulating the group leaders.
B. setting the stage for intergroup competition.
C. giving one group a special advantage.
D. promoting intergroup cooperation.
E. treating them as a unit or Gestalt
14.7. Insko and his colleagues call the level of conflict displayed during intergroup conflict the
“discontinuity effect” because
A. such conflicts disrupt relationships so substantially.
B. the abrupt increases and decreases in conflict are not continuous.
C. groups are markedly more competitive than individuals.
D. such conflicts spiral upward so rapidly.
E. all of the above.

14.8. Insko and his colleagues studies of conflict indicate that:


A. groups have a subduing effect on individuals, so they tend to inhibit conflict.
B. intragroup conflict is stronger than intergroup conflict.
C. interacting groups are more competitive than individuals.
D. competition over resources inhibits conflict.
E. pairs are more competitive than triads.

14.9. According to studies conducted by Insko and his colleagues, which type of interaction would likely
generate the most conflict?
A. one-on-one
B. within-group
C. one-on-group
D. group-on-one
E. group-on-group

14.10. Insko and his colleagues believe that the discontinuity effect is caused by
A. people’s relatively greater distrust of groups.
B. social identity processes.
C. stereotypes that are socially shared among group members.
D. changes in personality processes that occur in group settings.

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