RUSAYL INSTITUTE

LIQUID PENETRANT TESTING – LEVEL II

GENERAL QUESTIONAIRE

1. Emulsifier time:
a. Is important but not normally critical.
b. Is the time need to rinse the emulsifier and excess penetrant from the surface.
c. Is extremely important and will greatly affect test results.
d. Should be as long as economically practical.

2. The function of emulsifier in the post emulsification Penetrant method is to:

a. More rapidly drive the penetrant deep into, tight cracks.
b. React with the surface penetrant to make the penetrant water washable.
c. Add fluorescent dye or pigment to the penetrant
d. Provide a coating to which dry powder developer can adhere.

3. Which factor would apply in determining the dwell time required for the penetrant to
be effective?
a. Type of discontinuity sought.
b. Shape of part.
c. Size of part
d. All of the above

4. The term “non-relevant indication” is used to describe certain types of penetrant

testing indications. Which of the following would be typical “non-relevant indication”?
a. Indication due to part geometry or part design configurations.
b. Nonmagnetic indications.
c. Multiple indications
d. Non-linear indications

5. Post cleaning is particularly important where residual penetrant or developer materials

may combine with other materials in service to produce:
a. Corrosive action
b. A contrasting background
c. False penetrant indication
d. Proper surface tension.

6. When inspecting using fluorescent penetrant methods, indications will appear as a:

a. Soft white glow against a gray background.
b. Brilliant yellow-green glow against a white background.
c. Brilliant yellow-green glow against a deep red background.
d. Brilliant yellow-green glow against a black background.

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7. Fluorescent penetrant testing is not advisable on the parts which are already tested by
colour contrast penetrants because:
a. Fluorescent penetrant will not enter the defect because its opening is already wetted by
colour contrast penetrant.
b. Colour contrast dye will be heavier than fluorescent dye.
c. Colour contrast dye will kill the fluoresce of fluorescent dye.
d. Fluorescent penetrant testing can be carried out on parts tested by colour contrast
penetrant without loss of sensitivity.

8. Post emulsifiable penetrants give higher sensitivity because:

a. They penetrate deeper in the discontinuity.
b. Excess penetrant removal is more effectively done by controlling emulsification time.
c. They give better contrast with developer.
d. All of the above

9. An ideal penetrant should have:

a. Low surface tension, low viscosity, low contact angle.
b. High surface tension, low viscosity, low contact angle.
c. High surface tension, low viscosity, High contact angle.
d. High surface tension, High viscosity, High contact angle.

10. Fluorescent material used in fluorescent penetrant responds most actively to radiant
energy of wavelength approximately
a. 7000 Angstroms
b. 3000 Micro-watts.
c. 3650 Angstroms.
d. 100 Foot-candles.

11. Prior to penetrant testing of previously machined soft metal part, which of the cleaning
method listed below would best remove any smeared metal that could mask
discontinuity?
a. Etching
b. Shot blasting.
c. Water cleaning with detergent
d. Acetone wash.

12. Which of the following are not compatible with chlorine ions, total chloine and
sulphur?
a. High nickel alloys
b. Austenitic steel
c. Titanium
d. All of the above

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13. Recording penetrant indication for documentation and illustration is important. Which
of the recording method can provide the most of the information?
a. Photography
b. Sketching
c. Replication
d. Lifting the indication with the tape

14. The tendency of a liquid penetrant to enter a discontinuity is primarily related to:
a. The viscosity of the penetrant
b. The capillary force
c. The chemical inertness of the penetrant
d. The specific gravity of the penetrant

15. Fillet welds on the structure of high tower to be tested by magnetic particle testing.
Since electric power was not available, it decided to carry our liquid penetrant test.
Which of the following process will be most suitable?
a. Fluorescent water washable penetrant using dry developer.
b. Fluorescent post emulsifiable penetrant with dry developer.
c. Fluorescent solvent removable penetrant with non-aqueous developer
d. None of the above

16. PT test to be conducted on a test piece using water washable penetrant and wet
developer. After penetrant application what should be the proper sequence of
remaining operation, after dwell time?
a. Rinse the excess penetrant, apply the developer, dry in the drier, inspect.
b. Rinse the excess penetrant, dry in drier, apply developer, inspect.
c. Rinse the excess penetrant, apply the developer inspect.
d. All the above will give satisfactory results.

17. Anodized surfaces are usually considered to be ill-suited to penetrant testing because
the anodization process produces a surface layer that
a. Is extremely soft and smooth
b. Has a multitude of extremely small pores
c. Contains an alkaline residue that “stops” the penetrant
d. Cannot be cleaned by the usual processes.
e. Scales when it comes into contact with dye penetration products

18. The static penetration parameter (SPP) is defined as:

a. SPP = T COS. θ T = Surface Tension.
b. SPP = T SIN. θ θ = Contact Angle.
c. SPP = T / COS. θ
d. None of the above.

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19. Fluorescent penetrant have higher sensitivity than visible penetrants because:
a. They are visible in thinner films.
b. They have better contrast ratio with the background
c. Both ‘a’ & ‘b’
d. ‘a’ & ‘b’ both are wrong

20. Viscosities of most modern penetrants are around:

a. 20 Centistokes.
b. 10 Centistokes.
c. 5 Centistokes.
d. 1 Centistokes.
e. None of the above.

21. Plastic developers have high

a. Sensitivity
b. Resolution.
c. Both ‘a’ & ‘b’
d. Neither ‘a’ nor ‘b’

22. Very thin coat of penetrant would be the result of applying penetrant by
a. Spray (aerosol).
b. Dip-drain method
c. Electrostatic spray
d. Fine brush.

23. Which of the following have lower water tolerance:

a. Lipophilic emulsifier
b. Hydrophilic emulsifier
c. Both have zero tolerance.
d. Both have infinite tolerance

24. In water washable method, the angle of spray distance from the test part and pressure
of water spray to be
a. 45º, 20” & 80 psi
b. 45º, 20” & 40 psi
c. 30º, 20” & 30 psi
d. 45º, 12” & 40 psi

25. A fatigue crack is expected near a hole in an aircraft component the most suitable test
combination would be:
a. Type – II penetrant, sensitivity Level – I, Method B, developer form D.
b. Type – I penetrant, Sensitivity Level – 3, Method C, developer form A.
c. Type – I penetrant, sensitivity Level – 3, Method D, developer from B.
d. Type – II penetrant, sensitivity Level – 3, Method C, developer from A.

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26. A penetrant with high viscosity is likely to have:
a. High capillarity.
b. Slow penetration rate
c. High volatility
d. All of the above
e. ‘a’ & ‘b’ only

27. While carrying out inspections using black light, the operator should:
a. Avoid looking at the black light
b. Allow 5 minutes dark adaptation time prior to starting the inspection
c. Wear special lead glasses
d. All of the above
e. Both ‘a’ or ‘b’

28. The minimum light level recommended during color contrast penetrant is:
a. 200 LUX
b. 500 LUX
c. 1000 LUX
d. 2000 LUX

29. All of the following material can be tested by the usual liquid penetrant tests except :
a. Unglazed porous ceramic
b. Titanium
c. High alloy steel
d. Cast iron

30. The inspection of a test specimen for discontinuities should take place :
a. Immediately after the developer has been applied
b. Any time after the developer has been applied
c. After the developer has been on the test specimen for the proper development time
d. Immediately after the rinse operation

31. Which of the following can be removed from the surface of a test specimen by vapor
degreasing?
a. Oil
b. Paint
c. Phosphate coatings
d. Oxides

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32. Which one of the following statements is an incorrect use of crack panels (blocks)?
a. To establish a standard size of crack that can be reproduced as needed
b. To determine the relative sensitivities of two different penetrants
c. To determine if a penetrant has lost or has reduced brilliance on fluorescent penetrants
because of contamination
d. To determine the degree or method of cleaning necessary the degree or method of
cleaning necessary to remove penetrant on the surface without removing it from the
cracks

33. A good commercial penetrant should have a

a. Low flash point
b. High flash point
c. Medium flash point
d. Flash point is not a factor to be considered

34. Which of the following types of discontinuities could be classified as a primary

processing discontinuity often found in cast material ?
a. Fatigue crack
b. Stress – corrosion crack
c. Porosity
d. Lack of penetration

35. Aluminum alloy test specimens that have been tested by the liquid penetrant method
should be thoroughly cleaned after testing because :
a. The acid in the penetrant may cause severe corrosion
b. The alkaline content of wet developers and most emulsifiers could result in surface
pitting , particularly in moist atmospheres
c. The toxic residue from the test will severely inhibit the application could cause a fire
because of internal combustion
d. A chemical reaction between the penetrant and aluminum could cause a fire because of
internal combustion

36. The penetrant indications for a cold shut on the surface of a casting will be a :
a. Dotted or smooth continuous line
b. Cluster of small indications
c. Rough deep indication
d. Large bulbous indication

37. When improper process causes inspection difficulties, what should the inspector for ?
a. Swab parts with a solvent
b. Use a correct bleed – back procedure
c. Erase non-relevant fluorescence
d. Reprocess the part

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38. In Fig 1 which has got poor wetting property?
a. 1A
b. 1B
c. 1C
d. None

39. In Fig 2 which has got good wetting property?

a. 2B
b. 2A
c. 2C
d. None

40. In Fig 3 what does the arrow mark (top layer) indicate?
a. Remover
b. Penetrant
c. Emulsifier
d. Developer

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LIQUID PENETRANT TESTING – LEVEL II
GENERAL QUESTIONAIRE
ANSWERS

Q.NO. ANSWERS Q.NO. ANSWERS

1 C 21 C
2 B 22 C
3 A 23 A
4 A 24 D
5 A 25 B
6 D 26 B
7 C 27 E
8 B 28 C
9 B 29 A
10 C 30 C
11 A 31 A
12 D 32 A
13 A 33 B
14 B 34 C
15 D 35 B
16 A 36 A
17 B 37 D
18 A 38 A
19 C 39 C
20 C 40 C