LISTENING SECTION

In this section of the test, you will have the opportunity to show how well you understand spoken
English. There are four parts to this section with special instructions for each part.

PART ONE – Question 1 to 4

Instruction: In this part of the test, you will hear dialogues and questions, in English. The
question and the dialogues will be repeated twice. They will not be printed on your test book, so
please listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying.
After you listen to a dialogue and question, read the five possible answers, and then decide which
one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Now listen to a sample question.
You will hear:

Man : How can I help you, Ma’am?

Woman : Please buy a kilo of rice, two kilos of sugar, a half kilo of eggs, and pack of
tea.
Man : Do you need enough chicken nuggets?
Woman : No, we still have enough in the refrigerator.

Narrator : What shouldn’t the man buy?

A. Eggs
B. Tea
C. Rice
D. Sugar
E. Nuggets

The best answer to the question “What shouldn’t the man buy?” is nuggets. Therefore, you
should choose answer (E).

1. A. The final round of talent contest on TV

B. The winner of talent contest on TV
C. A unique talent in a talent contest
D. A sand painter in a talent contest
E. The women’s favourite contestant in a talent contest

2. A. The boy’s grandfather is not hospitalized

B. The boy’s grandfather recovers soon
C. The boy participate in debate contest
D. The boy will win the debate contest
E. The boy recovers from his illness

3. A. He fell from a tree

B. He fell from a bicycle
C. He slipped and fell into a ditch
D. His bicycle was hit by a motorcyclist
E. He had to fix his loosened bicycle chain
 4. A. The man can rent a traditional costume
B. The man can buy a traditional costume
C. The man cannot wear a traditional costume.
D. The man should not join the carnival
E. The man should join the carnival

PART TWO – Question 5 to 7

Instructions: In this part of the test, you will hear incomplete dialogues in English, followed by
four responses will be repeated twice. They will not be printed on your test book, so please listen
carefully to understand what the speakers are saying. Choose the best response to each question.
Now listen to the sample question.

Woman : Do you have any plans for next weekend?

Man : I am thinking of going mountain climbing
Woman : That’s interesting. Can I accompany you?
Man : Sure. Do you have any suggestions for activities there?
Woman : ..........

Narrator : What does the woman probably respond?

A. Sorry, but I don’t know much about that
B. Yes, we could have a barbeque there
C. Yes, I think that mountain is too high
D. Yes, I really love mountain climbing

The best answer to the question “What does the woman probably respond?” is “Yes, we could
have barbeque there.” Therefore, you should choose answer (B)

5. Mark your answer on your answer sheet

6. Mark your answer on your answer sheet
7. Mark your answer on your answer sheet

PART THREE – Question 8 to 11

Instruction: In this part of the test, you will hear dialogues of monologues, in English. The
dialogues or monologues will be repeated twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so
please listen carefully to understand what the speakers are saying.

After you listen to a dialogue or monologues, look at the five pictures provided in your test book,
then decide which one would be the most suitable for the dialogue or monologue you have heard.
8.
9.

1
0.

1
1.

PART FOUR – Question 12 to 15

Instruction: In this part of the test, you will hear several monologues. Each monologue will be
repeated twice. They will not be printed in your test book, so please listen carefully to understand
what the speakers are saying.
After you listen to the monologue and the question, read the five possible answers, decide which
one would be the best answer to the question you have heard.

12. A. A beautiful beach in Banten

B. Caves along the Indian Ocean
C. Underwater beauty of Sawarna Beach
D. The most beautiful beach in Indonesia
E. Challenging experiences in Sawarna Beach

13. A. Divers
B. Swimmers
C. Surfers
D. Tourist
E. Foreigners
14. A. They were short
B. They were very thin
C. They made it could not run quickly
 D. They could not be used to climb a tree
E. They could be caught by a hunter easily

15. A. Its legs should be hidden

B. Its legs were made powerful
C. Its legs made it proud
D. Its legs were beautiful
E. Its legs were useful

~~~This is the end of listening section~~~

READING SECTION

The following text is for questions 16 to 20.

Dear Editor,

We are writing to complain about ads on TV. There are so many ads, especially during our favorite
programs. We think they should be stopped for a number of reasons.
First, ads are nuisance. They go on for a long time and there are so many. Sometimes there seems to be
too many ads in one program. Seconds, ads are a bad influence on people. They try to encourage people
to buy unhealthy food like beer, soft drink, candy and chips. And they make people want things they do
not really need and cannot afford. It can lead to consumerism. Finally, ads disturb programs that people
watch. That is because they want to put all their ads on popular programs that a lot of people watch. Some
programs that are not so popular get stopped because they do not attract enough ads, even though those
programs may be someone’s favorite.
For those reasons, we think your TV station should stop showing ads. They interrupt programs. They
are a bad influence on people, and they sometimes put a stop to people’s favorite shows.
We are sick of ads, and now we mostly watch other channels.

Masarani S.W.

16. What is the purpose of the writer in writing the text?

A. To complain about ads on TV
B. To encourage people to buy TV
C. To stop the favorite programs on TV
D. To support the existence of ads on TV
E. To persuade the reader to make good ads on TV

17. How many reasons does the writer put forth to stop ads on TV?
A. One D. Four
B. Two E. Five
C. Three

18. “First, ads are nuisance.”

The similar meaning of the underlined word is ….(Paragraph 2)
A. Obedience D. exciting
 B. Annoyance E. boring
C. importance

19. Which is NOT the writer’s opinion about the ads?

A. They are nuisance D. They give negative influence
B. They lead to consumerism E. They make the program
interesting
C. They interrupt the programs

20. “They try to encourage people to buy unhealthy food like beer, soft drink, candy and chips.”
(Paragraph 2) The underlined word means ….
A. accommodate D. create
B. stimulate E. divide
C. speculate

The following text is for questions 21to 25.

Around Bali
Bali, the fabled “Island of the Gods” has been enchanting visitors for centuries with its
rich cultural traditions and spectacular panoramas. As for recreation, there is no shortage of
options. Nature walks, horseback riding, diving, surfing – even bungee jumping and white water
rafting – await the adventurers here.

 Bali Barat National Park

Bali’s largest nature reserve encompasses 70.000 hectares of rainforest and 7,000 hectares of
coral reefs and is home to many rare species of fauna.

 Bedugul
The cool highland resort of Bedugul on the shores of lake Bratan has become a popular
retreat for tourist and residents as well.

 Besakih
Bali’s “Mother Temple” is a sprawling complex of shrines and pavilions set high in the
slopes of sacred Mt. Agung.

 Kuta
Kuta Bay, with its long stretch of white sand and brilliant sunset, has attracted swarms of
visitors since its rediscovery by surfers and sun worshippers in the 1970s.

21. What does the text above describe?

A. Bali and it’s tourist areas D. Bali and it’s food
B. Bali and it’s religion E. Bali and it’s art
C. Bali and it’s people

22. “Bali’s largest nature reserve encompasses 70.000 hectares of …”

The underlined word means ….
A. Involves D. enriches
B. Comprises E. reaches
 C. enlarges

23. “... for centuries with its rich cultural traditions and spectacular panoramas.”
The underlined word refers to ….
A. National part D. Besakih
B. Bali island E. Kuta
C. Bedugul

24. “... has become a popular retreat for tourist and residents as well”
The closest meaning of the underlined word is …
A. Surrounding D. area
B. Location E. place
C. people

25. What do the people do when they are in Bali?

A. Surfing D. Horseback Riding
B. Diving E. Doing various recreations
C. Water Rafting

The following text is for questions 26 to 30.

To improve comfort and cleanliness at our school, a number of dustbins should be
increased.
When we look at classrooms, school corridors and schoolyard, there are papers, mineral
water cups, straws and napkins here and there. The condition of uncleanliness and discomfort
really hinders learning and teaching environment. Litters, especially empty plastic cups or
glasses, thrown carelessly cause disease. They can be filled out with water coming from the rain.
This can be placed for dengue mosquitoes to spread out. Besides, these rubbish can deteriorate
the scene. Well-painted wall and green schoolyard do not mean anything if litters are scattered
everywhere.
Anyway I notice that most of the students in our school have responsibilities for their school
environment. They put they litters on the proper places. But some are not diligent enough to find
the dustbins. The numbers of dustbins in our school are not enough. More dustbins should be put
beside each of steps, outside of the classrooms, and some more along the corridors. Probably one
dustbin should be in every ten meters. So when students want to throw away their litters, they
can find the them easily.
When school is equipped with sufficient dustbins, we do not have problems of filth and
discomfort any more. Our school will be very clean and becomes a nice place to study.

26. What is the text mainly about?

A. Litters D. Environment
B. Dustbin E. Uncleanliness
C. Sanitation

27. What is the writer’s argument on a sufficient number of dustbins?

 A. They can minimize litters D. They make school environment
B. They can save janitor’s energy E. Students can throw garbage away easily
C. Students are asked to clean them

28. What is the writer’s suggestion to solve the problem?

A. To buy more dustbins D. To ask parents to give more dustbins
B. To hire more gardeners E. To ask students to clean the school yard
C. To use dustbins efficiently

29. What does the third paragraph discuss?

A. The responsibility D. The outside of the classroom
B. The number of dust bins E. The proper place of the dust bins
C. The environment of school

30. “Litters, especially empty plastic cups or glasses, thrown carelessly cause disease.”
(Paragraph 2)
The underlined word means…
A. Rubbish D. Dust
B. Smoke E. Fog
C. Smog

The following text is for questions 31 and 32.

Fire razes four houses in Ambon.

Ambon, Maluku; fire razed four houses in Ambon city late on Friday, but no fatalities
were reported.
The fire began in one of the four houses and quickly spread to neighboring homes in the
densely populated area of skip, Sirimau Kota district, Ambon city.
Two fire trucks were deployed to the scene and were able to extinguish the blaze after an
hour. Local authorities said that the fire was sparked by a short circuit.
31. What caused the fire?
A. Dense population D. Explosion
B. Moving trucks. E. A car crash
C. A short circuit.

32. Which is NOT true according to the text?

A. One was killed in the incident.
B. Fire razed four houses in Ambon city late on Friday.
C. Two fire trucks were able to extinguish the blaze after an hour.
D. Local authorities said that the fire was sparked by a short circuit.
E. The fire began in one of the four houses in Sirimau kota district, Ambon city.

The following text is for questions 33 to 35

 Philippines : At least nine people were killed and dozens were injured when the
Philippines security forces clashed dozens of slum dwellers who resisted the tearing down of
their homes in the northern province, a police commander said Tuesday.
Raul Gonzales, the police chief in the northern Cordillera area, said , that the soldiers and
police officers traded gunfire with dozen of people who are illegally occupying the private land
in Kalinga province.
Our team was ambushed on their way to the community to be demolished, said Gonzales.
He added that the security only defended themselves after the residents dug. Fox holes and
opened fire with automatic rifles.
Nine people were killed and dozens were wounded, including 10 police officers during
almost 10 hours of fighting. We even had to evacuate some of our officers who
need surgery to get the bullets from their bodies.

33. What is the passage about?

A. An illegal gunfire trade.
B. The murder of slum dwellers.
C. A fight between the police officers and the soldiers.
D. A clash between the security forces and the slum dwellers.
E. A clash between the police officers and the security officers.

34. The clash happened because ….

A. Illegal slum dwellers resisted the demolition of their homes.
B. The police officers and soldiers shot the dwellers
C. Nine people were killed by the security forces
D. The police officers fired the dwellers.
E. The people dwelled on private land.

35. Raul Gonzales said that …

A. Ten police officers had to be evacuated.
B. Some of the wounded people needed surgery.
C. Ten police officers were killed in the fighting.
D. Ten police officers were injured during the fighting.
E. More than ten police officers were killed and injured in the fighting.

The following text is for questions 36 to 40

A heat wave that struck Europe last month killed 112 people in France, Thursday, many
of them were elderly, of the people whose deaths were attributed to sweltering temperatures in
France, 66 of them were age 75 or up. French officials said,” This year people must be more
careful to avoid a repeat of the summer of 2003, when 15,000 people, most of them elderly, died
of heat related causes.’

36. What is the suitable title of the text?

 A. A Heat Wave D. A Summer Wave in Europe
B. A Heat Wave in Europe. E. 112 Die in France from July Heat Wave
C. A France Heat Wave.

37. How many people died because of heat wave in 2003?

A. 67 D. 1500
B. 75 E. 15,000
C. 112

38. Why did France officials say that people must be more careful about this year heat wave?
A. In 2003 a lot of people died.
B. The present condition is better.
C. They did not want more people to die.
D. The present condition is worse than in 2003.
E. They were responsible for the citizens’ safety.

39. “This year people must be more careful to avoid a repeat of the summer of 2003.”
The antonym of the underlined word is ….
A. Aware D. hopeless
B. Useless E. harmless
C. careless

40. “Of the people whose deaths were attributed to the sweltering temperatures…”
The underlined word has almost the same meaning as the word ….
A. as a matter of fact D. whenever
B. because of E. moreover
C. whereas

The following text is for questions 41 to 45

Edison once worked for the railroad. Something happened that changed the
course of his career. Edison saved the life of a station official's child, who had fallen
onto the tracks of an oncoming train. For his bravery, the boy's father taught Edison
how to use the telegraph.
From 1862 to 1868, Edison worked as a roving telegrapher in the Midwest, the
South, Canada, and New England. During this time, he began developing a
telegraphic repeating instrument that made it possible to transmit messages
automatically.
Edison moved to New York City. Within a year, he was able to open a workshop
in Newark, New Jersey. He produced the Edison Universal Stock Printer, the
automatic telegraph, the quadruplex, as well as other printing telegraphs, while
working out of Newark.
Thomas Alva Edison died in West Orange, New Jersey on October 18, 1931. At the time
of this death, he was experimenting on rubber from goldenrod. After his death, Edison
became a folk hero of legendary status. His inventions had truly and profoundly affected the
shaping of modern society.
41. What does the passage mainly tell?
A. Edison’s working experience. D. Edison’s company
B. Edison’s teenage years. E. Edison’s wife
C. Edison’s difficult time.

42. What is the first paragraph tell?

A. Edison’s life change D. The tragic accident
B. The use of telegraph. E. Edison’s success
C. The oncoming train.

43. What made Edison become a folk hero of legendary status?

A. He moved to the biggest town in the States D. He worked very hard
B. His work influenced modern society. E. He saved a boy’s life
C. He invented telegraph.

44. “…he began developing a telegraphic repeating instrument that made it possible to
transmit messages automatically.” (Paragraph 2)
What does ‘it’ refer to?
A. telegraphic repeating instrument D. instrument
B. automatic telegraph E. message
C. New England

45. How can we describe Edison’s personality as illustrated on paragraph 1?

A. Curious and innovative. D. Honest and helpful
B. Industrious and smart. E. Brave and kind
C. Arrogant and diligent.

The following text is for questions 46 to 50

Hello, and welcome to Harvard. People make a university great, so

whether you are a prospective student, current student, professor,
researcher, staff member, graduate, parent, neighbor, or visitor, your
interest and enthusiasm are valued and appreciated.
As a historian, I am proud to lead an institution with such a rich and
storied past. Harvard began in colonial days with a handful of
students, little property and limited power and prestige, but a
determined mission: “To advance Learning and perpetuate it to
Posterity,” as a 1643 brochure put it.
That bold vision has guided Harvard for the past four centuries and
made it the world-leading center of discovery and learning that it is
today. It is our collective efforts, however, that today make this
university such a vibrant place to live, to learn, to work, and to
explore. No matter what your reason for visiting, we’re glad you
 came and I hope you will make the most of your time here.
Drew Gilpin Faust
president@harvard.edu

46. What is the text mainly about?

A. The historian’ speech. D. The success of Harvard University
B. Harvard University’s vision. E. The University president’s welcoming
message
C. The history of Harvard University

47. What does the second paragraph mainly tell about?

A. The good brochure. D. The foundation of Harvard University
B. Harvard University’s mission. E. The reason of becoming a great university.
C. The history of Harvard University.
48. According to Harvard president, what made the university an exciting place to live and to
learn?
A. The colonial efforts. D. The university’s researchers.
B. The smart professors. E. The university’s past history
C. The collective efforts.

49. “ It is our collective efforts, however, that today make this university such a vibrant place to
live, to learn, to work, and to explore.” (Paragraph 3)
The underlined word is closest in meaning with ….
A. Lively D. common
B. Strange E. expensive
C. unusual

50. “ … as a 1643 brochure put it.” (Paragraph 2)

What does the word “it” refer to?
A. power D. learning
B. mission E. institution
C. prestige