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Bbdniit It 2020 MCQ DB
Bbdniit It 2020 MCQ DB
MCQ Based
For
BTech 2020
Information Technology
[[[
16. The slope of the V-I curve of a solar cell is (c) Drying
66.1°. Calculate the value of resistance. (d) All of the above
Assume the relationship between voltage and 25. The power from the sun intercepted by the
current is a straight line. earth is approximately
(a) 1.8 x 108 MW
a) 3.5 Ω (b) 1.8 x 1011 MW
b) 2.2 Ω (c) 1.8 x 1014 MW
c) 2.5 Ω (d) 1.8 x 1017 MW
d) 2.9 Ω
17. SCIM has a _________
a) Shorter life UNIT-2
b) Medium life
1.Most of the solar radiation received on earth surface lies
c) Longer life within the range of........
d) Infinite life
(a) 0.2 to 0.4 microns
18. A solar cell converts light energy into
(b) 0.38 to 0.78 microns
__________
(c) 0 to 0.38 microns
a) Electrical energy (d) 0.5 to 0.8 microns
b) Thermal energy
c) Sound energy 2.Flat plate collector absorbs.......
d) Heat energy
(a) Direct radiation only
19. Permanent magnet DC motor is more
(b) Diffuse radiation only
expensive than an Induction motor.
(c) Direct and diffuse both
a) True (d) All of the above
b) False
20. The region where the electrons and holes
3. A pyranometer is used for measurement of........
diffused across the junction is called (a) Direct radiation only
________ (b) Diffuse radiation only
a) Depletion Junction
(c) Direct as well as diffuse radiation
b) Depletion region
(d) All of the above
c) Depletion space
d) Depletion boundary 4.Most widely used solar material is........
21. The quantum dot used are _______
(a) Arsenic
a) Cds
(b) Cadmium
b) CdTe
(c) Silicon
c) PbO (d) Steel
d) GaAs
22. Organic polymer solar cells are made from 5.Reflecting mirrors used for exploiting solar energy are
Polyphenylene.
called........
a) True
(a) Mantle
b) False (b) Ponds
23. Calculate the active power in a 11710 H (c) Diffusers
inductor.
(d) Heliostats
a) 8245 W
b) 1781 W 6.In which type of absorber plate is the overall flow
c) 0 W direction is along the absorber glass plate?
d) 1964 W
a) Overlapped glass absorber
24. Direct Solar energy is used for b) Finned absorber
(a) Water heating c) Non-porous absorber plate
(b) Distillation d) Porous absorber plateView
RENEWABLE ENERGY RESOURCES (ROE086) QUESTION BANK
9.The vector sum of the components along the line normal 16.The collection efficiency of Flat plate collector can be
of the titled surface in a direction normal to the tilted improved by
surface is called as __________ (a) putting a selective coating on the plate
a) Hour angleView (b) evacuating the space above the absorber plate
b) Declination (c) both (a) and (b)
c) Incident angle (d) None of the above
d) Solar intensity
17.The efficiency of various types of collectors ______
10.The time from sunrise to sunset is termed as with _______ temperature.
_______________ (a) increases, decreasing
a) Slope (b) decreases, increasing
b) Day length (c) remains same, increasing
c) Local solar time (d) depends upon type of collector
d) Solar intensity
18.Beam radiations are measured with
11.The angle through which the earth must turn to bring (a) Anemometer
the meridian of a point directly in sun’s rays is called (b) Pyrheliometer
__________ (c) Sunshine recorder
a) Hour angle (d) All of the above
b) Declination
c) Latitude 19.In the paraboloid dish concept, the concentrator tracks
d) Air massView the sun by rotating about
(a) One axes
12.Solar Altitude is also called as ________ (b) Two axes
a) Declination (c) Three axes
b) Altitude angle (d) None of the above
c) Zenith angle
d) Azimuth angle 20.The sun subtends an angle of _____ minutes at the
earth’s surface.
13.The scattered solar radiation is called ____________ (a) 22
a) Direct Radiation (b) 32
b) Beam Radiation (c) 42
c) Diffuse radiation (d) 52
RENEWABLE ENERGY RESOURCES (ROE086) QUESTION BANK
c) 1°C/km
21.The ratio of the beam radiation flux falling on a tilted d) 30°C/km
surface to that falling on a horizontal surface is called the 3. The zone of likely geothermal sites corresponds
(a) Radiation shape factor roughly to:
(b) Tilt factor a) Cold, hilly regions
(c) Slope b) Hot, flat regions
(d) None of the above c) Tropical regions
d) The regions of seismic and volcanic
activities
22.A module in a solar panel refers to
4. Most of the world’s geothermal sites today are
(a) Series arrangement of solar cells.
located:
(b) Parallel arrangement of solar cells a) In the southern hemisphere of the globe
(c) Series and parallel arrangement of solar cells. b) Near the coast of Atlantic ocean
(d) None of the above. c) Near the edges of Pacific plate
d) Near the equator
23.In a solar collector, why is the transparent cover 5. A geothermal resource tapped for electricity
provide for? generation could provide energy for about:
(a) Protect the collector from dust. a) 50 Years
(b) Reduce the heat losses from collector beneath to b) 1000 Years
atmosphere. c) 5 Years
(c) Transmit solar radiation only d) 1 Year
(d) All of the above. 6. Compared to a conventional steam plant, the
efficiency of geothermal plant is:
a) Very High
24.Reflector mirrors used for exploiting the solar energy
b) Higher
are called
c) Comparable
(a) Mantle.
d) Lower
(b) Heliostats. 7. In a practical MHD system, the exhaust of MHD
(c) Diffusers. generator is:
(d) Ponds. a) Used as hot air for combustion in a
furnace
25.What are pyrheliometers? b) Used as an input to gas turbine to
(a) Instruments measures beam radiations generate additional power
(b) Diffuse radiations. c) Used as input to boiler to rise steam for
(c) Direct radiations only. steam turbine to generate additional
(d) None of the above. power
d) Let off to atmosphere
8. The working fluid used in an MHD system
UNIT-3 coupled to a fast breeder reactor is a:
a) Hot flue gas
b) Seeded inert gas
1. Which one of the following statements are not c) Liquid metal-inert gas mixture
true for a geothermal energy system? d) Liquid metal only
a) It is reliable and cheap source of energy. 9. Techno-economic factors make MHD feasible:
b) It is available 24 hours per day. a) Only for large scale central power
c) It has no inherent storage feature, so factors
extra storage facility is required. b) Only for small scale distributed power
d) The system is modular in nature. generation
2. The temperature in the crust increases with c) At any situation irrespective of size
depth at a rate of about: d) Only to meet peak power demand
a) 300°C/km
b) 10°C/km
RENEWABLE ENERGY RESOURCES (ROE086) QUESTION BANK
10. MHD generators have not become popular a) Water vapour, CO, NO and CO2
because: b) Water vapour, CO and CO2
a) Of difficulties in material section c) Water vapour and CO2
b) Of difficulties to obtain strong magnetic d) Water vapour only
fields 18. Hydrogen can be used:
c) Other systems such as natural gas a) As primary energy source only
turbines achieved similar thermal b) As an energy carrier only
efficiencies at lower costs c) Both as primary energy source as well
d) Of the need to operate at high as energy carrier
temperatures d) Neither as primary energy source nor as
11. A fuel cell is basically: energy carrier
a) An electro-mechanical energy 19. World’s first geothermal electric power plant is
conversion device located at:
b) An electro-static energy conversion a) Wairakei field in New Zealand
device b) Larderello, Italy
c) An electro-chemical energy c) “The Geysers”, California
conversion device d) El-Salvador
d) A thermo-electric energy conversion 20. The temperature at inner core of earth is about:
device a) 4000°C
12. Which fuel cell has lowest operating b) 1000°C
temperature? c) 40000°C
a) PAFC d) 500°C
b) PEMFC 21. The average thickness of crust is about:
c) SOFC a) 30 Km
d) MCFC b) 3 Km
13. Which fuel cell has highest operating c) 300 Km
temperature? d) 1000 Km
a) PAFC 22. Compared to conventional steam plants, the
b) PEMFC temperature and pressure in a geothermal plant
c) SOFC are:
d) MCFC a) Comparable
14. Direct methanol fuel cell is a modified version b) Much higher
of: c) Higher
a) PAFC d) Lower
b) PEMFC 23. In a geopressured resource, the pressure can go
c) SOFC as high as:
d) MCFC a) 160 atm
15. As a load is applied on an open-circuited fuel b) 1350 atm
cell and is gradually increased: c) 15000 atm
a) Its efficiency increases d) 10 atm
b) Its output voltage increases 24. In most hydrothermal fields, hot spots occur at a
c) Its output voltage remains unchanged depth of about:
d) Its output voltage decreases a) 10 Km
16. For proper operation of fuel cell the operating b) 10 m
point is set in which region of VI characteristic? c) 2 to 3 Km
a) In the low load region d) 30 Km
b) In the middle, near flat region 25. The world’s total present installed electrical
c) In the high load region power generating capacity from geothermal
d) In any region irrespective of load resource is about:
17. With pure hydrogen and pure oxygen as input a) 9000 MW
the exhaust from fuel cell contains: b) 1000 MW
RENEWABLE ENERGY RESOURCES (ROE086) QUESTION BANK
c) 29000 MW c) Geothermal
d) 3000 MW d) Bio mass
19. Which type of windmill has better performance? 1. Biomass is used in the production of
a) Vertical type wind mills (a) fibers
(b) chemicals
b) Darrieus type machines
(c) transportation fuels
c) Magnus effect rotor (d) biochemical
d) Horizontal type windmills
2. Production of bio ethanol is through fermentation
20 __________Orients upwind turbines to keep them of ________ and starch components
facing the wind when the direction changes. (a) alcohol
a) Nacelle (b) sugar
(c) milk
b) Pitch
(d) acid
c) Wind vane
d) Yaw drive 3. This is also called as a bio gas
(a) bio butanol
21.What are the disadvantages of wind energy? (b) biodiesel
(c) bio ethanol
A. Birds Death/ Noise Pollution (d) bio methane
B. Visual & Noise Pollution/ Birds Deaths 4. In bio methane, the percentage of carbon dioxide is
C. Bad TV & Radio Receptions/Visual & Noise (a) 55-60
Pollution/Birds Death (b) 35-45
D. Noise Pollution/ Bad signals of TV (c) 30-40
(d) 32-43
22. The Nacelle of windmill houses
a) Brakes 5. By-products generated during rectification of bio
b) Generator ethanol is utilized as
c) Gearbox (a) sheep feed
(b) cow feed
d) All of the above
RENEWABLE ENERGY RESOURCES (ROE086) QUESTION BANK
b) Aluminium
c) Copper
d) Silver
*********
QUESTION BANK OF MACHINE LEARNING (RCS080)
Answer: a
Explanation: Machine learning is the autonomous acquisition of knowledge
through the use of computer programs.
2. Which of the factors affect the performance of learner system does not
include?
a) Representation scheme used
b) Training scenario
c) Type of feedback
d) Good data structures
.
Answer: d
Explanation: Factors that affect the performance of learner system does not include
good data structures.
Answer: d
Explanation: Different learning methods does not include the introduction.
Answer: c
Explanation: In language understanding, the levels of knowledge that does not
include empirical knowledge.
Answer: d
Explanation: A model of language consists of the categories which does not
include structural units.
Answer: a
Explanation: A top-down parser begins by hypothesizing a sentence (the symbol S)
and successively predicting lower level constituents until individual preterminal
symbols are written.
Answer: d
Explanation: The action „STACK(A,B)‟ of a robot arm specify to Place block A on
block B.
9. Factors which affect the performance of learner system does not include?
a) Representation scheme used
b) Training scenario
c) Type of feedback
d) Good data structures
.
Answer: d
Explanation: Factors which affect the performance of learner system does not
include good data structures.
10. Which of the following does not include different learning methods?
a) Memorization
b) Analogy
c) Deduction
d) Introduction
.
Answer: d
Explanation: Different learning methods include memorization, analogy and
deduction.
Answer: a
Explanation: In automatic vehicle set of vision inputs and corresponding actions
are available to learner hence it‟s an example of supervised learning.
Answer: a
Explanation: In active learning, not only the teacher is available but the learner can
ask suitable perception-action pair examples to improve performance.
14. In which of the following learning the teacher returns reward and
punishment to learner?
a) Active learning
b) Reinforcement learning
c) Supervised learning
d) Unsupervised learning
.
Answer: b
Explanation: Reinforcement learning is the type of learning in which teacher
returns reward or punishment to learner.
15. Decision trees are appropriate for the problems where ___________
a) Attributes are both numeric and nominal
b) Target function takes on a discrete number of values.
c) Data may have errors
d) All of the mentioned
.
Answer: d
Explanation: Decision trees can be used in all the conditions stated.
Answer: d
Explanation: All mentioned options are applications of learning.
Answer: d
Explanation: Goal, model, learning rules and experience are the components of
learning system.
Answer: c
Explanation: In unsupervised learning, no teacher is available hence it is also
called unsupervised learning.
19. A statement made about a population for testing purpose is called?
a) Statistic
b) Hypothesis
c) Level of Significance
d) Test-Statistic
.
Answer: b
Explanation: Hypothesis is a statement made about a population in general. It is
then tested and correspondingly accepted if True and rejected if False.
Answer: a
Explanation: If the assumed hypothesis is tested for rejection considering it to be
true is called Null Hypothesis. It gives the value of population parameter.
Answer: b
Explanation: In testing of Hypothesis a statement whose validity is tested on the
basis of a sample is called as Statistical Hypothesis. Its validity is tested with
respect to a sample.
23. If the null hypothesis is false then which of the following is accepted?
a) Null Hypothesis
b) Positive Hypothesis
c) Negative Hypothesis
d) Alternative Hypothesis.
.
Answer: d
Explanation: If the null hypothesis is false then Alternative Hypothesis is accepted.
It is also called as Research Hypothesis.
24. The rejection probability of Null Hypothesis when it is true is called as?
a) Level of Confidence
b) Level of Significance
c) Level of Margin
d) Level of Rejection
.
Answer: b
Explanation: Level of Significance is defined as the probability of rejection of a
True Null Hypothesis. Below this probability a Null Hypothesis is rejected.
25. The point where the Null Hypothesis gets rejected is called as?
a) Significant Value
b) Rejection Value
c) Acceptance Value
d) Critical Value
.
Answer: d
Explanation: The point where the Null Hypothesis gets rejected is called as Critical
Value. It is also called as dividing point for separation of the regions where
hypothesis is accepted and rejected.
UNIT-2
Answer: a
Explanation: Refer the definition of Decision tree.
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: c
Explanation: Refer the definition of Decision tree.
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
Explanation: Pattern classification belongs to category of supervised learning.
Answer: a
Explanation: The desired output is mapped closest to the ideal output & hence
there is generalisation involved.
Answer: d
Explanation: AI network should be all of the above mentioned.
Answer: c
Explanation: Neuron is the most basic & fundamental unit of a network .
Answer: d
Explanation: Feedforward networks are used for pattern mapping, pattern
association, pattern classification.
Answer: a
Explanation: The most basic example of of combination of feedforward &
feedback network is competitive learning net.
Answer: b
Explanation: Follows from basic definition of classification.
Answer: b
Explanation: Follows from basic definition of generalization.
Answer: c
Explanation: The objective of backpropagation algorithm is to to develop learning
algorithm for multilayer feedforward neural network, so that network can be
trained to capture the mapping implicitly.
Answer: a
Explanation: Because it fulfils the basic condition of delta rule.
Answer: d
Explanation: These all statements defines backpropagation algorithm.
Answer: b
Explanation: No feedback is involved at any stage as it is a feedforward neural
network.
Answer: b
Explanation: In backpropagation rule, actual output is determined by computing
the outputs of units for each hidden layer.
UNIT-3
Answer: b
Explanation: On a model-based knowledge provides the crucial robustness needed
to make probabilistic system feasible in the real world.
Answer: d
Explanation: Bayes rule can be used to answer the probabilistic queries
conditioned on one piece of evidence.
Answer: a
Explanation: A Bayesian network provides a complete description of the domain.
Answer: b
Explanation: If a bayesian network is a representation of the joint distribution, then
it can solve any query, by summing all the relevant joint entries.
Answer: a
Explanation: The compactness of the bayesian network is an example of a very
general property of a locally structured system.
7. What will take place as the agent observes its interactions with the world?
a) Learning
b) Hearing
c) Perceiving
d) Speech
.
Answer: a
Explanation: Learning will take place as the agent observes its interactions with the
world and its own decision making process.
Answer: c
Explanation: A learning element modifies the performance element so that it can
make better decision.
9. How many things are concerned in the design of a learning element?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
.
Answer: c
Explanation: The three main issues are affected in design of a learning element are
components, feedback and representation.
Answer: a
Explanation: In automatic vehicle set of vision inputs and corresponding actions
are available to learner hence it‟s an example of supervised learning.
Answer: d
Explanation: Decision trees can be used in all the conditions stated
Answer: b
Explanation: Neural networks parameters can be learned from noisy data and they
have been used for thousands of applications, so it varies from problem to problem
and thus use nonlinear functions.
Answer: a
Explanation: A perceptron is a Feed-forward neural network with no hidden units
that can be representing only linear separable functions. If the data are linearly
separable, a simple weight updated rule can be used to fit the data exactly.
14. If the Critical region is evenly distributed then the test is referred as?
a) Two tailed
b) One tailed
c) Three tailed
d) Zero tailed
Answer: a
Answer: c
Explanation: Alternative Hypothesis defines whether the test is one tailed or two
tailed. It is also called as Research Hypothesis.
16. Which of the following is defined as the rule or formula to test a Null
Hypothesis?
a) Test statistic
b) Population statistic
c) Variance statistic
d) Null statistic
.
Answer: a
Explanation: Test statistic provides a basis for testing a Null Hypothesis. A test
statistic is a random variable that is calculated from sample data and used in a
hypothesis test.
Answer: a
Explanation: The term generalized is used because delta rule could be extended to
hidden layer units.
Answer: d
Explanation: These all are limitations of backpropagation algorithm in general.
19. What are the general tasks that are performed with backpropagation
algorithm?
a) pattern mapping
b) function approximation
c) prediction
d) all of the mentioned
.
Answer: d
Explanation: These all are the tasks that can be performed with backpropagation
algorithm in general.
20. How many terms are required for building a bayes model?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
.
Answer: c
Explanation: The three required terms are a conditional probability and two
unconditional probability.
Answer: b
Explanation: On a model-based knowledge provides the crucial robustness needed
to make probabilistic system feasible in the real world.
Answer: d
Explanation: Bayes rule can be used to answer the probabilistic queries
conditioned on one piece of evidence.
23. What does the bayesian network provides?
a) Complete description of the domain
b) Partial description of the domain
c) Complete description of the problem
d) None of the mentioned
.
Answer: a
Explanation: A Bayesian network provides a complete description of the domain.
24. How the entries in the full joint probability distribution can be calculated?
a) Using variables
b) Using information
c) Both Using variables & information
d) None of the mentioned
.
Answer: b
Explanation: Every entry in the full joint probability distribution can be calculated
from the information in the network.
25. How the bayesian network can be used to answer any query?
a) Full distribution
b) Joint distribution
c) Partial distribution
d) All of the mentioned
.
Answer: b
Explanation: If a bayesian network is a representation of the joint distribution, then
it can solve any query, by summing all the relevant joint entries.
UNIT4
Manhattan Distance is designed for calculating the distance between real valued
features.
Answer: b
Explanation: Hierarchical clustering requires a defined distance as well.
a) Evolutionary Computing
b) inspired by Darwin's theory about evolution - "survival of the fittest"
c) are adaptive heuristic search algorithm based on the evolutionary ideas of
natural selection and genetics
d) All of the above.
ANSWER-D
ANSWER-C
5.Three main basic features involved in characterizing membership function
are
a) Intution, Inference, Rank Ordering
b) Fuzzy Algorithm, Neural network, Genetic Algorithm
c) Core, Support , Boundary
d) Weighted Average, center of Sums, Median
ANSWER-C
a) Knowledge
b) Examples
c) Learning
d) experience
ANSWER-D
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9.Which is also called single inference rule?
a) Reference
b) Resolution
c) Reform
d) None of the mentioned
.
Answer: b
Explanation: Because resolution yields a complete inference rule when coupled
with any search algorithm.
10. The replication rate remains the same for all the phages irrespective of
what sequence is there in the phage.
a) True
b) False
.
Answer: b
Explanation: The replication rate is not the same for all the phages. Some phages
having a certain insert may be replicating in a slower rate than that of other phages.
Thus, there might be under-representation of some of the sequences.
11. There is a limit on upper size of the DNA to be packed. Choose the correct
statement with respect to phages in this context.
a) There is some phage DNA lost in this process
b) The phages are known as transformed phages
c) These type of phages can‟t be selected and harvested
d) Lambda is not a special attachment site
.
Answer: a
Explanation: There is a limit on the upper size of the DNA to be packed. If the
significant amount of sequence is flanked by the phage particles, there are chances
of losing some phage DNA. These phages are known as transducing phages and
can be easily selected and harvested for the lost DNA. Lambda is having a special
site for attachment in E. coli.
12. How the compactness of the bayesian network can be described?
a) Locally structured
b) Fully structured
c) Partial structure
d) All of the mentioned
.
Answer: a
Explanation: The compactness of the bayesian network is an example of a very
general property of a locally structured system.
Answer: c Explanation: Local structure is usually associated with linear rather than
exponential growth in complexity.
14. Knowledge and reasoning also play a crucial role in dealing with
__________________ environment.
a) Completely Observable
b) Partially Observable
c) Neither Completely nor Partially Observable
d) Only Completely and Partially Observable
.
Answer: b
Explanation: Knowledge and reasoning could aid to reveal other factors that could
complete environment.
Answer: a
Explanation: Refer definition of Knowledge based agents.
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
20. An inference algorithm that derives only entailed sentences is called sound
or truth-preserving.
a) True
b) False
.
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
UNIT-5
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: Refer the definition of Deductive based systems.
Answer: d
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: Definition of term in FOL.
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: Task environments will pose a problem and rational agent will find
the solution for the posed problem.
Answer: d
Explanation: Partial and fully observable environments are present in artificial
intelligence.
Answer: a
Explanation: If the environment is deterministic except for the action of other
agent is called deterministic.
Answer: a
Explanation: As the problem in crossword puzzle are posed at beginning itself, So
it is static.
Answer: a
Explanation: Stochastic behavior are rational because it avoids the pitfall of
predictability.
15. Which is used to select the particular environment to run the agent?
a) Environment creator
b) Environment Generator
c) Both Environment creator & Generator
d) None of the mentioned
.
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
Explanation: If the environment does not change with the passage of time, but the
agent performance changes by time.
Answer: b
Explanation: In PEAS, Where P stands for performance measure which is always
included in task environment.
18. Which is used to provide the feedback to the learning element?
a) Critic
b) Actuators
c) Sensor
d) None of the mentioned
.
Answer: a
Explanation: The learning element gets the feedback from the critic which is
presented in the environment on how the agent is doing.
19. Which condition is used to influence a variable directly by all the others?
a) Partially connected
b) Fully connected
c) Local connected
d) None of the mentioned
.
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
20. What is the consequence between a node and its predecessors while
creating bayesian network?
a) Functionally dependent
b) Dependant
c) Conditionally independent
d) Both Conditionally dependant & Dependant
.
Answer: c
Explanation: The semantics to derive a method for constructing bayesian networks
were led to the consequence that a node can be conditionally independent of its
predecessors.
21. Which instruments are used for perceiving and acting upon the
environment?
a) Sensors and Actuators
b) Sensors
c) Perceiver
d) None of the mentioned
.
Answer: a
Explanation: An agent is anything that can be viewed as perceiving and acting
upon the environment through the sensors and actuators.
Answer: c
Explanation: An agent‟s percept sequence is the complete history of everything
that the agent has ever perceived.
Answer: d
Explanation: The four types of agents are Simple reflex, Model based, Goal based
and Utility based agents.
Answer: b
Explanation: Simple reflex agent is based on the present condition and so it is
condition action rule.
25. What are the composition for agents in artificial intelligence?
a) Program
b) Architecture
c) Both Program & Architecture
d) None of the mentioned
.
Answer: c
Explanation: An agent program will implement function mapping percepts to
actions.
MCQ DATABASE
SUBJECT: DATA COMPRESSION (RCS-087)
DATA COMPRESSION
13) ________ is normally used for the data generated by scanning thedocuments, fax
machine, typewriters etc.
a) Huffman Coding
b) Transformation Coding
c) Vector Quantization
d) Runlength Encoding
22) The Perceptual coders use _________ model which exploit thelimitation of human
ear.
a) Sensitivity
b) Frequency
c) Psychoacoustic
d) MEPG
23) The strong Signal reduces level of sensitivity of the ear to other signalswhich are
near to it in frequency is called ________ Masking.
a) Spectral
b) Temporal
c) Critical
d) Frequency
24) When ear hears the loud sound, certain time has to be passed beforeit hears
________ Sound.
a) LLouder
b) quieter
c) No Sound
d) None
28) Reduced compressed bit rate since frames does not include bitallocation in _______
a) Dolby -2
b) Dolby -3
c) Dolby -1
d) Dolby
34) Pixel of 24-bit colour images is represented by 8-bits for each of _______Colours.
a) Y, Cr and Cb
b) R,G,and B
c) Y, R, and G
d) R,G and Cb
42) Baseline JPEG algorithm draw ______ after line untilcomplete image.
a) Circle
b) Triangle
c) Line
d) None
43) Progressive algorithm draws the ______ image at once, JPEGbut in very poor
quality.
a) Particular
b) Whole
c) Combined
d) Both a and b
44) An image is divided into 8x8 size, each 8x8 submatrixis called ______
a) Part
b) Potion
c) Block
d) Both a and b
45) A ______ consist of an information regarding start and end of the frame,its location
in an image ect.
a) Block
b) Frame
c) Frequency
d) Device
46) The frame header contains an information regarding _______ ofthe image.
a) width/height
b) Dot
c) Line
d) Location
55) The GIF image can be transferred over the network in _______
a) interlaced image
b) interlaced mode
c) interchange mode
d) interchange image
60) Compression in general makes it _______ to send, upload and stream data.
1) Quicker
2)Slower
64) Lossy or lossless? This type of compression does not get rid of any data.
a) Lossy
b) Lossless
c) Both
65) Lossy or lossless? This type of compression makes the file smaller
a) Lossy
b) Lossless
c) Both
66) Lossy or lossless? This type of compression gets rid of some information.
a) Lossy
b) Lossless
c) Both
69) Huffman trees use the _______________ of each character to work out their
encoding.
a) Frequency
b) Order in ASCII
c) umber value
71) How do you calculate the number of bits of a body of text in ASCII?
answer choices
a) Number of characters * 7
b) Number of characters (including spaces) *7
c) bits in Huffman * 7
d) its in Huffman / 7
72) Which formula shows how to work out the percentage a file has been compressed
by?
a) bits in (Huffman *7) /100
b) its in ASCii - bits in Huffman
c) difference in bits / bits in ASCII * 100
73) Which of the following algorithms is the best approach for solving Huffman codes?
a) exhaustive search
b) greedy algorithm
c) brute force algorithm
d) divide and conquer algorithm
74) How many printable characters does the ASCII character set consists of?
a) 120
b) 128
c) 100
d) 98
76) How many bits are needed for standard encoding if the size of the character set is X?
a) log X
b) X+1
c) 2X
d) X2
77) The code length does not depend on the frequency of occurrence of characters.
a) true
b) false
80) The type of encoding where no character code is the prefix of another character code
is called?
a) optimal encoding
b) prefix encoding
c) frequency encoding
d) trie encoding
81) What is the running time of the Huffman encoding algorithm?
a) O(C)
b) O(log C)
c) O(C log C)
d) O( N log C)
82) What is the running time of the Huffman algorithm, if its implementation of the priority
queue is done using linked lists?
a) O(C)
b) O(log C)
c) O(C log C)
d) O(C2)
83) How many printable characters does the ASCII character set consists of?
a) 122
b) 129
c) 100
d) 980
102) Uncompressed audio and video files require less memory than compressed
files....
a) True
b) False
108) Lossy data compression schemes are designed by research on how people
perceive the data in question.
a) True
b) False
111) The entropy of a message is in a certain sense a measure of how much information
it really contains.
a) True
b) False
112) Vector quantization is a lossy compression technique used in speech and image
coding.
a) True
b) False
21) D 31) C
22) C 32) A
23) D 33) A
24) B 34) B
25) A 35) C
26) D 36) D
27) B 37) C
28) C 38) D
29) C 39) B
30) A 40) D
41) D 51) B
42) C 52) B
43)B 53) D
44) C 54) B
45) B 55) B
46) A 56) 1
47) B 57) 1
48) D 58) B
49) B 59) 1
50) C 60) 1
61) 1 71) B
62) B 72) C
63) B 73) B
64) B 74) C
65) C 75) C
66) A 76) A
67) B 77) B
68) A 78) B
69) A 79) A
70) C 80) B
81) C 91) D
82) D 92) D
83) C 93) D
84) B 94) D
85) B 95) D
86) C 96) C
87) D 97) A
88) B 98) A
89) C 99) C
90) A 100) B
101) C 111) A
102) A 112) A
103) B 113) A
104) A 114) A
105) A 115) B
106) A 116) D
107) A 117) B
108) A 118) A
109) B 119) D
110) A 120) A
121) A
122) A
123) B
124) A
125) A