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PART IV – FOREST GOVERNANCE AND SOCIAL FORESTRY

Social Forestry and Extension

1. It is a part of forestland set aside for the use of the residents of a municipality from which said
residents may cut, collect and remove forest products for their personal use:
a. Communal Forest c. Community Forestry
b. Forest Stewardship d. Ancestral Land
2. It is an inter-agency national program created by Letter of Instruction No. 1260 dated July 28,
1982 designed to promote the socio-economic of forest occupants and communities dependent
on the forest land for their livelihood, provide tenure and at the same time protect and improve
the quality of the environment.
a. Integrated Social Forestry c. Community-Based Forest Management Program
b. Community Forestry Program d. Forest Occupancy Management
3. It refers to all lands and natural resources occupied or possessed by indigenous cultural
communities by themselves or through their ancestors, communally or individually in accordance
with their customs and traditions since time immemorial up to the present.
a. Ancestral domain c. Land grant
b. Ancestral land d. Forest reserve
4. It is the application of dead, decomposed or partly decomposed plant and animal manure to
growing plants.
a. organic farming c. green manuring
b. inorganic farming d. mulching
5. Green manuring, mulching and use of animal manure are examples of:
a. organic farming methods c. water retention methods
b. inorganic farming methods d. agro-forestry methods
6. Which of the following farming methods is unique from the rest?
a. inorganic farming c. green manuring
b. mulching d. use of animal manure
7. This term refers to the growing of tree crops:
a. tree farming c. reforestation
b. agroforestry d. enrichment planting
8. It is defined as the system of land management whereby forest and agricultural products are
produced on appropriate and suitable areas simultaneously or sequentially for social, economic
and ecological benefitsof the community.
a. agroforestry c. social forestry
b. communal tree farming d. socialized farming
9. Which of the following is not an attribute of agroforestry?
a. Only trees are produced either simultaneously or sequentially on the same unit of land.
b. The practice increases yield and services per unit area.
c. The system is consistent with the cultural patterns of the local communities.
d. The practice is consistent with sound ecological principles.
10. Which of the following is not a criterion for a well-designed agroforestry system?
a. susceptibility b. productivity c. adaptability d. sustainability
11. It is a form of agroforestry that combines the production of agricultural crops, tree crops and
animals in the same unit of land.
a. Agri-silvi-pastoral c. Agro-silvicultural
b. Aqua-silvi-cultural d. Silvi-pastoral
12. It is a form of agroforestry that combines the production of trees and fish.
a. Aqua-silvicultural c. Silvi-pastoral
b. Agri-silvicultural d. Agri-silvi-pastoral
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13. In agroforestry, which of the following is not a variation of agri-silvicultural systems?

a. improved fence system c. living fence system
b. improved fallow system d. multi-storey system
14. In agroforestry, which of the following is not a variation of silvi-pastoral system?
a. protein band system c. living fence system
b. improved fallow system d. tree-crop grazing system
15. Is a type of farming in which a portion of the forest is cleared, dried and burned and the land is
cultivated for growing agricultural crops for about three years and then left to fallow for a longer
period to rejuvenate the soil.
a. Fallowing c. Swidden or shifting cultivation
b. Kaingin making d. Taungya system
16. This agroforestry system started in Burma where farmers were involved by the government in
reforestation while allowing them to plant food crops simultaneously while trees are still young
until canopies close.
a. Naalad system b. Muyong system c. Swidden farming d. Taungya system
17. Ideally, a rural development-oriented project should not be:
a. central-based c. need-responsive
b. participative d. partnership-oriented
18. It is approach in conducting social research wherein the researcher observes and records people’s
behavior that seems relevant and takes part in the subject’s activities whenever possible.
a. observation c. participant observation
b. structural interview d. census
19. It is a method used in conducting social research wherein a series of questions possibly significant
to the study is prepared and asked to encourage the subject to talk hoping to learn meaningful
information during the discussion.
a. unstructured interview c. use of questionnaires
b. structured interview d. census
20. It is an approach used in social research where information is gathered from a person who has a
good knowledge of his/her community and culture and is willing to talk about these as well as the
relevant problems.
a. structured interview c. use of key informant
b. use of questionnaires d. census
21. It is defined as the modification in social and culture through time such as modification in social
institutions, ideas, values and other products of human interaction.
a. socio-cultural change c. social change
b. cultural change d. innovation
22. It includes all alterations that take place in the total way of life in a given society.
a. social change b. cultural change c. socio-cultural change d. technological change
23. It denotes revisions that occur in people’s application of their technical knowledge and skill as
they adapt to the environment.
a. technological change c. technology transfer
b. social change d. innovation
24. It refers to variations or modifications in any aspect of a social process, pattern, or form.
a. cultural change c. social change
b. socio-cultural change d. technological change
25. What is the highest among the following levels of acceptance of innovations by individual member
of a society?
a. evaluation of the innovation c. awareness of the innovation
b. interest in the innovation d. adoption of the innovation
26. What is the lowest among the following levels of acceptance of innovations by individual
members of a society?
a. evaluation of the innovation c. awareness of the innovation
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b. interest in the innovation d. trial of the innovation

27. It is defines as the process of sharing ideas, thoughts, altitudes, innovations or technologies. The
process implies the interchange of ideas between the source and the receiver.
a. communication c. coordination
b. internal channel d. broadcasting
28. It is a set of elements such as people and things that are related to achieve mutual goals. It is a
process that changes inputs from the environment to certain output.
a. organization c. framework
b. system d. project
29. It is a sign or set of signs which predispose a person to act or make a decision.
a. data c. information
b. census d. zodiac
30. This Program provides opportunities for people to participate in forest plantation development. Its
objectives, among others are: to increase the supply of wood and other products; accelerate
rehabilitation of the country’s denuded forest lands; conserve/protect existing natural forest and
generate additional source of income of people in the uplands.
a. Socialized Industrial Forest Management Program c. Communal Tree Farm Program
b. Integrated Social Forest Program d. Community Forestry Program
31. It refers to a tract of land planted primarily to trees and other products to support manufacturing
and processing facilities and/or to supply wood and energy requirements.
a. Communal Tree Farm c. Industrial Forest Plantation
b. Community Forestry Area d. Integrated Social Forestry
32. The DENR awards Social Industrial Forest Management Agreement to qualified individual/family
and association of cooperatives. In case of married individuals, SIFMA is issued in the name of …
a. both spouses c. the husband
b. the wife d. the household head
33. It refers to the certificate issued by the DENR to an indigenous cultural community identifying and
recognizing their claim over their traditional areas, which they have possessed and occupied since
time immemorial in accordance with their customs and traditions.
a. Certificate of Ancestral Domain Claim c. Certificate of Stewardship Contract
b. Certificate of Ancestral Land Claim d. Certificate of Community Forest Stewardship
34. Grasslands and brushlands under the jurisdiction of DENR that are subject to vested rights,
licensees and permits may be made available for Socialized Industrial Forest Management
Agreement provided that a ___________________ is executed by the holder of such claim or
right.
a. prior expressed and written agreement c. verbal consent
b. tacit approval d. deed of assignment
35. What is the size of the area that may be awarded for individual or single family under the
Socialized Industrial Forest Management Program?
a. 1 to 10 hectares c. 1 to 5 hectares
b. 5 to 10 hectares d. 2 to 7 hectares
36. What is the size of the area that may be awarded to an association or cooperative under the
Socialized Industrial Forest Management Program?
a. over 10 ha to 500 ha c. 10 to 100 ha
b. 10 to 300 ha d. over 10 to 1,000 ha
37. The Socialized Industrial Forest Management Agreement being issued by the DENR to qualified
applicants have a duration of …
a. 25 years renewable for another 25 years c. 25 years
b. 20 years renewable for another 20 years d. 50 years non-renewable
38. This is a forest management program of the DENR which grants rights to organized communities
to manage, develop and utilize forest resources on a sustainable basis.
a. Coastal Environment Program c. Community Forestry Program
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b. Low-Income Upland Communities d. Ancestral Domains Management Program

39. Refers to a group of people, which may be an association, cooperative, federation or other legal
entity, established by the community to undertake collective action to address community
concerns and needs and mutually share the benefits from the endeavor.
a. society c. Local Government Unit
b. people’s organizations d. community
40. It refers to the DENR strategy to identify, delineate and recognize the rights of indigenous cultural
communities to their ancestral lands/domains. This is principally governed by DAO No. 02, Series
of 1993.
a. Ancestral Domains Management Program c. Ancestral Domain Management Plan
b. Indigenous Peoples Right Act d. Community-Based Forest Management
41. Who among the following members of a local community organization are not included among
the qualified participants under the Community-Based Forest Management Program as provided
for under DAO No. 96-29.
a. Government employees with the consent of their head of agency
b. Those actually tilling portions of the CBFM site
c. Those traditionally utilizing the resources for all or substantial portion of their livelihood
d. Those actually residing within or adjacent to the CBFM area
42. As a term used in Social Forestry, what does IEC stands for?
a. Information, education and communication c. Information and Extension Council
b. Inter-agency Education Committee d. Informal Education Campaign
43. There are four stages in the implementation framework of the Community-Based Forest
Management Program. Which of the following activities is not included in the preparatory stage?
a. Information, education and communication campaign
b. Application for a CBFM agreement
c. Establishing Institutional Linkages
d. Identification of CBFMP sites
44. It refers to the document defining the terms and procedures for the access, use and protection of
natural resources within the CBFM area
a. Community Resource Management Framework c. Annual Work Plan
b. Resource Use Plan d. Strategic Action Plan
45. Which of the following is not a tenurial instrument issued under the CBFM Program?
a. CBFM Agreement c. Certificate of Stewardship Contract
b. Forest Occupancy Management d. Certificate of Ancestral Domain Claim
46. What is the duration of a Community-Based Forest Management Agreement between the DENR
and the participating people’s organization?
a. 25 years renewable for another 25 years c. 20 years renewable for another 20 years
b. 25 years only d. 50 years non-renewable
47. What is the duration of the Certificate of Stewardship Contract issued by the DENR to qualified
participants?
a. 25 years renewable for another 25 years c. 20 years renewable for another 20 years
b. 25 years only d. 50 years non-renewable
48. What is the maximum area for a Certificate of Stewardship Contract under the Community-Based
Forest Management Program?
a. 7 hectares b. 10 hectares c. 5 hectares d. 50 hectares
49. Who is the approving authority for Community-Based Forest Management Agreement covering
5,000 hectares and below?
a. RED c. USEC for Field Operations
b. PENRO d. Secretary of the DENR
50. Who approves the grant of a Community-Based Forest Management Agreement for areas
covering more than 30,000 hectares?
a. RED c. USEC for Field Operations
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b. PENRO d. Secretary of the DENR

51. Which of the following instruments issued by the DENR is different from the rest?
a. Community-Based Forest Management Agreement
b. Timber License Agreement
c. Timber Production Sharing Agreement
d. Industrial Forest Management Agreement
52. One approach to increase the level of public awareness or certain activities or issues is through
print media. Which of the following does not belong to the said category?
a. leaflets c. slide presentation
b. flyers d. newspapers
53. One approach to increase the level of public awareness on certain activities or issues is through
the broadcast media. Which of the following does not belong to the category?
a. community consultation c. spot reports
b. jingles d. radio program
54. One of the mass methods to increase the level of public awareness on certain issues or
undertakings is through visual media. Which of the following does not belong to the category?
a. exhibits b. billboards c. flyers d. streamers
55. One of the mass methods to increase the level of public awareness on certain issues or
undertakings is through audiovisual media. Which of the following does not belong to the
category?
a. documentary film c. radio-drama
b. slide presentation d. movie film clips
56. With the devolution of Integrated Social Forestry functions to local government units, one ISF
model site in each province has been retained under the supervision of the DENR. This model site
is referred to as CPEU which stands for:
a. Center for People Empowerment in the Uplands
b. Center for Performance Enhancement in the Uplands
c. Center for Participatory Education in the Uplands
d. Community Project on Empowering Uplands
57. It is defined as the active involvement and participation of the local people in planning and
execution of tree growing and management to meet their own needs.
a. Community Forestry c. community organizing
b. Integrated Social Forestry d. community planning
58. Social Forestry evolved from the concept of forestry for local community. Where was the concept
first popularized?
a. India b. Thailand c. Philippines d. Indonesia
59. Social Forestry is not the same as:
a. Corporate Forestry c. Community Forestry
b. Village Forestry d. Rural Forestry
60. The socio-economic development of upland residents is essential and that basic needs are to met
through participatory community organizations and that the whole process create community-
based strategies for the management and protection of forest resources. These are the basic
propositions of:
a. Industrial Forestry c. Social Forestry
b. Corporate Forestry d. Urban Forestry
61. The aims of Social Forestry are to be achieved by mobilizing forest occupants to participate
through community organizations which ______ the forest occupants would set up and manage.
a. barangay council c. DENR and local government unit
b. forest occupants d. Cooperative Development Authority
62. It is defined as the branch of forestry which deals with the study of man and the forest and their
interrelationships in order to promote the socio-economic well-being of uplanders especially the
poor forest occupants and the same time protect and improve the quality of the environment.
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a. Communal Forestry c. social Forestry

b. Community Forestry Program d. Forest Occupancy Management Program
63. Which of the following does not describe the word paradigm?
a. frame of reference b. assumption c. innovation d. model
64. It is believed that “paradigm shift” is a consequence of “paradigm crises”. Which of the following
is not among the identified symptoms of a paradigm?
a. ability of the paradigm to explain and solve extant problem
b. blurring of traditional rules
c. rapid spread of new experiments
d. questioning of old practices
65. Which of the following does not describe Community-Based Resource Management?
a. systems-focused c. community-driven
b. socially-oriented d. commercially-oriented
66. Which of the following characterizes the old forestry paradigm?
a. The value of forest is mainly defined in terms of commercially exploitable timber.
b. Forests have diverse functions and services which are not easy to value.
c. Management of forest resources is undertaken by foresters in partnership with stakeholders.
d. The practice of forestry is founded on the theories and methods biophysical and social services
67. Which the following characterizes the new forestry paradigm?
a. The practice of forestry is founded on the theories and method of biophysical and social services.
b. The goal of forestry development is to maximize productivity and efficiency.
c. Foresters are principally concerned with the health of trees and forests.
d. People participated in forest management through employment.
68. Kaingin farming has long been viewed as a technical problem in forest management in the
Philippines. It was first recognized as a socio-economic problem during the “National Kaingin
Conference” held in:
a. 1973 b. 1965 c. 1963 d. 1975
69. Maslow has identified five categories of people’s needs in hierarchical order. Which among the
following is the basic people’s need?
a. security b. physiological c. self-esteem d. belongingness
70. There are several methods of conducting extension work. Which of the following is different from
the rest?
a. home and farm visits b. broadcast c. print d. audio-visual
71. Which of the following is not a group method of conducting extension work?
a. community meetings c. field trips
b. visits d. method demonstrations
72. Which of the following is not a characteristic of extension in social forestry or community-based
forestry?
a. It is a one-way process of transferring knowledge, attitude and skills.
b. It is catalysts for people in discussing problems, making decisions and taking action.
c. It helps people identify areas of assistance.
d. It recognizes that extension targets possess valuable knowledge and experiences.
73. It refers to a group of people or homogeneous societies identified by self-ascription and ascription
by others, who have continuously lived as organized community on communally bounded and
defined territory and who have under a claim of ownership since time immemorial, occupied,
possessed and utilizes such territories.
a. indigenous people c. migrant farmers
b. upland communities d. indigenous cultural minorities
74. It refers to upland farmers who were originally lowland residents and who settled in the highlands
and practices slash and burn or shifting cultivation
a. kaingineros c. indigenous peoples
b. upland migrants d. migrant farmers
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75. It is a means to create conditions for development through people’s participation. It is a strategy
for mobilizing people to become fully and collectively involved in activities that aim to improve
their lives.
a. participatory planning c. community organizing
b. participatory development d. community planning
76. In adopting or using a new idea or practice, people tend to go through certain stages. Which of
the following occurs first?
a. interest stage c. evaluation stage
b. trial stage d. awareness stage
77. Agroforestry is a combination of:
a. agriculture and forestry c. agronomy and forestry
b. agricultural and forest species d. farm systems and silviculture
78. SALT is the acronym for:
a. Sustainable Agricultural Land Technology c. Sloping Agricultural Land Technology
b. Sustainable Agricultural Land Technique d. Sustainable Agricultural Land Technique
79. If refers to the national program of the government intended to optimize land productivity,
enhance ecological stability and improve the socio-economic conditions of forest occupants. It
recognizes that forest occupants can be effective partners of the government in conserving the
remaining forest resources of the country.
a. Industrial Forest Management Program
b. Integrated Social Forestry Program
c. Forest Land Management Program
d. Integrated Environmental Management for Sustainable Development
80. Which of the following is not a guiding principle of the Community-Based Forest Management
strategy?
a. autonomy c. people empowerment
b. participatory approach d. sustainable development
81. In the implementation of the Community-Based Forest Management strategy, information
dissemination is undertaken during the:
a. diagnostic and PO formation phase c. preparatory phase
b. planning phase d. implementation phase
82. In the implementation of the Community-Based Forest Management strategy, community profiling
is undertaken during the:
a. diagnostic and PO formation phase c. preparatory phase
b. planning phase d. implementation phase
83. In the implementation of the Community-Based Forest Management strategy, interim resource
access and product transport permits are issued during …
a. diagnostic and PO formation phase c. preparatory phase
b. planning phase d. implementation phase
84. Which of the following does not constitute a sound social forestry principles?
a. Community members are illiterate (lack knowledge) thus needing constant assistance and
direction from forestry professionals.
b. Community problems can be solved only through holistic approach.
c. Simple, low cost and locally available materials should be used in promoting forestry
technologies.
d. Development is achieved when upland communities are transformed into self-reliant
communities.

85. It is a system of enhancing or sharing with the knowledge values, attitudes and skill of individuals
or groups towards forest and forest conservation.
a. Forest Information c. Forest Communication
b. Forest Extension d. Forest Education
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86. It refers to an instrument used in locating points that have the same elevation or within a given
contour line in a sloping area. This instrument is useful in locating the direction and location of
proposed hedgerows in an agroforestry area.
a. gabion c. caliper
b. stadia d. A-frame
87. This refers to vegetative structure intended to serve as a catchment area for soil that erode in an
agroforestry site.
a. firelines c. firebreaks
b. boundaries d. hedgerows
88. Which of the following is not an objective of social forestry?
a. hiring of community members as project workers
b. strengthening of rural communities/institutions
c. improvement of the socio-economic status of rural communities
d. promotion of social equity
89. Which of the following is one of the characteristics of social forestry?
a. involves direct participation of beneficiaries
b. large-scale in scope
c. species planted are purely agricultural crops
d. people are hired by the government to implement the project
90. One of the objectives of social forestry is to:
a. discourage community participation
b. develop foresters as agents of development
c. encourage top down management approach
d. develop individualism among community members
91. This program was conceived in 1971 through the promulgation of Forestry Administrative Order
No. 62 entitled “Kaingin Management and Land Settlement Regulations”
a. Family Approach to reforestation Program c. Integrated Social Forestry Program
b. Forest Occupancy Management Program d. Communal Tree Farming Program
92. It refers to a contiguous area of 10 hectares or more of disturbed dipterocarp forest that has an
average basal area of at least 5 m2/ha of all trees that are presently commercial species with
diameter at breast height or diameter above buttress of less than 65 cm.
a. degraded residual forest c. residual production forest
b. production forest d. residual forest
93. It refers to a body of written and/or unwritten rules, usage, customs and practices traditionally
and continually recognized, accepted and observed by respective Indigenous Peoples.
a. communal claim c. customary laws
b. civil laws d. community regulations
94. It refers to group of people or a homogeneous society identified by self-ascription and ascription
by others, who have continuously lived as community on communally bounded and defined
territory, sharing common bonds of language, customs, tradition and other distinctive cultural
traits
a. Indigenous Cultural Communities/Indigenous Peoples
b. Cultural minorities
c. Migrant communities
d. Upland occupants
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95. It sustains the view that ancestral domains and all resources found therein serve as the material
bases of the cultural identity of indigenous peoples. It also generally holds the view that ancestral
domains are the indigenous people’s private but community properly which belongs to all
generations and therefore cannot be sold, disposed or destroyed.
a. indigenous concept of ownership c. concept of corporate claim
b. concept of individual claim d. concept of ownership as defined under the Civil Code
96. The act by which the national government confers and transfer power and authority, heretofore
performed by national agencies, together with the corresponding personnel, equipment. assets,
liabilities, records and other opportunities, to the various LGUs to perform specific functions and
responsibilities
a. deregulation b. deployment c. devolution d. delegation
97. It is the guarantee of peaceful possession and use of specific forest land area and the resources
found therein, covered by an agreement contract or grant which can not be altered or abrogated
without due process.
a. tax declaration b. Memorandum of Agreement c. tenure d. title
98. It refers to specific activities designed to accomplish specific objectives. Such activities are
bounded by definite time frame and performed by a multi-disciplinary team.
a. plan b. framework c. project d. course
99. What is the initial step in a project development cycle?
a. project preparation c. project identification
b. project appraisal d. project implementation
100. It is a step in the project development cycle whereby in the process of project implementation
work outputs are gathered and recorded so that project management may keep tract of their
level of performance in relation to the planned activities.
a. monitoring c. reporting
b. post-evaluation d. impact assessment
101. Which of the fallowing is not a criterion in project appraisal?
a. political endorsement c. market feasibility
b. technical feasibility d. socio-economic feasibility
102. It is defined as the study or analysis of project results in order to assess the extent to which the
objectives of a project have been achieved or realized.
a. monitoring c. evaluation
b. research d. project implementation
103. It refers to acknowledged claims, privileges, prerogatives or ownership over land and/or natural
resources to which one is entitled by reason of law, license, contract or tradition.
a. usufruct right c. prior vested right
b. human right d. suffrage
104. Which of the following is the flagship program of the DENR in the Social Reform Agenda?
a. Respect, Protection & Management of Ancestral Domains
b. Comprehensive Integrated Delivery of Social Services
c. Agricultural Development
d. Socialized Housing
105. It is the process of utilizing human and material resources towards the attainment of specific
objectives.
a. business c. supervision
b. management d. planning
106. It is the land tenure issued to individual participants under the Community-Based Forest
Management Program.
a. Certificate of Stewardship Contract
b. Forest Land Management Agreement
c. Socialized Industrial Forest Management Agreement
d. Forest Occupancy Management Permit
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Forest History, Policy and Administration

1. The practice of forestry in the Philippines started as early as _____ with the creation of the
“Inspeccion General de Montes”.
a. 1863 c. 1896
b. 1853 d. 1900
2. Who was the first head of the “Inspeccion General de Montes”?
b. Don Juan Gonzales Valdez c. Captain George P. Ahern
b. Director Florencio Tamesis d. Sr. Narciso Fernandez
3. When was the kaingin making first banned and prohibited inside forest lands?
a. 1901 b. 1874 c. 1975 d. 1945
4. On the basis of a recommendation of the Spanish Ministry of Foreign Affairs, a ____ was issued
on November 13, 1884, which embodied definite laws and regulations governing the operation of
the Philippine Forestry Services.
a. General Order c. Inspeccion General de Montes
b. Direccion General de Administacion Civil d. Royal Decree
5. As early as 1894, by virtue of a Royal Degree, no land of the public domain was allowed to be
sold unless properly surveyed its boundaries marked out, measured and certified as _____ by the
Inspeccion General de Montes
a. titled c. alienable and disposable
b. forestland d. occupied and developed
6. On April 14, 1900, the US Military Governor in the Philippines issued General Order No. 50 Comment [APV1]: Used to be 92 [why? Typo
error?]
creating the ________.
a. Forestry Bureau c. Bureau of Forest Development
b. Environmental Department d. Bureau of Forestry
7. Who was the first Director of the Forestry Bureau?
a. Edmundo V. Cortes c. Juan G. Valdez
b. Florencio Tamesis d. Jorge P. Abera
8. It was enacted on May 7,1904 and contained the forest policies of the Philippines
a. Forest Act c. Revised Forest Code
b. Forest Code d. Forestry Decree
9. The First school of Forestry in the country was established on
a. April 14, 1910 c. February 4, 1916 Comment [APV2]: 4/29/04 3:32:53 PM: April 19
b. January 19, 1910 d. October 10, 1907 in my notes

10. Who was the first Filipino Director of the Bureau of Forestry?
a. Juan Utleg c. Martin Reyes
b. Florencio Tamesis d. Jose Viado
11. Who served the longest term as Director of the Bureau of Forestry Development?
a. Ireneo Domingo c. Edmundo V. Cortes
b. Jose Viado d. Cirilo Serna
12. The Filipinization of the Philippine forest service started when Florencio Tamesis was appointed as
Director of the Bureau of Forestry in
a. 1937 b. 1947 c. 1927 d. 1957
13. By virtue of R.A. No. 826, the parks and Wildlife Commission was created in ________
a. 1950 1958 c. 1953 d. 1960
14. In 1957, the Forest Products Research Institute was created and attached to the University of the
Philippines. Later on June 21, 1969 with the enactment RA No. 5526, the Institute was named
___________ and integrated with the National Science Development Board.
a. Forest Research Institute
b. Forest Products Research and Industries Development Commission
c. Forest Products Research and Development Institute
d. Ecosystem Research and Development Bureau
 11

15. Republic Act No. 2706 which created the Reforestation Administration was enacted in:
a. 1950 b. 1970 c. 1960 d. 1940
16. On November 1, 1972, three agencies were merged by virtue of Presidential Decree No. 1
resulting to the creation of the Bureau of Forest Development. Which of the following was not
included in the merger?
a. Forest Research Institute c. Reforestation Administration
b. Bureau of Forestry d. Parks and Wildlife Office
17. What issuance stipulated the formal organization of the Bureau of Forest Development?
a. P.D. No. 704 b. P.D. No. 1559 c. P.D. No. 607 d. P.D. No. 705
18. During the Aquino administration, a government-wide reorganization was undertaken. This
resulted in the reorganization of the Bureau of Forest Development into the Forest Management
Bureau pursuant to:
a. E.O. No. 192 c. E.O. 292
b. E.O. No. 92 d. E.O. No. 182
19. The Forest Research Institute was created on December 18, 1974 pursuant to:
a. P.D. No. 607 c. P.D. No. 705
b. P.D. No. 704 d. P.D. No. 1
20. What agency was created in 1972 and given the task of formulating the national research
program and approving, coordinating and monitoring all government-financed research activities
in agriculture, forestry, fisheries and other natural resources?
a. Philippine Council for Agriculture and Resources Research
b. Forest Products Research and Development Commission
c. Forest Research Institute
d. Forestry Development Center
21. This year [1998], the Society of Filipino Foresters celebrates its _______ anniversary.
a. 50th b. 40th c. 25th d. 45th
22. In what year was the Definitive Forest Laws and Regulations or the Royal Decree of the king of
Spain issued?
a. 1874 b. 1889 c. 1863 d. 1894
23. The provisions in Article II of the 1987 Constitution are mandates, which the State has to
implement. The number of the provisions under the Declaration of Principles and State Policies
has increased to ____ compared to only 10 in the 1973 and 5 in the 1935 Constitutions
respectively.
a. 18 b. 20 c. 15 d. 28
24. It is stated in Section 13, Article II of the 1987 Constitution that the “State shall recognize the
vital role of the _____ in the nation-building and shall promote their physical, moral, spiritual,
intellectual and social well-being”.
a. youth b. children c. women d. farmers
25. Section 14, Article II of the Constitution reads as “The State recognizes the role of the women in
nation-building and ensure the fundamental ______ before the law of women and men.
a. equity b. equality c. justice d. rights
26. Section 16, article II of the Constitution provides for the State protection and advancement of the
rights of people to a balanced and healthful ecology in accordance with the rhythm and harmony of:
a. nature b. environment c. society d. people
27. Section 21, Article II of the Constitution provides for the promotion of a comprehensive _______
and agrarian reform.
a. rural development c. land allocation
b. urban development d. enterprise development
28. Section 22, Article II of the Constitution provides that the “State recognizes and promotes the
rights of __________ within the framework of national unity and development”
a. urban poor c. indigenous cultural community
b. cultural minorities d. upland farmers
 12

29. Section 23 under the Declaration of Principles and State Policies in the 1987 Constitution provides
that the “State shall __________ non-governmental community based of sectoral organizations
that promote the well-being of the nation.
a. federate c. encourage
b. select d. organize
30. Section 24, Article II of the 1987 Constitutional provides that the “State recognizes the vital role
of communication and ___________ in nation building”.
a. autonomy c. information
b. investments d. regulations
31. Section 7, Article X of the 1987 Constitution provides that “local government units shall be
entitled to an equitable share in the proceeds and development of the national wealth within their
respective areas, in the manner provided by law including sharing the same with the inhabitants
by way of __________”.
a. direct benefits c. tax holidays
b. credit d. salaries
32. Which specific part of the Constitution states that “Public office is a public trust”? Public officers and
employees must at all times be accountable in the people, serve them with utmost responsibility,
integrity, loyalty and efficiency, act with patriotism and justice and lead modest lives”.
a. Section 1, Article XI c. Section 2, Article XII
b. Section 7, Article X d. Section 6, Article XIII
33. Section 1, Article XII of the Constitution provides that the “State shall promote industrialization
and full employment based on sound agricultural development and agrarian reform, through
industries that make full and efficient use of ________ and natural resources”.
a. environment c. biological
b. human d. machineries
34. What section in the Constitution states that “All lands of the public domain, waters, minerals,
coal, petroleum and other mineral oils, all forces of potential energy, fisheries, forests or timber,
wildlife, flora and fauna and other natural resources are owned by the State”?
a. Section 16, Article II c. Section 3, Article XII
b. Section 2, Article XII d. Section 16, Article XIII
35. Which of the following categories is not a classification of lands of the public domain as provided
under the Constitution?
a. agricultural lands c. forest lands
b. ancestral domain d. mineral lands
36. What particular section of the Constitution provides for the protection of the rights of indigenous
cultural communities to their ancestral lands to ensure their economic, social and cultural well
being?
a. Section 2, Article III c. Section 5, Article XII
b. Section 1, Article III d. Section I, Article XII
37. It is defined in the Constitution as bonafide associations of citizens with demonstrated capacity to
promote the public interest and with identifiable leadership, members and structures.
a. Bureaucracy c. Peoples’ Organization
b. Board of Directors d. Society
38. Section 16, Article XIII of the Constitution states that the “right of the people and their
organizations to effective and reasonable ____________ at all levels of social, political and
economic decision-making shall not be abridged”.
a. attendance c. participation
b. information d. notification
39. The Constitution provides that the public domain and other natural resources may be utilized or
disposed of in accordance with the principles of agrarian reform of ________________.
a. mortgage c. stewardship
b. cooperative d. credit system
 13

40. When did the prohibition of logging in old-growth forests start to take effect?
a. June 1, 1991 c. January 1, 1992
b. January 1, 1990 d. January 1, 1991
41. The shift of logging from virgin forests to residual forests is governed by DAO No. 91-24. This
order required Timber License Agreement and Timber Production Sharing Agreement holders a
_____ estimate on any statistically sound timber inventory on their residual forests.
a. 20% b. 10% c. 15% d. 5%
42. Except in Palawan and Samar, what is the cutting cycle for second growth dipterocarp forests per
DAO No. 92-12?
a. 25 years b. 40 years c. 45 years d. 35 years
43. Per DAO No. 93-28 when the logging operations in second growth forests of TLA holders is found
to be destructive, the licensee shall be penalized with a fine of ____ times the regular forest
charges per cubic meter of damaged marked trees.
a. 5 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
44. It provides for the rules and regulations governing the extraction, assessment, processing and
transport of narra resources.
a. DAO No. 58, Series of 1993 c. DAO No. 59, Series of 1990
b. DAO No. 54, Series of 1993 d. DAO No. 06, Series of 1993
45. It is the average per cubic meter price of logs of a given species group at a specified pricing point
for the previous calendar year determined as prescribed in DAO No. 91-65. It is used as basis for
computing forest charges.
a. FOB market price c. retail price
b. shadow price d. wholesale price
46. It prescribes that rules and regulations in the identification, delineation and recognition of
ancestral land/domain claims of the indigenous peoples.
a. DAO No. 02, Series of 1993 c. DAO No. 16, Series of 1993
b. DAO No. 05, Series of 1993 d. DAO No. 19, Series of 1993
47. It prescribes the rules and regulations in the management of certified ancestral domain claims of
the indigenous peoples.
a. DAO No. 96-34 b. DAO No. 92-14 c. DAO No. 90-34 d. DAO No. 93-04
48. The ban in the use of highlead yarding system in dipterocarp forests started in:
a. 1992 b. 1985 c. 1990 d. 1995
49. What is the maximum yarding distance in any logging set-up in second growth forest as
prescribed in DAO No. 03, Series of 1992?
a. 1,000 meters b. 500 meters c. 2 kilometers d. 1,500 meters
50. An order declaring a moratorium on all commercial logging in the province of Palawan:
a. DAO No. 92-45 b. DAO No. 89-04 c. DAO No. 93-02 d. DAO No. 96-34
51. Under DAO No. 46, Series of 1992, what species was delisted from the list of premium hardwood
species?
a. Vitex parviflora c. Samanea saman
b. Instia bijuga d. Leucaena leucocephala
52. DENR Administrative Order No. 56, Series of 1992 designated the Pagbilao Mangrove Swamp
Experimental Forest in Pagbilao, Quezon as Genetic Resource Area and __________ .
a. National Training Site for Mangrove c. National Coastal Training Center
b. Regional Mangrove Training Center d. National Marine Training Center
53. Lands of the public domain which has not been subject of the present system of classification:
a. public forest c. forest land
b. forest reserve d. forest reservation
54. It refers to those lands of the public domain which have been the subject of the present system
of classification and declared as needed for forest purposes.
a. permanent forest c. forest land
b. forest reservation d. public forest
 14

55. These refer to those lands of the public domain which have been the subject of the present
system of classification and declared as not needed for forest purposes:
a. coastal lands c. alienable and disposable lands
b. grazing lands d. watershed
56. It is a forest land reservation established to protect or improved water yield and reduces
sedimentation.
a. critical watershed c. critical watershed
b. watershed reservation d. forest reserve
57. It is an area drained by a stream fixed body of water, its tributaries having a common outlet for
surface run-off.
a. forest land c. slope
b. watershed reservation d. watershed
58. It is a drainage area of river system supporting existing and proposed hydroelectric power,
irrigation works or domestic water facilities needing immediate protection and rehabilitation.
a. watershed c. critical watershed
b. watershed reservation d. degraded watershed
59. It refers to the portion of forest land which is subjected to shifting and/or permanent slash-and-
burn cultivation.
a. kaingin c. communal forest
b. communal tree farm d. ancestral domain
60. Section 17 of PD No. 705, as amended by PD No. 1559 provides that all boundaries between
permanent forest and alienable or disposable lands shall be clearly marked and maintained on the
found. When concrete monuments are used, what should be the interval between two
monuments?
a. not more than 500 meters c. between 500 to 1,000 meters
b. less than 1,000 meters d. 500 meters
61. Under Section 24 of PD 705, what is the required intensity of inventory prior to timber utilization
in forest lands?
a. at least 10% c. at least 15%
b. at least 5% d. at least 20%
62. Section 43 of PD No. 705 provides that mangroves and other swamps released to the Bureau of
Fisheries and Aquatic Resources for fishpond purposes which are not utilized or which have been
abandoned for ___ years from the date of said released shall be reverted to the category of
forestland.
a. 6 b. 5 c. 10 d. 3
63. Under Section 48 of PD No. 705 mineral reservations, which are not the subject of mining
operations or where mining operations have been suspended for ____ years, shall be placed
under forest management.
a. more than 10 c. more than 5
b. more than 3 d. more than 2
64. It refers to the development strategy prescribed under Section 51 of PD No. 705 for the
management of forest occupancy.
a. Agroforestry c. Communal Tree Farm
b. Agricultural Development d. reforestation
65. Forestlands, mineral lands and national parks are considered:
a. inalienable c. alienable
b. disposable d. alienable and disposable
66. Pursuant to R.A. No. 7161 and based on 1994 FOB market price survey, what is the rate of forest
charges per cubic meter of the Philippine Mahogany group? *
a. P3,000 b. P750 c. P1,000 d. P500

*
Forest charges must be updated based on FOB market prices and the updating may be done every year.
 15

67. Pursuant to R.A. No. 7161 and based on 1994 FOB market price survey, what is the rate of forest
charges per cubic meter of those considered as premium species?
a. P1,000 b. P2,000 c. P3,000 d. P5,000
68. Pursuant to R.A. No. 7161 and DAO No. 95-19, what is the rate of forest charges per cubic meter
of timber cut from planted trees and other forest products harvested from industrial tree
plantations and private lands covered by existing titles and approved land applications?
a. none b. P100 c. P50 d. P10
69. Which of the following belong to the premium species category?
a. apitong b. yakal c. narra d. guijo
70. From the species groupings where the rate of forest charges are based on FOB market price,
which of the following does not belong to the premium species category?
a. akle b. apitong c. ipil d. kamagong
71. From the species groupings where the rate of forest charges are based on FOB market price
which of the following does not belong to premium species category?
a. molave b. teak c. tindalo d. guijo
72. From the species groupings where the rate of forest charges are based on FOB market price,
which of the following belongs to the premium species category?
a. yakal b. ebony c. tanguile d. almon
73. Which of the following does not belong to the Philippine Mahogany group?
a. bagtikan b. mayapis c. molave d. white lauan
74. Which of the following does not belong to the Philippine Mahogany group?
a. tanguile b. mahogany c. almon d. red lauan
75. Which Executive Order mandates the DENR as the primary government agency responsible for
the sustainable management and development of the country’s natural resources?
a. E.O. No. 192, Series of 1987 c. E. O. No. 278, Series of 1987
b. E. O. No. 292, Series of 1987 d. E. O. No. 277, Series of 1987
76. Which of the following is not included in the exemption to the export ban under DAO No. 19,
Series of 1989 as amended?
a. lumber produced from imported logs
b. furniture and toys produced from local logs
c. picture frames and decorative articles produced from imported logs
d. wooden furniture produced from local or imported logs
77. It is a privilege granted by the State to a person or a juridical person to occupy and possess, in
consideration of a specified rental, any forest land of the public domain in order to undertake any
authorized activity.
a. permit b. license c. license agreement d. lease
78. It is a privilege granted by the State to a person or juridical person to utilize any forestland
without any right of occupation or possession.
a. license c. license agreement
b. lease d. permit
79. It is a privilege granted by the State to a person or a juridical person to utilize limited forest
resources or undertake a limited forest activity within any forestland without any right of
occupation and possession
a. license b. lease c. permit d. license agreement
80. It is an office established under P.D. No. 1559 responsible for conducting basic policy researches
in forestry and developing effective machinery for forestry policy formulation and implementation.
a. Forest Management Bureau c. Ecosystems Research and Development Bureau
b. Forestry Development Center d. Natural Resources Management Program Office
81. After the EDSA revolution, a government-wide reorganization was undertaken. For the DENR, its
reorganization was implemented pursuant to:
a. Executive Order No. 192 c. Executive Order No. 203
b. Executive Order No. 208 d. Executive Order No. 145
 16

82. It is the primary government agency responsible for the conservation, management, development
and proper use of the country’s environment and natural resources.
a. Department of Environment and Natural Resources
a. Natural Resources Development Corporation
b. Environment Management Bureau
c. National Resources Development Corporation
83. It is an office attached to the DENR, which serves as the country’s central mapping agency.
a. National Mapping and Resource Information Authority
b. Natural Resources Development Corporation
c. Land Management Bureau
d. Forest Management Bureau
84. It is an office under the DENR, which recommends policies and programs on matters pertaining to
forest development and conservation.
a. Forest Management Bureau c. Land Management Bureau
b. Forestry Development Center d. Environmental Management Bureau
85. It is an office under the DENR, which recommends integrated research programs and provides
scientific assistance in the study and development of technologies relevant in the Philippine
ecosystems and natural resources.
a. Forest Management Bureau c. Environmental Research Office
b. Forest Research Agency d. Ecosystems Research and Development Bureau
86. It is an office under the DENR, which formulates and recommends policies and programs on
matters relating to environmental management conservation and pollution control.
a. Forest Management Bureau c. Land Management Bureau
b. Environmental Management Bureau d. Ecosystems Research and Development Bureau
87. It is an office the DENR, which formulates and recommends policies and guidelines for the
establishment of an Integrated Protected Areas Systems and preservation of biodiversity.
a. Parks and Wildlife Nature Center c. Environmental Management Bureau
b. Parks and Wildlife Bureau d. Protected Areas and Wildlife Bureau
88. Republic Act No. 7586 of 1992 is otherwise known as:
a. National Integrated Protected Areas System (NIPAS)
b. Indigenous Peoples Right Acct (IPRA)
c. Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Law
d. Local Government Code
89. Under Section 63 of PD 705 every corporation holding a license agreement, license, lease or
permit within the forest land is required to sell at least ___ % of its subscribed capital stock in
favor of the employees, laborers and the general public.
a. 5 b. 20 c. 15 d. 10
90. Under Section 70 of PD 705, what is the range of imprisonment to be imposed upon any person
who shall, without authority under a lease or permit, graze or cause to graze livestock in forest
lands/grazing lands?
a. 1 to 2 years c. 6 months to 2 years
b. 3 to 6 months d. 6 months to 1 year
91. Under Section 69 of PD No. 705, what is the range of fine to be imposed upon conviction of any
person who commits unlawful occupation or destruction of forest lands/grazing lands?
a. P2,000 to P6,000 c. P500 to P20,000
b. P500 to P1,000 d. P6,000 to P10,000
92. PD No. 705 declared some areas with slope of below 18% as needed for forest purposes. Which
of the following areas are not included in the list?
a. Titled lands which are contiguous with certified alienable and disposable lands
b. Those which have already been reforested
c. Strips of mangrove of swamplands at least 20 meters wide
d. Appropriate located road-right-of-way
 17

93. It is the first forestry service in the country.

a. Inspeccion General de Montes c. Bureau of Forestry
b. Bureau of Forest Development d. Forest Management Bureau
94. It refers to the law that regulates the practice of the forestry profession.
a. RA No. 6293 of January 1971 c. RA No. 6239 of January 1971
b. RA No. 6239 of January 1972 d. RA No. 6293 of January 1972
95. It is a part of the public domain characterized by extreme weather conditions, acidic soil, steep
slopes and poor vegetative cover.
a. rangeland c. pine forest
b. mossy forest d. dipterocarp forest
96. As of 1998, the approximate remaining forest cover is ___ % of the total forest land area.
a. 55.1 b. 30.0 c. 50.0 d. 18.8
97. A vision and strategy to enable the Philippines to become a newly industrialized country at the Comment [APV3]: 4/29/04 3:35:47 PM: Erap
has his own, same with Gloria
end of the century.
a. Philippine 2000 c. Social Reform Agenda
b. Philippine Agenda 21 d. Human and Ecological Security
98. The principle applied by sovereign powers which recognizes that unless otherwise titled, all lands
belong to the State.
a. Regalian Doctrine c. Low Intensity Conflict
b. Colonialism d. Right of Eminent Domain
99. Under the current organizational structure of the DENR, the forestry sector in the regional office
is under the direct supervision of the:
a. Deputy Regional Director for Forestry c. Assistant Regional Director for Forestry
b. Regional Director for Forestry d. Regional Technical Director for Forestry
100. It provides for the banning of the issuance by courts of preliminary injunction in cases involving
concessions, license and other permits issued by public administrative officer or bodies for the
exploitation of natural resources.
a. PD No. 410 c. PD No. 1998
b. PD No. 605 d. PD No. 1020
101. DAO 19, Series of 1993 governs the implementation of:
a. Community Forestry Program c. Coastal Environment Program
b. Integrated Social Forestry program d. Coastal Community and Fisheries Program
102. Republic Act No. 8371 provides for the creation of a National Commission on the indigenous
people composed of ______ commissioners.
a. six (6) b. five (5) c. seven (7) d. four (4)
103. Republic Act No. 8371 recognizes, protects and promotes the rights of indigenous cultural
communities/indigenous peoples. It also creates a national commission on indigenous peoples
and establishes the implementing mechanisms, appropriates funds thereof and for other
purposes. This law is also commonly referred to as:
a. The Ancestral Domains Law c. The Indigenous Peoples Rights Act of 1997
b. The Indigenous Peoples Rights Act of 1996 d. The Magna Carta for the Indigenous Peoples
104. Including the Autonomous Region of Muslim Mindanao, the Philippines is divided into ___
administrative regions.
a. 13 b. 15 c. 14 d. 12 Comment [APV4]: 4/29/04 3:36:29 PM: What
about CARAGA. See and announce later
105. It is the corporate arm of the Department of Environment and Natural Resources.
a. Natural Resources Development Corporation
b. National Resources Development Corporation
c. National Development Corporation
d. Natural Resources Development Company
106. It is the line of conduct, which the administration of an organization adopts on particular issues.
It is also a course of plan of administrative action.
a. memorandum b. policy c. regulation d. constitution
 18

107. The Philippine has a total land area of approximately:

a. 30 million hectares c. 20 million hectares
b. 35 million hectares d. 40 million hectares
108. Under PD 705, no forest land ___% in slope or over may be utilized for grazing purposes.
a. 18 b. 50 c. 45 d. 55
109. Which of the following should be given top priority in the disposition of confiscated logs, lumber
and other forest products?
a. needy victims of disasters as certified by the Department of Social Welfare and Development
b. projects of the Department of Public Works and Highways related to the restoration of public
facilities
c. school building program of the Department of Education, Culture and Sports
d. health centers requested by the Department of Health in local government units
110. What DENR administrative order covers the rules and regulations for the implementation of the
Community-based Forest Management Strategy?
a. DAO No. 96-29 c. DAO No. 93-22
b. DAO No. 96-30 d. DAO No. 93-23
111. Executive Order No. 263 mandates the adoption of Community-Based Forest Management as the
national _______ to ensure the sustainable development of the country’s forest lands resources.
a. strategy b. process c. project d. system
112. What article in the 1987 Constitution deals with “National Economy and Patrimony”?
a. Article XII b. Article III c. Article VI d. Article X
113. It refers to the agreed upon course of action directed towards certain forestry goals and
objectives.
a. forest policy b. forest planning c. forest inventory d. forest management

Environment and Sustainable Development

1. It refers to the issuance by the DENR attesting that a certain project under consideration will not
bring about unacceptable environmental impact and that the proponent has complied with the
requirements of the Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) System.
a. Environmental Impact Statement c. Environmental Compliance Certificate
b. Environmental Clearance Certificate d. Environmental Compliance Permit
2. It is defined as meeting the needs of the present generation without compromising the ability of
the future generations to meet their own needs
a. sustainable development c. selective logging
b. economic development d. preservation
3. It refers to any solid particulate matter capable of being gas-borne and consisting essentially of
fused ash and/or partially burned materials like coal, wood, bagasse and other combustible matter.
a. fumes b. fly ash c. smoke d. acid mist
4. It refers to any air-borne colloidal system which is formed by chemical reaction or by any
processes such as combustion, distillation, sublimation, or condensation, and containing
particulate matters of size generally less than 10 micron.
a. fumes c. acid mist
b. fly ash d. smoke
5. It refers to gas-borne particulates resulting from incomplete combustion consisting predominantly,
but not exclusively, of carbon, ashes or other combustible materials.
a. smoke c. fly ash
b. acid mist d. fumes
6. To be sustainable, the rate of ____ of a renewable resource like timber should not exceed
regeneration rate.
a. use c. production
b. conservation d. preservation
 19

7. This element in the traditional practice of shifting cultivation makes the system feasible and
considered sustainable
a. long fallow period c. crop rotation
b. cropping mix d. small farm size
8. It is a practice in upland farming wherein the land is allowed to rest for a considerable period to
regain its soil fertility.
a. fertilization c. organic farming
b. fallow d. rotation cropping
9. It is the process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of implementing projects or
undertakings and designing appropriate preventive, mitigating and enhancement measures.
a. Sector Analysis c. Environmental Impact Assessment
b. Scooping d. Environmental Impact Statement
10. It is an outcome of the 1992 Earth Summit in Rio de Janiero, the UN statement of environmental
principles towards sustainable development.
a. Global Environment Outlook c. Conference on the Human Environment
b. Agenda 21 d. Social reform Agenda
11. It is referred to as the Philippine Environmental Code.
a. PD No. 1586 c. PD No. 705
b. PD No. 1152 d. PD No. 1125
12. It was created to provide the mechanism for implementing the principles of sustainable
development in the country.
a. Philippine Council for Sustainable Development
b. Philippine Technical Working Group for Sustainable Development
c. Philippine Agenda 21 Council
d. Social Reform Council
13. This refers to the document(s) of studies on the environmental impacts of a project including the
discussions on direct and indirect consequences upon human welfare and ecological integrity as
well as the appropriate mitigating and enhancement measures.
a. Environmental Guarantee c. Environmental Impact Assessment
b. Environmental Compliance Certificate d. Environmental Impact Statement
14. What was established under Presidential Decree No. 1586?
a. Philippine Environmental Impact Statement System
b. Philippine Environmental Policy
c. Philippine Council for Sustainable Development
d. Social Reform Agenda
15. It refers to a project that has high potential for significant negative environmental impact.
a. Potential Project c. Environmentally Critical Project
b. Environmental Project d. High Impact Project
16. Per DAO 96-37, a project within an environmentally critical area which has been in operation prior
to ______ which neither expanded its daily production capacity or area, nor modified its process
is not covered by the Environmental Impact Statement System.
a. 1985 b. 1982 c. 1990 d. 1995
17. Sustainable development is viewed to mean not going beyond the ____ of our environment and
natural resources.
a. carrying capacity b. supply c. supply d. biodiversity
18. Which of the following is not a principle of sustainable development?
a. ecological soundness c. cultural, moral and spiritual insensitivity
b. global cooperation d. development of full human potential
19. Which of the following is not a principle of sustainable development?
a. maximum production c. participatory democracy
b. gender sensitivity d. ecological soundness
 20

20. This is the entire process of organization, administration and procedures institutionalized for
purposes of assessing the significance of the effects of any project on the quality of the
environment and designing appropriate mitigating and enhancement measures.
a. Environmental Risk Assessment c. Environmental Assessment System
b. Environmental Impact Statement d. Environmental Impact Statement System
21. It is the stage in the Environmental Impact Statement System where information and assessment
requirement are established or the range of actions, alternatives and impacts to be examined are
defined.
a. Scoping c. Initial Environmental Examination
b. Risk Assessment d. Environmental Planning
22. It refers to the document required from proponent of projects located within an Environmentally
Critical Area describing the environmental impact of, and mitigation and enhancement measures
for the proposed project.
a. Environmental Impact Assessment c. Initial Environmental Examination
b. Environmental Compliance Certificate d. Environmental Risk Assessment
23. It is the result of a process mutually agreed upon by the DENR, key stakeholders, and project
proponent to ensure that the valid concerns of stakeholders are fully considered and/or resolved
in the decision-making process for granting or denying issuance of an Environmental Compliance
Certificate.
a. social acceptability c. public management
b. conflict management d. public consultation and hearings
24. Which of the following is considered as Environmentally Critical Area?
a. Areas traditionally occupied by cultural communities or tribes
b. Major wood processing project
c. Geothermal power plants
d. Golf course projects
25. Which of the following projects are not covered by the Environmental Impact Statement System?
a. countryside business and barangay entities covered by R.A. No. 6810
b. smelting plants
c. logging d. recharged areas of aquifers
26. The formal scoping report required under the Environmental Impact Statement System shall be
submitted by:
a. Project proponent c. Environmental Management Bureau
b. Stakeholders d. Support Non-Government Organization
27. In storm prone areas, it is recommended that mangrove forest strips _____ meters wide inward
along a shoreline fronting seas, oceans and water bodies and ____ meter strip on both sides of
river channel for riverbank protection
a. 50 then 50 b. 100 then 50 c. 100 then 25 d. 50 then 25
28. The enforcement of rules and regulations regarding testing and apprehension of smoke-belching
vehicles and collection appropriate fees and charges is a function of the:
a. Local Government Unit c. Environmental Management Bureau
b. Forest Management Bureau d. Pollution Adjudication Board
29. This is a package of interventions which the government shall pursue to ensure the welfare and
integration of disadvantaged group or basic sectors of the society into the political and economic
mainstream.
a. Social Reform Agenda c. Philippine 2000
b. Social Reform Agenda d. Master Plan for Sustainable Management
30. Under the Community-Based Forest Management Program participating organized communities
may be granted access to forest land resources provided they employ certain harvesting methods.
Which of the following methods is not recommended?
a. highly mechanical c. ecological sustainable
b. environment-friendly d. labor-intensive
 21

Forest Protection

1. The issuance dated May 18, 1996 that prescribes the guidelines and procedures for the
prospecting of biological and genetic resources in the Philippines:
a. EO No. 247 c. EO No. 240
b. EO No. 263 d. EO No. 291
2. What DENR administrative order provides for the implementing rules and regulations on the
prospecting of biological and genetic resources in the Philippines?
a. DAO No. 96-30 c. DAO No. 96-20
b. DAO No. 93-02 d. DAO No. 93-58
3. It refers to the research, collection and utilization of biological and genetic resources for purposes
of applying the knowledge derived therefrom for scientific and/or commercial purposes.
a. biotechnology c. commercial research agreement
b. bioprospecting d. academic research agreement
4. It refers to identified portions of land and water set aside by reason of their unique physical and
biological significance, managed to enhance biological diversity and safeguard against destructive
human exploitation.
a. buffer zone c. watershed
b. forest reserve d. protected area
5. Pursuant to Executive Order No. 247, when the bioprospecting activity is to be conducted within
ancestral land or ancestral domain, the applicant shall obtain a ___________ from the concerned
indigenous people in accordance with the customary laws of the concerned community.
a. prior informed consent c. commercial research agreement
b. prospecting contract d. academic research agreement
6. It refers to the customary utilization of biological and genetic resources by the local community
and indigenous peoples in accordance with written and unwritten usages, customs and practices
traditionally observed, accepted and recognized by them.
a. bioprospecting use c. customary right
d. traditional use d. sustainable development
7. This refers to the Act providing for the establishment and management of a National Protected
Areas System and also known as NIPAS Act of 1992.
a. R.A. No. 7901 c. R.A. No. 7161
b. R.A. No. 7160 d. R.A. No. 7586
8. The administrative order that provides for the implementing rules and regulations of the NIPAS
Act of 192.
a. DAO 25, Series of 1992 c. DAO 02, Series of 1992
b. DAO 45, Series of 1992 d. DAO 23, Series of 1992
9. Pursuant to the NIPAS Act, DAO No. 92-27 provides that all mossy forest shall form part of the
National Integrated protected Areas System and shall be considered as:
a. protected nature reserves c. strict nature reserves
b. wildlife sanctuaries d. buffer zones
10. Which of the following does not fall within the category of protected area under the NIPAS Act of
1992?
a. buffer zone c. protected landscapes
b. strict nature reserve d. natural monument
11. It is defined as a relatively large area not materially altered by human activity, where extractive
resource uses are not allowed and which is maintained to protect outstanding natural and scenic
areas of national and international significance for scientific, educational and recreational uses.
a. natural park c. protected landscape
b. national park d. natural monument
 22

12. These are defined as areas of national significance which are characterized by the harmonious
interaction of man and land while providing opportunities for public enjoyment through recreation
and tourism within the normal lifestyle and economic activity of these areas.
a. protected landscapes/seascapes c. national park
b. resource reserve d. natural park
13. It refers to the classification of all designated protected areas to maintain essential ecological
processes and the life support systems to preserve genetic diversity, to ensure sustainable use of
resources found therein, and to maintain their natural conditions to the greatest extent possible.
a. National integrated Protected Areas System
b. Protected Areas Classification System
c. Protected Areas and Wildlife Development
d. Protected Areas Strategic Planning
14. It refers to a forest reservation essentially of natural wilderness character, which has been
withdrawn from settlement, occupancy or any from of exploitation except in conformity with an
approved management plan and set aside as such exclusively to conserve the area or preserve
the scenery, the natural and historic objects, wild animals and plants therein and to provide
enjoyment of these features in such areas.
a. Protected Landscape c. Natural Park
b. National Park d. Strict Nature Reserve
15. These are identified areas outside the boundaries of and immediately adjacent to classified
protected areas that need special development control in order to avoid or minimize harm to the
protected areas.
a. buffer zones b. critical watersheds c. riverbanks d. ecotone
16. Under the National Integrated Areas System, each established protected area shall be
administered by a _______.
a. Protected Areas and Wildlife Division c. Protected Area Management Board
b. Protected Areas Management Committee d. Protected Area Management Council
17. The final decision to include protected areas as integral part of the NIPAS is the function of:
a. Congress c. DENR
b. Sangguniang Panlalawigan d. Protected Area Management Board
18. Unless otherwise provided by law, protected areas disestablished by Congress shall revert to the
category of:
a. alienable and disposable lands c. public forest
b. national park d. mining reservation
19. Under the NIPAS Act and its Implementing Rules and Regulations, which of the following is not a
function of the Protected Area Management Board?
a. Supervise, manage and administer the National Integrated Protected Area System
b. Decide matters relating to planning, resource protection and general administration of the
protected area in accordance with the General Management Planning Strategy
c. Control and regulate the construction, operation and maintenance of roads, trails, water
works, sewerage, fire protection and sanitation systems within the protected area.
d. Monitor and evaluate the performance of protected are personnel, NGOs and the communities
concerned
20. As provided under the NIPAS Act, the members of the protected Area Management Board shall
serve for a term of __ years.
a. three (3) b. two (2) c. five (5) d. six (6)
21. As provided under the NIPAS Act, who shall serve as the chairperson of the Protected Area
Management Board?
a. DENR Regional Executive Director
b. Director, Protected Areas and Wildlife Bureau
c. Regional Technical Director for Environment
d. Regional Technical Director for Forestry
 23

22. Aside from the DENR Regional Executive Director in whose jurisdiction the protected area is
located, who among the other members of the Protected Area Management Board serves as an
“ex-officio” member?
a. Municipal Mayor c. Barangay Captain
b. Provincial Development Officer d. Municipal Agriculturist
23. Pursuant to Section 21 of the NIPAS Act, any person found guilty by a competent court of justice
of hunting, destroying, disturbing, or mere possession of any plants or animals or products
without a permit from the concerned Protected Area Management Board shall be imprisoned
and/or fines in the amount of _____ exclusive of the value of the things damaged.
a. P5,000 – P100,000 c. P10,000 – P200,000
b. P10,000− P100,000 d. P5,000 – P200,000
24. Pursuant to Section 21 of the NIPAS Act, any person found guilty by a competent court of justice
of mutilating, defacing or destroying objects of natural beauty, or objects of interest to cultural
communities shall be imprisoned for:
a. 1 to 6 years b. 2 to 5 years c. 1 to 3 years d. 2 to 4 years
25. An executive issuance which regulates access to biological resources in the Philippines
a. EO 263 b. EO 15 c. EO 247 d. EO 115
26. It is defined as the “degree of nature’s variety and variability described in terms of number,
frequency and type of living organism in a given area including the structural and functional
interactions which they are part of”:
a. bioprospecting b. environment c. biodiversity d. ecology
27. Which of the following is considered as one of the issues associated with the problems of
biodiversity loss or decline?
a. implementation of appropriate conservation measures
b. poverty and rapid population growth
c. adequate support for research on resource inventories, conservation and management programs
d. appreciation of indigenous culture and knowledge
28. Which of the following issues is perceived as one of the factors contributing to the decline or loss
of biodiversity?
a. information on ethnobiology
b. lack of appreciation of indigenous culture and knowledge
c. adequacy of present methods for studying biodiversity
d. implementation of policies on biodiversity conservation
29. It refers to plantation establishment activities in reforestation which includes, among others,
construction of infrastructure, seedling production, site preparation and replanting, maintenance
and protection, and silvicultural treatments.
a. development planning c. enrichment planning
b. project implementation d. comprehensive site development
30. It refers to activities implemented to prevent and suppress forest destruction particularly those
resulting from illegal logging, squatting, burning and other damages caused by pests or natural
calamities.
a. Forest protection b. Forest Conservation c. Silviculture d. Silvics
31. Buffer zone or “added protection layer” is exemplified by a strip of land along the edge of
normal high waterline of rivers and streams with channels of at least 5 meters wide.
a. 20 meter b. 30 meter c. 10 meter d. 50 meter
32. Natural or artificial restocking of an area with forest
a. reforestation b. afforestation c. deforestation d. regeneration
33. Establishment of a forest on area not previously forested
a. deforestation b. reforestation c. afforestation d. regeneration
34. Establishment of a forest on an area recently cleared of forest with insufficient vegetation of
forest area.
a. afforestation b. reforestation c. regeneration d. planting
 24

35. Reforestation does not aim to:

a. Convert existing dipterocarp forest into a plantation of fast-growing species.
b. Rehabilitate watersheds
c. Promote production of timber and non-timber forest products
d. Enrich logged-over areas
36. It is a degree with requires all citizen to plan trees every month for 5 consecutive years.
a. PD No. 705 b. PD No. 1153 c. PD No. 1559 d. PD no. 1151
37. It is a multi-sectoral group created in each established protected area and vested with powers to
administer the implementation of the Natural Integrated Protected Area System.
a. Protected Area Management Board
b. Provincial Special Task Force on Ancestral Domains
c. Multi-Sectoral Forest Protection Committee
d. Protected Area Technical Working Group
38. These are large rectangular wire cages filled with stones/rocks and which are employed in erosion
control techniques.
a. rip-raps b. A-frames c. weirs d. gabions
39. After a forest fire has been controlled, it is important that all the burning objects such as
branches and slumps be extinguished so that no embers are left. This stage of fire suppression is
referred to as:
a. direct attack b. back firing c. mopping up d. cleaning up
40. It is the first reforestation project and was established in 1937.
a. Cebu Reforestation Project c. Makiling Reforestation Project
b. Magsaysay Reforestation Project d. Arayat Reforestation Project
41. These are strips of vegetation consisting of mixture of trees, shrubs and vines planted to reduce
wind velocity and can result in decreased destruction on houses, gardens and agri-crops.
a. Shelterbelts b. Windshield c. Windbreaker d. Firebreak
42. This refers to the introduction of valuable species in forest areas where economical species are
lacking to improve species composition.
a. enrichment planting b. afforestation c. regeneration d. multiple cropping
43. This refers to the removal of undesirable species at an early stage of the plantation to retain only
the best or desired stems up to maturity.
a. weeding b. sanitation cutting c. prunning d. thinning
44. Thinning must start as soon as crown competition sets in order to.
a. provide enough growing space for the remaining crop
b. avoid growth of climbers
c. prevent the stand from pest and diseases
d. provide windbreak
45. It refers to vegetation of less inflammable species with dense foliage, planted closely around 20-
meter wide which provide protection to fire sensitive stands.
a. firebreaks b. firelines c. shelterbelts d. contour lines
46. This refers to strips of about 10 meters wide on which all inflammable vegetation is cleared
before the dry seasons to reduce fire hazard in plantations.
a. firelines b. firebreaks c. shelterbelts d. contour lines
47. This is one way to reduce damage of pests and diseases in the forest whereby infested, dead and
overmature species are removed in favor of the healthy ones.
a. sanitation cutting b. refining c. liberation cutting d. thinning
48. Which of the following is not a fire suppression method?
a. mopping up b. direct attack c. defense measure d. firebreak
49. This refers to a fire suppression method wherein slow burning is done from a fireline to the
direction of the main fire so that burning ends when both fires met.
a. backfiring c. fireline
b. direct attack d. firebreak
 25

50 Which of the following is a fire suppression method?

a. backfiring b. prescribed burning c. fireline d. firebreak
51. This refers to a strip of vegetation consisting of a one or more species of plants or trees which
serves as protection of croplands from the destructive effects of strong winds.
a. shelterbelt b. firebreak c. buffer zone d. terrace
52. Wilderness areas are intended for:
a. environmental protection c. agro-forestry
b. timber production d. forage production
53. It is a type of gravity erosion wherein an entire mass of soil moves downhill as a unit without any
evidence of clefts or cracks on the surface.
a. landslide b. soil creep c. sheet erosion d. rill erosion
54. Deforestation is not attributed to:
a. selective logging c. population increase and provide incidence in upland areas
b. public land conversion d. destruction of forest through selective logging methods
55. Which of the following is not cause of forest denudation?
a. reforestation c. firewood collection
b. spread of agriculture d. timber harvesting
56. It refers to a levy being imposed by the government on timber and other forest products cut in a
forestland by a permittee and TLA/TPSA holders.
a. inspection fee c. license/permit fee
b. performance bond d. forest charges
57. It refers to a land that has been depleted of its natural forest cover and is predominantly covered
by grasses, herbaceous species or bare soil.
a. open and denuded land c. degraded residual forest
b. brushland d. residual production forest
58. Which of the following wood products is not allowed for exportation?
a. Lumber from government-owned reforestation projects
b. Finished wood products
c. Semi-finished wood products
d. Knock-down finished or semi-finished wood products
59. Following the shift of logging from old growth to second growth forests, high least yarding was
banned in dipterocarp forests.
a. ground skidding c. high-lead yarding
b. cable yarding d. ground-lead yarding
60. It refers to any forest land extensively planted to tree crops primarily to supply raw materials
requirements of existing or proposed wood processing plants and related industries.
a. Industrial Tree Plantation c. Plantation Forest
b. Tree Farm d. Tree Plantation
61. Which of the following is not a group for cancellation of a SIFMA?
a. Failure of the SIFMA holder to develop the area within 2 years
b. The SIFMA holder has transferred his/her rights over the area to another person without the
knowledge and concurrence of the DENR
c. The SIFMA holder has allowed the entry of persons into the area for the purpose of building
residential houses.
d. The SIFMA holder cuts or allows cutting of naturally grown trees within or adjacent to the
SIFMA area.

Ethics

1. The Code of Ethics obliges foresters to be loyal to the _____, to observe the provisions of the
Constitution and the laws of the land and to respect duly constituted assembly.
a. country b. family c. president d. flag
 26

2. The Code of Ethics obliges foresters to consider _______ and human values as the guiding
principles in decision-making exercise of ability and application of skills, and as a moral
responsibility
a. economic gain c. personal interest
b. public welfare d. life history
3. The Code of Ethic obliges foresters to communicate with the public and develop national
awareness of the social, political and economic aspects of forest and to serve as a dynamic agent
of change in bringing about ________consciousness.
a. forest extension c. forest conservation
b. forest utilization d. logging
4. The Code of Ethics obliges foresters to develop and maintain a high professional prestige, uphold
the dignity and high standards of the forestry profession and take pride in its practice; and to put
honesty, integrity and ______ above material and pecuniary interest.
a. confidentiality c. personal interest
b. financial gain d. moral values
5. The Code of Ethics obliges foresters to win the respect and confidence of the members of other
professions, request their opinions, and be willing to _____ with open but independent mind.
a. work with them c. work against them
b. work for them d. dominate them
6. The Code of Ethics obliges foresters to respect the interest and integrity of co-foresters and
observe _________ in making comments on or criticisms of the ideas and work of colleagues in
the profession.
a. pride b. prudence c. authority d. influence
7. The Code of Ethics obliges foresters to be fair and just in dealing with co-workers and
subordinates, to always work for their welfare, use and accept ____ as the criterion for
advancement and recognition.
a. connection c. merit
b. award d. influence
8. The Code of Ethics obliges foresters to provide exemplary _______ to employees, clients and
public; to be honest in all dealings while handling properly information classified or confidential
a. award c. offer
b information d. service
9. The Code of Ethics obliges foresters to contribute to forestry knowledge and share knowledge
with other professionals; to develop professionally and be ____ on developments in forestry.
a. up-to-date b. critical c. behind d. supportive
10. The Code of Ethics obliges foresters to always take into account the ecological values and needs
of the _____ in the development of and deriving benefits from the forest.
a. agency b. society c. licensee d. community
11. Development of ability to project oneself into the feeling of others is necessary for social forestry
field workers. This ability is referred to as:
a. sympathy b. apathy c. empathy d. loyalty
12. A government employee surveyed classified and recommended the release of a forest land as
alienable and disposable (A&D) contrary to lawful criteria. Which of the following should not be a
scenario after his conviction in court?
a. The employee is promoted c. The employee is imprisoned
b. The employee is fined d. The land is question is not released as A&D
13. Involvement in Social Forestry necessitates understanding of the interaction between the people
and the forest. As such, this task required a good mix of one’s skills and knowledge both in
natural and ____ aspect of forest management.
a. social b. biological c. physical d. award

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