TEST PAPER OF JEE(MAIN) EXAMINATION – 2019

(Held On Friday 11th JANUARY, 2019) TIME : 02 : 30 PM To 05 : 30 PM

PHYSICS
1. A paramagnetic substance in the form of a cube
3. Seven capacitors, each of capacitance 2 F, are
with sides 1 cm has a magnetic dipole moment
to be connected in a configuration to obtain an
of 20 × 10–6 J/T when a magnetic intensity of
60 × 10 3 A/m is applied. Its magnetic  6
susceptibility is :- effective capacitance of 
  F . Which of
13 
(1) 2.3 × 10–2 (2) 3.3 × 10–2
the combinations, shown in figures below, will
(3) 3.3 × 10–4 (4) 4.3 × 10–2
achieve the desired value ?
Ans. (3)

I
Sol. 
H (1)

Magnetic moment
I
Volume

20  106
I  20 N / m 2
106 (2)

20 1
 3
  103
60  10 3
= 0.33 × 10–3 = 3.3 × 10–4
(3)
2. A particle of mass m is moving in a straight line
with momentum p. Starting at time t = 0, a force
F = kt acts in the same direction on the moving
particle during time interval T so that its (4)
momentum changes from p to 3p. Here k is a
constant. The value of T is :- Ans. (4)

p 2p 2k k 6
(1) 2 (2) (3) (4) 2 Sol. Ceq  F
k k p p 13
Therefore three capacitors most be in parallel
Ans. (1)
to get 6 in
dp
Sol.  F  kt 1 1 1 1 1 1
dt     
Ceq 3C C C C C
3P T
 P
dP   kt dt
O 3C 6
Ceq   F
13 13
KT 2
2p 
2

P
T2
K

1
4. An electric field of 1000 V/m is applied to an (1) 270°C (2) 230°C
electric dipole at angle of 45°. The value of (3) 250°C (4) 200°C
electric dipole moment is 10–29 C.m. What is
Ans. (2)
the potential energy of the electric dipole ?
(1) – 9 × 10–20 J Sol.  1   2
(2) – 7 × 10–27 J
1 T1   2 T2
(3) – 10 × 10–29 J
(4) – 20 × 10–18 J 1 T1
Ans. (2) 
 2 T2

Sol. U   P.E
= –PE cos  4 T  30

= –(10–29) (103) cos 45º 3 180  30
= – 0.707 × 10–26 J
= –7 × 10–27 J. T  230º C
5. A simple pendulum of length 1 m is oscillating 7. In a double-slit experiment, green light
with an angular frequency 10 rad/s. The (5303 Å) falls on a double slit having a
support of the pendulum starts oscillating up separation of 19.44 m and a width of
and down with a small angular frequency of 4.05 m. The number of bright fringes between
1 rad/s and an amplitude of 10–2 m. The relative the first and the second diffraction minima
change in the angular frequency of the is :-
pendulum is best given by :- (1) 09 (2) 10
(1) 10–3 rad/s
(3) 04 (4) 05
(2) 10–1 rad/s
(3) 1 rad/s Ans. (4)
(4) 10–5 rad/s Sol. For diffraction
Ans. (1) location of 1st minime
Sol. Angular frequency of pendulum
D Q
g eff y1   0.2469D
 a
 y2
location of 2nd minima
 1 g eff P
  2D y1
 2 g eff y2   0.4938D
a
1 g Now for interference
  
2 g Path difference at P.
[s = angular frequency of support]
dy
 4.8
1 2A s2 D
    100
2 100 path difference at Q
 = 10–3rad/sec.
6. Two rods A and B of identical dimensions are dy
 9.6 
at temperature 30°C. If A is heated upto 180°C D
and B upto T°C, then the new lengths are the So orders of maxima in between P & Q is
same. If the ratio of the coefficients of linear 5, 6, 7, 8, 9
expansion of A and B is 4 : 3, then the value
So 5 bright fringes all present between P & Q.
of T is :-
2
8. An amplitude modulated signal is plotted 10. A 27 mW laser beam has a cross-sectional area
below :- of 10 mm2. The magnitude of the maximum
electric field in this electromagnetic wave is
10V
given by [Given permittivity of space
8V  0 = 9 × 10 –12 SI units, Speed of light
c = 3 × 108 m/s]:-
t (1) 1 kV/m (2) 2 kV/m
(3) 1.4 kV/m (4) 0.7 kV/m
Ans. (3)
8 s Sol. Intensity of EM wave is given by
100 s

Which one of the following best describes the Power 1

I   0 E 20 C
above signal ? Area 2
(1) (9 + sin (2.5 × 105 t)) sin (2 × 104t)V
27  10 3 1
(2) (9 + sin (4 × 104 t)) sin (5 × 105t)V   × 9 × 10–12 × E2 × 3 × 108
10  106 2
(3) (1 + 9sin (2 × 104 t)) sin (2.5 × 105t)V
(4) (9 + sin (2 × 104 t)) sin (2.5 × 105t)V E  2  103 kv/m
Ans. (4) = 1.4 kv/m
Sol. Analysis of graph says 11. A pendulum is executing simple harmonic
(1) Amplitude varies as 8 – 10 V or 9 ± 1 motion and its maximum kinetic energy is K1.
(2) Two time period as If the length of the pendulum is doubled and
100 s (signal wave) & 8 s (carrier wave) it performs simple harmonic motion with the
 same amplitude as in the first case, its
 2t    2t 
Hence signal is  9  1sin    sin   maximum kinetic energy is K2. Then :-
  T1    T2 
= 9 ± 1sin (2 × 104t) sin 2.5 × 105 t K1 K1
(1) K 2  (2) K 2 
9. In the circuit , the potential difference between 4 2
A and B is :- (3) K2 = 2K1 (4) K2 = K1
Ans. (3)
1 1V Sol. Maximum kinetic energy at lowest point B is
M
given by
5 1 2V 10 K = mgl (1 – cos )
A D C B where  = angular amp.
1 3V
N ///////////////////////////

(1) 6 V (2) 1 V (3) 3 V (4) 2 V

m
Ans. (4) A
Sol. Potential difference across AB will be equal to B
battery equivalent across CD K1 = mg  (1 – cos )
E1 E 2 E 3 1 2 3
K2 = mg(2  ) (1 – cos )
    K2 = 2K1.
r1 r2 r3
VAB  VCD  1 1 1 12. In a hydrogen like atom, when an electron
1 1 1 1 1 1
    jumps from the M - shell to the L - shell, the
r1 r2 r3 1 1 1
wavelength of emitted radiation is . If an
electron jumps from N-shell to the L-shell, the
6
  2V wavelength of emitted radiation will be :-
3
3
 (1)
27
 (2)
16
 (3)
20
 (4)
25
 14. 
A particle moves from the point 2.0iˆ  4.0 ˆj m, 
20 25 27 16
Ans. (3)  
at t = 0, with an initial velocity 5.0iˆ  4.0 ˆj ms–1.
Sol. For M  L steel It is acted upon by a constant force which
produces a constant acceleration
1  1 1  K5
 K 2  2  
  2 3  36  4.0iˆ  4.0 ˆj ms –2
. What is the distance of the
for N  L particle from the origin at time 2 s ?

1  1 1  K3 (1) 20 2 m (2) 10 2 m

 K 2  2  
' 2 4  16 (3) 5 m (4) 15 m
Ans. (1)
20
'    1
27 Sol. S   5iˆ  4ˆj 2   4iˆ  4ˆj 4
2
13. If speed (V), acceleration (A) and force (F) are
considered as fundamental units, the dimension = 10iˆ  8jˆ  8iˆ  8ˆj
of Young's modulus will be :-  
rf  ri  18iˆ  16ˆj
–2 2 2 –4 2
(1) V A F (2) V A F

–4
(3) V A F –2
(4) V–2A2F–2 rf  20iˆ  20ˆj

Ans. (2) 
rf  20 2

F  15. A monochromatic light is incident at a certain

Sol.  y. angle on an equilateral triangular prism and
A 
suffers minimum deviation. If the refractive
 Y  F index of the material of the prism is 3 , then
A
the angle of incidence is :-
Now from dimension (1) 30° (2) 45°
(3) 90° (4) 60°
ML
F Ans. (4)
T2
Sol. i = e
F 2 A
L .T r1  r2   30º
M 2

4
by Snell's law
2 F2  V  V
L  2    T = 1 3
M A A 1 × sin i = 3 
2 2
F2 v 4 i = 60
L2  F  MA
M 2 A2 A 2 16. A galvanometer having a resistance of 20 
and 30 divisions on both sides has figure of
V4 merit 0.005 ampere/division. The resistance that
L2 
A2 should be connected in series such that it can
be used as a voltmeter upto 15 volt, is :-
[Y] = [F] = F1 V–4 A2 (1) 80  (2) 120 
[A] (3) 125  (4) 100 

4
Ans. (1) Now, 100 × SA × [100 – T] = 50 × SB (T – 50)
Sol. Rg = 20
NL = NR = N = 30  3
2 ×   (100 – T) = (T – 50)
4
I
FOM = = 0.005 A/Div. 300 – 3T = 2T – 100

400 = 5T
 1   T = 80
Current sentivity = CS =  
 0.005  I
19. The mass and the diameter of a planet are three
Igmax = 0.005 × 30 times the respective values for the Earth. The
= 15 × 10–2 = 0.15 period of oscillation of a simple pendulum on
15 = 0.15 [20 + R] the Earth is 2s. The period of oscillation of the
100 = 20 + R same pendulum on the planet would be :-
R = 80
17. The circuit shown below contains two ideal 2
(1) s (2) 2 3 s
diodes, each with a forward resistance of 50. 3
If the battery voltage is 6 V, the current through
the 100  resistance (in Amperes) is :- 3 3
(3) s (4) s
2 2
D1 150
Ans. (2)

GM
75 Sol.  g 
R2
D2 2 2
100 gp Me  R e   1 1
  3  
ge  
Me  R p   3  3
6V

1
(1) 0.027 (2) 0.020 Also T  g
(3) 0.030 (4) 0.036
Ans. (2)
Tp ge
6  T   3
Sol. I = = 0.002 (D2 is in reverse bias) e gp
300
18. When 100 g of a liquid A at 100°C is added to
 Tp  2 3s
50 g of a liquid B at temperature 75°C, the
temperature of the mixture becomes 90°C. The
temperature of the mixture, if 100 g of liquid 20. The region between y = 0 and y = d contains
A at 100°C is added to 50 g of liquid B at 50°C, 
will be :- a magnetic field B  Bzˆ . A particle of mass m
(1) 80°C (2) 60°C and charge q enters the region with a velocity
(3) 70°C (4) 85°C m

Ans. (1)   î . If d = 2qB , the acceleration of the
Sol. 100 × SA × [100 – 90] = 50 × SB × (90 – 75)
2SA = 1.5 SB charged particle at the point of its emergence
at the other side is :-
3
SA  SB
4
5
 qB  ˆi  ˆj  qB  1 ˆ 3 ˆ 22. A string is wound around a hollow cylinder of
i j
(1)
m  2  (2) 
m 2 2 
mass 5 kg and radius 0.5 m. If the string is now
pulled with a horizontal force of 40 N, and the
qB   ˆj  ˆi  qB  3 ˆ 1 ˆ  cylinder is rolling without slipping on a
(3) m   i  j
 2  (4)
m  2 2  horizontal surface (see figure), then the angular
acceleration of the cylinder will be (Neglect the
Ans. (BONUS)
mass and thickness of the string) :-
Sol.
In equation, entry point of particle is no given 40N

Assuming particle center from (0, d)

(1) 12 rad/s2 (2) 16 rad/s2
mv r
r= , d= (3) 10 rad/s2 (4) 20 rad/s2
qB 2
Ans. (2)

qVB  − 3i − j 
a=   40
m  2 
Sol. a
f 
40 + f = m(R) .....(i)
This option is not given in all above four choices. 40 × R – f × R = mR2
40 – f = mR ...... (ii)
21. A thermometer graduated according to a linear From (i) and (ii)
scale reads a value x 0 when in contact with 40
boiling water, and x0/3 when in contact with ice.   16
mR
What is the temperature of an object in 0 ºC, 23. In a process, temperature and volume of one
if this thermometer in the contact with the mole of an ideal monoatomic gas are varied
object reads x0/2 ? according to the relation VT = K, where K is
(1) 35 (2) 25 a constant. In this process the temperature of
the gas is incresed by T. The amount of heat
(3) 60 (4) 40 absorbed by gas is (R is gas constant) :
Ans. (2)
1 3
(1) RT (2) RT
M.P. B.P. 2 2
0ºC TºC 100ºC
Sol. 1 2K
x0 x0 (3) KRT (4) T
3 2 3
x0
2 Ans. (1)
Sol. VT = K
x0
6  PV 
 V    k  PV2 = K
nR 

x0  x0  R
 Tº C  &  x 0    (100  0º C)  C  CV (For polytropic process)
6 3 1 x

300 R 3R R
x0  C  
2 1 2 2 2
 Q = nC T
150
 Tº C   25º C
6
6
 Sol. 0.1 × 400 × (500 – T) = 0.5 × 4200 × (T – 30)
R
  T + 800 (T – 30)
2
 40(500 – T) = (T – 30) (2100 + 800)
24. In a photoelectric experiment, the wavelength  20000 – 40T = 2900 T – 30 × 2900
of the light incident on a metal is changed from  20000 + 30 × 2900 = T(2940)
300 nm to 400 nm. The decrease in the stopping T = 30.4°C
 hc  T 6.4
potential is close to :   1240 nm  V × 100 =  100
 e  T 30
(1) 0.5 V (2) 1.0 V  20%
(3) 2.0 V (4) 1.5 V 26. The magnitude of torque on a particle of mass
Ans. (2) 1kg is 2.5 Nm about the origin. If the force acting
on it is 1 N, and the distance of the particle from
hc
Sol.    eV1 ....... (i) the origin is 5m, the angle between the force and
1
the position vector is (in radians) :-
hc    
   eV2 ....... (ii) (1) (2) (3) (4)
2 8 6 4 3
(i) – (ii) Ans. (2)
Sol. 2.5 = 1 × 5 sin 
 1 1
hc     e(V1  V2 ) 1
 1  2  sin  = 0.5 =
2

hc   2  1  =
 V1  V2  e      6
1 2 27. In the experimental set up of metre bridge shown
in the figure, the null point is obtained at a
100nm distance of 40 cm from A. If a 10 resistor is
 (1240nm  V)
300nm  400nm connected in series with R1, the null point shifts
= 1V by 10 cm. The resistance that should be
25. A metal ball of mass 0.1 kg is heated upto connected in parallel with (R1 + 10) such that
500°C and dropped into a vessel of heat the null point shifts back to its initial position is
capacity 800 JK –1 and containing 0.5 kg water. R1 R2
The initial temperature of water and vessel is
30°C. What is the approximate percentage
increment in the temperature of the water ? G
[Specific Heat Capacities of water and metal are,
A B
respectively, 4200 Jkg –1 K –1 and
–1 –1
400 JKg K ]
(1) 30% (2) 20%
(3) 25% (4) 15%
Ans. (2) (1) 40  (2) 60  (3) 20  (4) 30

7
Ans. (2) 29. A copper wire is wound on a wooden frame,
whose shape is that of an equilateral triangle.
R1 2
Sol.  ……(i) If the linear dimension of each side of the frame
R2 3 is increased by a factor of 3, keeping the
number of turns of the coil per unit length of
R1  10
the frame the same, then the self inductance of
R 2 = 1  R1 + 10 = R2 ……(ii)
the coil :
2R 2 (1) Decreases by a factor of 9 3
+ 10 = R2
3 (2) Increases by a factor of 3
R2 (3) Decreases by a factor of 9
10 =  R2 = 30
3 (4) Increases by a factor of 27
& R1 = 20 Ans. (2)
Sol. Total length L will remain constant
30  R L = (3a) N (N = total turns)
30  R  2 and length of winding = (d) N
30 3 (d = diameter of wire)
R = 60 
28. A circular disc D1 of mass M and radius R has a a
two identical discs D2 and D3 of the same mass
M and radius R attached rigidly at its opposite a
ends (see figure). The moment of inertia of the self inductance = 0n2A
system about the axis OO', passing through the
centre of D1, as shown in the figure, will be:- 2
 3 a2 
= 0n   dN
 4 
O’  a2 N  a
So self inductance will become 3 times

30. A particle of mass m and charge q is in an

O
D2 D3 electric and magnetic field given by
D1  
E  2iˆ  3ˆj ; B  4ˆj  6kˆ .
2 The charged particle is shifted from the origin
(1) 3MR 2 (2) MR 2 to the point P(x = 1 ; y = 1) along a straight path.
3
The magnitude of the total work done is :-
4 (1) (0.35)q (2) (0.15)q
(3) MR2 (4) MR2
5 (3) (2.5)q (4) 5q
Ans. (1) Ans. (4)
   
MR 2  MR 2  Sol. Fnet  qE  q  v  B 
Sol. I =  2  MR 2   
2  4   
 2qiˆ  3qjˆ  q  v  B
 
MR 2 MR 2 W  Fnet .S
=   2MR 2
2 2 = 2q + 3q
= 3 MR2 = 5q

8
 TEST PAPER OF JEE(MAIN) EXAMINATION – 2019
(Held On Friday 11th JANUARY, 2019) TIME : 02 : 30 PM To 05 : 30 PM
CHEMISTRY
1. The correct option with respect to the Pauling Ans. (1)
electronegativity values of the elements is :- Sol.
(1) Ga < Ge (2) Si < Al NH2 O
(3) P > S (4) Te > Se (P) Tyrosine Tyr OH CH–
2 –CH–C–OH
Ans. (1)
Sol. O NH2 O
B C (Q) Aspartic ASP H–O–C–CH–CH––C––OH
2
Al Si Acid
Ga < Ge NH2
(R) Serine Ser H O–CH–CH
Along the period electronegativity increases 2

COOH
2. The homopolymer formed from 4-hydroxy-
NH2
butanoic acid is :- (S) Lysine NH2–CH 2–CH 2–CH 2–CH 2 – CH
O COOH
(A) Ester test (Q) Aspartic acid (Acidic amino
(1) —C(CH 2)3–O—
n acid)
(B) Carbylamine (S) Lysine [NH2 group present]
O (C) Phthalein dye (P) Tyrosine {Phenolic group
(2) —OC(CH 2)3–O— present)
n 4. Taj Mahal is being slowly disfigured and
O O discoloured. This is primarily due to :-
(3) —C(CH2)2C–O— (1) Water pollution (2) Global warming
n (3) Soil pollution (4) Acid rain
Ans. (4)
O O
Sol. Taj mahal is slowely disfigured and discoloured
(4) —C(CH 2)2C— due to acid rain.
n 5. The major product obtained in the following
Ans. (1) conversion is :-
Sol. O
O O O
Polymerisation
Br2(1 eqv.)
C (CH)
2 3 O MeOH
OH n
OH
O
3. The correct match between Item I and Item II is
CH3 O CH3 O
:- Br
Item I Item II O O OMe
(A) Ester test (P) Tyr (1) (2)
(B) Carbylamine test (Q) Asp Br
(C) Phthalein dye (R) Ser O O
test O CH3 O
(S) Lys CH3
O Br O
(1) (A)®(Q); (B)®(S); (C)®(P)
(2) (A)®(R); (B)®(Q); (C)®(P) (3) (4)
OMe Br
(3) (A)®(Q); (B)®(S); (C)®(R) O O
(4) (A)®(R); (B)®(S); (C)®(Q) Ans. (2)

1
Sol. 9. The correct match between item I and item II is
:-
O O
O O Item I Item II
Br2 OMe (A) Allosteric (P) Molecule binding
MeOH Br effect to the active site
O O of enzyme
–H+
(B) Competitive (Q) Molecule crucial
Br2 O OH inhibitor for
O O communication in
O Me
+ MeOH + the body
Br
(C) Receptor (R) Molecule binding
Br
to a site other than
O O
the active site of
6. The number of bridging CO ligand (s) and enzyme
Co-Co bond (s) in CO2(CO)8, respectively are :- (D) Poison (S) Molecule binding
to the enzyme
(1) 0 and 2 (2) 2 and 0 covalently
(3) 4 and 0 (4) 2 and 1 (1) (A)®(P); (B)®(R); (C)®(S); (D)®(Q)
Ans. (4) (2) (A)®(R); (B)®(P); (C)®(S); (D)®(Q)
Sol. (3) (A)®(P); (B)®(R); (C)®(Q); (D)®(S)

CO CO CO (4) (A)®(R); (B)®(P); (C)®(Q); (D)®(S)

CO Co Co CO Ans. (4)
CO CO CO
10. The radius of the largest sphere which fits
Bridging CO are 2 and Co – Co bond is 1. properly at the centre of the edge of body
7. In the following compound, centred cubic unit cell is : (Edge length is
represented by 'a') :-
a
NH2 (1) 0.134 a (2) 0.027 a
d
N Nb (3) 0.067 a (4) 0.047 a
N N Ans. (3)
e H c
Sol.
the favourable site/s for protonation is/are :- R r
a = 2(R + r)
(1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a)
(3) (a) and (e) (4) (a) and (d) a
= (R + r) ...(1)
2
Ans. (1)
Sol. Localised lone pair e–. a 3 = 4R ...(2)
8. The higher concentration of which gas in air
Using (1) & (2)
can cause stiffness of flower buds ?
(1) SO2 (2) NO2 a a 3
= =r
(3) CO2 (4) CO 2 4

Ans. (1) æ2- 3ö

Sol. Due to acid rain in plants high concentration aç ÷= r
è 4 ø
of SO2 makes the flower buds stiff and makes
them fall. r = 0.067 a

2
11. Among the colloids cheese (C), milk (M) and
DH
smoke (S), the correct combination of the Sol. Teq =
DS
dispersed phase and dispersion medium,
respectively is :- 491.1 ´ 1000
(1) C : solid in liquid; M : solid in liquid; =
198
S : solid in gas
(2) C : solid in liquid; M : liquid in liquid; = 2480.3 K
S : gas in solid 14. Given the equilibrium constant :
(3) C : liquid in solid; M : liquid in solid; KC of the reaction :
S : solid in gas
(4) C : liquid in solid; M : liquid in liquid; Cu(s) + 2Ag + (aq) ® Cu 2+ (aq) + 2Ag(s) is
S : solid in gas 10 × 1015, calculate the E0cell of this reaction at
Ans. (4)
298 K
Sol.
Dispersed Dispersion é RT ù
Phase Medium êë 2.303 F at 298K = 0.059V úû
Cheese Liquid Solid
Milk Liquid Liquid
(1) 0.04736 V (2) 0.4736 V
Smoke Solid Gas
12. The reaction that does NOT define calcination is:- (3) 0.4736 mV (4) 0.04736 mV
D
(1) ZnCO3 ¾¾ ® ZnO + CO2 Ans. (2)
D
(2) Fe2O3·XH2O ¾¾ ® Fe2O3 + XH2O 0.059
Sol. Ecell = E ocell – log Q
D n
(3) CaCO3·MgCO3 ¾¾
® CaO + MgO + 2 CO2
(4) 2 Cu2S + 3 O2 ¾¾
D
® 2 Cu2O + 2 SO2 At equilibrium
Ans. (4)
E°Cell = 0.059 log1016
Sol. Calcination in carried out for carbonates and 2
oxide ores in absence of oxygen. Roasting is = 0.059×8
carried out mainly for sulphide ores in presence = 0.472 V
of excess of oxygen. 15. The hydride that is NOT electron deficient is:-
13. The reaction,
(1) B2H6 (2) AlH3
MgO(s) + C(s)®Mg(S) + CO(g), for which DrHº
= + 491.1 kJ mol–1 and DrSº = 198.0 JK–1 mol– (3) SiH4 (4) GaH3
1, is not feasible at 298 K. Temperature above
Ans. (3)
which reaction will be feasible is :-
Sol. (1) B2H6 : Electron deficient
(1) 1890.0 K (2) 2480.3 K
(2) AlH 3 : Electron deficient
(3) 2040.5 K (4) 2380.5 K (3) SiH4 : Electron precise
Ans. (2) (4) GaH3 : Electron deficient

3
16. The standard reaction Gibbs energy for a 19. The reaction 2X ® B is a zeroth order reaction.
chemical reaction at an absolute temperature T If the initial concentration of X is 0.2 M, the
is given by half-life is 6 h. When the initial concentration
DrGº = A – BT of X is 0.5 M, the time required to reach its final
Where A and B are non-zero constants. Which concentration of 0.2 M will be :-
of the following is TRUE about this reaction ? (1) 18.0 h (2) 7.2 h (3) 9.0 h (4) 12.0 h
(1) Exothermic if B < 0 Ans. (1)
(2) Exothermic if A > 0 and B < 0 Sol. For zero order
[A0]–[At] = kt
(3) Endothermic if A < 0 and B > 0
0.2 – 0.1 = k×6
(4) Endothermic if A > 0
Ans. (4) 1
k= M/hr
Sol. Theory 60
17. K2HgI4 is 40% ionised in aqueous solution. The 1
value of its van't Hoff factor (i) is :- and 0.5–0.2 = ´t
60
(1) 1.8 (2) 2.2 (3) 2.0 (4) 1.6
t = 18 hrs.
Ans. (1) 20. A compound 'X' on treatment with Br2/NaOH,
Sol. For K2[HgI4] provided C 3 H 9 N, which gives positive
i = 1+ 0.4 (3–1) carbylamine test. Compound 'X' is :-
= 1.8 (1) CH3COCH2NHCH3
18. The de Broglie wavelength (l) associated with (2) CH3CH2COCH2NH2
a photoelectron varies with the frequency (v) (3) CH3CH2CH2CONH2
of the incident radiation as, [v 0 is (4) CH 3CON(CH3)2
threshold frequency] : Ans. (3)
Sol.
1
1 1 Br2 CHCl3
(1) lµ 3 (2) lµ [X] C3H 9N CH3CH2CH2–NC
(v - v0 )2 NaOH KOH
(v - v0 )2 Hoff mann's Carbylamine
1 Bromaide Reaction
1
1 degradation
(3) lµ (4) lµ (v - v )
(v - v0 )4 0 Thus [X] must be amide with one carbon
Ans. (2) more than in amine.
Sol. For electron Thus [X] is CH3CH2 CH2CONH2
21. Which of the following compounds will
l
lDB = (de broglie wavelength) produce a precipitate with AgNO3 ?
2mK.E.
By photoelectric effect Br
Br
hn = hn0 + KE
(1) (2)
KE = hn –hn0 N
h
l DB = Br Br
2m ´ (hn - hn 0 )
(3) (4)
1
l DB µ 1
(n – n 0 ) 2 Ans. (4)

4
Sol. 24. Match the following items in column I with the
corresponding items in column II.
Br
AgNO3 Column I Column II
AgBr + (i) Na2 CO3 ·10 H2O (A) Portland cement
aromatic cation ingredient
(ii) Mg(HCO3 )2 (B) Castner-Keller
as it can produce aromatic cation so will process
produce precipitate with AgNO3 . (iii) NaOH (C) Solvay process
22. The relative stability of +1 oxidation state of (iv) Ca3Al2 O6 (D) Temporary
group 13 elements follows the order :- hardness
(1) Al < Ga < Tl < In (2) Tl < In < Ga < Al
(1) (i)®(C); (ii)®(B); (iii)®(D); (iv)®(A)
(3) Al < Ga < In < Tl (4) Ga < Al < In < Tl
Ans. (3) (2) (i)®(C); (ii)®(D); (iii)®(B); (iv)®(A)
Sol. Due to inert pair effect as we move down the (3) (i)®(D); (ii)®(A); (iii)®(B); (iv)®(C)
group in 13 th group lower oxidation state
(4) (i)®(B); (ii)®(C); (iii)®(A); (iv)®(D)
becomes more stable.
Al < Ga < In < Tl Ans. (2)
23. Which of the following compounds reacts with
Sol. Na2CO3.10H2O ® Solvay process
ethylmagnesium bromide and also
decolourizes bromine water solution :- Mg(HCO3)2 ® Temporary hardness

CN O NaOH ® Castner-kellner cell

(1) Ca3Al2O6 ® Portland cement

25. 25 ml of the given HCl solution requires 30 mL

CN of 0.1 M sodium carbonate solution. What is
CH2–CO2CH3 the volume of this HCl solution required to
(2)
titrate 30 mL of 0.2 M aqueous NaOH solution?

OCH3 (1) 25 mL (2) 50 mL (3) 12.5 mL(4) 75 mL

CH Ans. (1)
(3)
CH2
Sol. HCl with Na2CO3
OH Eq. of HCl = Eq. of Na2CO3
(4)
25 30
´ M ´1 = ´ 0.1 ´ 2
1000 1000
Ans. (4)
Sol.
6
M= M
25
OH OMgBr
EtMgBr Eq of HCl = Eq. of NaOH
+ CH3–CH3

6 V 30
´1´ = ´ 0.2 ´ 1
25 1000 1000
declolourizes Bromin water
V = 25 ml

5
 4 KOH, O2 Sol.
26. A 2B + 2 H2O
(Green)
4 HCl COOH CH–OH
3B 2 C + MnO 2 + 2 H 2O 2

(Purple) LiAlH4
C–CH excess
H O, KI
2B 2 2 A + 2KOH + D 3 C–CH3
NO2 NH2
In the above sequence of reactions, O OH
A and D respectively, are :-
LiAlH4 will not affect C=C in this compound.
(1) KIO3 and MnO2 (2) KI and K2MnO4
29. The major product of the following reaction
(3) MnO2 and KIO3 (4) KI and KMnO4
is :-
Ans. (3)
HO (1) HCl
Sol. MnO2(A) ¾¾¾¾
4KOH, O2
® 2K2MnO4(B) + 2H2O
(2) AlCl3 (Anhyd.)
(Green)
3K2MnO4(B) ¾¾¾
4HCl
® 2KMnO4(C) + 2H2O Cl HO
(Purple) (1) (2)
2KMnO4(C) ¾¾¾ ¾
H 2 O, KI
® 2MnO2(A) + 2KOH +
KIO3(D)
Cl HO
A ® MnO2 (3) (4)
D ® KIO3
27. The coordination number of Th in
Ans. (2)
K4[Th(C2O4)4(OH2)2] is :-
Sol.
(C O 2
2-
4 = Oxalato )
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 14 (4) 8 HO C=C
HCl
Ans. (2) AlCl3
H+ OH
Sol. C 2O 42- (oxalato) : bidentate
Cl +
H2O (aqua) : Monodentate HO HO
–AlCl3
28. The major product obtained in the following
–AlCl4
reaction is :-
O OH
Li AlH4 30. For the equilibrium,
(excess)
CH3 2H2O H3O+ + OH–, the value of DGº at 298
K is approximately :-
NO 2 O
O OH OH (1) –80 kJ mol–1 (2) –100 kJ mol–1
(3) 100 kJ mol–1 (4) 80 kJ mol –1
CH3 CH3 Ans. (4)
(1) (2)
NO 2 OH NH 2 OH Sol.
OH OH 2H2O = H3O+ + OH– K = 10–14
DG° = –RT ln K
(3) CH3 (4) CH3
-8.314
= ´ 298 ´ln10 -14
NH 2 OH NO 2 OH 1000
Ans. (2)
= 80 KJ/Mole

6
 TEST PAPER OF JEE(MAIN) EXAMINATION – 2019
(Held On Friday 11th JANUARY, 2019) TIME : 2 : 30 PM To 5 : 30 PM
MATHEMATICS
1. If the point (2, a, b) lies on the plane which passes Sol. ƒ(x) = sin|x|–|x| + 2(x – p) cosx
through the points (3, 4, 2) and (7, 0, 6) and is Q sin|x| – |x| is differentiable function at x=0
perpendicular to the plane 2x – 5y = 15, then 2a \k=f
– 3b is equal to :- 4. Let the length of the latus rectum of an ellipse with
(1) 5 (2) 17 (3) 12 (4) 7 its major axis along x-axis and centre at the origin,
Ans. (4) be 8. If the distance between the foci of this ellipse
Sol. Normal vector of plane is equal to the length of its minor axis, then which
one of the following points lies on it ?
i j k (
(1) 4 3, 2 3 ) (
(2) 4 3, 2 2 )
(
= 2 -5 0 = -4 5iˆ + 2 ˆj - 3kˆ )
4 -4 4 (3) ( 4 2, 2 2) (4) ( 4 2, 2 3)
Ans. (2)
equation of plane is 5(x–7)+ 2y–3(z– 6) = 0
5x + 2y – 3z = 17
2b2
2. Let a and b be the roots of the quadratic equation Sol. = 8 and 2ae = 2b
a
x 2 sin q – x (sin q cos q + 1) + cos q = 0
¥
æ ( -1)n ö
(0 < q < 45º), and a < b. Then å çè a n
+
b n ÷ø Þ
b
= e and 1– e2 = e2 Þ e =
1
n= 0 a 2
is equal to :-
1 1 Þ b = 4 2 and a = 8
(1) +
1 - cos q 1 + sin q
1 1 x2 y2
(2) + so equation of ellipse is + =1
1 + cos q 1 - sin q 64 32
1 1
(3) - 5. If the area of the triangle whose one vertex is at
1 - cos q 1 + sin q
1 1 the vertex of the parabola, y2 + 4(x – a2)= 0 and
(4) - the other two vertices are the points of intersection
1 + cos q 1 - sin q
Ans. (1) of the parabola and y-axis, is 250 sq. units, then
Sol. D = (1+ sinq cosq)2–4sinqcosq= (1–sinq cosq)2 a value of 'a' is :-
Þ roots are b = cosecq and a = cosq (1) 5 5 (2) (10)2/3 (3) 5(21/3) (4) 5
¥ æ
æ 1ö ö ¥ Ans. (4)
n
n
Þ å ç a n + ç - ÷ ÷ = å ( cos q ) + å ( - sin q )
n n

ç è b ø ÷ø n = 0 Sol. Vertex is (a2,0)

n= 0
è n= 0

y2 = –(x – a2) and x = 0 Þ (0, ±2a)

1 1
= +
1 - cos q 1 + sin q 1
3. Let K be the set of all real values of x where the 2
( )
Area of triangle is = .4a. a = 250
2

function f(x) = sin |x| – |x| + 2(x – p) cos |x| is not

differentiable. Then the set K is equal to :- Þ a 3 = 125 or a = 5
(1) {p} (2) {0}
(3) f (an empty set) (4) {0, p}
Ans. (3)

1
 p/4 dx Ans. (Bonus)
6. The integral ò
p/ 6 sin 2x (tan 5 x + cot 5 x)
equals :-
ì1 - x
0 < x £1
1 x - 1 ïï x
1 æp -1 æ 1 ö ö Sol. ƒ(x) = 1 - = =í
(1) 10 çè 4 - tan çè ÷ x x ïx -1
9 3 ø ÷ø ïî x
x ³1

1æ p y
-1 æ 1 ö ö
(2) 5 ç 4 - tan çè ÷
è 3 3 ø ÷ø
p
(3)
10 1 ƒ(x)
1 æ 1 ö x
tan -1 ç
(4)
20 è 9 3 ÷ø
Ans. (1)
Þ ƒ(x) is not injective
p/4
dx but range of function is [0,¥)
Sol. I= ò sin 2x ( tan
p/6
5
x + cot 5 x ) Remark : If co-domain is [0,¥), then ƒ(x) will be
surjective
p/ 4
1 tan 4 x sec 2 x dx 9. Let S = {1, 2, ...... , 20}. A subset B of S is said
2 pò/ 6 1 + tan10 x
I= to be "nice", if the sum of the elements of B is 203.
( )
Put tan5x = t
Then the probability that a randomly chosen subset
of S is "nice" is :-
1
1 dt 1 æp 1 ö
I=
10 æ ò 5 1+ t
2
= ç - tan -1
10 è 4
÷
9 3ø (1)
6
(2)
5
(3)
4
(4)
7
1 ö 220 220 220 220
ç ÷
è 3ø Ans. (2)
7. Let (x + 10)50 + (x – 10)50 = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + ..... Sol. 7,
1,6 5
a2 2,5 P=
+ a50 x50, for all xÎR, then a is equal to:- 2 20
0 3,4
(1) 12.50 (2) 12.00 (3) 12.75 (4) 12.25 1,2,4
Ans. (4) x - 3 y +1 z - 6
10. Two lines = = and
Sol. (10 + x)50 + (10 – x)50 1 3 -1
Þ a2 = 2.50C21048, a0 = 2.1050 x+5 y-2 z-3
= = intersect at the point R. The
7 -6 4
a 2 50 C2 reflection of R in the xy-plane has coordinates :-
= = 12.25
a 0 10 2 (1) (2, 4, 7) (2) (–2, 4, 7)
(3) (2, –4, –7) (4) (2, –4, 7)
8. Let a function f : (0, ¥) ® (0, ¥) be defined by
Ans. (3)
1 Sol. Point on L1 (l + 3, 3l – 1, –l + 6)
f(x) = 1 - . Then f is :-
x Point on L2 (7m – 5, –6m + 2, 4m + 3)
(1) Injective only
Þ l + 3 = 7m – 5 ...(i)
(2) Not injective but it is surjective
3l – 1 = –6m + 2 ...(ii) Þ l = –1, m=1
(3) Both injective as well as surjective
point R(2,–4,7)
(4) Neither injective nor surjective
Reflection is (2,–4,–7)

2
11. The number of functions f from {1, 2, 3, ..., 20}
1 æ1+ x - y ö
onto {1, 2, 3, ....., 20} such that f(k) is a multiple Þ ln ç ÷ = x + l given y(1) = 1
of 3, whenever k is a multiple of 4, is :- 2 è1-x + y ø
(1) (15)! × 6! (2) 56 × 15 1
Þ ln (1) = 1 + l Þ l = -1
(3) 5! × 6! (4) 65 × (15)! 2
Ans. (1)
æ1+ x - y ö
Sol. ƒ(k) = 3m (3,6,9,12,15,18) Þ ln ç ÷ = 2 ( x - 1)
for k = 4,8,12,16,20 6.5.4.3.2 ways è1- x + y ø
For rest numbers 15! ways æ1- x + y ö
Total ways = 6!(15!)
Þ -ln ç ÷ = 2 ( x - 1)
è1+ x - y ø
12. Contrapositive of the statement 14. Let A and B be two invertible matrices of order
"If two numbers are not equal, then their squares 3 × 3. If det(ABA T) = 8 and det(AB–1) = 8, then
are not equal." is :-
det (BA–1 BT) is equal to :-
(1) If the squares of two numbers are equal, then
the numbers are equal. 1 1
(1) 16 (2) (3) (4) 1
(2) If the squares of two numbers are equal, then 16 4
the numbers are not equal. Ans. (2)
(3) If the squares of two numbers are not equal,
then the numbers are equal. A 1
Sol. |A|2.|B| = 8 and = 8 Þ |A| = 4 and B =
(4) If the squares of two numbers are not equal, B 2
then the numbers are not equal. 1 1 1
Ans. (1) \ det(BA–1.BT) = ´ =
4 4 16
Sol. Contrapositive of p ® q is ~q ® ~p x +1
13. The solution of the differential equation, 15. If ò
2x - 1
dx = f (x) 2x - 1 + C , where C is a
dy constant of integration, then f(x) is equal to :-
= (x - y) 2 , when y(1) = 1, is :-
dx 1 1
2- y (1) (x + 4) (2) (x + 1)
= 2(y - 1) 3 3
(1) log e
2-x 2 2
(3) (x + 2) (4) (x - 4)
2-x 3 3
(2) log e =x-y Ans. (1)
2-y
Sol. 2x - 1 = t Þ 2x - 1 = t 2 Þ 2dx = 2t.dt
1+ x - y
(3) - log e = x+ y-2
t2 + 1
1- x + y
+1
x +1 t2 + 3
1- x + y ò dx = ò 2 t dt = ò dt
(4) - log e = 2(x - 1) 2x - 1 t 2
1+ x - y
Ans. (4) 1 æ t3 ö t
dy dt 2è 3
(
= ç + 3t ÷ = t 2 + 9 + c )
Sol. x – y = t Þ =1- ø 6
dx dx
æ 2x - 1 + 9 ö æx+4ö
dt dt = 2x - 1 ç ÷ + c = 2x - 1 ç ÷+c
= t2 Þ ò
1 - t2 ò
Þ1- = 1dx è 6 ø è 3 ø
dx
x+4
1 æ1+ t ö
Þ ln ç =x+l Þ ƒ ( x) =
2 è 1 - t ÷ø 3

3
16. A bag contains 30 white balls and 10 red balls. 16
y
balls are drawn one by one randomly from the bag
with replacement. If X be the number of white balls (2,5)

drawn, the æç ö is equal

mean of X
standard deviation of X ÷
è ø 0 (3/4,0) (2,0)
to :-
Sol.
4 3
(1) 4 (2) (3) 4 3 (4) 3 2
3
Ans. (3) 4x–y=3

30 2
Sol. p (probability of getting white ball) = 1æ5ö 37
Area = ò ( x + 1) dx - ç ÷ ( 5 ) =
2
40
0 2è4ø 24
1 and n = 16
q=
4 20. Let 3iˆ + ˆj, ˆi + 3jˆ and bˆi + (1 - b)ˆj respectively
3 be the position vectors of the points A, B and C
mean =np = 16. = 12
4 with respect to the origin O. If the distance of C
and standard diviation from the bisector of the acute angle between OA
3
3 1 and OB is , then the sum of all possible values
= npq = 16. . = 3 2
4 4 of b is :-
17. If in a parallelogram ABDC, the coordinates of A, (1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 4
B and C are respectively (1, 2), (3, 4) and (2, 5), Ans. (2)
then the equation of the diagonal AD is:- Sol. Angle bisector is x – y = 0
(1) 5x + 3y – 11 = 0 (2) 3x – 5y + 7 = 0
(3) 3x + 5y – 13 = 0 (4) 5x – 3y + 1 = 0 b - (1 - b ) 3
Þ =
Ans. (4) 2 2
Sol. co-ordinates of point D are (4,7)
Þ line AD is 5x – 3y + 1 = 0 Þ 2b - 1 = 3
18. If a hyperbola has length of its conjugate axis equal Þ b = 2 or - 1
to 5 and the distance between its foci is 13, then
a -b-c 2a 2a
the eccentricity of the hyperbola is :-
21. If 2b b-c-a 2b
13 13 13
(1) 2 (2) (3) (4) 2c 2c c-a -b
6 8 12
= (a + b + c) (x + a + b + c) 2 , x ¹ 0 and
Ans. (4)
a + b + c ¹ 0, then x is equal to :-
Sol. 2b = 5 and 2ae = 13
(1) –(a + b + c) (2) 2(a + b + c)
25 169 2
b2 = a2(e2 – 1) Þ = -a (3) abc (4) –2(a + b + c)
4 4
Ans. (4)
13
Þa=6 Þe= a -b-c 2a 2a
12
19. The area (in sq. units) in the first quadrant bounded Sol.
2b b-c-a 2b
by the parabola, y = x2 + 1, the tangent to it at the 2c 2c c-a -b
point (2, 5) and the coordinate axes is :- R1 ® R1 + R2 + R3
14 187 37 8 a+ b+c a+b+c a+ b+c
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 24 24 3 = 2b b-c-a 2b
Ans. (3)
2c 2c c-a-b

4
 1 0 0 g2 – c = 4a2 Þ c = ( g - 4a )
2 2

= (a + b + c) 2b -(a + b + c) 0 Putting in equation (1)

2c 2c c -a -b Þ 4b2 + 4ƒ + g2 – 4a2 = 0
= (a + b + c)(a + b + c)2 Þ x2 + 4y + 4(b2 – a2) = 0, it represent a parabola.
Þ x = –2(a + b + c) 24. If 19th term of a non-zero A.P. is zero, then its
22. Let Sn = 1 + q + q2 + ....... + qn and (49th term) : (29th term) is :-
2 n
æ q + 1ö æ q + 1ö æ q + 1ö (1) 3 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 3
Tn = 1 + ç ÷ +ç ÷ + ........ + ç
è 2 ø è 2 ø è 2 ÷ø Ans. (1)
where q is a real number and q ¹ 1. Sol. a + 18d = 0 ...(1)
If 101C1 + 101C2.S1 + ...... + 101C101.S100 = aT100,
a + 48d -18d + 48d 3
then a is equal to :- = =
a + 28d -18d + 28d 1
(1) 2100 (2) 200 (3) 299 (4) 202
Ans. (1) x d-x
Sol. 101C1 + 101C2S1 + ..... + 101C101S100 25. Let f (x) = , xÎR, -
a +x b + (d - x) 2
2 2 2
= aT100 where a, b and d are non-zero real constants.
101C + 101C (1 + q) + 101C (1 + q + q2) +
1 2 3
..... + 101C101(1 + q + ..... + q100) Then :-
(1) f is a decreasing function of x
æ æ 1 + q ö101 ö (2) f is neither increasing nor decreasing
ç1 - ç ÷ ÷ function of x
è 2 ø ø
= 2a è (3) f' is not a continuous function of x
(1 - q)
(4) f is an increasing function of x
Þ 101C
1(1 – q) + 101C
2(1– q2) + Ans. (4)
..... + 101C101(1 – q101)
x d-x
æ æ 1 + q ö101 ö Sol. ƒ(x) = -
= 2a ç 1 - ç ÷ ÷ a +x 2 2
b2 + ( d - x )
2

è è 2 ø ø
Þ (2101 – 1) – ((1 + q)101 – 1) a2 b2
ƒ '(x) = + > 0 "x Î R
(a ) ( )
3/ 2 3/ 2
+ x2 b2 + ( d - x )
2 2
æ æ 1+ q ö 101
ö
= 2a ç 1 - ç ÷ ÷
è è 2 ø ø ƒ(x) is an increasing function.
æ æ 1 + q ö101 ö æ æ 1 + q ö101 ö 26. Let z be a complex number such that
101
Þ 2 ç 1 - ç ÷ ÷ = 2a ç1 - ç ÷ ÷ |z| + z = 3 + i (where i = -1 ). Then |z| is equal
è è 2 ø ø è è 2 ø ø
Þ a = 2100 to :-
23. A circle cuts a chord of length 4a on the x-axis
5 41 34 5
and passes through a point on the y-axis, distant (1) (2) (3) (4)
2b from the origin. Then the locus of the centre 4 4 3 3
of this circle, is :- Ans. (4)
(1) A hyperbola (2) A parabola Sol. |z| + z = 3 + i
(3) A straight line (4) An ellipse z = 3 – |z| + i
Ans. (2)
Let 3 – |z| = a Þ |z| = (3 – a)
Sol. Let equation of circle is
x2 + y2 + 2ƒx + 2ƒy + e = 0, it passes through Þ z = a + i Þ z = a2 + 1
(0, 2b)
Þ 0 + 4b2 + 2g × 0 + 4ƒ + c = 0 8 4
Þ 9 + a2 – 6a = a2 + 1 Þ a = =
Þ 4b2 + 4ƒ + c = 0 ...(i) 6 3

2 g2 - c = 4a ...(ii) 4 5
Þ| z |= 3 - =
3 3

5
27. All x satisfying the inequality 29. Let x, y be positive real numbers and m, n positive
(cot–1 x)2 – 7 (cot–1 x) + 10 > 0, lie in the interval:- integers. The maximum value of the expression
(1) (–¥, cot 5) È (cot 4, cot 2) x m yn
(2) (cot 5, cot 4) (1 + x 2m ) (1 + y 2n ) is :-
(3) (cot 2, ¥)
1 1 m+n
(4) (–¥, cot 5) È (cot 2, ¥) (1) (2) (3) (4) 1
Ans. (4) 2 4 6mn
Sol. cot–1x > 5, cot–1x < 2 Ans. (2)
Þ x < cot5, x > cot2
x m yn 1 1
Sol. = £
28. Given
b+c c+a a+b
= = for a DABC with (1 + x 2m )(1 + y2 n ) æç x m + 1m öæ n 1 ö 4
÷ç y + n ÷
11 12 13 è x øè y ø
cos A cos B cos C using AM > GM
usual notation. If = = , then
a b g
x cot (4x)
the ordered triad (a, b, g) has a value :- 30. lim is equal to :-
x®0 sin 2 x cot 2 (2x)
(1) (3, 4, 5) (2) (19, 7, 25)
(1) 2 (2) 0 (3) 4 (4) 1
(3) (7, 19, 25) (4) (5, 12, 13)
28. Ans. (3)
æ tan 2 2x ö 2
Sol. b + c = 11l, c + a = 12l, a + b = 13l x ç ÷ 4x
x tan 2 2x è 4x2 ø
Þ a = 7l, b = 6l, c = 5l lim = lim =1
Sol. x ® 0 tan 4x sin 2 x x ®0
æ tan 4x ö æ sin x ö 2
2
(using cosine formula) ç 4x ÷ 4x ç x 2 ÷ x
è ø è ø
1 19 5
cosA = ,cosB = ,cosC =
5 35 7
a : b : g Þ 7 : 19 : 25