Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Electronics and Communication 1000 MCQ PDF
Electronics and Communication 1000 MCQ PDF
Answer: Option A
A. 4V
B. 60 V
C. 15 V
D. 0.25 V
Answer: Option A
B. protons
C. electrons
D. neutron
Answer: Option B
A. open
B. insulated
C. high resistance
D. closed
Answer: Option D
A. Thermistor
B. Rheostat
C. Potentiometer
D. Photoconductive cell
Answer: Option A
6. The battery symbol is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option B
A. push button
B. SPST
C. DPDT
D. SPDT
Answer: Option D
A. charged once
B. used once
D. stored indefinitely
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
10. The negative and positive charge symbols are assigned (in that order) to
the:
Answer: Option B
11. A voltmeter is used:
A. to measure current
D. to measure coulombs
Answer: Option C
D. circuit is open
Answer: Option D
A.
B. coulombs × time
C.
D. voltage × time
Answer: Option A
A. Ampere, A
B. Coulomb, I
C. Ampere, Q
D. Ampere, I
Answer: Option D
A. Electron
B. Neutron
C. Proton
Answer: Option B
16. Which voltage source converts chemical energy to electrical energy?
A. Electrical generator
B. Battery
C. Solar cell
Answer: Option B
A. tea-kettle steam
B. a moving vehicle
C. the sun
D. a battery
Answer: Option D
A. 2A B. 0.5 A
C. 20 A D. 40 A
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
20. The removal of a non-neutral subatomic particle converts the atom into
a:
A. charged ion
B. nucleus
C. heavier element
D. compound
Answer: Option A
21. One coulomb passing a point in one second is one:
A. ampere B. volt
C. ohm D. charge
Answer: Option A
22. In which states may matter may be found?
Answer: Option B
A. an element B. an ion
C. a compound D. a molecule
Answer: Option C
24. How many valence shell electrons are there in semiconductor atoms?
A. 16 B. 8
C. 4 D. 2
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
26. Which unit of charge contains 6.25 × 1018 electrons?
A. An ampere B. A coulomb
C. A volt D. A joule
Answer: Option B
B. holds a fuse
Answer: Option D
A. voltage B. current
C. resistance D. conductance
Answer: Option A
A. Conductor B. Insulator
C. Semiconductor D. Element
Answer: Option B
A. electrons B. protons
C. charge D. nuclei
Answer: Option A.
31. A lead-acid battery is an example of a
A. solar cell
B. fuel cell
C. primary battery
D. secondary battery
Answer: Option D
B. one ampere
C. one second
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
A. voltage B. current
Answer: Option B
35. What is the name of the pressure that moves electrons in a closed
circuit?
A. amperes B. ohms
C. voltage D. coulombs
Answer: Option C
36. What is a characteristic of a secondary cell?
A. rechargeability
B. not rechargeable
C. a dry cell
D. non-liquid
Answer: Option A
37. What are the basic building blocks that all matter is composed of?
Answer: Option A
38. If a fluid system is compared to an electrical system, the fluid pump will
correspond to a:
A. conductor B. lamp
C. battery D. insulator
Answer: Option C
C. electrically charged
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C.
41. What do you call a diagram that shows the electrical connections of a
circuit's components?
A. A schematic diagram
B. A pictorial diagram
C. A block diagram
D. An electrical diagram
Answer: Option A
C. no current flow
Answer: Option B
B. a fuse is reusable
Answer: Option C
A. atom B. proton
C. neutron D. electron
Answer: Option D
A. electrically B. thermally
C. optically D. chemically
Answer: Option D
46. Which of the following statements is true?
A. pressure B. pump
Answer: Option D
Parallel Circuits
48. When parallel resistors are of three different values, which has the
greatest power loss?
Answer: Option A
A. 150 B. 146.7
C. 0.006 D. 6800
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
A. 6 W B. 36 W
C. 6 mW D. 36 mW
Answer: Option C
52. What happens to total resistance in a circuit with parallel resistors if one
of them opens?
A. It increases. B. It halves.
Answer: Option A
53. Components that connect in parallel form:
Answer: Option A
54. A parallel circuit differs from a series circuit in that a parallel circuit has
A. no path for current flow
Answer: Option D
55.
A. 0A
B. 1.5 A
C. 3A
Answer: Option C
C. 16 watts D. 60 watts
Answer: Option C
A. R1 B. R2
C. R3 D. R4
Answer: Option D.
58.
What would these meter readings indicate about the circuit in the given
circuit?
A. R1 is open.
B. R2 is open.
Answer: Option B
59.
A. 0W
B. 18 W
C. 36 W
Answer: Option C
C. 8 mA D. 12 mA
Answer: Option B
61.
A. 0V
B. 9V
C. 27 V
Answer: Option B
A. 128 mA B. 88 mA
C. 48 mA D. 2.2 mA
Answer: Option C
63. The voltage read by the voltmeter will be:
A. 24 V B. 12 V
C. 6V D. 4V
Answer: Option B
A. R1 B. R2
C. R3 D. R4
Answer: Option A
65.
A. 5 mA B. 45 mA
C. 50 mA D. 100 mA
Answer: Option A
A. 2.2 W B. 4.2 W
C. 6.2 W D. 8.2 W
Answer: Option B
67. What are the individual values of two parallel resistors whose RT is 8
ohms, when one has double the resistance of the other?
Answer: Option D.
68. When a parallel 5 resistor and a 25 resistor have a 10 V supply,
what is the total power loss?
A. 2.4 mW B. 3.3 mW
C. 24 mW D. 33 mW
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
C. 706 D. 353
Answer: Option D
71. Kirchhoff's current law for parallel circuits states that the:
Answer: Option D
A. R1 B. R2
C. R3 D. R4
Answer: Option C.
73.
What would these meter readings indicate about the circuit in the given
circuit?
A. R1 is open.
B. R2 is open.
Answer: Option C
74. If 550 mA of current leaves a node that had 250 mA entering from one
branch, how much current would enter from the other?
A. 250 mA B. 300 mA
C. 550 mA D. 800 mA
Answer: Option B
75.
What would these meter readings indicate about the circuit in the given
circuit?
A. R1 is open.
B. R2 is open.
Answer: Option D
76.
A. 90 B. 180
C. 200 D. 1.8 k
Answer: Option A
C. Start with the highest scale and adjust down to a lower scale.
Answer: Option C
78. A parallel circuit is also used as a divider for:
A. conductance B. voltage
C. power D. current
Answer: Option D
A. 1.5 B. 2k
C. 6.3 D. 19 k
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
81. Which are the better test devices used to isolate a suspected open
component within a parallel circuit?
A. a voltmeter or an ohmmeter
C. a wattmeter or a voltmeter
D. an ammeter or an ohmmeter
Answer: Option D
82.
A. 45 mW B. 405 mW
C. 450 mW D. 900 mW
Answer: Option B.
83.
A. 90
B. 180
C. 200
D. 1.8 k
Answer: Option B
C. 2.045 D. 2.545 k
Answer: Option B
A. 133 B. 300 k
C. 750 D. 30
Answer: Option A
A. Voltage B. Current
C. Power D. Resistance
Answer: Option A.
Capacitors
87. In a 20 Vac series RC circuit, if 20 V is measured across the resistor and
40 V is measured across the capacitor, the applied voltage is:
A. 45 V
B. 50 V
C. 55 V
D. 60 V
Answer: Option A
88. Select the equation below that represents the relationship between
charge, capacitance, and voltage for a capacitor.
A. Q = CV
B. C = QV
C.
D. V = IR
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
90.
A. 0 VAR
B. 691 VAR
C. 44.23 mVAR
D. 1.45 kVAR
Answer: Option C
91. What is the angle theta value for a 5.6 F capacitor and a 50-ohm
resistor in series with a 1.1 kHz, 5 Vac source?
A. 27.3 degrees
B. 62.7 degrees
C. –27.3 degrees
D. –62.7 degrees
Answer: Option C.
92. When a 4.7 F capacitor is connected to a 1 kHz source, what is its
capacitive reactance?
A. 4.7 ohms
B. 29.5 ohms
C. 34 ohms
D. 213 ohms
Answer: Option C
A. 1F
B. 12 F
C. 0.615 F
D. 8F
Answer: Option B
B. high-pass filter
C. low-pass filter
D. differentiator
Answer: Option B
A. first B. third
C. fifth D. seventh
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B.
97. A capacitor's rate of charge is considered:
A. magnetic
B. a current block
C. linear
D. exponential
Answer: Option D
98. A resistor and an output capacitor form a series circuit with a square
wave applied. The circuit is:
A. an integrator
B. a differentiator
C. a multiplier
D. a divider
Answer: Option A
A. stay on zero
B. stay on infinity
Answer: Option B
B. 9.327 mA
C. 11.570 mA
D. 13.830 mA
Answer: Option A.
101. As a capacitor is being charged, current flowing into the capacitor will:
A. increase
B. decrease
D. cannot tell
Answer: Option B.
102. What is the phase shift between the voltage across the resistor and the
voltage from the source?
A. VR leads VS by 17°
B. VR leads VS by 73°
C. VR lags VS by 73°
D. VR lags VS by 17°
Answer: Option B
A. a magnetic field
B. positive voltage
C. negative voltage
D. an electric field
Answer: Option D
104. As a capacitor is being charged, the voltage across its terminals will:
A. increase
B. decrease
Answer: Option A
105. With a 500 kHz signal source, what would be the value of a capacitor
yielding a capacitive reactance of 1 k ?
A. 318 pF
B. 2 nF
C. 3.18 F
D. 2F
Answer: Option A
106. After a capacitor has charged for 1 tc, what percentage of current
remains in the resistor?
A. 63.2 B. 36.8
C. 13.5 D. 5.0
Answer: Option B
107. If a current of 40 mA flows through a series circuit consisting of a 0.4
F capacitor and a resistor in series with a 4 kHz, 40 Vac source, what is
the total circuit impedance?
A. 10
B. 100
C. 1k
D. 1M
Answer: Option C
108.
A. 0.066 F
B. 0.9 F
C. 65.97 pF
D. 900 pF
Answer: Option A
A. bandpass B. low-pass
C. high-pass D. band-stop
Answer: Option B
A. impedance B. inductance
C. reactance D. resistance
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
112. In a capacitive circuit, current flow is limited to
A. charging periods
B. discharging periods
A. bandpass filter
B. high-pass filter
C. low-pass filter
D. integrator
Answer: Option C
A. conductors B. semiconductors
C. inductors D. dielectrics
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
116. Most older types of paper capacitors have been replaced by which type
of construction?
A. electrolytic
B. plastic film
C. oxide casing
D. waxed paper
Answer: Option B.
117. If C1, a 4.7 F capacitor, and C2, a 3.3 F capacitor are in series with
18 Vdcapplied, what is the voltage across C1?
A. 3.3 V
B. 7.4 V
C. 6.6 V
D. 9.4 V
Answer: Option B
A. 214 ohms
B. 313 ohms
C. 414 ohms
D. 880 ohms
Answer: Option B
A. zero
B. moderate
C. infinite
D. cannot tell
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
121.
How long would it take the capacitor in the given circuit to completely
discharge if the switch was in position 2?
A. 22 ms
B. 69 ms
C. 345 ms
D. 420 ms
Answer: Option D
122. What is the capacitive reactance if I = 1 amp, V = 2 volts, C = 5 F, and
frequency = 10 Hz?
A. 0.2
B. 0.5
C. 0.02
D. 0.003
Answer: Option D
B. It is shorted.
Answer: Option D
A. 10,000 pF
B. 1000 pF
C. 1000 F
D. 10,000 F
Answer: Option B.
A. increase
B. decrease
D. be destroyed
Answer: Option B
B. 5.0
D. 3000
Answer: Option A.
127. What is the voltage across a capacitor after being charged from a 100 V source
for a period of one time constant?
A. 37.8 V
B. 38 V
C. 63 V
D. 101 V
Answer: Option C
A. 294 ps
B. 13.5 ms
C. 21.25 ms
D. 2.16 Gs
Answer: Option C
129. Power stored from the source and then returned to the source is called:
A. apparent power
B. impedance power
C. reactive power
D. true power
Answer: Option C
A. alphanumeric
B. color dabs
C. standard
D. white print
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C.
132.
How long would it take the capacitor in the given circuit to completely charge if
the switch was in position 1?
A. 22 ms
B. 69 ms
C. 345 ms
D. 440 ms
Answer: Option C
133. An 8 V power source is charging a capacitor. How many volts will be across the
capacitor at the second time constant?
A. 1 volt
B. 3 volts
C. 5 volts
D. 7 volts
Answer: Option D
134. The material used between the plates of a capacitor is called its:
A. insulation material
B. dielectric material
C. separation material
D. plate-divider material
Answer: Option B
135. When a circuit consists of a capacitor and a resistor in series with a voltage
source, and the voltage across the resistor is zero, then the capacitor is:
A. charging
B. discharging
C. fully charged
D. fully discharged
Answer: Option C
A. Air B. Paper
C. Mica D. Oil
Answer: Option C.
137. What is the circuit's impedance?
A. 1192
B. 843
C. 723
D. 511
Answer: Option A
138. In an ac circuit, a capacitor and an output resistor are connected in series with
an ac signal. What filter action will be the result?
A. bandpass B. low-pass
C. high-pass D. band-stop
Answer: Option C
B. 2000
C. 1902
D. 1798
Answer: Option A
A. 6.8 mW
B. 9.8 mW
C. 12.8 mW
D. 15.8 mW
Answer: Option B
A. is a short to dc
C. is an open to ac
Answer: Option B.
142. Which of the following is the reference vector for parallel RC circuits?
A. R B. I
C. C D. V
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
B. recharge
C. remain charged
Answer: Option D
145. What is the total current for a 5 MHz, 1 Vac circuit that consists of a 27 pF
capacitor and a 1 resistor connected in parallel?
A. 459 A
B. 647 A
C. 1.31 mA
D. 1.85 mA
Answer: Option C
146. What is the value of a capacitor that can store two coulombs of charge when
500 volts is applied across its plates?
A. 4 F
B. 250 F
C. 4,000 F
D. 250 F
Answer: Option C
147. The strength of an electric field at a given point is proportional to the potential
difference on the plates and inversely proportional to the:
A. plate separation
B. negative plate only
C. field strength
D. charge difference
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
A. 7.07 V
B. 1.11 V
C. 111 mV
D. 7.07 mV
Answer: Option C
150. For a given charge difference, electrostatic field strength varies according to:
A. plate differential
B. plate area
C. plate distance
D. dielectric quantity
Answer: Option B
151. A capacitor has 25 V across its plates and a stored charge of 1500 C. What is
the capacitance value?
A. 60 pF
B. 60 F
C. 16.67 mF
D. 37.5 mF
Answer: Option B.
152. A capacitor and an output resistor form a series circuit with a square wave
applied. The circuit is:
A. an integrator
B. a differentiator
C. a multiplier
D. a divider
Answer: Option B
A. an increase in total XC
B. a decrease in total XC
C. no change in total XC
Answer: Option A
A. instantaneous power
B. true power
C. reactive power
D. resistive power
Answer: Option B
155. If a capacitor is placed across a 20 V source, what will be the amount of charge
after 5 tc?
A. 5.0 V
B. 12.8 V
C. 13.5 V
D. 20 V
Answer: Option D
156. What is the impedance of an ac RC parallel circuit if the resistance is 12 ohms
and the capacitive reactance equals 5 ohms?
A. 0.2 ohms
B. 3.5 ohms
C. 4.6 ohms
D. 13 ohms
Answer: Option C
157. What will a 1 F capacitor store?
C. one volt
D. one A of current
Answer: Option B
A.
B. VS × I
C. I2R
D. VT × R T
Answer: Option C.
159. What is the power factor if the apparent power of a circuit is 5 W, while the true
power is 4 W?
A. 0.0 W
B. 0.8 W
C. 1.0 W
D. 1.25 W
Answer: Option B
160. If the reactive power of a circuit is 50 mW while the apparent power is 64 mW,
then what is the true power of the circuit?
A. 14 mW
B. 36 mW
C. 40 mW
D. 114 mW
Answer: Option C.
A. 3.00 V
B. 12.37 V
C. 34.98 V
D. 48.00 V
Answer: Option B
B. 32.3 Hz
C. 142 Hz
D. 7.2 kHz
Answer: Option A
163. In a parallel RLC circuit, which value may always be used as a vector reference?
A. current B. reactance
C. resistance D. voltage
Answer: Option D
164. How much current will flow in a 100 Hz series RLC circuit if VS = 20 V, RT = 66
ohms, and XT = 47 ohms?
A. 1.05 A
B. 303 mA
C. 247 mA
D. 107 mA
Answer: Option C
165. What is the Q (Quality factor) of a series circuit that resonates at 6 kHz, has
equal reactance of 4 kilo-ohms each, and a resistor value of 50 ohms?
A. 0.001 B. 50
C. 80 D. 4.0
Answer: Option C.
166. What is the range between f1 and f2 of an RLC circuit that resonates at 150 kHz
and has a Q of 30?
D. 149,970 Hz to 150,030 Hz
Answer: Option B
A. 999 B. 223
C. 2.2 D. 0.99
Answer: Option C
168. What effect will a parallel tank have upon final filter current?
A. very little
Answer: Option A
A. 56.6 mA
B. 141 mA
C. 191 mA
D. 244 mA
Answer: Option B
A. flywheel
B. oscillate
C. both of the above
Answer: Option C
171.
A. 11.6 Hz
B. 275.8 Hz
C. 1.5 kHz
D. 3.2 kHz
Answer: Option D
C. adding vectors
Answer: Option C
B. 17.8 mA
C. 21.9 mA
D. 26.0 mA
Answer: Option A
C. is at resonance
Answer: Option C
175. How much current will flow in a series RLC circuit when VT = 100 V, XL =
160 , XC = 80 , and R = 60 ?
A. 1A
B. 1 mA
C. 6.28 A
D. 10 A
Answer: Option A.
176. When a full band of frequencies is allowed to pass through a filter circuit to the
output, the resonant circuit is called a:
A. low-pass filter
B. high-pass filter
C. band-stop filter
D. bandpass filter
Answer: Option D
177. At resonance, the term bandwidth includes all frequencies that allow what
percentage of maximum current to flow?
A. 50 B. 62.3
C. 70.7 D. 95.3
Answer: Option C
178.
A. 6.8 V
B. 11.9 V
C. 16.1 V
D. 22.9 V
Answer: Option D.
179.
A. 1.05
B. 1.33
C. 2.19
D. 3.39
Answer: Option A
A.
B.
A. 15.0 watts
B. 22.5 watts
C. 30.0 watts
D. 45.0 watts
Answer: Option B
182. What is the current phase angle for a parallel RLC circuit when IL = 15.3 A, IC =
1.43 A, and IR = 3.5 A?
A. 76.7 degrees
B. –4.25 degrees
C. 88.8 degrees
D. –76.7 degrees
Answer: Option D
183. At any resonant frequency, what voltage is measured across the two series
reactive components?
A. applied
B. reactive
C. zero
A. 31.8 Hz
B. 71 Hz
C. 7.1 kHz
D. 31.8 kHz
Answer: Option B
185. What is the range between f1 and f2 of an RLC circuit that resonates at 150 kHz
and has a Q of 30?
D. 149,970 Hz to 150,030 Hz
Answer: Option B.
186.
What is the bandwidth in the given circuit. If the winding resistance of the coil
is 12 ?
A. 6.4 kHz
B. 47.2 kHz
C. 53.7 kHz
D. 60.2 kHz
Answer: Option A
187. At any resonant frequency, what net voltage is measured across the two series
reactive components?
A. Applied voltage
B. Reactive voltage
C. Zero voltage
D. VL + VC voltage
Answer: Option C
A. Q decreases
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
190.
A. 3.5 mA
B. 5.5 mA
C. 9 mA
D. 11.4 mA
Answer: Option A.
191. What is the total impedance of a 60 Hz series RLC circuit when XL = 7.5 ohms,
XC = 265.3 ohms, and R = 33 ohms?
A. 257.8 ohms
B. 259.9 ohms
C. 290.8 ohms
D. 1989.75 ohms
Answer: Option B
192.
What is the total current for the nonideal circuit in the given circuit. If it is at
resonance?
A. 0A
B. 284 A
C. 3.3 mA
D. 38.5 mA
Answer: Option B
193. What is the high cutoff frequency for an RLC circuit that resonates at 2000 Hz
and has a bandwidth of 250 Hz?
A. 2125 Hz
B. 2250 Hz
C. 1750 Hz
D. 8.0 Hz
Answer: Option A
A. a leading vector
B. a reference
C. an angle
D. a lagging vector
Answer: Option B
A. 12.2
B. 14.5
C. 17.8
D. 20.3
Answer: Option D.
196.
A. 6.5 kHz
B. 53.7 kHz
C. 107.4 kHz
D. 18.1 MHz
Answer: Option B
197.
A. 125.7
B. 297.6
C. 370.1
D. 423.3
Answer: Option C
198. What is the approximate phase angle in a series RLC circuit when VC = 117 V,
VR = 14.5 V, and VL = 3.3 V?
A. –45.0 degrees
B. –82.7 degrees
C. –90.0 degrees
D. –172.7 degrees
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
200. What is the band pass (F1 – F2) of an RLC filter that resonates at 150 kHz and
has a coil Q of 30?
Answer: Option B.
201. What is the power factor?
A. 0.279 B. 0.479
C. 0.679 D. 0.879
Answer: Option B
A. 61.4º B. 28.5º
C. -28.5º D. -61.4º
Answer: Option C
203. What would be the power factor for an RLC circuit that acts inductively?
C. zero
Answer: Option C
A. capacitively B. resistively
C. inductively D. resonantly
Answer: Option A
205.
A. 11.6 Hz
B. 275.9 Hz
C. 1.5 kHz
D. 3.2 kHz
Answer: Option B.
206.
What is the voltage across R1, C1, and L1?
A. VR = 156 V, VC = 165 V, VL = 441 V
Answer: Option A
Operational Amplifiers
207. An ideal operational amplifier has
C. infinite bandwidth
Answer: Option C
A. difference amplifier
B. comparator
C. single ended
D. voltage follower
Answer: Option D
D. same as Acl
Answer: Option B
A. sine wave
B. square wave
C. sawtooth wave
D. triangle wave
Answer: Option D
A. linear regulator
B. switching regulator
C. shunt regulator
D. dc-to-dc converter
Answer: Option A.
212. What is this circuit?
A. a low-pass filter
B. a high-pass filter
C. a bandpass filter
D. a band-stop filter
Answer: Option D
213. A noninverting closed-loop op-amp circuit generally has a gain factor:
C. of zero
D. equal to one
Answer: Option B
214. In order for an output to swing above and below a zero reference, the op-amp
circuit requires:
B. zero offset
C. a wide bandwidth
Answer: Option D
215. Op-amps used as high- and low-pass filter circuits employ which configuration?
A. noninverting B. comparator
C. open-loop D. inverting
Answer: Option D
216.
Answer: Option C.
217. If ground is applied to the (+) terminal of an inverting op-amp, the (–) terminal
will:
B. be virtual ground
Answer: Option B
A. one-shot multivibrator
B. free-running multivibrator
C. bistable multivibrator
D. monostable multivibrator
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
A. a trigger
B. an input signal
C. an external circuit
D. nothing
Answer: Option D
221. A portion of the output that provides circuit stabilization is considered to be:
A. negative feedback
B. distortion
C. open-loop
D. positive feedback
Answer: Option A.
222. How many leads does the TO-5 metal can package of an operational amplifier
have?
A. 8, 10, or 12
B. 6, 8, or 10
C. 8 or 14
D. 8 or 16
Answer: Option A
223. If a noninverting amplifier has an RIN of 1000 ohms and an RFB of 2.5 kilohms,
what is the RIN voltage when 1.42 mV is applied to the correct input?
A. 3.5 mV
B. ground
C. 1.42 mV
D. 0.56 mV
Answer: Option C
A. Ri
B. Rf + Ri
C. ∞
D. Rf – Ri
Answer: Option A
225. The closed-loop voltage gain of an inverting amplifier equals:
Answer: Option C
A. 4.8 kHz
B. 3.8 kHz
C. 2.8 kHz
D. 1.8 kHz
Answer: Option D.
227. All of the following are basic op-amp input modes of operation EXCEPT
A. inverting mode
B. common-mode
C. double-ended
D. single-ended
Answer: Option A
A. 15 V
B. 5V
C. –5 V
D. –15 V
Answer: Option C
229. A circuit whose output is proportional to the difference between the input
signals is considered to be which type of amplifier?
A. common-mode B. darlington
C. differential D. operational
Answer: Option C
230. With negative feedback, the returning signal
Answer: Option C
A. sine wave
B. square wave
C. +15 V
D. –15 V
Answer: Option A.
232. The voltage follower has a:
Answer: Option A
A. sine wave
B. square wave
C. sawtooth wave
D. triangle wave
Answer: Option B
234. The ratio between differential gain and common-mode gain is called:
A. amplitude
B. differential-mode rejection
C. common-mode rejection
D. phase
Answer: Option C.
235. What is the frequency of this 555 astable multivibrator?
A. 278 Hz
B. 178 Hz
C. 78 Hz
D. 8 Hz
Answer: Option B
236. If the gain of a closed-loop inverting amplifier is 3.9, with an input resistor
value of 1.6 kilohms, what value of feedback resistor is necessary?
A. 6240 ohms
B. 2.4 kilohms
C. 410 ohms
D. 0.62 kilohms
Answer: Option A.
237. In an open-loop op-amp circuit, whenever the inverting input (–) is negative
relative to the noninverting input (+), the output will:
A. swing negative
C. be balanced
D. swing positive
Answer: Option D
238. With a differential gain of 50,000 and a common-mode gain of 2, what is the
common-mode rejection ratio?
A. –87.9 dB
B. –43.9 dB
C. 43.9 dB
D. 87.9 dB
Answer: Option D
A. ramp voltage
B. sine wave
C. rectangular wave
D. sawtooth wave
Answer: Option C
240. What three subcircuits does a phase locked loop (PLL) consist of?
Answer: Option D
241. The major difference between ground and virtual ground is that virtual ground
is only a:
A. voltage reference
B. current reference
C. power reference
D. difference reference
Answer: Option A.
242. If an op-amp has one input grounded and the other input has a signal feed to
it, then it is operating as what?
A. Common-mode
B. Single-ended
C. Double-ended
D. Noninverting mode
Answer: Option B
243. If the feedback/input resistor ratio of a feedback amplifier is 4.6 with 1.7 V
applied to the noninverting input, what is the output voltage value?
A. 7.82 V
B. saturation
C. cutoff
D. 9.52 V
Answer: Option D
A. pulse shaping
B. peak detection
D. filtering
Answer: Option A
B. integration or differentiation
C. saturation or cutoff
D. addition or subtraction
Answer: Option B
246.
What value of input resistance is needed in the given circuit to produce the
given output voltage?
A. 50
B. 4
C. 4.08
D. 5
Answer: Option B.
247. The common-mode voltage gain is
Answer: Option A
A. 2 B. 3
C. 4 D. 5
Answer: Option C
249. An output that is proportional to the addition of two or more inputs is from
which type of amplifier?
A. differentiator
B. difference
C. summing
D. analog subtractor
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
B. zero offset
D. moderate gain
Answer: Option B
252. A differential amplifier has a common-mode gain of 0.2 and a common-mode
rejection ratio of 3250. What would the output voltage be if the single-ended
input voltage was 7 mV rms?
A. 1.4 mV rms
B. 650 mV rms
C. 4.55 V rms
D. 0.455 V rms
Answer: Option C
253. The magnitude of closed-loop voltage gain (Acl) of an inverting amplifier equals:
Answer: Option C
A. phase relationship
B. voltage
C. current
D. apparent power
Answer: Option A
255. A circuit that uses an amplifier with passive filter elements is called a(n):
A. relaxation oscillator
B. signal generator
C. differential amplifier
D. active filter
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D.
Ohm's Law
257. "Half-splitting" is
Answer: Option B
258. If doubling the voltage across a resistor doubles the current through the
resistor then
Answer: Option B
259. If the voltage across a fixed value of resistance is increased five times, what
does the current do?
Answer: Option A
260. If the resistance in a circuit with constant voltage increases, the current will
A. increase
B. decrease
Answer: Option B
261.
A. 3.6 W
B. 35 W
C. 175 W
D. 245 W
Answer: Option B.
262. What is the kilowatt-hour consumption of a 40 W lamp if it remains on for 1750 h?
A. 43.75 B. 70
C. 43,750 D. 70,000
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
264. Power supplies differ from batteries in that
Answer: Option D
265.
A. 200
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
267.
A. 32 W
B. 80 W
C. 500 W
D. 16 kW
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
A. produce heat
B. produce light
C. produce sound
Answer: Option D
270. What electromotive force would cause 20 A of current to flow through a 500
resistor?
A. 0.04 V
B. 2.5 V
C. 25.0 V
D. 10,000 V
Answer: Option D
A. current B. energy
C. power D. voltage
Answer: Option C.
272. A battery's capacity to deliver power is measured in
A. kWh B. Ah
C. Wh D. Vh
Answer: Option B
273. Power supplies are regulated to prevent the output voltage from changing due
to changes in the
A. line voltage
B. supply load
C. frequency
Answer: Option D
274.
A. 3.92 kW
B. 280 W
C. 28.6 W
D. 9.8 W
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D.
If the voltage in the given circuit was cut in half, what would the current equal?
A. 10 mA
B. 30 mA
C. 60 mA
D. 90 mA
Answer: Option B
A. Sine wave
B. Square wave
C. Triangle wave
D. Sawtooth wave
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
279.
A. 2V
B. 4V
C. 6V
D. 8V
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
A. 13.33 V
B. 8.48 V
C. 18.84 V
D. 7.64 V
Answer: Option A
282. What is the instantaneous peak voltage at 250° on a 6 V peak sine wave?
A. +5.64 V
B. –5.64 V
C. +26.13 V
D. –26.13 V
Answer: Option B
283.
A. 5 V/ms
B. 2.5 V/ms
C. 2.5 V/s
D. 5 V/s
Answer: Option B
284. A rectangular wave that has a duty cycle of 50% could be called a
A. "c" wave
B. sawtooth wave
C. square wave
D. triangular wave
Answer: Option C
285.
Calculate the duty cycle of the repetitive pulse waveform in the given circuit.
A. 8.33% B. 0%
C. 33.33% D. 25%
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D.
287.
A. 2V
B. 4V
C. 6V
D. 8V
Answer: Option C
A. 100 Hz
B. 4 kHz
C. 4 Hz
D. 1.6 kHz
Answer: Option D
289.
A. 1.2 V
B. 5V
C. 7V
D. 12 V
Answer: Option B
290.
Which point is the trailing edge of the repetitive pulse waveform in the given
circuit?
A. Point A
B. Point B
C. Point C
D. Point D
Answer: Option A
A. is self-starting
Answer: Option D
292.
What is the average voltage when a rectangular wave's base line voltage is 20
V, its peak-to-peak voltage is 50 V, and its duty cycle is 20%?
A. 26 V
B. 30 V
C. 40 V
D. 45 V
Answer: Option B
RL Circuits
293. As frequency increases
Answer: Option D
294.
A. 14 V
B. 26.8 V
C. 28 V
D. 0V
Answer: Option B
295. What is the true power of a 24 Vac parallel RL circuit when R = 45 and XL =
1100 ?
A. 313.45 W
B. 12.8 W
C. 44.96 W
D. 22.3 W
Answer: Option B
296. If XL= 100 and R = 100 , then impedance will be
A. 141.4
B. 14.14
C. 100
D. 200
Answer: Option A
297.
Which of the following statements is true if the inductor shorts out in the circuit
in the given circuit?
Answer: Option C.
298.
A. 18 V
B. 6V
C. 13.5 V
D. 0V
Answer: Option B
299. What is the magnitude of the phase angle of a 24 Vac parallel RL circuit
when R = 45 and XL = 1100 ?
A. 0.001° B. 2.3°
C. 87.6° D. 89.9°
Answer: Option B
300.
B. VR decreases.
C. IT decreases.
D. VS decreases.
Answer: Option A
301. What is the magnitude of the phase angle between the source voltage and
current when a 100 mH inductor with an inductive reactance of 6 and a 1 k
resistor are in series with a source?
A. 0.1° B. 9.0°
C. 61.0° D. 81.0°
Answer: Option D
302.
Which of the following statements is true if R1 opens in the circuit in the given
circuit?
A. IL2 increases.
B. ZT decreases.
C. VS increases.
D. VL1 equals 0 V.
Answer: Option D.
303.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A.
What voltage will the capacitor charge up to in the given circuit for the single
input pulse shown?
A. 3.15 V
B. 4.3 V
C. 4.75 V
D. 4.9 V
Answer: Option B
A. tw or tw > 5
B. tw = or tw > 5
C. tw or tw < 5
D. tw or tw < 5
Answer: Option D
B. low-pass, high-pass
C. high-pass, high-pass
D. high-pass, low-pass
Answer: Option B
A. 1.46 V
B. 14.62 V
C. 20 V
D. 0V
Answer: Option B
B. An RL integrator
C. A timing circuit
Answer: Option A.
310.
In the given circuit, what must the pulse width and time between pulses be to
allow the capacitor to completely charge by the end of each pulse and to
completely discharge between each pulse?
A. 940 s
B. 2.82 ms
C. 3.76 ms
D. 4.7 ms
Answer: Option D
311.
A. RL integrator
B. RC differentiator
C. RL differentiator
D. RC integrator
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
A. is at ground
Answer: Option A
314.
What has the voltage across the resistor decayed to by the end of the pulse in
the given circuit?
A. 0V
B. 0.75 V
C. 5.55 V
D. 14.25 V
Answer: Option B.
315.
How long will it take the capacitor in the given circuit to discharge?
A. 16.4 s
B. 32.8 s
C. 65.6 s
D. 82 s
Answer: Option D
316.
What is the voltage across the inductor in the given circuit on the falling edge of
the first input pulse?
A. –0.2 V
B. 0.2 V
C. –9.8 V
D. 9.8 V
Answer: Option A.
A. bandwidth
B. –3 dB frequency
C. bandwidth divided by Q
D. geometric average of the critical frequencies
Answer: Option D
318.
A. increase
B. decrease
C. be constant
D. decrease logarithmically
Answer: Option C
C. peak detector
D. limiter
Answer: Option B
A. scaling adder
B. voltage-to-current converter
C. noninverting amplifier
D. adjustable bandwidth circuit
Answer: Option A
321. If the value of resistor Rf in an averaging amplifier circuit is equal to the value
of one input resistor divided by the number of inputs, the output will be equal
to
Answer: Option D.
322. If the input to a comparator is a sine wave, the output is a
A. ramp voltage
B. sine wave
C. rectangular wave
D. sawtooth wave
Answer: Option C
A. an error detector
B. a load
C. a reference voltage
A. active filter
B. current source
C. linear circuit
D. nonlinear circuit
Answer: Option D
A. Acl < 3
B. Acl > 3
C. 0
D. Acl 1
Answer: Option B
D. unequal
Answer: Option C.
327. A triangular-wave oscillator can consist of an op-amp comparator, followed by
a(n)
A. differentiator B. amplifier
C. integrator D. multivibrator
Answer: Option C
D. is constant
Answer: Option A
A. 40 dB/decade
B. –40 dB/decade
C. 20 dB/decade
D. –20 dB/decade
Answer: Option B.
A. Strain gauge
B. Thermistor
C. Negative-type RTD
D. Thermocouple
Answer: Option B
is based on the weight placed upon it, but can be many thousands of
A.
ohms
Answer: Option C
B. by forced commutation
Answer: Option B
B. greater than 1 V
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A.
335. What is the zero-voltage switch used for?
Answer: Option A
A. thermocouples
B. RTDs
C. thermistors
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
338. The change in value of an analog signal during the conversion process produces
what is called the
A. quantization error
B. resolution error
C. Nyquist error
D. sampling error
Answer: Option A
A. Aperture time
B. Aperture droop
C. Feedback
D. Acquisition jitter
Answer: Option A.
340. RTDs are typically connected with other fixed resistors
A. in a pi configuration
B. in a bridge configuration
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
A. Primary B. Secondary
C. Diaphragm D. Core
Answer: Option D.
344. The distance that a signal's energy can travel in the time it takes for one cycle to
occur is called the signal's:
A.amplitude B.frequency
C.wavelength D.period
Answer: Option C
345. One oscilloscope selector knob that allows the major and minor divisions of the
graticule to be used to determine a signal amplitude value is called the:
A.time/cm control
B.position control
C.intensity control
D.volts/cm control
Answer: Option D
346. If current varies periodically from zero to a maximum, back to zero, and then
repeats, the signal is:
A.direct B.alternating
C.pulsating D.repetitive
Answer: Option C
349. What is the waveform period difference between the 60 Hz electricity used in this
country and the 50 Hz used in Europe?
A.3 ms
B.16 ms
C.4 ms
D.20 ms
Answer: Option A
350. Test equipment selection enables the technician to both generate signals and:
A.change circuit conditions
B. inject signals
C. sense circuit conditions
D.change signal frequencies
Answer: Option C
351. Why is ac current transfer more effective than dc current transfer over long
distances?
A.due to the height of power lines
B.due to the use of ac generators
C. due to step-up and step-down transformers reducing I2R losses
D.due to very high voltages
Answer: Option C
355. A test equipment item that has the ability to produce either square, triangular, or
sawtooth waveforms is called:
A.a function generator
B.a radio frequency generator
C.an audio frequency generator
D.a frequency meter or counter
Answer: Option A
A.clockwise
B.counterclockwise
C. in both directions at the same time
D. 0% of the time clockwise and 50% of the time counterclockwise
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
360. If a sine wave signal is 100 mV peak-to-peak, how many volts would be measured
by a voltmeter?
A.14.14 mV
B.35.4 mV
C.63.7 mV
D.70.7 mV
Answer: Option B
364. Signal comparisons may be most easily seen when using which item of test
equipment?
A.spectrum analyzer
B.multimeter
C.function generator
D.dual trace oscilloscope
Answer: Option D
365. The magnitude that an alternation varies from zero is called its:
A.altitude B.amplitude
C.attitude D.polarity
Answer: Option B.
366. The power that is distributed from a power plant to your home is:
A.high voltage to high voltage
B.low voltage to high voltage
C.high voltage to low voltage
D.low voltage to low voltage
Answer: Option C
367. A rectangular wave that has a duty cycle of 50 percent could be called a:
A.c wave
B.sawtooth wave
C.square wave
D.triangle wave
Answer: Option C
369. What is the name of a device used to directly measure the frequency of a periodic
wave?
A.oscilloscope
B. frequency meter or counter
C.audio frequency generator
D.radio frequency generator
Answer: Option B
371. What is the name of a device that converts sound waves to electrical waves?
A.an amplifier
B. an antenna
C. a filter
D.a microphone
Answer: Option D
372. If the frequency of a radio wave is increased, then its wavelength will:
A.increase
B.decrease
C.remain the same
D.cannot tell
Answer: Option B
373. What is the rms voltage value of an ac signal whose peak oscilloscope display uses 3
major divisions above the zero setting? (V/cm = 5)
A.5.3 V
B.10.6 V
C.15.0 V
D.21.2 V
Answer: Option B
374. What is the peak-to-peak current value when an ammeter measures a 20 mA value?
A.14 mA
B.28 mA
C.40 mA
D.57 mA
Answer: Option D
375. How long would it take to transmit an electromagnetic wave to a receiving antenna
1,000 miles away?
A.5.38 ms
B.10.8 ms
C.53.8 ms
D.108 ms
Answer: Option A
376. What is the waveform period of a square wave signal that horizontally covers 3
major divisions per cycle? (time/cm = 50 ms)
A.50 ms
B.100 ms
C.150 ms
D.200 ms
Answer: Option C
378. One oscilloscope selector knob that allows the major and minor divisions of the
graticule to be used to determine a waveform period is called a:
A.focus control
B.time/cm control
C.intensity control
D.volts/cm control
Answer: Option B
A. active region
B. breakdown region
Answer: Option C
381. Three different Q points are shown on a dc load line. The upper Q point
represents the:
D. cutoff point
Answer: Option C
382. A transistor has a of 250 and a base current, IB, of 20 A. The collector
current, IC, equals:
A. 500 A
B. 5 mA
C. 50 mA
D. 5A
Answer: Option B
383. A current ratio of IC/IE is usually less than one and is called:
A. beta B. theta
C. alpha D. omega
Answer: Option C
384. With the positive probe on an NPN base, an ohmmeter reading between the
other transistor terminals should be:
A. open
B. infinite
C. low resistance
D. high resistance
Answer: Option C.
385. In a C-E configuration, an emitter resistor is used for:
A. stabilization
B. ac signal bypass
C. collector bias
D. higher gain
Answer: Option A
A. an unstable Q point
B. a stable Q point
Answer: Option B
A. collector-emitter B. base-collector
C. base-emitter D. collector-base
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
A. 8.70 V
B. 4.35 V
C. 2.90 V
D. 0.7 V
Answer: Option B
390. The C-B configuration is used to provide which type of gain?
A. voltage B. current
C. resistance D. power
Answer: Option A
A. VC B. VCC
C. VB D. IC
Answer: Option C
A. fixed resistor
B. tuning device
C. rectifier
D. variable resistor
Answer: Option D
393. If an input signal ranges from 20–40 A (microamps), with an output signal
ranging from .5–1.5 mA (milliamps), what is the ac beta?
A. 0.05 B. 20
C. 50 D. 500
Answer: Option C
A. IC/IB B. IC/IE
C. IB/IE D. IE/IB
Answer: Option A.
395. A collector characteristic curve is a graph showing:
Answer: Option B
396. With low-power transistor packages, the base terminal is usually the:
A. tab end
B. middle
C. right end
D. stud mount
Answer: Option B
397. When a silicon diode is forward biased, what is VBE for a C-E configuration?
A. voltage-divider bias
B. 0.4 V
C. 0.7 V
D. emitter voltage
Answer: Option C
398. What is the current gain for a common-base configuration where IE = 4.2 mA
and IC= 4.0 mA?
A. 16.80 B. 1.05
C. 0.20 D. 0.95
Answer: Option D
A. ground B. VC
C. VBE D. VCC
Answer: Option A.
400. If a 2 mV signal produces a 2 V output, what is the voltage gain?
A. 0.001 B. 0.004
C. 100 D. 1000
Answer: Option D
A.
B.
C. hi-fi
D.
Answer: Option A
A. collector voltage
B. base current
C. collector resistance
Answer: Option B
A. IE – IC
B. IC + IE
C. IB + IC
D. IB – IC
Answer: Option C.
405. Often a common-collector will be the last stage before the load; the main
function(s) of this stage is to:
Answer: Option D
406. For a C-C configuration to operate properly, the collector-base junction should
be reverse biased, while forward bias should be applied to which junction?
A. collector-emitter B. base-emitter
C. collector-base D. cathode-anode
Answer: Option A
A. 270 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 0 degrees
Answer: Option D
408. If a transistor operates at the middle of the dc load line, a decrease in the
current gain will move the Q point:
B. nowhere
C. up
D. down
Answer: Option D
A. voltage B. current
C. resistance D. power
Answer: Option D.
410. What is the collector current for a C-E configuration with a beta of 100 and a base
current of 30 A?
A. 30 A
B. .3 A
C. 3 mA
D. 3 MA
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
A. temperature
B. moisture
C. magnetic fields
D. pressure
Answer: Option C
B. pressure on a crystal
D. a magnetic field
Answer: Option B
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option A.
416. A UJT has:
Answer: Option D
C. low-current dropout
D. valley voltage
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
A. an automobile horn
B. a TI 92 calculator
Answer: Option D
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option A.
421. The smallest amount of current that the cathode-anode can have, and still
sustain conduction of an SCR is called the:
C. holding current
Answer: Option D
422. Once a DIAC is conducting, the only way to turn it off is with:
C. low-current dropout
D. breakover
Answer: Option C
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option D
A. transistor
B. unidirectional device
C. three-layer device
D. bidirectional device
Answer: Option D
A. a 10BASE-T Ethernet
D. a good flashlight
Answer: Option C.
426. The PUT (programmable unijunction transistor) is actually a type of:
A. UJT thyristor
B. FET device
C. TRIAC
D. SCR
Answer: Option A
B. convert energy
Answer: Option B
B. decimal
C. octal
D. hexadecimal
Answer: Option B
A. 10000111.11 B. 11010011.01
C. 00111100.00 D. 10010111.11
Answer: Option D
A. 5B B. 5F
C. 5A D. 5C
Answer: Option C
A. 8 B. 4
C. 1 D. 2
Answer: Option B
sample and hold the output of the binary counter during the
A.
conversion process
sample and hold the ADC staircase waveform during the conversion
D.
process
Answer: Option C.
433. The weight of the LSB as a binary number is:
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
Answer: Option A
434. What is the difference between binary coding and binary coded decimal?
Answer: Option A
A. 125 B. 12.5
C. 90.125 D. 9.125
Answer: Option D
A. 201 B. 2001
C. 20 D. 210
Answer: Option A
A. 191 B. 1911
C. 19 D. 19111
Answer: Option B.
438. What is the resultant binary of the decimal problem 49 + 1 = ?
A. 01010101 B. 00110101
C. 00110010 D. 00110001
Answer: Option C
439. 3428 is the decimal value for which of the following binary coded decimal (BCD)
groupings?
A. 11010001001000 B. 11010000101000
C. 011010010000010 D. 110100001101010
Answer: Option B
440. What is the result when a decimal 5238 is converted to base 16?
A. 327.375 B. 12166
C. 1388 D. 1476
Answer: Option D.
The Karnaugh map eliminates the need for using NAND and NOR
B.
gates.
Answer: Option A
442. Which of the examples below expresses the commutative law of multiplication?
A. A+B=B+ A
B. A•B=B+ A
C. A • (B • C) = (A • B) • C
D. A•B=B• A
Answer: Option D
443.
The Boolean expression is logically equivalent to what single gate?
A. NAND B. NOR
C. AND D. OR
Answer: Option A
444. The observation that a bubbled input OR gate is interchangeable with a bubbled
output AND gate is referred to as:
A. a Karnaugh map
Answer: Option B
A. symbolic reduction
B. TTL logic
Answer: Option C.
446. Logically, the output of a NOR gate would have the same Boolean expression as
a(n):
Answer: Option B
447. Which of the examples below expresses the distributive law of Boolean algebra?
A. A • (B • C) = (A • B) + C
B. A + (B + C) = (A • B) + (A • C)
C. A • (B + C) = (A • B) + (A • C)
D. (A + B) + C = A + (B + C)
Answer: Option C
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
A. Y = (A + B)(C + D)
B. Y = AB(CD)
C.
D.
Answer: Option C.
A. PLA B. PAL
C. CPLD D. SLD
Answer: Option B
453. The content of a simple programmable logic device (PLD) consists of:
A. fuse-link arrays
Answer: Option D
A. it cannot be reprogrammed.
Answer: Option A
455. The complex programmable logic device (CPLD) contains several PLD blocks
and:
A. field-programmable switches
B. AND/OR arrays
D. a language compiler
Answer: Option C
456. PLAs, CPLDs, and FPGAs are all which type of device?
A. SLD B. PLD
C. EPROM D. SRAM
Answer: Option B.
C. the PAL has more possible product terms than the PLA
Answer: Option A.
Combinational Logic Circuits
457. How many inputs are required for a 1-of-10 BCD decoder?
A. 4 B. 8
C. 10 D. 1
Answer: Option A
A. decimal to hexadecimal
C. ac to dc
Answer: Option B
A. code conversion
B. parity checking
D. data generation
Answer: Option C
460. Select one of the following statements that best describes the parity method of
error detection:
Answer: Option A
accepts data inputs from one line and passes this data to
A.
multiple output lines
accepts data inputs from multiple lines and passes this data to
C.
multiple output lines
accepts data inputs from several lines and multiplexes this input data
D.
to four BCD lines
Answer: Option B.
462. When two or more inputs are active simultaneously, the process is called:
B. priority encoding
C. ripple blanking
D. priority decoding
Answer: Option B.
463. Which type of decoder will select one of sixteen outputs, depending on the 4-bit
binary input value?
A. hexadecimal
C. binary-to-hexadecimal
D. hexadecimal-to-binary
Answer: Option A
A. A B and if A B or A >> B
Answer: Option C
465. A circuit that responds to a specific set of signals to produce a related digital
signal output is called a(n):
A. BCD matrix
B. display driver
C. encoder
D. decoder
Answer: Option C
466. Which digital system translates coded characters into a more intelligible form?
A. encoder B. display
C. counter D. decoder
Answer: Option D.
467. A basic multiplexer principle can be demonstrated through the use of a:
A. single-pole relay
B. DPDT switch
C. rotary switch
D. linear stepper
Answer: Option C
A. No conversion is necessary.
Answer: Option D.
A. each flip-flop
Answer: Option B
471. What type of register would shift a complete binary number in one bit at a time
and shift all the stored bits out one bit at a time?
A. PIPO B. SISO
C. SIPO D. PISO
Answer: Option B
A. input clock pulses are applied only to the first and last stages
C. input clock pulses are not used to activate any of the counter stages
Answer: Option D
473. One of the major drawbacks to the use of asynchronous counters is that:
low-frequency applications are limited because of internal
A.
propagation delays
Answer: Option B.
474. Which type of device may be used to interface a parallel data format with
external equipment's serial format?
A. key matrix
B. UART
C. memory chip
D. serial-in, parallel-out
Answer: Option B
475. When the output of a tri-state shift register is disabled, the output level is
placed in a:
A. float state
B. LOW state
Answer: Option D
476. A comparison between ring and johnson counters indicates that:
Answer: Option D
477. A sequence of equally spaced timing pulses may be easily generated by which
type of counter circuit?
B. clock
C. johnson
D. binary
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C.
479. What is a shift register that will accept a parallel input and can shift data left or
right called?
A. tri-state
B. end around
C. bidirectional universal
D. conversion
Answer: Option C
480. What happens to the parallel output word in an asynchronous binary down
counter whenever a clock pulse occurs?
Answer: Option A
481. Mod-6 and mod-12 counters are most commonly used in:
A. frequency counters
B. multiplexed displays
C. digital clocks
Answer: Option C
Semiconductor Memory
482. A computerized self-diagnostic for a ROM test uses:
A. the check-sum method
B. a ROM listing
C. ROM comparisons
D. a checkerboard test
Answer: Option A
483. How many storage locations are available when a memory device has twelve
address lines?
A. 144 B. 512
C. 2048 D. 4096
Answer: Option D
484. Which of the following memories uses a MOSFET and a capacitor as its memory
cell?
A. SRAM B. DRAM
C. ROM D. DROM
Answer: Option B
C. magnetic memory
D. nonmagnetic memory
Answer: Option A
C. volatility
Answer: Option B.
487. Select the best description of read-only memory (ROM).
Answer: Option B
the EPROM can be erased with ultraviolet light in much less time than
A.
an EEPROM
C. the EEPROM has the ability to erase and reprogram individual words
the EEPROM can erase and reprogram individual words without
D.
removal from the circuit
Answer: Option D
489. Which of the following RAM timing parameters determine(s) its operating
speed?
A. tacc
C. t1 and t3
Answer: Option C
490. Memory that loses its contents when power is lost is:
A. nonvolatile B. volatile
C. random D. static
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
.
492. A nonvolatile type of memory that can be programmed and erased in sectors,
rather than one byte at a time is:
A. flash memory
B. EPROM
C. EEPROM
D. MPROM
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
494. What is the principal advantage of using address multiplexing with DRAM
memory?
C. a short abbreviation for the data word stored at the operand address
Answer: Option B
496. What is the difference between mnemonic codes and machine codes?
A. There is no difference.
Answer: Option B
A. data bus
B. control bus
C. address bus
D. multiplexed bus
Answer: Option A
B. firmware
D. flowchart instructions
Answer: Option A
A. CPU B. compiler
C. microcomputer D. ALU
Answer: Option C.
500. How many buses are connected as part of the 8085 microprocessor?
A. 2 B. 3
C. 5 D. 8
Answer: Option B
A. data bus
B. timer bus
C. control bus
D. address bus
Answer: Option B
502. The technique of assigning a memory address to each I/O device in the SAM
system is called:
A. wired I/O
B. I/O mapping
C. dedicated I/O
D. memory-mapped I/O
Answer: Option D
A. 7 B. 8
C. 9 D. 16
Answer: Option B
C. bidirectional
Answer: Option C.
505. Which of the following is not a basic element within the microprocessor?
A. microcontroller
B. arithmetic-logic unit (ALU)
C. temporary register
D. accumulator
Answer: Option A
A. 7 B. 8
C. 9 D. 16
Answer: Option D
A. jump instructions
B. decoding
C. interrupts
Answer: Option D
Series Circuits
508. What is the current flow through R1, R2, and R3?
A. 1A, 1A, 1A
B. 1A, 2A, 3A
C. 3A, 3A, 3A
D. 3A, 2A, 1A
Answer: Option A
A. voltage control
B. current control
C. volume control
D. divider control
Answer: Option C
A. be the same
B. be doubled
C. reduce source voltage
D. be halved
Answer: Option D
B. work
D. joules
Answer: Option A
A. 78 V
B. 39 V
C. 13 V
D. 0V
Answer: Option A
513. With a total resistance of 3300 ohms and a 45 V source, if R3 is 1200 ohms,
what will be its voltage drop?
A. 16.36 V
B. 32.72 V
C. 10.90 V
D. 15.00 V
Answer: Option A
514.
A. +10.48 V
B. +0.94 V
C. +2.6 V
D. +3 V
Answer: Option A
515.
In the given circuit, what type of failure will cause the voltage at point B to
equal the voltage at point C?
A. R1 shorts
B. R2 shorts
C. R3 shorts
D. R2 opens
Answer: Option B
516.
A. +19.2 V
B. +8.8 V
C. +28 V
D. –19.2 V
Answer: Option A
517.
A. +1.48 V
B. +0.94 V
C. +11.6 V
D. +3 V
Answer: Option C
518. An 8-ohm resistor is in series with a lamp. The circuit current is 1 A. With 20 V
applied, what voltage is being allowed for the lamp?
A. 4V
B. 8V
C. 12 V
D. 20 V
Answer: Option C
B. R1 is shorted.
C. R2 is open.
D. R2 is shorted.
Answer: Option B
the sum of the voltage drops in a series circuit is equal to the total
A.
applied voltage
Answer: Option A
B. voltage is doubled
C. voltage is reduced
D. resistance is doubled
Answer: Option A
A. 0 V, 4 V
B. 0 V, 8 V
C. 0 V, 12 V
D. 0 V, 16 V
Answer: Option D
523. A short circuit has:
C. no resistance
D. low current
Answer: Option C
524. If three resistors of 1.5 kilohms, 470 ohms, and 3300 ohms are in series with a
25-volt source, what is the total circuit current?
A. 210 mA
B. 5.2 mA
C. 4.7 mA
D. .007 A
Answer: Option C
A. 170 mW
B. 1.7 W
C. 17 W
D. 170 W
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
527.
While putting three 1.5 V batteries into a flashlight, you put one in backwards.
The flashlight will be .
C. off
D. the same
Answer: Option B
528.
Answer: Option C
529. Given a series circuit containing resistors of different values, which statement
is not true?
The sum of the voltage drops across each resistive element will be
B.
equal.
Answer: Option D
530. With 20 V applied, an 8-ohm resistor is in series with a lamp. When the lamp is
removed, what voltage will be read across the lamp socket?
A. 0V
B. 8V
C. 12 V
D. 20 V
Answer: Option D
A. 38.4
B. 3.84
C. 384
D. 3.84
Answer: Option C
532. In a series circuit, the voltage measured across a short will be:
A. source voltage
B. infinite voltage
C. zero volts
Answer: Option C
533.
The batteries are series-aiding and the total source voltage equals
A.
21 V.
The batteries are series-aiding and the total source voltage equals
C.
3 V.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
535.
A. +19.2 V
B. +8.8 V
C. +28 V
D. –19.2 V
Answer: Option C
A. 11 V
B. 16 V
C. 21 V
D. 80 V
Answer: Option A
B. 2 ; the average
C. 3 ; the largest
D. 6 ; the sum
Answer: Option D
538. Which equation determines individual resistor voltage drop?
A. Vx R
B. I2 x R
C. V x I
D. IxR
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
540. The voltage drop across a series resistor is proportional to what other value?
A. total resistance
C. wattage rating
Answer: Option B
D. oppose current
Answer: Option D
542. When a battery is connected to a series circuit, it delivers current based only
upon:
A. primary/secondary difference
B. total resistance
Answer: Option B
543. What determines the total resistance in a series circuit?
Answer: Option B
544. If two resistors have the same voltage drop in a series circuit, it means:
Answer: Option D
545. If series resistors dissipate 16 mW, 107 mW, 146 mW, and 243 mW, what is
the total power consumed by the circuit?
A. 128 mW
B. 269 mW
C. 512 mW
D. 1024 mW
Answer: Option C
546. A series circuit schematic is recognized because all the components are
connected:
Answer: Option C
547. With a 900 V source, voltage is divided across 3 series resistors of 300 V, 280
V, and:
A. 30 V
B. 270 V
C. 320 V
D. 900 V
Answer: Option C.
548.
B. 60 A
C. 80 A
D. 140 A
Answer: Option A
Series-Parallel Circuits
549. What theorem replaces a complex network with an equivalent circuit containing
a source voltage and a series resistance?
A. Multinetwork B. Norton
C. Thevenin D. Superposition
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
551.
If the load in the given circit is 120 k , what is the loaded output voltage?
A. 4.21 V
B. 15.79 V
C. 16 V
D. 19.67 V
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
553. The current flowing through an unloaded voltage divider is called the:
A. resistor current
B. load current
C. bleeder current
D. voltage current
Answer: Option C
554. When a Wheatstone bridge is in a balanced condition, the center voltmeter in
the bridge will read:
C. zero volts
Answer: Option C
555. When a load is connected to a voltage divider, the total resistance of the circuit
will:
A. decrease
B. double
C. increase
Answer: Option A
A. 200 mA
B. 800 mA
C. 600 mA
D. 400 mA
Answer: Option D
A. 4k
B. 17 k
C. 41 k
D. 108 k
Answer: Option B
558.
A. 196 A
B. 1.96 mA
C. 2 mA
D. 2.16 mA
Answer: Option B
559.
A. 92
B. 288
C. 17.7
D. 128
Answer: Option A
A. I2 = 4 mA, I3 = 2 mA
Answer: Option C
561.
If the load in the given circuit is open, what is the unloaded output voltage?
A. 0V
B. 4V
C. 16 V
D. 20 V
Answer: Option C
A. 2.2
B. 3.2
C. 4.2
D. 5.2
Answer: Option B
563.
A. 46 V
B. 34 V
C. 23 V
D. 12 V
Answer: Option D
564. When placed into a circuit, how are electronic components usually connected?
B. in parallel
D. in series
Answer: Option C
565.
If the load in the given circuit is 12 k , what is the loaded output voltage?
A. 5.88 V
B. 14.12 V
C. 16 V
D. 17.14 V
Answer: Option B
566. If a Wheatstone bridge is balanced, a voltmeter in the center of the bridge will
read:
C. zero volts
Answer: Option C
B. 12.4 V
C. 13.4 V
D. 15.4 V
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
569.
Which circuit fault do the meter readings in the given figure indicate?
Answer: Option B
570.
A. 0.3 A
B. 0.15 A
C. 0.5 A
D. 0.68 A
Answer: Option C
571. If R1 is in series with parallel connected to R2 and R3, what happens to total
current if R2 opens?
A. increases
B. decreases
D. cannot tell
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
573. If a series–parallel circuit has all 30-ohm resistors, what is the total resistance
when R1 is in series with a parallel circuit consisting of R2 and R3?
A. 10 ohms
B. 20 ohms
C. 45 ohms
D. 90 ohms
Answer: Option C
574. Components or combinations of components with common currents, in a
series–parallel circuit, are in:
Answer: Option C
C. resistance
D. current flow
Answer: Option D
B. 1.2
C. 1.6
D. 1.8
Answer: Option D
577. If R1 is in series with a parallel combination of R2, R3, and R4, when the
resistance value of R2 increases, the voltage across R3 will
A. increase
B. decrease
D. Cannot tell
Answer: Option A
A. current B. resistance
C. power D. voltage
Answer: Option B
579.
Which circuit fault do the meter readings in the given figure indicate?
Answer: Option D
A. increase
B. decrease
D. cannot tell
Answer: Option B
581.
A. 220
B. 6,899
C. 1,232
Answer: Option A
A. 1V
B. 3V
C. 5V
D. 6V
Answer: Option A
583. What is the power dissipated by R1, R2, and R3?
Answer: Option B
Inductors
584. Electricity may be generated by a wire:
A. carrying current
B. wrapped as a coil
Answer: Option D
585.
In the given circuit, what will the voltage be across R3 25 s after the switch is
moved to position 2?
A. 2.88 V
B. 5.9 V
C. 8.34 V
D. 14 V
Answer: Option B
586. The electrical energy consumed by a coil is stored in the form of:
A. an electrical field
B. a force field
C. an electrostatic field
D. a magnetic field
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
589. What type of device consists of a coil with a moveable iron core?
A. solenoid
B. reed switch
C. relay
D. armature
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
591. In a purely inductive circuit,
Answer: Option C
592. A series RL filter circuit with an output across the inductor will result in what
type of filtering?
Answer: Option A
593.
A. 160 mH
B. 300 mH
C. 900 mH
D. 1700 mH
Answer: Option A
594. On a schematic, dashed lines between two vertical coils usually mean the
transformer has:
A. an air core
B. an iron core
C. a nonmetallic core
D. a ferrite core
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
598. The polarity of induced voltage while a field is collapsing is:
Answer: Option B
A. 50 B. 450
C. 1,500 D. 5,500
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
A. polar fields
B. lines of force
C. magnetomotive force
D. lines of reluctance
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
603. What is the number of turns required in the secondary winding for a
transformer when 120 volts is applied to a 2400-turn primary to produce 7.5
Vac at the secondary?
A. 75 turns
B. 150 turns
C. 900 turns
D. 1920 turns
Answer: Option B
604. The four factors determining inductance are the number of turns, coil length,
coil area, and:
A. permeability
B. reluctance
C. counter emf
D. coefficient of coupling
Answer: Option A
605. What is the inductive reactance if the Q of a coil is 60, and the winding
resistance is ?
A. 0.083
B. 12
C. 30
D. 300
Answer: Option D
606. The time difference, or lag, between flux density and magnetizing force is
known as:
A. eddy current
B. magnetic saturation
C. hysteresis
D. coercivity
Answer: Option C
607. A magnetic circuit breaker will open to protect equipment only when:
A. voltage is exceeded
D. current is exceeded
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
A. 12 mH
B. 6 mH
C. 0.73 mH
D. 0 mH
Answer: Option A
612. During a current change, the ability of a conductor to produce counter emf
within itself is called:
A. back emf
B. self-induction
C. a henry
D. impedance
Answer: Option B
613
If the switch is moved to position 1 in the given circuit, how long will it take for
the current to reach its maximum value?
A. 72.5 s
B. 532 s
C. 610 s
D. 833 s
Answer: Option B
614. When a transformer secondary lead has been connected to a middle loop that is
not an end connector, it is called a:
A. multiple-tapped secondary
B. center-tapped secondary
Answer: Option B
A. 2.3 VAR
B. 4.6 VAR
C. 9.3 VAR
D. 0 VAR
Answer: Option A
A. 1.1 x 10−4
B. 5.65 x 10−4
C. 6.9 x 10−3
D. 8.8 x 10−3
Answer: Option B
618. With a square wave input, an RL differentiator circuit with an output across the
inductor will produce what type of waveform?
A. dc
C. exponential-shaped pulses
Answer: Option B
619. How long until the current is at a maximum?
A. 0 s
B. 5 s
C. 15 s
D. 25 s
Answer: Option B
B. VR = 48 V, VL = 110 V
C. VR = 56 V, VL = 106 V
D. VR = 60 V, VL = 60 V
Answer: Option C
621. If 360 Vac is the output of a 300-turn secondary winding, what is the input
voltage when the primary winding has 150 turns?
A. 2.4 Vac
B. 150 Vac
C. 180 Vac
D. 720 Vac
Answer: Option C
622. When a magnet enters a coil and a voltage is induced, the process is known as:
A. an alternation
B. self-inductance
C. counter emf
D. flux linkage
Answer: Option D
623. What term is used to describe the action of magnetic flux from one circuit that
cuts across the conductors of another circuit?
A. self-inductance
B. rectification
C. mutual inductance
D. magnetism
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
A. has inductance
Answer: Option D
627. When current in an inductor starts to change, it cannot react instantly due to:
Answer: Option D
628. What is the approximate time for a complete decay of 400 mA of inductor
current, when R = 10 ohms and L = 20 H?
A. 10 seconds
B. 8 seconds
C. 4 seconds
D. 2 seconds
Answer: Option A
629. A utility pole transformer used to supply a residential customer with two phases
uses:
Answer: Option B
A. 5.2
B. 7.5
C. 1.3
D. 7.5
Answer: Option D
B. go to zero
C. aid counter emf buildup
Answer: Option A
632. When a rate of one ampere per second causes an induced voltage of one volt,
the unit of measure is
A. a lenz
B. an ohm
C. a farad
D. a henry
Answer: Option D
633. If you wanted to decrease the inductance of a coil, you might increase the:
A. number of turns
Answer: Option C
A. resistance
B. inductive reactance
C. counter emf
D. impedance
Answer: Option B
636. With 100 Vac applied to the primary of a transformer so that it draws 500 mA,
what will be the 300 Vac secondary current?
A. 1500 mA
B. 200 mA
C. 167 mA
D. 150 mA
Answer: Option C
637. Which coil would be used as a step-up transformer primary if coil number 1 has
100 more turns than coil number 2?
B. coil 1
D. coil 2
Answer: Option D
638. Find IR and IL.
A. IR = 50 mA, IL = 109 mA
B. IR = 150 mA, IL = 9 mA
C. IR = 50 mA, IL = 151 mA
D. IR = 150 mA, IL = 53 mA
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
640. What is the current rise after 2 time constants if Vs = 12 V dc, R = 60 , and
the inductor is rated at 24 mH?
A. 79.9 mA
B. 126.4 mA
C. 173.0 mA
D. 198.6 mA
Answer: Option C
641. What is the total inductance of a 5 H and a 100 mH coil connected in parallel?
A. 4.76 mH
B. 33.3 mH
C. 98.0 mH
D. 150.0 mH
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
643. Which of the following is NOT one of the three major types of fixed inductor?
A. air core
B. ferrite core
C. magnesium core
D. iron core
Answer: Option C
644. What is the impedance of a 1 kHz series RL circuit when R and XL are both 1000
ohms?
A. 500 ohms
B. 1000 ohms
C. 1414 ohms
D. 2000 ohms
Answer: Option C
A. reactance B. reluctance
C. retentitivity D. resistance
Answer: Option C
A. in field condition
B. at saturation
C. inhibited
D. at field strength
Answer: Option B
647. You could decrease the time constant of an RL circuit by
Answer: Option B
A. color-coded wires
B. dot notation
D. winding ratios
Answer: Option B
649. As a generator armature passes the 270 degree point, the induced voltage is:
A. at maximum negative
C. at maximum positive
Answer: Option A
650. A value of "ten to the eighth power magnetic lines of force" is for the term:
A. field B. flux
C. coulomb D. weber
Answer: Option D
651. A change of one ampere per second in an inductor that induces a voltage of one
volt is considered as which unit value?
A. a lenz
B. an ohm
C. a farad
D. a henry
Answer: Option D
652. What is the name of the part inside a relay that is moved by the action of the
electromagnet?
A. armature B. conductor
C. contacts D. solenoid
Answer: Option A
653. If the primary of a 4:1 turns transformer dissipates 5 W, what is the secondary
power?
A. 5.0 W
B. 1.25 pW
C. 9.5 W
D. 20.0 mW
Answer: Option A
654. The unit of flux density is:
A. magnetomotive force
B. a weber
C. a maxwell
D. a tesla
Answer: Option D
A. placed in series with the load and aids any current changes
B. placed in parallel with the load and aids any current changes
C. placed in parallel with the load and opposes any current changes
D. placed in series with the load and opposes any current changes
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
657. Which transformer turns ratio is needed to match two 16-ohm parallel devices
to an output of 22.2 ohms?
A. 1.38:1 B. 1.67:1
C. 0.72:1 D. 0.60:1
Answer: Option D
658. A transformer will have:
Answer: Option A
659. What is the phase angle of a 24 Vac parallel RL circuit when R = 45 ohms and
XL = 1100 ohms?
A. 0.001 degrees
B. 2.300 degrees
C. 87.600 degrees
D. 89.900 degrees
Answer: Option B
A. an inductor
B. a coil
C. a choke
Answer: Option D
661. What happens when moving expanding lines of force encounter a conductor?
A. Current increases.
B. Voltage is induced.
C. Resistance is reduced.
D. Power is increased.
Answer: Option B
A. a center-tapped secondary
B. multiple windings
D. a multiple-tapped secondary
Answer: Option C
A.
B. H=I× N
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
665. In a transformer, what will happen to the primary current if the secondary
magnetic field increases?
A. Ip will increase.
B. Ip will be canceled.
D. Ip will decrease.
Answer: Option A
666. The time required for one weber of flux to cut a conductor and produce one volt
is:
A. one revolution
B. one second
C. one millisecond
D. four revolutions
Answer: Option B
667. What is the maximum source current for a transformer rated at 10 kVA,
1000/500 60 Hz?
A. 2A
B. 5A
C. 10 A
D. 20 A
Answer: Option D
668. What is the total inductance assuming no mutual inductance?
A. 0 mH
B. 0.69 mH
C. 12 mH
D. 24 mH
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
672. What are the properties that determine the inductance of a coil?
Answer: Option C
673. An inductor is in series with a voltage source, an open switch, and a resistor.
The instant the switch is closed, the inductor acts like
A. a short
B. an open
C. a resistor
D. a voltage source
Answer: Option B
What is the phase angle between the source voltage and current, when a 100
mH inductor with a reactance of 6 , and a 1 resistor are in series with a
674. source?
A. 0.1 degrees
B. 9.0 degrees
C. 61.0 degrees
D. 81.0 degrees
Answer: Option D
675.
When a load is not connected to the secondary of a transformer:
Answer: Option B
B. a voltage-dependent diode
C. a current-dependent resistor
D. a current-dependent diode
Answer: Option A
A. center-tapped secondary
B. step-down secondary
C. stepped-up secondary
Answer: Option A
678. What circuit activity may shift a characteristic curve so that diode operating
points are different?
B. higher resistance
C. lower voltage
D. lower current
Answer: Option A
B. short
C. nothing
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A.
681. When matching polarity connections have been made and the potential
difference (PD) is above 0.7 V, the diode is considered to be:
A. not working
B. forward biased
C. reverse biased
D. an open switch
Answer: Option B
A. transformer B. filter
C. rectifier D. regulator
Answer: Option D
A. 119.9 V
B. 108.0 V
C. 115.7 V
D. 339.4 V
Answer: Option B
A. 0 mA
B. 23 mA
C. 18 mA
D. 13 mA
Answer: Option D
685. The characteristic curve for the complex model of a silicon diode shows that
Answer: Option C
686. Since diodes are destroyed by excessive current, circuits must have:
C. more dopants
Answer: Option B
687. A diode for which you can change the reverse bias, and thus vary the
capacitance is called a
A. varactor diode
B. tunnel diode
C. zener diode
D. switching diode
Answer: Option A
688. A filtered full-wave rectifier voltage has a smaller ripple than does a half-wave
rectifier voltage for the same load resistance and capacitor values because:
Answer: Option A
high resistance when reverse biased and low resistance when forward
C.
biased
high resistance when forward biased and low resistance when reverse
D.
biased
Answer: Option C
690. The peak inverse voltage (PIV) across a nonconducting diode in a bridge
rectifier equals approximately:
A. 1 mA
B. 0.975 mA
C. 0.942 mA
D. 0.0 mA
Answer: Option A
A. free electrons
B. negative ions
C. valence electrons
Answer: Option C
693. Shunting the ac component away from the load is the task of a:
A. transformer B. filter
C. regulator D. rectifier
Answer: Option B
C. both the n-type and p-type materials have the same potential
Answer: Option A
A. 0 mA
B. 7 mA
C. 8.3 mA
D. 13 mA
Answer: Option B
696. When a diode is forward biased, the voltage across it
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
A. trivalent-doped material
C. anode lead
D. cathode lead
Answer: Option D
700. When checking a diode, low resistance readings both ways indicate the diode is:
A. open
B. satisfactory
C. faulty
Answer: Option C
701. In a diode schematic, the anode is represented by a(n):
A. triangle
B. vertical line
C. zig-zag line
D. element indicator
Answer: Option A
A. shut down
Answer: Option A
703. With full-wave rectification, current through the load resistor must be:
A. in opposite directions
Answer: Option D
704. A characteristic curve is the result of a current versus voltage plot of diode
activity, which begins at the:
A. 3rd quadrant
B. current plot
C. graph origin
D. voltage plot
Answer: Option C
A. cycles of input
B. capacitor polarity
D. diode installation
Answer: Option D
706. With a 12 V supply, a silicon diode, and a 370-ohm resistor in series, what
voltage will be dropped across the diode?
A. 0.3 V
B. 0.7 V
C. 0.9 V
D. 1.4 V
Answer: Option B
707. If the frequency of the applied ac signal to a half-wave rectifier is 60 Hz, the
frequency of the pulsating dc output will be
A. 30 pps
B. 60 pps
C. 90 pps
D. 120 pps
Answer: Option B
708. What is the peak output voltage for this half-wave rectifier?
A. 1V
B. 7.8 V
C. 10.9 V
D. 15.6 V
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
A. semiconductors
B. conductors
C. insulators
Answer: Option A
711. What is the percent of regulation if Vnl = 20 V and Vfl = 19.8 V?
A. 0% B. 1%
C. .1% D. 5%
Answer: Option B
712. With a half-wave rectified voltage across the load resistor, load current flows for
what part of a cycle?
A. 0 degrees
B. 90 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 360 degrees
Answer: Option C
713. Which of the following circuits would require the least amount of filtering?
A. A half-wave rectifier
B. A full-wave rectifier
C. A bridge rectifier
Answer: Option D
C. nothing
D. not enough data
Answer: Option A
715. The voltage where current may start to flow in a reverse-biased pn junction is
called the
A. breakdown voltage
B. barrier potential
C. forward voltage
D. biasing voltage
Answer: Option A
716. Providing a constant output regardless of ac input or load resistance changes is
the function of a:
A. transformer B. filter
C. regulator D. rectifier
Answer: Option C
717. When a diode is destroyed it has infinite impedance. When damaged by heat it
will probably:
A. short
B. conduct more
C. conduct less
D. open
Answer: Option A
718. The area at the junction of p-type and n-type materials that has lost
its majority carriers is called the
A. barrier potential
B. depletion region
C. n region
D. p region
Answer: Option B
A. – anode, + cathode
B. – cathode, – anode
C. + anode, – cathode
D. + cathode, + anode
Answer: Option C
B. recombination occurs
Answer: Option D
721. In a power supply diagram, which block indicates a pulsating dc output?
A. transformer B. filter
C. rectifier D. regulator
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
A. rectified B. regulated
C. controlled D. attenuated
Answer: Option A
A. electrical quantities
B. fundamental units
C. metric prefixes
D. international standards
Answer: Option B
C. Kilo D. Micro
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
727. If you drop a 5 when rounding a number, you are using the
A. round-to-even rule
C. round-off rule
Answer: Option A
A. 7.2 V
B. 7.2 V
C. 7,200,000 V
D. 0.0072 V
Answer: Option B
729. A measure of the repeatability of a measurement of some quantity is
A. error B. precision
C. accuracy D. significant
Answer: Option B
A. base units
B. atoms
D. letter symbols
Answer: Option A
A. 36.4 × 107
B. 116.5 × 104
C. 28.39 × 103
D. 1.165 × 105
Answer: Option D
732. When using the terms "accuracy" and "precision" for measurements
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
734. The number 14.8 can also be expressed as
A. 1.48 × 10–1
B. 1.48 × 100
C. 1.48 × 101
D. 1.48 × 102
Answer: Option C
735. The digits in a measured number that are known to be correct are called
A. accuracy digits
B. significant digits
C. error digits
D. precision digits
Answer: Option B
A. 470 × 105
B. 82 × 10–2
C. 9.1 × 10–6
D. 14.7 × 108
Answer: Option C
A. hertz B. ampere
C. watt D. second
Answer: Option A
A. 21.8 mA
B. 218 mA
C. 29 mA
D. 290 mA
Answer: Option C
739. Dividing 24 × 1011 by 3 × 104 equals
A. 8 × 104
B. 8 × 107
C. 8 × 1011
D. 8 × 1015
Answer: Option B
A. one-tenth B. one-hundredth
C. one-thousandth D. one-millionth
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
743. What is the flux density of a magnetic field whose flux is 3000 µ Wb and cross-
sectional area is 0.25 m2 ?
A. 2,000 T
B.83,330 T
C.0 T
D.More information is needed in order to find flux density.
Answer: Option A
744. How much flux is there in a magnetic field when its flux density is 5000 T and its
cross-sectional area is 300 mm2 ?
A.16.67 mWb
B.5.0 Wb
C.3.0 mWb
D.1.5 Wb
Answer: Option D
745. What are the effects of moving a closed wire loop through a magnetic field?
A.A voltage is induced in the wire.
B.A current is induced in the wire.
C.The polarity across the wire depends on the direction of motion.
D.All of the above
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
748. The component that produces power in an electromagnetic generator is called the
A.armature
B.field winding
C.commutator
D.brush
Answer: Option A
749. What is the magnetomotive force in a 150-turn coil of wire with 2 A flowing
through it?
A.13.33 mAt
B.300 At
C.75 At
D.152 At
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
753. What is the reluctance of a material that has a length of 0.045 m, a cross-sectional
area of 0.015 m2, and a permeability of 2500 µ Wb/At· m?
A.833.33 µ At/Wb
B.0.27 At/Wb
C.1200 At/Wb
D.More information is needed in order to find the reluctance.
Answer: Option C
755. What do you call the characteristic of a magnetic material whereby a change in
magnetization lags the application of a magnetizing force?
A.Hysteresis B.Induction
C.Retentivity D.Reluctance
Answer: Option A
756. Which electromagnetic device has a movable iron core called a plunger?
A.A speaker
B.A dc generator
C.A relay
D.A solenoid
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
RC Circuits
759. In a 20 Vac series RC circuit, if 20 V is read across the resistor and 40 V is
measured across the capacitor, the applied voltage is
A.45 Vac
B.50 Vac
C.60 Vac
D.65 Vac
Answer: Option A
760. Which of the following is the reference vector for parallel RC circuits?
A.R B.V
C.I D.XC
Answer: Option B
761.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
764.
Answer: Option C
765.
Answer: Option D
766. What is the phase angle for a parallel circuit consisting of a 500 kHz, 5 Vac source
with a 47 pF capacitor, and a 4.7 resistor in parallel?
A.55.3° B.–55.3°
C.34.8° D.–34.8°
Answer: Option C
767.
Which circuit is represented by the frequency response curve in the given figure?
A.High-pass filter
B.Low-pass filter
C.Band-pass filter
Band-stop filter
D.
Answer: Option B
768.
Answer: Option A
769.
Answer: Option A
770.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
772.
If the frequency increases in the given circuit, how would the total current change?
A.The total current would increase.
B.The total current would decrease.
C.The total current would remain the same.
More information is needed in order to predict how the total current would
D.
change.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
Transformers
774. When does maximum power transfer happen from the source to the load?
A.When the source resistance is greater than the load resistance
B.When the source resistance is less than the load resistance
C.When there is negligible source resistance
D.When the source resistance equals the load resistance
Answer: Option D
775. A transformer is plugged into a 120 V rms source and has a primary current of 300
mA rms. The secondary is providing 18 V across a 10 load. What is the
efficiency of the transformer?
A.88% B.90%
C.92% D.95%
Answer: Option B
776. The coefficient of coupling between two coils is 0.45. The first coil has an
inductance of 75 mH and the second coil has an inductance of 105 mH. What is the
mutual inductance between the coils?
A.3.54 mH
B.7.88 mH
C.39.9 mH
D.189.3 mH
Answer: Option C
777. Increasing the number of turns of wire on the secondary of a transformer will
A.increase the secondary current
B. decrease the secondary current
C. have no effect on the secondary current
D.increase the primary current
Answer: Option B
778. What is the turns ratio of the transformer needed to match a 1 k source resistance
to a 160 load?
A.2.5:1 B.0.4:1
C.6.25:1 D.16:1
Answer: Option B
779.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
782.
Answer: Option C
783.
What is the power dissipated in the primary of the transformer in the given circuit?
A.25 mW
B.500 mW
C.12.5 W
D.62.5 W
Answer: Option D
784. A special transformer used to convert unbalanced signals to balanced signals is the
A.balun
B. autotransformer
C. center-tapped transformer
D.step-across transformer
Answer: Option A
785.
If the load doubled in value in the given circuit, what reflected resistance would the
source see?
A.80
B.400
C.2 k
D.10 k
Answer: Option A
786. If the primary power of an ideal transformer having a 2:1 voltage ratio is 100 W, the
secondary power is
A.100 W
B.50 W
C.75 W
D.200 W
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
789. A JFET
A.is a current-controlled device
B.has a low input resistance
C.is a voltage-controlled device
D.is always forward-biased
Answer: Option C
D.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
792. The formula used to calculate the approximate ac resistance of the base-emitter
diode (re) is
A.
B.
re 25 mV × IC
C.
D.
Answer: Option A
793. The signal voltage gain of an amplifier, Av, is defined as:
A.
B.Av = IC × RC
C.
D.
Answer: Option C
794. In a class B push-pull amplifier, the transistors are biased slightly above cutoff to
avoid
A.crossover distortion
B.unusually high efficiency
C.negative feedback
D.a low input impedance
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
796. Three different points are shown on a dc load line. The upper point represents the
A.minimum current gain
B.quiescent point
C.saturation point
D.cutoff point
Answer: Option C
797. Which of the following conditions are needed to properly bias an npn transistor
amplifier?
Forward bias the base/emitter junction and reverse bias the base/collector
A.
junction.
Forward bias the collector/base junction and reverse bias the emitter/base
B. junction.
Apply a positive voltage on the n-type material and a negative voltage on the p-
C. type material.
D.Apply a large voltage on the base.
Answer: Option A
798. Often a common-collector will be the last stage before the load; the main function of
this stage is to
A.provide voltage gain
B. buffer the voltage amplifiers from the low-resistance load
C.provide phase inversion
D.provide a high-frequency path to improve the frequency response
Answer: Option B
799. In order for feedback oscillators to have any practical value, the gain has to be
A.< 1
B.self-adjusting
C.stabilized
D.nonlinear
Answer: Option B
800. To get a negative gate-source voltage in a self-biased JFET circuit, you must use a
A.voltage divider
B.source resistor
C.ground
D.negative gate supply voltage
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
802. When using an OTA in a Schmitt-trigger configuration, the trigger points are
controlled by
A. the I out
B.the IBIAS
C.the Vout
D.both Iout and IBIAS
Answer: Option D
803.
A.a B.b
C.c D.d
Answer: Option D
804.
Answer: Option C
805.
A.a B.b
C.c D.d
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
807.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
809.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
811. The voltage gain of an OTA can be calculated using the formula
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: Option B
812. In the classic three-op-amp instrumentation amplifier, the differential voltage gain is
usually produced by the
A.first stage
B.second stage
C. mismatched resistors
D.output op-amp
Answer: Option A
Resistance and Power
813. The resistivity of copper is:
A.9.9
B.10.7
C.16.7
D.17.0
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
815. With Ohm's law, if voltage increases and resistance stays the same:
A.current remains the same
B.power decreases
C.current increases
D.resistance decreases
Answer: Option C
816. Which formula shows a direct proportionality between power and voltage?
A.V = IR
B.P = VI
C.P = IR
D.I = V/R
Answer: Option B
817. With 1 mA of current, what wattage rating should a 470 ohm resistor have?
A.1/4 watt
B.1/2 watt
C.1 watt
D.2 watts
Answer: Option A
818. How is a 3.9 resistor color-coded?
A.red, white, red, gold
B. red, green, orange, silver
C.orange, white, red, gold
D.orange, green, orange, silver
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
823. What current is flowing in the circuit?
A.288 kA
B.2 kA
C.50 mA
D.500 A
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
825. How much energy is stored if 6.24 x 1018 electrons are stored in 4 volts?
A.4 joules
B.1.56 x 1018 electrons
C.1.56 coulombs
D.2.496 x 1019 electrons
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
828. What is the most commonly used conductor in electronics?
A.aluminum B.copper
C.gold D.silver
Answer: Option B
829. With Ohm's law, no change in resistance means that current and voltage will be:
A.directly proportional
B.unable to produce energy
C.the same
D.inversely proportional
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
833. One problem with mechanically variable resistors is noticeable in audio circuits as:
A.scratchy noise
B.lack of bass response
C.variable volume
D.too much treble response
Answer: Option A
834. A color code of orange, orange, orange is for what ohmic value?
A.22 kilohms
B.3300 ohms
C.44000 ohms
D.33 kilohms
Answer: Option D
835.
A conductor's cross-sectional area in circular mils for inch is:
A.500 cmils
B.100,000 cmils
C.1,000,000 cmils
D.500,000,000 cmils
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
838. How many basic types of resistors exist?
A.1 B.2
C.3 D.4
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
840. How many ohms of resistance allows a current of 720 A to flow when 3.6 kV is
applied?
A.200 n
B.5 k
C.200 k
D.5 M
Answer: Option D
841. Which is the most important step utilized when measuring resistors?
A.use the highest possible scale
B.keep test leads short
C.zero the meter before using
D.remove power from the circuit
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
843. How many amps are used by a 100 watt, 120 volt light bulb?
A.1.2 amps
B.12000 amps
C.830 mA
D.12 amps
Answer: Option C
844. The source is 24 volts and the load resistance is 100 . What is the load current?
A.2.4 A
B.240 mA
C.24 mA
D.2.4 mA
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
848. How many connections does a rheostat have?
A.1 B.2
C.3 D.4
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
850. The load resistance increases. How will the load current change?
A.vary
B. remain constant
C.increase
D.decrease
Answer: Option D
851. What is the power dissipated by a 1.2 k resistor with 12 volts across it?
A.12 W
B.1.2 W
C..12 W
D.12 mW
Answer: Option C
852. How many joules of energy will a 10 W lamp dissipate in one minute?
A.10 joules
B.60 joules
C.600 joules
D.3600 joules
Answer: Option C
853. Which type of test equipment is used to measure resistors?
A.ohmmeter
B.ammeter
C.voltmeter
D.watt meter
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
858. A 22-gauge wire will have a diameter in mils of:
A.10.03 B.22.35
C.45.26 D.71.96
Answer: Option B
The word work means that:
A.energy has been transferred
859. B.it is inversely related to energy
C.no energy has been transferred
work and energy are not related
D.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
862. One advantage of a carbon film resistor over a carbon composition resistor is:
A.less circuit noise
B.smaller size
C.higher wattage
D.poor tolerance
Answer: Option A
863. If a metallic conductor has a positive temperature coefficient of resistance, then:
A.as temperature increases, resistance decreases
B.as current increases, resistance decreases
C.as voltage increases, current increases
D.as temperature increases, resistance increases
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
865. If a calculator display was "0.00263," what would this answer be in percent?
A.0.026% B.0.26%
C.2.63% D.26.3%
Answer: Option B
866. A 33 k resistor with a 20% tolerance checks out as ok with which of the following
ohmmeter readings?
A.26400 ohms
B.24183 ohms
C.6600 ohms
D.39970 ohms
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
868. After a lamp is turned on, its filament resistance will change to become:
A.less resistive
B.cooler
C.brighter
D.more resistive
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
873. One ampere of current flowing through one ohm of resistance is equal to:
A.1 horsepower
B.1 Btu
C.1 watt
D.1 joule
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
Semiconductor Principles
875. Intrinsic semiconductor material is characterized by a valence shell of how many
electrons?
A.1 B.2
C.4 D.6
Answer: Option C
876. Ionization within a P-N junction causes a layer on each side of the barrier called the:
A.junction
B.depletion region
C.barrier voltage
D.forward voltage
Answer: Option B
877. What is the most significant development in electronics since World War II?
A.the development of color TV
B.the development of the diode
C.the development of the transistor
D.the development of the TRIAC
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
880. Silicon atoms combine into an orderly pattern called a:
A.covalent bond
B. crystal
C.semiconductor
D.valence orbit
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
885. In "p" type material, minority carriers would be:
A.holes B.dopants
C.slower D.electrons
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
887. When an electron jumps from the valence shell to the conduction band, it leaves a
gap. What is this gap called?
A.energy gap
B.hole
C.electron-hole pair
D.recombination
Answer: Option B
888. Forward bias of a silicon P-N junction will produce a barrier voltage of
approximately how many volts?
A.0.2 B.0.3
C.0.7 D.0.8
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
890. When and who discovered that more than one transistor could be constructed on a
single piece of semiconductor material:
A. 9, William Schockley
B.1955, Walter Bratten
C.1959, Robert Noyce
D.1960, John Bardeen
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
A.12 V
B.11.7 V
C.11.3 V
D.0 V
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
903. When an input delta of 2 V produces a transconductance of 1.5 mS, what is the drain
current delta?
A.666 mA
B.3 mA
C.0.75 mA
D.0.5 mA
Answer: Option B
904. When not in use, MOSFET pins are kept at the same potential through the use of:
A.shipping foil
B. nonconductive foam
C.conductive foam
D.a wrist strap
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option C
906. A "U" shaped, opposite-polarity material built near a JFET-channel center is called
the:
A.gate
B.block
C.drain
D.heat sink
Answer: Option A
907. When testing an n-channel D-MOSFET, resistance G to D = , resistance G to S =
, resistance D to SS = and 500 , depending on the polarity of the ohmmeter,
and resistance D to S = 500 . What is wrong?
A.short D to S
B.open G to D
C.open D to SS
D.nothing
Answer: Option D
908. In the constant-current region, how will the IDS change in an n-channel JFET?
A.As VGS decreases ID decreases.
B.As VGS increases ID increases.
C.As VGS decreases ID remains constant.
D.As VGS increases ID remains constant.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
912. JFET terminal "legs" are connections to the drain, the gate, and the:
A.channel B.source
C. substrate D.cathode
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
914. With the E-MOSFET, when gate input voltage is zero, drain current is:
A.at saturation
B.zero
C.IDSS
D.widening the channel
Answer: Option B
915. With a 30-volt VDD, and an 8-kilohm drain resistor, what is the E-MOSFET Q point
voltage, with ID = 3 mA?
A.6 V
B.10 V
C.24 V
D.30 V
Answer: Option A
916. When an input signal reduces the channel size, the process is called:
A.enhancement
B.substrate connecting
C.gate charge
D.depletion
Answer: Option D
917. Which JFET configuration would connect a high-resistance signal source to a low-
resistance load?
A.source follower
B.common-source
C.common-drain
D.common-gate
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
920. When applied input voltage varies the resistance of a channel, the result is called:
A.saturization
B.polarization
C.cutoff
D.field effect
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
922. When the JFET is no longer able to control the current, this point is called the:
A.breakdown region
B.depletion region
C.saturation point
D.pinch-off region
Answer: Option A
923. With a JFET, a ratio of output current change against an input voltage change is
called:
A.transconductance B.siemens
C.resistivity D.gain
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
925. How will a D-MOSFET input impedance change with signal frequency?
A.As frequency increases input impedance increases.
B.As frequency increases input impedance is constant.
C.As frequency decreases input impedance increases.
D.As frequency decreases input impedance is constant.
Answer: Option C
926. The type of bias most often used with E-MOSFET circuits is:
A.constant current
B.drain-feedback
C.voltage-divider
D.zero biasing
Answer: Option B
927. The transconductance curve of a JFET is a graph of:
A.IS versus VDS
B.IC versus VCE
C.ID versus VGS
D.ID × RDS
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
929. Using voltage-divider biasing, what is the voltage at the gate VGS?
A.5.2 V
B.4.2 V
C.3.2 V
D.2.2 V
Answer: Option A
930. The overall input capacitance of a dual-gate D-MOSFET is lower because the
devices are usually connected:
A.in parallel
B. with separate insulation
C. with separate inputs
D.in series
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
Analog to Digital
934. The two basic types of signals are analog and:
A.digilog
B. digital
C.vetilog
D.sine wave
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
938. A data conversion system may be used to interface a digital computer system to:
A.an analog output device
B.a digital output device
C.an analog input device
D.a digital printer
Answer: Option A
Logic Gates
939. The output will be a LOW for any case when one or more inputs are zero in a(n):
A.OR gate
B.NOT gate
C.AND gate
D.NAND gate
Answer: Option C
940. If a signal passing through a gate is inhibited by sending a low into one of the inputs,
and the output is HIGH, the gate is a(n):
A.AND B.NAND
C.NOR D.OR
Answer: Option B
941. A single transistor can be used to build which of the following digital logic gates?
A.AND gates
B.OR gates
C.NOT gates
D.NAND gates
Answer: Option C
942. The logic gate that will have HIGH or "1" at its output when any one of its inputs is
HIGH is a(n):
A.OR gate
B.AND gate
C.NOR gate
D.NOT gate
Answer: Option A
943. How many NAND circuits are contained in a 7400 NAND IC?
A.1 B.2
C.4 D.8
Answer: Option C
944. Exclusive-OR (XOR) logic gates can be constructed from what other logic gates?
A.OR gates only
B.AND gates and NOT gates
C.AND gates, OR gates, and NOT gates
D.OR gates and NOT gates
Answer: Option C
945. How many truth table entries are necessary for a four-input circuit?
A.4 B.8
C.12 D.16
Answer: Option D
947. The basic logic gate whose output is the complement of the input is the:
A.OR gate
B.AND gate
C.INVERTER gate
D.comparator
Answer: Option C
948. What input values will cause an AND logic gate to produce a HIGH output?
A.At least one input is HIGH.
B.At least one input is LOW.
C.All inputs are HIGH.
D.All inputs are LOW.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option D
951. The range of a valid LOW input is:
A.0.0 V to 0.4 V
B.0.4 V to 0.8 V
C.0.4 V to 1.8 V
D.0.4 V to 2.4 V
Answer: Option B
952. When an IC has two rows of parallel connecting pins, the device is referred to as:
A.a QFP
B.a DIP
C.a phase splitter
D.CMOS
Answer: Option B
953. Which digital IC package type makes the most efficient use of printed circuit board
space?
A.SMT
B.TO can
C.flat pack
D.DIP
Answer: Option A
954. The problem of interfacing IC logic families that have different supply voltages
(VCCs) can be solved by using a:
A.level-shifter
B.tri-state shifter
C.translator
D.level-shifter or translator
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
956. Which of the following summarizes the important features of emitter-coupled logic
(ECL)?
A.negative voltage operation, high speed, and high power consumption
B. good noise immunity, negative logic, high frequency capability, low power
dissipation, and short propagation time
C. slow propagation time, high frequency response, low power consumption, and
high output voltage swings
poor noise immunity, positive supply voltage operation, good low-frequency
D.
operation, and low power
Answer: Option A
957. What quantities must be compatible when interfacing two different logic families?
A.only the currents
B. both the voltages and the currents
C.only the voltages
D.both the power dissipation and the impedance
Answer: Option B
958. CMOS logic is probably the best all-around circuitry because of its:
A.packing density
B.low power consumption
C.very high noise immunity
D.low power consumption and very high noise immunity
Answer: Option D
959. Low power consumption achieved by CMOS circuits is due to which construction
characteristic?
A.complementary pairs
B.connecting pads
C.DIP packages
D.small-scale integration
Answer: Option A
960. A TTL totem pole circuit is designed so that the output transistors are:
A.always on together
B. providing phase splitting
C.providing voltage regulation
D.never on together
Answer: Option D
961. The time needed for an output to change as the result of an input change is known
as:
A.noise immunity
B.fanout
C.propagation delay
D.rise time
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
964. A logic probe is placed on the output of a gate and the display indicator is dim. A
logic pulser is used on each of the input terminals, but the output indication does not
change. What is wrong?
The dim indication on the logic probe indicates that the supply voltage is probably
A.
low.
B.The output of the gate appears to be open.
C.The LOW indication is the result of a bad ground connection on the logic probe.
D.The gate is a tri-state device.
Answer: Option B
965. A +5 V PCB power source that has been "pulled down" to a +3.4 V level may be
due to:
A.a circuit open
B.a faulty regulator
C.the half-split method
D.a circuit short
Answer: Option D
966. Measurement of pulse width should be taken at a 50% mean of the:
A.overshoot and undershoot
B.rise and fall
C.damping and ringing
D.leading and trailing amplitude
Answer: Option B
967. Which test equipment best allows a comparison between input and output signals?
A.an oscilloscope
B. a logic probe
C. a spectrum analyzer
D.a multitrace oscilloscope
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
969. What is the next step after discovering a faulty gate within an IC?
A.repair the gate
B.resolder the tracks
C.replace the IC involved
D.recheck the power source
Answer: Option C
970. The use of a multimeter with digital circuits allows the measurement of:
A.pulse width
B.voltage or resistance
C.current
D.pulse trains
Answer: Option B
971. The use of triggered sweep when using an oscilloscope provides more accuracy in
which area?
A.frequency
B.amplitude
C.graticule activity
D.timing
Answer: Option D
972. The time needed for a pulse to increase from 10% to 90% of its amplitude defines:
A.pulse width
B.propagation delay
C.rise time
D.duty cycle
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
975. When both inputs of a J-K flip-flop cycle, the output will:
A.be invalid
B.not change
C.change
D.toggle
Answer: Option B
976. Latches constructed with NOR and NAND gates tend to remain in the latched
condition due to which configuration feature?
A.asynchronous operation
B.low input voltages
C.gate impedance
D.cross coupling
Answer: Option D
977. The 555 timer can be used in which of the following configurations?
A. astable, monostable
B.monostable, bistable
C.astable, toggled
D.bistable, tristable
Answer: Option A
978. A basic S-R flip-flop can be constructed by cross-coupling which basic logic gates?
A.AND or OR gates
B.XOR or XNOR gates
C.NOR or NAND gates
D.AND or NOR gates
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
980. If both inputs of an S-R NAND latch are LOW, what will happen to the output?
A.The output would become unpredictable.
B.The output will toggle.
C.The output will reset.
D.No change will occur in the output.
Answer: Option A
981. The equation for the output frequency of a 555 timer operating in the astable mode
is: .
What value of C1 will be required if R1 = 1 , R2 = 1 , and f = 1 kHz?
A.0.33 F
B.0.48 F
C.480 F
D.33 nF
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
984. The truth table for an S-R flip-flop has how many VALID entries?
A.3 B.1
C.4 D.2
Answer: Option A
985. What is the significance of the J and K terminals on the J-K flip-flop?
A.There is no known significance in their designations.
The J represents "jump," which is how the Q output reacts whenever the clock
B. goes HIGH and the J input is also HIGH.
The letters represent the initials of Johnson and King, the co-inventors of the J-K
C. flip-flop.
D.All of the other letters of the alphabet are already in use.
Answer: Option A
986. Which of the following describes the operation of a positive edge-triggered D-type
flip-flop?
A.If both inputs are HIGH, the output will toggle.
B.The output will follow the input on the leading edge of the clock.
C.When both inputs are LOW, an invalid state exists.
The input is toggled into the flip-flop on the leading edge of the clock and is
D.
passed to the output on the trailing edge of the clock.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
990. Adding the two's complement of –11 + (–2) will yield which two's complement
answer?
A.1110 1101
B.1111 1001
C.1111 0011
D.1110 1001
Answer: Option C
991. The two's complement system is to be used to add the signed numbers 11110010
and 11110011. Determine, in decimal, the sign and value of each number and their
sum.
A.–14 and –13; –27
B.–113 and –114; 227
C.–27 and –13; 40
D.–11 and –16; –27
Answer: Option A
992. The fast carry or look-ahead carry circuits found in most 4-bit parallel-adder
circuits:
A.increase ripple delay
B. add a 1 to complemented inputs
C.reduce propagation delay
D.determine sign and magnitude
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
995. Use the two's complement system to add the signed numbers 11110010 and
11110011. Determine, in decimal, the sign and value of each number and their sum.
A.–14 and –13; –27
B.–113 and –114; 227
C.–27 and –13; 40
D.–11 and –16; –27
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
997. Adding in binary, the decimal values 26 + 27 will produce a sum of:
A.111010 B.110110
C.110101 D.101011
Answer: Option C
998. Binary subtraction of a decimal 15 from 43 will utilize which two's complement?
A.101011 B.110000
C.011100 D.110001
Answer: Option D
999. When multiplying in binary the decimal values 13 × 11, what is the third partial
product?
A.100000 B.100001
C.0000 D.1011
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
1002. A 4-bit R/2R digital-to-analog (DAC) converter has a reference of 5 volts. What is
the analog output for the input code 0101.
A.0.3125 V
B.3.125 V
C.0.78125 V
D.–3.125 V
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
1006. The difference between analog voltage represented by two adjacent digital codes,
or the analog step size, is the:
A.quantization B.accuracy
C.resolution D.monotonicity
Answer: Option C
1007. The primary disadvantage of the flash analog-to digital converter (ADC) is that:
A.it requires the input voltage to be applied to the inputs simultaneously
B.a long conversion time is required
a large number of output lines is required to simultaneously decode the input
C. voltage
a large number of comparators is required to represent a reasonable sized binary
D.number
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
1009. What is the major advantage of the R/2R ladder digital-to-analog (DAC), as
compared to a binary-weighted digital-to-analog DAC converter?
A. It only uses two different resistor values.
B. It has fewer parts for the same number of inputs.
C.Its operation is much easier to analyze.
The virtual ground is eliminated and the circuit is therefore easier to understand
D.and troubleshoot.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
1013. Sample-and-hold circuits in analog-to digital converters (ADCs) are designed to:
A.sample and hold the output of the binary counter during the conversion process
B.stabilize the comparator's threshold voltage during the conversion process
C.stabilize the input analog signal during the conversion process
sample and hold the D/A converter staircase waveform during the conversion
D.process
Answer: Option C