2019 LAE Practice Test

THE SIGMA RHO FRATERNITY
2019 LAE Practice Test

LAE TIPS AND TRICKS
General Tips:
1. Take a diagnostic test.
2. Consider taking a refresher course.
3. Skip the difficult questions first.
4. Refrain from leaving any question blank.
5. Rest well before the exam.
6. Read the instructions carefully.
Abstract Reasoning
• Take practice tests online.
Reading Comprehension
• Familiarize yourself with different literary forms—prose, poetry, excerpts from articles and law
cases, etc. The technique is to know how to read and interpret/comprehend each form.
• Read the choices first before the passages (to familiarize yourself with what to focus on).
• Be careful of trick questions.
Vocabulary
• Read a lot.
• Try to familiarize yourself with new words.
• “Sounds-like” rule does not usually apply because the choices tend to all sound alike.
• Review verb tenses.
Logic and Critical Thinking

• Familiarize yourself with valid forms of syllogisms such as modus ponens, modus tollens, etc.
• Download free tests online to practice.
• Try to simplify the given (by substituting the objects with symbols or by rearranging them).
Some details are only there to distract you.
Mathematics
• Scan the choices. Eliminate unlikely answers.
• Familiarize yourself with basic formulae in geometry (esp. shapes), algebra, and physics (work,
distance, etc.).
General Info
• Coverage is broad.
• Read up on current events (newspapers or online articles) or watch TV news shows.
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EXAM DAY TIPS
What to bring:
o Exam Permit
o Pencils
o Watch, to keep track of time
o Jacket, in case the room is too cold for your comfort
o Snacks, in case you get hungry
o Water
o Medicine (e.g. ibuprofen, paracetamol or loperamide), in case of emergency
Before the LAE:

• Avoid overeating and consuming oily food.
• Plan to be at the exam location at least an hour before the exam starts to account for traffic
conditions.
• Use to the restroom.
During the LAE

• Do not open the test folder unless told to do so by the exam proctor.
• If you find it difficult to answer a particular question, skip to the next one.
• Keep track of time.
• Avoid excessive restroom breaks.
After LAE:
• Rest.
• Inquire from the Office of the College Secretary about the date of the release of results.
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MATHEMATICS
1. Paolo has a total of ninety P20, P50, and P100-bills. She has three and a half times as many P50 as
P20-bills, and one-half as many P100 as P20-bills. How much money does he have?
a. P600 d. P4350
b. P1500 e. None of the above
c. P2250
2. What number comes next in the following series? 4, 16, 36, 64, …
a. 94 d. 100
b. 81 e. None of the above
c. 64
3. The larger of two numbers is six more than six times the smaller number. The larger number is
also 122 more than two times the smaller number. What is the smaller number?
a. 180 d. 29
c. 36
4. The measures of two angles in a trapezoid are in the ratio of 2:4. The measure of the larger angle
is twenty-four degrees less than three times the smaller angle. What is the measure of the larger
angle?
a. 24 degrees d. 108 degrees
b. 48 degrees e. None of the above
c. 72 degrees
5. Two airline buses leave an airport at the same time in opposite directions. The first plane is
traveling at 325 kph and the other at 275 kph. How long will it take for the planes to be 2,700
kilometers apart?
a. 4 hours d. 45 minutes
b. 270 minutes e. None of the above
c. 5 hours
6. Jaypee calculated the total revenue for the night to be P54,540. A total of 540 tickets and
souvenirs were sold. If a ticket cost P112 each and a souvenir costs P68, how many tickets were
sold?
a. 420 d. 120
c. 135
7. Trinidad has a total of sixty P100, P200 and P500-bills. She has a total of P16,800. She has eight
more P500 than P100-bills and eight fewer P500 than P200-bills. How many of P200-bill does she
have?
4
a. 12 d. 60
c. 28
8. One angle in triangle ABC is 31 degrees. The difference between the measures of the other two
angles is 63 degrees. What is the measure of each angle in triangle ABC?
a. 31, 43, 106 d. 31, 74, 75
b. 31, 54, 95 e. None of the above
c. 31, 63, 8
9. The ratio of adult tickets to student tickets for the play was 4:5. If the sum of the adult tickets and
one half of the student’s tickets is 260, how many adult tickets were sold?
a. 80 d. 200
c. 160
10. Factor: a3 – 27
a. (a – 3)3 d. (a – 3)(a2 + 3a + 9)
b. (a + 3)(a – 3) e. None of the above
c. (a2 – 9)(a + 3)
11. The sum of the digits of a three-digit number is 12. The tens digit is two more than the ones digit.
The hundreds digit is five less than three times the ones digit. What is the number?
a. 642 d. 660
c. 831
12. If Cyril were three times as old as he was five years ago, he will be sixty less than six times his
current age. How old is Cyril?
a. 60 d. 15
c. 25
13. The Daily Bugle offers advertisement space at P98 a page printed in colored. How many pages
would P2,450 buy?
a. 35 d. 20
c. 25
14. How much water should be added to one liter of pure alcohol to make a mixture of 50% alcohol?
a. 1 liter d. 0.5 liters
b. 2 liters e. None of the above
c. 1.5 liters
5
15. What are two consecutive integers, such that seven times the larger minus three times the smaller
is 95?
a. 21 and 22 d. 23 and 24
b. 24 and 25 e. None of the above
c. 22 and 23
16. Sixty-three more than four-fifths of a number equals 111. What is the number?
a. 60 d. 32
c. 54
17. The ratio of votes for Raf to votes for Jayson in an election is 13:5. There were a total of 1,530
votes. How many people voted for Jayson?
a. 1105 d. 85
c. 425
18. The sum of three positive consecutive integers is less than 346. What pair of numbers has the
greatest sum?
a. 111, 112, 113 d. 115, 116, 117
c. 114, 115, 116
19. Simon is nine years older than Jairus. Simon is four times as old as Joter was three years ago.
Joter is
eighteen years younger than Marshall. How old is Jairus?
a. 10 d. 28
c. 19
20. Emarlu played a few games of bowling. In the third game he scored 80 more than in the second
game. In the first game he scored 110 less than in the third game. His total score for the first two
games was 208. If he wants an average score of 146, what must he score in the fourth game?
a. 89 d. 199
c. 177
21. Evaluate: 1 + 16 ÷ 2 • 8 – 10
a. –8 d. 0
c. 53
22. Which of the following fractions has the greatest value?
6
a. 3 / 7 d. 4 / 9
b. 8 / 13 e. None of the above
c. 6 / 11
23. There are three consecutive even integers. Half the sum of the second and third numbers is 35.
What are the integers?
a. 69, 71, 73 d. 32, 34, 36
c. 33, 35, 37
24. If 27 is added to a two-digit number, the original number will be reversed. The number is three
less than four times the sum of its digits. What is the number?
a. 25 d. 63
c. 52
25. Tank drove to Alex's house at 45 kph. Neil's house is 28 kilometers away. Leia arrived at Neil's
house at 4:27 PM. What time did she leave?
a. 4:02 PM d. 3:52 PM
b. 4:52 PM e. None of the above
c. 5:02 PM
26. A rectangle, whose perimeter is 144 feet, has a length that is 6 feet longer than its width. What is
the area of the rectangle?
a. 4,752 ft2 d. 5,175 ft2
b. 5,616 ft 2
e. None of the above
c. 5,184 ft 2
27. A rectangle and a square have the same area. The length of the rectangle is 48 inches more than
two times its width. The length of a side of the square is 48 inches. The side of the square is 72
inches less than five times the width of the rectangle. What is the area of the rectangle and the
square?
a. 24 in2 d. 2304 in2
b. 48 in2 e. None of the above
c. 576 in 2
28. Evaluate: 22 + 90.5 + 21 + 2250

a. 22 d. 358
c. 10
29. Arnold owns three houses and makes money by renting them out. He charges three times as
much per month for the second house than for the first. The monthly rent for the third house is
P2,610 less than the sum of the monthly rents for the first two houses. The first house was vacant
for six months, but otherwise rents were received every month from the tenants of the three
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houses. Arnold had total rent receipts of P186,390 for the year. How much, per month, was the
rent for the third house?
a. P2,071 d. P6,300
b. P2,100 e. None of the above
c. P5,790
30. Evaluate: | 4 – 5 | – | 3 – 5 | – | 3 – 4 |
a. –2 d. 0
b. –1 e. None of the above
c. 1
–––END–––
8
GRAMMATICAL REASONING
GRAMMAR
1. The Lobo Corporation _____ its losses over the past seven years. (2)
a. had been doubling
b. has doubling
c. has doubled
d. had doubled
2. I _____ to Ilocos and seen the exhibits at Marcos’ museum. (10)

a. will go
b. had been
c. have been
d. went
3. If Marshall had locked his car properly, it _____ stolen. (3)

a. was not
b. would not have been
c. would not be
d. will not be
4. _____ get tired of driving on the same route everyday? (7)

a. Had you ever
b. Have you ever
c. Are you ever
d. Do you ever
5. Neither Cyril nor the other janitors filed _____ income tax returns. (4)
a. ours
b. theirs
c. their
d. her
6. _____ winning in spite of the odds inspired us all. (1)

a. Your
b. Him
c. You
d. He
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7. Almost all middle-born children place great importance on _____ peer group. (5)
a. you
b. his
c. their
d. our
8. In my company, only officials are allowed _____ share option schemes. (6)
a. to
b. of
c. with
d. for
9. The question of _____ we should condemn must be decided by next week. (8)
a. who
b. whom
c. which
d. that
10. The majority of construction workers _____ college graduates. (9)

a. was
b. is
c. are
d. has been
IDENTIFYING ERRORS
11. He isn’t sure if he should buy the new car now or wait until he receives his bonus. No error.
a b c d e
12. The Medical experts did not conclude that the negative side affects of the drug offset the drug’s
a b c
positive benefits. No error.
d e
13. Despite rising voter drive, there are still many city-dwellers who are not registered to vote. No error.
a b c d e
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14. Over the past few decades, the mining industry had grown into a multi-billion peso industry that
a b c
employs tens of thousands of laborers. No error.
d e
15. Most of his constituents agree that it is reasonable for the representative to not acquiesce
a b c
to the demands of the transit authority. No error.
d e
16. One cannot perform multiple tasks simultaneously if he is easily distracted by

a b c
one’s surroundings. No error.
d e
17. As he held open the door for her, she could not ignore the look on his eyes, a look that
a
aggravated her self-consciousness as they proceeded along the alley. No error.
b c d e
18. Reading widely in her field, making her self available to students for consultation, and
a b
her sophisticated research paid off for Professor Lobo; she was awarded tenure last year. No error.
c d e.
19. Debating the anti-contraceptive bill was the first order of business for the House; to set the
a b c
calendar for the upcoming session was to follow. No error.
d e
20. Youth, as the Egyptians and other early civilizations knew, are best spent as a time of learning
a b c
and of recreation. No error.
d e
SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT
21. It is highly desirable that you furnish evidence of your expenses before you submit your ending
accounts.
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a. It is highly desirable that you should furnish evidence of your expenses

b. It is highly desirable that you furnish evidence of your expenses
c. You must furnish evidence of your expenses
d. It is highly to be desired that you furnish evidences of your expenses
22. The best way to promote innovative thinking is not to promise financial rewards for ideas, but to
ensure that the person making the suggestion receives recognition for his contribution.
a. but to ensure that the person who makes the suggestion will be receiving recognition
for his contribution
b. but to ensure that the person making the suggestion receives recognition for his
contribution
c. but rather ensure that suggestion-maker receives recognition for his contribution
d. but rather by ensuring that the person making the suggestion receives recognition for
his contribution
23. Only two out of every 150,000 chemical compounds proves useful in the field of
pharmaceuticals, thus many research scientists spend their entire careers to investigate drugs
that will never receive FDA approval.
a. many research scientists spend their entire career in the investigation of drugs
b. many research scientists spend their entire careers to investigate drugs
c. many research scientists investigate drugs in their entire careers
d. many a research scientist spends his or her entire career investigating drugsNone of the
above
24. Among the many reasons for his loss in the election was his arrogant assumption that his
constituents were incapable of understanding economic conditions, and his unjustifiable attack
on his main rival.
a. were his arrogant assumption that his constituents would be incapable of understanding
economics
b. was his arrogant assumption that his constituents were incapable of understanding
economic conditions
c. were his arrogant assumptions that his constituents were incapable of understanding
economical conditions
d. were his arrogant assumption that his constituents were incapable of understanding
economic conditions
25. The government requires that these forms should be submitted before the end of the fiscal
year.
a. that these forms be submitted
b. these forms submission
c. that these forms should be submitted
d. for these forms to be submitted
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26. In the early stages of learning a new language we learn more through listening and attempting
to copy speech patterns and not through reading grammar books.
a. and attempts to copy speech patterns than through reading grammar books
b. and attempting to copy speech patterns and not through reading grammar books
c. and attempts at copying speech patterns than through reading grammar books
d. and attempting to copy speech patterns than through reading grammar books
27. In the fine print at the end of the paper lies the clauses that make us liable for any expenses
that result from civil unrest.
a. lies the clause that make us liable for any expenses that
b. lies the clauses that make us liable for any expenses that
c. lies the clauses that make us liable for any expenses which
d. lie the clauses that makes us liable for any expenses which
28. Rembrandt’s early work has often been interpreted as being in sharp contrast with his later
work, despite there is an essential continuity between the two.
a. with is later work, but
b. with his later work, despite the fact that
c. with his later work, despite
d. with is later work, notwithstanding
29. Trying to keep his balance on the icy surface, the last competitor's ski-tip caught the pole and
somersaulted into the soft snow.
a. the last competitor caught the pole with the tip of her ski, and somersaulted into the
soft snow
b. the last competitor's ski-tip caught the pole and somersaulted into the soft snow
c. the last competitor caught the pole with her ski-tip, which made her somersault into the
soft snow
d. the ski-tip of the last competitor caught the pole and somersaulted in the soft snow
30. If the gardener would sow the seeds in the greenhouse rather than the garden, he might come
up with a better display of leaves.
a. If the gardener were to sow the seeds in the greenhouse rather than in the garden
b. If the gardener would sow the seeds in the greenhouse rather than the garden
c. If the gardener would sow the seeds in the greenhouse instead of the garden
d. If the gardener would sow the seeds in the greenhouse rather than the garden
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SYNONYMS
1. vituperative comments 6. occlude the path

a. slanderous a. obstruct
b. profitable b. presume
c. constructive c. pursue
d. criticism d. discover
e. None of the above e. None of the above
2. scan the gestalt 7. vitiate the reputation
a. appearance a. debase
b. summary b. promote
c. pretense c. suspect
d. modification d. foster
3. place a malediction on the evildoers 8. concept of gemeinschaft
a. blight a. apportionment
b. decree b. individual
c. warrant c. community
d. proclamation d. pleasure
e. None of the above. e.None of the above
4. recommending a nostrum 9. pith of her argument
a. adjournment a. abyss
b. remedy b. bottom
c. explanation c. quintessence
d. stalemate d. benevolence
5. contretemps in the plan 10. lack of compunction
a. antagonists a. remorse
b. derision b. determination
c. hindrance c. trepidation
d. enticement d. poise
14
ANTONYMS
11. opprobrious decision 12. avoid being profligate

a. excoriating a. multiply
b. favorable b. languid
c. reckless c. parsimonious
d. ignominious d. beget
13. inimitable qualities 17. factious leadership
a. exclusive a. unified
b. estimable b. fabricated
c. vile c. truthful
d. conventional d. subjective
14. inchoate actions 18. a saturnine expression on her face
a. undeveloped a. dejected
b. countless b. jovial
c. unacceptable c. closed
d. complete d. disconcerted
15. prolix manuscript 19. obdurate criminals
a. succinct a. confused
b. abundant b. repentant
c. scarce c. hardened
d. occasional d. acquiescent
16. rescind the contract 20. specious accusations
a. annul a. capacious
b. appraise b. spurious
c. sanction c. misleading
d. interpret d. valid
15
ANALOGY (SINGLE)
21. malinger : ail :: flatter : 26. disease : pathologist :: tenet :

a. malice a. student
b. resentment b. theologian
c. appreciate c. teacher
d. humanity d. university
22. quaff : sip :: stride : 27. period : stop :: caret :
a. run a. abbreviate
b. mince b. emphasize
c. walk c. insert
d. leg d. separate
23. proselytize : convert : digress :: 28. sanctuary : refuge :: coffer :
a. reveal a. wood
b. disclose b. protection
c. condone c. valuables
d. deviate d. safety
24. excerpt : novel :: swatch : 29. siren : lure :: sphinx :
a. paper a. perplex
b. cloth b. astound
c. sample c. anger
d. watch d. annoy
25. tyrant : just :: fraud : 30. anesthetic : numbness :: sedative :
a. deception a. pain
b. scrupulous b. migraine
c. hoaxer c. drowsiness
d. pretense d. anxiety
16
ANALOGY (PAIRED)
31. perspicacious : insight :: 36. limerick : poem ::

a. rapacious : magnanimity a. monologue : chorus
b. warm : temperature b. book : novel
c. wealth : scarcity c. waltz : tango
d. churlish : enmity d. aria : song
32. rust : corrosion :: 37. color : spectrum ::
a. vapor : flammability a. sound : waves
b. dew : condensation b. dimension : space
c. solution : precipitation c. cell : organism
d. mold : disinfection d. tone : scale
33. paltry : significance :: 38. misanthrope : people ::
a. opulent : wealth a. xenophobe : strangers
b. banal : originality b. miscreant : dogma
c. oblique : familiarity c. patriot : country
d. redundant : discussion d. rebel : government
34. cogent : convince :: 39. prattle : speak ::
a. irrational : disturb a. lane : stroll
b. dangerous : avoid b. promenade : walk
c. generous : appreciate c. amble : scurry
d. repugnant : repel d. orate : listen
35. disguise : recognition :: 40. stygian : dark ::
a. infidelity : matrimony a. fortuitous : accidental
b. prevarication : statement b. reckless : threatening
c. espionage : diplomacy c. cataclysmic : doomed
d. padding : damage d. abysmal : low
17
SENTENCE COMPLETION
41. Pyridine is a colorless _____ liquid with a sharp choking odor, and therefore must be _____
stored in tightly-stoppered glass bottles to prevent the fumes from escaping.
a. viscous … occasionally
b. corrosive … instantly
c. volatile … prudently
d. viscid … unwittingly
42. Business forecasts usually prove reasonably accurate when the assumption that the future will
be much like the past is _____; in times of major _____ in the business environment, however,
forecasts can be dangerously wrong.
a. satisfied… shifts
b. questioned… surges
c. specified… discontinuities
d. contradicted… improvements
43. The actual _____ of Louis’ position was always _____ by his refusal to compromise after having
initially agreed to negotiate a resolution
a. logic … enhanced
b. uncertainty … alleviated
c. rigidity … betrayed
d. outcome … foreshadowed
44. Politeness is not a _____ attribute of human behavior, but rather a central virtue, one whose
very existence is increasingly being _____ by the faddish requirement to “speak one’s mind”.
a. precious… repudiated
b. superficial … threatened
c. trivial… affected
d. pervasive … undercut
45. That many of the important laws of science were discovered during experiments designed to
_____ other phenomena suggests that experimental results are the _____ of inevitable natural
forces rather than of planning.
a. alter… adjuncts
b. illuminate.. consequences
c. analyze … foundations
d. disprove… predecessors
18
46. Early _____ of hearing loss is _____ by the fact that the other senses are able to compensate for
moderate amounts of loss, so that people frequently do not know that their hearing is
imperfect.
a. detection … complicated
b. discovery … indicated
c. development … prevented
d. treatment … facilitated.
None of the above
47. Non-violent demonstrations often create such tensions that a community that has constantly
refused to _____ its injustices is forced to correct them: the injustices can no longer be _____.
a. address … eliminated
b. explain … discussed
c. acknowledge … ignored
d. decrease … verified
48. The functions of the hands, eyes, and brain are so _____ that using the hands during early
childhood helps the child’s entire _____ development.
a. enigmatic… psychological
b. regulated… adolescent
c. intertwined… perceptual
d. unalterable… intellectual
49. While it is assumed that the mechanization of work has had a _____ effect on the lives of
workers, there is evidence available to suggest that, on the contrary, mechanization has served
to _____ some of the traditional roles of women.
a. revolutionary… reinforce
b. benign… revise
c. dramatic… undermine
d. debilitating… weaken
50. Although he was very strict with the students in the classroom, his envious colleagues were
under the impression that the students _____ him because of his _____.
a. deplored … ingenuity
b. derided… indolence
c. extolled… insolence
d. revered… leniency
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PARAGRAPH COMPLETION
In an ___(51)___, two hundred mice of a strain that is ___(52)___ free of leukemia were given equal
doses of radiation. Half of the mice were then allowed to eat their usual foods without ___(53)___, while
the other half were given adequate but limited amounts of the same foods. Of the first group, fifty-five
___(54)___ leukemia; of the second, only three.
51. a. account 53. a. restraint

b. experiment b. condition
c. analysis c. trepidation
d. attempt d. hydration
52. a. usually 54. a. acknowledged
b. normally b. infected
c. very c. established
d. conceptually d. developed
A ___(55)___ critic has to ___(56)___ the particular content, unique structure, and special meaning of a
work of art. And here she faces a ___(57)___. The critic must recognize the artistic element of
uniqueness that requires subjective reaction; yet she must not be unduly ___(58)___ by such reactions.
Her likes and dislikes are less ___(59)___ than what the work itself communicates, and her preferences
may ___(60)___ her of certain qualities of the work and thereby prevent an adequate understanding of
it.
55. a. serious 58. a. strained

b. critical b. objectified
c. novice c. admired
d. laconic d. prejudiced
56. a. comprehend 59. a. biased
b. esteem b. attuned
c. question c. dictated
d. admire d. important
57. a. dilemma 60. a. blind
b. retribution b. prevent
c. gratefulness c. relieve
d. realization d. aid
–––END–––
20
LOGICAL REASONING
PREMISES/ASSUMPTIONS
1. Given:
1 out of 5 children catch a cold everyday. I am going to teach a class of 40 children today.
Statement:
I have eight children sick with colds today.
a. The statement is an assumption.

b. The statement is not an assumption.
2. Given:
The Senator has admitted to having an illicit affair and lying to his wife about it. Although the
affair ended a few years ago, and the Senator and his wife are now reconciled, this fact
disqualifies him from seeking higher public office. How could world leaders be expected to
negotiate with a President who has admitted lying to his spouse?
Statement:
A person who could be dishonest in a personal situation is likely to tell a lie in public.

3. Given:
The best mentors never tell their apprentices what to write. Instead, they just try to establish an
environment that is conducive to thorough and creative research, because training an
apprentice through indoctrination is never as effective as encouraging him to develop his skills
independently. Truly impressive scholarly work can be produced only by a student who feels
that he is breaking new ground, or at least treating familiar ground in a new and original
manner.
Statement:
An apprentice cannot create impressive scholarly work if he has been encouraged to create his
own ideas.

4. Given:
In the prior year, Pics yielded a relatively high income from exactly two sources: his real estate
brokerage company and his mutual funds market investments. Although Pics earns far more
from his business than from his fund investments, the money he earns from the funds market is
an important part of his income. Because of series of drops in the funds market, Pics will not
21
earn as much from his investments this year. It follows then that Pics will make substantially less
money this year than he did in the prior year.
Statement:
Increased net profits from Pics’ real estate brokerage business will not offset any loss in funds
market income.

5. Given:
I will graduate in September.
Statement:
I will still be alive in September.

6. Given:
I think some of our universities should be less rigid than they are and professors should not
oppress their students in an undemocratic spirit as some of them do. Yet, it is essential for
professors to make clear what they expect of students. This is like giving a vine a pole on which
to grow.
Statement:
All teachers are undemocratic in class.

7. Given:
What is the most evil– envy, hatred or malice?
Statement:
It is wrong to hate anybody.

8. Given:
The province’s new ordinance limiting the types of garbage that can be disposed of in trash
fires violates our right as citizens. The fact that local environmental damage results from the
burning of certain inorganic materials is not the primary issue. The real concern is the
22
government’s flagrant disregard for the right of the individual to establish what is acceptable on
his or her own property.
Statement:
Personal rights on one’s own property supersede any right or responsibility the government
may have to protect a community from harm.

9. Given:
“I’m all for women having equal rights,” said Boxing Association president Manny Pacquiao.
“But I repeat, women shouldn’t box because a boxer is and should be a man.”
Statement:
Men are born to be boxers.

10. Given:
Suppose that Cyril tells me that he has had a tooth extracted without an anesthetic, and I
express my sympathy, and suppose that I am then asked, “How do you know that not having
anesthetic hurt me?” I might reasonably reply, “Well, I know that it would have hurt me. I have
been to the dentist and know how painful it is to have a toothy filled let alone taken out,
without an anesthetic.”
Statement:
The speaker and Cyril have the same sort of nervous system and that under these conditions,
the speaker would have felt considerable pain, just as Cyril had.

DRAWING CONCLUSIONS
11. If Joter comes to the party, Cyril leaves the party. If Cyril leaves the party, either Raf or Louis
asks Jen to dance. If Jen is asked to dance by either Raf or Louis and Cyril leaves the party, Jen
accepts. If Jen is asked to dance by either Raf or Louis and Cyril does not leave the party, Jen
does not accept. If Cyril does not leave the party,
a. Louis asks Jen to dance.
b. Raf asks Jen to dance.
c. Joter does not come to the party.
23
d. Jen refuses to dance with either Raf or Louis.

12. Empathetic acts make this world a better place. Condoling with the bereaved is a empathetic
act.
a. Therefore, giving sympathy makes people happier.
b. Therefore, in times of sorrow, there is happiness.
c. Therefore, condoling with the bereaved makes this world a better place.
d. Therefore, we should be happy and make this world a better place.
13. The keys to economic stability are low interest rates and a high number of investments. There
cannot be a high number of investments without low interest rates. Therefore,
a. If there are low interest rates, then there are investments.
b. A high number of investments is adequate to guarantee low interest rates.
c. Sluggish economies with low interest rates have few investments.
d. Sluggish economies with high interest rates have few investments.
14. If taxes and customs are reduced then inflation will rise, but if the budget is balanced then
unemployment will increase. If the president keeps his election promises, then either taxes and
customs are reduced or budget is balanced. Therefore,
a. If inflation rises, then the president should balance the budget.
b. If unemployment increases and inflation rises, then the president will not keep his
promises.
c. If the president keeps his election promises, then either inflation will rise or
unemployment will increase.
d. The president should not keep his election promises.
15. Antifreeze lowers the melting point of any liquid to which it is added so that the liquid will not
freeze in very cold weather. It is commonly used to maintain the cooling system in car radiators.
Of course, the weather may become so cold that even antifreeze is not effective, but such a
severe climatic condition rarely occurs in common travel destinations.
a. Severe climatic conditions rarely occur.
b. Antifreeze raises the melting point of some liquids.
c. Antifreeze does not lower the melting point of certain liquids in extreme conditions.
d. It is not often that many travelers who use antifreeze have their systems freeze.
16. If God were willing to prevent evil, but is unable to do so, He would be impotent. If He were
able to prevent evil, but is unwilling to do so, He would be malevolent. Evil can exist only if God
is either unwilling or unable to prevent it. There is evil. If God exists, He is neither impotent nor
malevolent. Therefore,
24
a. God is omnipotent.
b. God does not exist.
c. God is unwilling to prevent evil.
d. God is all-powerful.
17. During the year, researchers have reported the following:

- Heavy coffee consumption can increase the risk of heart attack.
- Drinking a cup of coffee in the morning increases feelings of well being and alertness.
- Boiled coffee increases blood cholesterol levels.
- Coffee may protect against cancer of the colon.
If all these statements are true, which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from this
information?
a. Reducing coffee consumption will make people healthier.
b. Reducing coffee consumption will make people feel better.
c. People at risk of heart attack should limit their coffee drinking.
d. People at risk of cancer should reduce their coffee consumption.
18. Goats make milk out of grass. Farmers take care of the goats that produce milk. Cheese is
made of milk and milk is made of grass.
a. Therefore, cheese is made by farmers.
b. Therefore, goats are made of grass.
c. Therefore, cheese and milk are made of grass.
d. Conclusion cannot be drawn.
19. A recent study of cigarette smokers has shown that 50 percent of cancer patients who are heavy
smokers of unfiltered cigarettes will die of the disease. For cancer patients who are light
smokers of filter cigarettes, the percentage is 20 percent. Which one of the following
conclusions can be drawn from the information above?
a. There are more heavy smokers of unfiltered than light smokers of filter cigarettes.
b. More heavy smokers of unfiltered cigarettes die of cancer than light smokers of
filter cigarettes.
c. A heavy smoker of unfiltered cigarettes who has cancer is more likely to die than a
light smoker of unfiltered cigarettes.
d. A heavy smoker of unfiltered cigarettes who has cancer is more likely to die of the
disease than a light smoker of filtered cigarettes who has cancer.
20. If it will either snow tomorrow or not, then weather predicting is an exact science. It will snow
tomorrow. Therefore,
a. It will not snow tomorrow.
b. Weather predicting is an exact science.
25
c. Weather cannot be predicted exactly.

d. If it snows today, it will not snow tomorrow.
INTERPRETATION
A museum is presenting a series of exhibits of five artists: A, B, C, D, and E.

• Only B and C will be featured in the first exhibit.
• E and three others will be featured in the second exhibit.
• Only A will be featured in the third exhibit.
• More people will perform in the fourth exhibit than in the fifth exhibit.
22. Which of the following must surely be true?

a. A, D, and E will be featured in the fifth exhibit.
b. A and D will be featured in the second exhibit.
c. All five artists will be featured in the fourth exhibit.
d. Four artists will appear in the fifth exhibit.
23. For which of the following pairs of artists is it true that if one appears in an exhibit, the other
must also
appear?
a. E and B
b. E and C
c. E and D
d. B and C
A company employee generates a series of five-digit product codes in accordance with the following
rules:
• The codes use the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, and 4, and no others.
• Each digit occurs exactly once in any code.
• The second digit has a value exactly twice that of the first digit.
• The value of the third digit is less than the value of the fifth digit.
24. If the last digit of an acceptable product code is 1, it must be true that the
a. first digit is 2
b. second digit is 0
c. third digit is 3
d. fourth digit is 4
e. fourth digit is 0
25. Which one of the following must be true about any acceptable product code?
a. The digit 1 appears in some position before the digit 2.
b. The digit 1 appears in some position before the digit 3.
26
c. The digit 2 appears in some position before the digit 3.

d. The digit 3 appears in some position before the digit 0.
e. The digit 4 appears in some position before the digit 3.
26. If the third digit of an acceptable product code is not 0, which one of the following must be
true?
a. The second digit of the product code is 2.
b. The third digit of the product code is 3.
c. The fourth digit of the product code is 0.
d. The fifth digit of the product code is 3.
e. The fifth digit of the product code is 1.
27. Any of the following pairs could be the third and fourth digits, respectively, of an acceptable
product code, EXCEPT:
a. 0, 1
b. 0, 3
c. 1, 0
d. 3, 0
e. 3, 4
28. Which one of the following must be true about any acceptable product code?
a. There is exactly one digit between the digit 0 and the digit 1.
b. There is exactly one digit between the digit 1 and the digit 2.
c. There are at most two digits between the digit 1 and the digit 3.
d. There are at most two digits between the digit 2 and the digit 3.
e. There are at most two digits between the digit 2 and the digit 4.
Exactly three films—Greed, Harvest, and Limelight—are shown during a film club’s festival held on
Thursday, Friday, and Saturday. Each film is shown at least once during the festival but never more than
once on a given day.
On each day at least one film is shown. Films are shown one at a time. The following conditions apply:
• On Thursday Harvest is shown, and no film is shown after it on that day.
• On Friday either Greed or Limelight, but not both, is shown, and no film is shown after it on that
day.
• On Saturday either Greed or Harvest, but not both, is shown, and no film is shown after it on
that day.
29. Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate description of the order in which
the films are shown at the festival?
a. Thursday: Limelight, then Harvest; Friday: Limelight; Saturday: Harvest
b. Thursday: Harvest; Friday: Greed, then Limelight; Saturday: Limelight, then Greed
c. Thursday: Harvest; Friday: Limelight; Saturday: Limelight, then Greed
27
d. Thursday: Greed, then Harvest, then Limelight; Friday: Limelight; Saturday: Greed
e. Thursday: Greed, then Harvest; Friday: Limelight, then Harvest; Saturday: Harvest
30. Which one of the following CANNOT be true?

a. Harvest is the last film shown on each day of the festival.
b. Limelight is shown on each day of the festival.
c. Greed is shown second on each day of the festival.
d. A different film is shown first on each day of the festival.
e. A different film is shown last on each day of the festival.
31. If Limelight is never shown again during the festival once Greed is shown, then which one of the
following is the maximum number of film showings that could occur during the festival?
a. three
b. four
c. five
d. six
e. seven
32. If Greed is shown exactly three times, Harvest is shown exactly twice, and Limelight is shown
exactly once, then which one of the following must be true?
a. All three films are shown on Thursday.
b. Exactly two films are shown on Saturday.
c. Limelight and Harvest are both shown on Thursday.
d. Greed is the only film shown on Saturday.
e. Harvest and Greed are both shown on Friday.
33. If Limelight is shown exactly three times, Harvest is shown exactly twice, and Greed is shown
exactly once, then which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the films that
could be the first film shown on Thursday?
a. Harvest
b. Limelight
c. Greed, Harvest
d. Greed, Limelight
e. Greed, Harvest, Limelight
INFERENCES
34. Premises:
Rochelle prefers Feature Writing to Editorial Writing. She likes Feature Writing, however, less
than she likes Photography. She actually finds Photography preferable to any other college
course, and she dislikes Physical Education more than she dislikes Differential Calculus.
28
Statement:
Rochelle likes Feature Writing better than she likes Differential Calculus.
a. The statement follows the given premises.

b. The statement does not follow the given premises.
35. Premises:
Lawyers are always free to consult law books. Physicians often look up cases in medical texts.
Everyone should be allowed a similar freedom of reference.
Statement:
Therefore, students should be permitted to use their textbooks during examinations.
36. Premises:
Nothing is perfect. Everything is imperfect.
Statement:
If nothing is not something, then given any individual thing whatever, it is not perfect.
37. Premises:
There are at least three spies at a diplomatic reception. At least one spy knows the true identity
of every other spy at the reception. At most, two spies know each other’s true identities.
Statement:
If a spy knows the true identity of another spy, that second spy in turn knows the true identity of
the first.
38. Premises:
If the Board approves the new proposal, the office will move to a new location immediately. If
the office moves, five new supervisors will be appointed immediately. The Board approved the
new proposal.
Statement:
No new supervisors were appointed.
29
39. Premises:
In Marshall and Joter’s class, everyone likes Constitutional Law or Persons or both. But Ces does
not like Science.
Statement:
Anyone in class who does not like Persons likes Constitutional Law.

40. Premises:
If the victim had money in his pockets, then robbery wasn’t the motive for the crime. But either
robbery or vengeance was the motive for the crime. The victim has money in his pockets.
Statement:
Therefore, vengeance must have been the motive for the crime.

41. Premises:
Jen is dining at a Japanese restaurant. She will order either combination platter #5 or
combination platter #8, but not both. If she orders combination platter #5, she will eat tekka
maki. If she orders combination platter #8, she will eat ebi sushi.
Statement:
Jenny will eat either tekka maki or ebi sushi, but not both.

42. Premises:
All women who have friends are happy. All women either have friends or are happy.
Statement:
Some women who have friends are not happy.

43. Premises:
A few mascots are sad. All mascots are always funny. Adults cannot be sad and funny at the
same time.
30
Statement:
No sad mascots are adult.
ARGUMENTS
44. An airline representative announced the introduction of a new pricing system that uses
sophisticated computer technology. Based on up-to-the-minute information on sales, the
system identifies and continually updates peak times of high demand and off-peak times of low
demand, keeping prices high when demand is high and lowering prices to attract customers
when demand is low. As a result, the airline anticipates that a large number of customers will
choose to travel off-peak in order to experience savings, while those who wish to travel at peak
times will enjoy greater availability due to higher prices. The airline therefore anticipates that
the majority of customers will experience significant benefits as a result of the new system.
Which one of the following indicates an error in the reasoning on the part of the airline?
a. The airline displays naïve trust in the possibilities of technology.
b. The airline’s conclusion rests on a result that would cancel out the benefit.
c. The airline fails to factor in the cost of implementing the new system.
d. The airline fails to establish the percentage of customers who will benefit.
45. Ethicist: On average, animals raised on grain must be fed sixteen pounds of grain to produce
one pound of meat. A pound of meat is more nutritious for humans than a pound of grain, but
sixteen pounds of grain could feed many more people than could a pound of meat. With grain
yields leveling off, large areas of farmland going out of production each year, and the
population rapidly expanding, we must accept the fact that consumption of meat will soon be
morally unacceptable. Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the ethicist’s
argument?
a. Even though it has been established that a vegetarian diet can be healthy, many people
prefer to eat meat and are willing to pay for it.
b. Often, cattle or sheep can be raised to maturity on grass from pastureland that is
unsuitable for any other kind of farming.
c. If a grain diet is supplemented with protein derived from non-animal sources, it can
have nutritional value equivalent to that of a diet containing meat.
d. Although prime farmland near metropolitan areas is being lost rapidly to suburban
development, we could reverse this trend by choosing to live in areas that are already
urban.
e. Nutritionists agree that a diet composed solely of grain products is not adequate for
human health.
46. Self-confidence is a big factor in success. The person who thinks he can, will master most of the
things he attempts. The person who thinks he can’t, may not try.
31
The author of these statements would agree that:

a. No task is too large.
b. Success relies on effort.
c. Trying is half the battle.
d. Self-confidence is of most importance.
47. Yuka said, “All children I have met are friendly. Therefore, all children are friendly.”
Which one of the following most closely parallels the logic of the above statement?
a. I’ve eaten spinach thriceand got sick each time. If I eat spinach again, I will get sick.
b. Every professor I had in college was mean. Therefore, all professors are mean.
c. All mansions are big. This house is small. Therefore, it is not a mansion.
d. My height has increased each year for the past two years. I will grow taller this year.
48. No one cheats on all the exams he takes. Some people cheat on most of the exams they take.
Most cheat on some of the exams they take. Everyone has cheated on at least one exam he has
taken. Cheating is wrong.
Which one of the following is inconsistent with the preceding facts?

a. There are more people who cheat on all exams than those who never cheat at all.
b. There are more people who cheat on some exams than those who cheat on most exams.
c. The punishment of expulsion does not discourage people from cheating.
d. Marie has never been caught cheating.
49. There is something irrational about our system of laws. Criminal law punishes a person more
severely for having successfully committed a crime than it does a person who fails in an attempt
to commit the same crime – even though the same evil intention is presented in both cases. But
under civil law a person who attempts to defraud a potential victim but is unsuccessful is not
required to pay damages.
Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s argument?
a. There are more criminal laws on the books than there are civil laws on the books.
b. The goal of criminal law is to punish the criminal, but the goal of civil law is to
compensate the victim.
c. Most persons who are imprisoned for crimes will commit another crime if they are ever
released from prison.
d. A person is morally culpable for evil thoughts as well as for evil deed.
32
Mr. Doug: Ms. Tracey’s qualifications are ideal for the position. She is intelligent, forceful, determined
and trustworthy. I suggest we hire her immediately.
50. Which of the following, if true, offers the strongest support of Mr. Doug’s statement?
a. All the members of the hiring committee have agreed that intelligence, trustworthiness,
determination, and forcefulness are important qualifications for the job.
b. Mr. Doug holds exclusive responsibility for hiring new employees.
c. Mr. Doug has known Ms. Wilson longer than he has known any of the other applicants.
d. Ms. Tracey is a member of Mr. Dimple’s family.
51. Choose the most sound argument from each of the following sets of statements below.
a. Knowledge is power and the use of power in a community should always be controlled
and regulated. Therefore, knowledge belongs to that special ethical category of things
which require special treatment and should be controlled with special rigor, and various
sorts of knowledge should simply be just “off limits” altogether.
b. It is never appropriate to restrict or regulate knowledge or information. For this is
something sacred and sacrosanct. Like life or liberty, it is the subject of a fundamental
and indefeasible right.
c. Knowledge is not a special case of some sort. It is simply one good among others---
which is subject to the same general sorts of socially motivated constrains to which we
subject other goods and goals.
d. Certain sorts of inquiries result in products whose use for evil purposes is so readily
possible and so likely that it is best not to embark in this direction at all. Whatever
benefit for knowledge might result in the way of abstract understanding is
overshadowed by the predictable prospect of reprehensible applications.
52. You can use a bottle opener to open the new beer bottles. You do not need to use a bottle
opener to open the new beer bottles.
Which of the following most closely parallels the logic of these statements?
a. I can move the sofa with my sister’s help. If my sister is not available, I’ll get a friend to
help me.
b. If you do not study you will fail the test. If you do study, you may fail the test.
c. You must turn on the switch to light the lamp. If you turn on the switch, the lamp may
not light.
d. Every candidate I voted for in the election lost his race. I must learn to vote better.
53. Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken Mr. Doug statement?
a. Ms. Tracey is not interested in being hired.
b. There are two other applicants whose qualifications are identical to Ms. Tracey’s.
33
c. Ms. Tracey is currently working for a rival company.

d. Mr. Doug is not speaking directly to the hiring committee.
Paul, a chemist, rides the train to work every day. On this day, he brought with him a package of several
unstable chemicals contained in separate vials, which he double-checked to ensure they were tightly
sealed to prevent contamination.
The security guard checking the contents of passenger belongings allowed Paul into the train platform
with his package without thoroughly asking him as to the nature of the package’s contents. The
management of this local metro rail transit, meanwhile, had conspicuously posted warnings at strategic
places of the terminal, prohibiting any passenger from bringing explosives or any other inflammable
materials into the station. Should they have any, they should submit these to the train’s personnel so
they could be kept in a safe place aboard the train and be given back at the passenger’s exit point. As
everyone else went off to work, the platform was packed with passengers waiting for the train.
When it finally arrived, people began pushing noisily at each other to get inside the oncoming train. Paul,
with the package in his hands, got jostled about. When the train stopped and its doors opened, a guy
pushed Paul forcefully from behind to get in, causing Paul to drop the package. There was a loud
explosion as the chemicals mixed with each other and pandemonium broke loose. A woman who was
carrying an antique vase, surprised by the loud bang, dropped her age-old possession. Shards of the
glass vial, which scattered upon the explosion, entered the eyes of a man who stood near Paul so that
the man needed medical attention.
54. Not knowing the results of his action, the guy should not be made to answer for any liability.
a. The proposition is legally sound and may have basis in law.
b. The proposition has no basis in law.
55. The management of the train station has a valid case against Paul for damages resulting from
the explosion of the package he brought with him which he failed to surrender to train
personnel as required given the unstable, unpredictable nature of the chemicals.
56. The woman cannot petition for relief in the value of the antique vase she lost against Roger.
57. If all complaints were filed against the management, they can refuse to pay for damages and
counsel all claimants to seek relief from the security guard.
34
58. Paul should have no liability at all.

–––END–––
35
READING COMPREHENSION
Passage 1
For decades, there has been a deep rift between
poetry academic settings; graduate writing programs in
universities, for example, train students as poets or as
writers and fiction in the United States, especially in
(5) of fiction, but almost never as both. Both poets
and writers of fiction have tended to support this
separation, in large part because the current
conventional wisdom holds that poetry should be
elliptical and lyrical, reflecting inner states and
(10) processes of thought or feeling, whereas character and
narrative events are the stock-in-trade of fiction.
Certainly it is true that poetry and fiction are
distinct genres, but why have specialized education
and literary territoriality resulted from this distinction?
(15) The answer lies perhaps in a widespread attitude in
U.S. culture, which often casts a suspicious eye on the
generalist. Those with knowledge and expertise in
multiple areas risk charges of dilettantism, as if ability
in one field is diluted or compromised by
(20) accomplishment in another.
Fortunately, there are signs that the bias against
writers who cross generic boundaries is diminishing;
several recent writers are known and respected for
their work in both genres. One important example of
(25) this trend is Rita Dove, an African American writer
highly acclaimed for both her poetry and her fiction. A
few years ago, speaking at a conference entitled “Poets
Who Write Fiction,” Dove expressed gentle
incredulity about the habit of segregating the genres.
(30) She had grown up reading and loving both fiction and
poetry, she said, unaware of any purported danger
lurking in attempts to mix the two. She also studied for
some time in Germany, where, she observes, “Poets
write plays, novelists compose libretti, playwrights
(35) write novels – they would not understand our
restrictiveness”
It makes little sense, Dove believes, to persist in
the restrictive approach to poetry and fiction prevalent
in the U.S., because each genre shares in the nature of
(40) the other. Indeed, her poetry offers example after
example of what can only be properly regarded as
36
lyric narrative. Her use of language in these poems is

undeniably lyrical—that is, it evokes emotion and
inner states without requiring the reader to organize
(45) ideas or events in a particular linear structure. Yet this
lyric expression simultaneously presents the elements
of a plot in such a way that the reader is led repeatedly
to take account of clusters of narrative details within
the lyric flow. Thus while the language is lyrical, it
(50) often comes to constitute, cumulatively, a work of
narrative fiction. Similarly, many passages in her
fiction, though undeniably prose, achieve the status of
lyric narrative through the use of poetic rhythms and
elliptical expression. In short, Dove bridges the gap
(55) between poetry and fiction not only by writing in both
genres, but also by fusing the two genres within
individual works.
1. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage?
a. Rita Dove’s work has been widely acclaimed primarily because of the lyrical elements
she has introduced into her fiction.
b. Rita Dove’s lyric narratives present clusters of narrative detail in order to create a
cumulative narrative without requiring the reader to interpret it in a linear manner.
c. Working against a bias that has long been dominant in the U.S., recent writers like Rita
Dove have shown that the lyrical use of language can effectively enhance narrative
fiction.
d. Unlike many of her U.S. contemporaries, Rita Dove writes without relying on the
traditional techniques associated with poetry and fiction.
e. Rita Dove’s successful blending of poetry and fiction exemplifies the recent trend away
from the rigid separation of the two genres that has long been prevalent in the U.S.
2. Which one of the following is most analogous to the literary achievements that the author
attributes to Dove?
a. A chef combines nontraditional cooking methods and traditional ingredients from
disparate world cuisines to devise new recipes.
b. A professor of film studies becomes a film director and succeeds, partly due to a wealth
of theoretical knowledge of filmmaking.
c. An actor who is also a theatrical director teams up with a public health agency to use
street theater to inform the public about health matters.
d. A choreographer defies convention and choreographs dances that combine elements of
both ballet and jazz dance.
e. A rock musician records several songs from previous decades but introduces extended
guitar solos into each one.
3. According to the passage, in the U.S. there is a widely held view that
37
a. poetry should not involve characters or narratives

b. unlike the writing of poetry, the writing of fiction is rarely an academically serious
endeavor
c. graduate writing programs focus on poetry to the exclusion of fiction
d. fiction is most aesthetically effective when it incorporates lyrical elements
e. European literary cultures are suspicious of generalists
4. The author’s attitude toward the deep rift between poetry and fiction in the U.S. can be most
accurately described as one of
a. perplexity as to what could have led to the development of such a rift
b. astonishment that academics have overlooked the existence of the rift
c. ambivalence toward the effect the rift has had on U.S. literature
d. pessimism regarding the possibility that the rift can be overcome
e. disapproval of attitudes and presuppositions underlying the rift
5. In the passage the author conjectures that a cause of the deep rift between fiction and poetry in
the United States may be that
a. poets and fiction writers each tend to see their craft as superior to the others’ craft
b. the methods used in training graduate students in poetry are different from those used
in training graduate students in other literary fields
c. publishers often pressure writers to concentrate on what they do best
d. a suspicion of generalism deters writers from dividing their energies between the two
genres
e. fiction is more widely read and respected than poetry
6. In the context of the passage, the author’s primary purpose in mentioning Dove’s experience in
Germany (lines 32–36) is to
a. suggest that the habit of treating poetry and fiction as nonoverlapping domains is
characteristic of English-speaking societies but not others
b. point to an experience that reinforced Dove’s conviction that poetry and fiction should
not be rigidly separated
c. indicate that Dove’s strengths as a writer derive in large part from the international
character of her academic background
d. present an illuminating biographical detail about Dove in an effort to enhance the
human interest appeal of the passage
e. indicate what Dove believes to be the origin of her opposition to the separation of
fiction and poetry in the U.S.
7. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to believe which one of
the following?
a. Each of Dove’s works can be classified as either primarily poetry or primarily fiction,
even though it may contain elements of both.
b. The aesthetic value of lyric narrative resides in its representation of a sequence of
events, rather than in its ability to evoke inner states.
38
c. The way in which Dove blends genres in her writing is without precedent in U.S. writing.
d. Narrative that uses lyrical language is generally aesthetically superior to pure lyric
poetry.
e. Writers who successfully cross the generic boundary between poetry and fiction often
try their hand at genres such as drama as well.
8. If this passage had been excerpted from a longer text, which one of the following predictions
about the near future of U.S. literature would be most likely to appear in that text?
a. The number of writers who write both poetry and fiction will probably continue to grow.
b. Because of the increased interest in mixed genres, the small market for pure lyric poetry
will likely shrink even further.
c. Narrative poetry will probably come to be regarded as a sub-genre of fiction.
d. There will probably be a rise in specialization among writers in university writing
programs.
e. Writers who continue to work exclusively in poetry or fiction will likely lose their
audiences.
Passage 2
The two passages discuss recent scientific research on music. They are adapted from two
different papers presented at a scholarly conference.
Passage A
Did music and human language originate

separately or together? Both systems use intonation
and rhythm to communicate emotions. Both can be
produced vocally or with tools, and people can produce
(5) both music and language silently to themselves.
Brain imaging studies suggest that music and
language are part of one large, vastly complicated,
neurological system for processing sound. In fact,
fewer differences than similarities exist between the
(10) neurological processing of the two. One could think of
the two activities as different radio programs that can
be broadcast over the same hardware. One noteworthy
difference, though, is that, generally speaking, people
are better at language than music. In music, anyone
(15) can listen easily enough, but most people do not
Perform well, and in many cultures composition is left
to specialists. In language, by contrast, nearly
everyone actively performs and composes.
Given their shared neurological basis, it appears
(20) that music and language evolved together as brain size
increased over the course of hominid evolution. But
39
the primacy of language over music that we can

observe today suggests that language, not music, was
the primary function natural selection operated on.
(25) Music, it would seem, had little adaptive value of its
own, and most likely developed on the coattails of
language.
Passage B
Darwin claimed that since “neither the enjoyment

nor the capacity of producing musical notes are
(30) faculties of the least [practical] use to man…they must
be ranked amongst the most mysterious with which he
is endowed.” I suggest that the enjoyment of and the
capacity to produce musical notes are faculties
of indispensable use to mothers and their infants and
(35) that it is in the emotional bonds created by the
interaction of mother and child that we can discover
the evolutionary origins of human music.
Even excluding lullabies, which parents sing to
infants, human mothers and infants under six months
(40) of age engage in ritualized, sequential behaviors,
involving vocal, facial, and bodily interactions. Using
face-to-face mother-infant interactions filmed at 24
frames per second, researchers have shown that
mothers and infants jointly construct mutually
(45) improvised interactions in which each partner tracks
the actions of the other. Such episodes last from
one-half second to three seconds and are composed of
musical elements—variations in pitch, rhythm, timbre,
volume, and tempo.
(50) What evolutionary advantage would such
behavior have? In the course of hominid evolution,
brain size increased rapidly. Contemporaneously, the
increase in bipedality caused the birth canal to narrow.
This resulted in hominid infants being born ever-more
(55) prematurely, leaving them much more helpless at birth.
This helplessness necessitated longer, better maternal
care. Under such conditions, the emotional bonds
created in the premusical mother-infant interactions we
observe in Homo sapiens today—behavior whose
40
(60) neurological basis essentially constitutes the capacity

to make and enjoy music—would have conferred
considerable evolutionary advantage.
9. Both passages were written primarily in order to answer which one of the following questions?
a. What evolutionary advantage did larger brain size confer on early hominids?
b. Why do human mothers and infants engage in bonding behavior that is composed of
musical elements?
c. What are the evolutionary origins of the human ability to make music?
d. Do the human abilities to make music and to use language depend on the same
neurological systems?
e. Why are most people more adept at using language than they are at making music?
10. Each of the two passages mentions the relation of music to

a. bonding between humans
b. human emotion
c. neurological research
d. the increasing helplessness of hominid infants
e. the use of tools to produce sounds
11. It can be inferred that the authors of the two passages would be most likely to disagree over
whether
a. the increase in hominid brain size necessitated earlier births
b. fewer differences than similarities exist between the neurological processing of music
and human language
c. brain size increased rapidly over the course of human evolution
d. the capacity to produce music has great adaptive value to humans
e. mother-infant bonding involves temporally patterned vocal interactions
12. The authors would be most likely to agree on the answer to which one of the following
questions regarding musical capacity in humans?
a. Does it manifest itself in some form in early infancy?
b. Does it affect the strength of mother-infant bonds?
c. Is it at least partly a result of evolutionary increases in brain size?
d. Did its evolution spur the development of new neurological systems?
e. Why does it vary so greatly among different individuals?
13. Which one of the following principles underlies the arguments in both passages?
41
a. Investigations of the evolutionary origins of human behaviors must take into account the
behavior of nonhuman animals.
b. All human capacities can be explained in terms of the evolutionary advantages they
offer.
c. The fact that a single neurological system underlies two different capacities is evidence
that those capacities evolved concurrently.
d. The discovery of the neurological basis of a human behavior constitutes the discovery of
the essence of that behavior.
e. The behavior of modern-day humans can provide legitimate evidence concerning the
evolutionary origins of human abilities.
14. Which one of the following most accurately characterizes a relationship between the two
passages?
a. Passage A and passage B use different evidence to draw divergent conclusions.
b. Passage A poses the question that passage B attempts to answer.
c. Passage A proposes a hypothesis that passage B attempts to substantiate with new
evidence.
d. Passage A expresses a stronger commitment to its hypothesis than does passage B.
e. Passage A and passage B use different evidence to support the same conclusion.
Passage 3
The World Wide Web, a network of electronically

produced and interconnected (or “linked”) sites, called
pages, that are accessible via personal computer, raises
legal issues about the rights of owners of intellectual
(5) property, notably those who create documents for
inclusion on Web pages. Some of these owners of
intellectual property claim that unless copyright law is
strengthened, intellectual property on the Web will not
be protected from copyright infringement. Web users,
(10) however, claim that if their ability to access
information on Web pages is reduced, the Web cannot
live up to its potential as an open, interactive medium
of communication.
The debate arises from the Web’s ability to link
(15) one document to another. Links between sites are
analogous to the inclusion in a printed text of
42
references to other works, but with one difference: the

cited document is instantly retrievable by a user who
activates the link. This immediate accessibility creates
(20) a problem, since current copyright laws give owners of
intellectual property the right to sue a distributor of
unauthorized copies of their material even if that
distributor did not personally make the copies. If
person A, the author of a document, puts the document
(25) on a Web page, and person B, the creator of another
Web page, creates a link to A’s document, is B
committing copyright infringement?
To answer this question, it must first be
determined who controls distribution of a document on
(30) the Web. When A places a document on a Web page,
this is comparable to recording an outgoing message
on one’s telephone answering machine for others to
hear. When B creates a link to A’s document, this is
akin to B’s giving out A’s telephone number, thereby
(35) allowing third parties to hear the outgoing message for
themselves. Anyone who calls can listen to the
message; that is its purpose. While B’s link may
indeed facilitate access to A’s document, the crucial
point is that A, simply by placing that document on the
(40) Web, is thereby offering it for distribution. Therefore,
even if B leads others to the document, it is A who
actually controls access to it. Hence creating a link to a
document is not the same as making or distributing a
copy of that document. Moreover, techniques are
(45) already available by which A can restrict access to a
document. For example, A may require a password to
gain entry to A’s Web page, just as a telephone owner
can request an unlisted number and disclose it only to
selected parties. Such a solution would compromise
(50) the openness of the Web somewhat, but not as much as
the threat of copyright infringement litigation.
Changing copyright law to benefit owners of
intellectual property is thus ill-advised because it
would impede the development of the Web as a public
(55) forum dedicated to the free exchange of ideas.
43
a. Since distribution of a document placed on a Web page is controlled by the author of
that page rather than by the person who creates a link to the page, creating such a link
should not be considered copyright infringement.
b. Changes in copyright law in response to the development of Web pages and links are
ill-advised unless such changes amplify rather than restrict the free exchange of ideas
necessary in a democracy.
c. People who are concerned about the access others may have to the Web documents
they create can easily prevent such access without inhibiting the rights of others to
exchange ideas freely.
d. Problems concerning intellectual property rights created by new forms of electronic
media are not insuperably difficult to resolve if one applies basic commonsense
principles to these problems.
e. Maintaining a free exchange of ideas on the Web offers benefits that far outweigh
those that might be gained by a small number of individuals if a radical alteration of
copyright laws aimed at restricting the Web’s growth were allowed.
16. Which one of the following is closest in meaning to the term “strengthened” as that term is
used in line 8 of the passage?
a. made more restrictive
b. made uniform worldwide
c. made to impose harsher penalties
d. dutifully enforced
e. more fully recognized as legitimate
17. With which one of the following claims about documents placed on Web pages would the
author be most likely to agree?
a. Such documents cannot receive adequate protection unless current copyright laws are
strengthened.
b. Such documents cannot be protected from unauthorized distribution without
significantly diminishing the potential of the Web to be a widely used form of
communication.
c. The nearly instantaneous access afforded by the Web makes it impossible in practice to
limit access to such documents.
d. Such documents can be protected from copyright infringement with the least damage
to the public interest only by altering existing legal codes.
44
e. Such documents cannot fully contribute to the Web’s free exchange of ideas unless
their authors allow them to be freely accessed by those who wish to do so.
18. Based on the passage, the relationship between strengthening current copyright laws and
relying on passwords to restrict access to a Web document is most analogous to the
relationship between
a. allowing everyone use of a public facility and restricting its use to members of the
community
b. outlawing the use of a drug and outlawing its sale
c. prohibiting a sport and relying on participants to employ proper safety gear
d. passing a new law and enforcing that law
e. allowing unrestricted entry to a building and restricting entry to those who have
been issued a badge
19. The passage most strongly implies which one of the following?
a. There are no creators of links to Web pages who are also owners of intellectual
property on Web pages.
b. The person who controls access to a Web page document should be considered the
distributor of that document.
c. Rights of privacy should not be extended to owners of intellectual property placed on
the Web.
d. Those who create links to Web pages have primary control over who reads the
documents on those pages.
e. A document on a Web page must be converted to a physical document via printing
before copyright infringement takes place.
20. According to the passage, which one of the following features of outgoing messages left on
telephone answering machines is most relevant to the debate concerning copyright
infringement?
a. Such messages are carried by an electronic medium of communication.
b. Such messages are not legally protected against unauthorized distribution.
c. Transmission of such messages is virtually instantaneous.
d. People do not usually care whether or not others might record such messages.
e. Such messages have purposely been made available to anyone who calls that
telephone number.
21. The author’s discussion of telephone answering machines serves primarily to
a. compare and contrast the legal problems created by two different sorts of electronic
media
45
b. provide an analogy to illustrate the positions taken by each of the two sides in the
copyright debate
c. show that the legal problems produced by new communication technology are not
themselves new
d. illustrate the basic principle the author believes should help determine the outcome of
the copyright debate
e. show that telephone use also raises concerns about copyright infringement
22. According to the passage, present copyright laws

a. allow completely unrestricted use of any document placed by its author on a Web page
b. allow those who establish links to a document on a Web page to control its distribution
to others
c. prohibit anyone but the author of a document from making a profit from the
document’s distribution
d. allow the author of a document to sue anyone who distributes the document without
permission
e. should be altered to allow more complete freedom in the exchange of ideas
Passage 4
In tracing the changing face of the Irish
landscape, scholars have traditionally relied primarily
on evidence from historical documents. However, such
documentary sources provide a fragmentary record at
(5) best. Reliable accounts are very scarce for many parts
of Ireland prior to the seventeenth century, and many
of the relevant documents from the sixteenth and
seventeenth centuries focus selectively on matters
relating to military or commercial interests.
(10) Studies of fossilized pollen grains preserved in
peats and lake muds provide an additional means of
investigating vegetative landscape change. Details of
changes in vegetation resulting from both human
activities and natural events are reflected in the kinds
(15) and quantities of minute pollen grains that become
trapped in sediments. Analysis of samples can identify
which kinds of plants produced the preserved pollen
grains and when they were deposited, and in many
cases the findings can serve to supplement or correct
(20) the documentary record.
46
For example, analyses of samples from Long

Lough in County Down have revealed significant
patterns of cereal-grain pollen beginning by about 400
A.D. The substantial clay content of the soil in this part
(25) of Down makes cultivation by primitive tools difficult.
Historians thought that such soils were not tilled to
any significant extent until the introduction of the
moldboard plough to Ireland in the seventh century
A.D. Because cereal cultivation would have required
(30) tilling of the soil, the pollen evidence indicates that
these soils must indeed have been successfully tilled
before the introduction of the new plough.
Another example concerns flax cultivation in
County Down, one of the great linen-producing areas
(35) of Ireland during the eighteenth century. Some aspects
of linen production in Down are well documented, but
the documentary record tells little about the cultivation
of flax, the plant from which linen is made, in that
area. The record of eighteenth-century linen
(40) production in Down, together with the knowledge that
flax cultivation had been established in Ireland
centuries before that time, led some historians to
surmise that this plant was being cultivated in Down
before the eighteenth century. But pollen analyses
(45) indicate that this is not the case; flax pollen was found
only in deposits laid down since the eighteenth century.
It must be stressed, though, that there are limits to
the ability of the pollen record to reflect the vegetative
(50) history of the landscape. For example, pollen analyses
cannot identify the species, but only the genus or
family, of some plants. Among these is madder, a
cultivated dye plant of historical importance in Ireland.
Madder belongs to a plant family that also comprises
(55) various native weeds, including goose grass. If madder
pollen were present in a deposit it would be
indistinguishable from that of uncultivated native
species.
a. Analysis of fossilized pollen is a useful means of supplementing and in some cases
correcting other sources of information regarding changes in the Irish landscape.
47
b. Analyses of historical documents, together with pollen evidence, have led to the
revision of some previously accepted hypotheses regarding changes in the Irish
landscape.
c. Analysis of fossilized pollen has proven to be a valuable tool in the identification of
ancient plant species.
d. Analysis of fossilized pollen has provided new evidence that the cultivation of such
crops as cereal grains, flax, and madder had a significant impact on the landscape of
Ireland.
e. While pollen evidence can sometimes supplement other sources of historical
information, its applicability is severely limited, since it cannot be used to identify plant
species.
24. The passage indicates that pollen analyses have provided evidence against which one of the
following views?
a. The moldboard plough was introduced into Ireland in the seventh century.
b. In certain parts of County Down, cereal grains were not cultivated to any significant
extent before the seventh century.
c. In certain parts of Ireland, cereal grains have been cultivated continuously since the
introduction of the moldboard plough.
d. Cereal grain cultivation requires successful tilling of the soil.
e. Cereal grain cultivation began in County Down around 400 A.D.
25. The phrase “documentary record” (lines 20 and 37) primarily refers to
a. documented results of analyses of fossilized pollen
b. the kinds and quantities of fossilized pollen grains preserved in peats and lake muds
c. written and pictorial descriptions by current historians of events and landscapes of the past
d. government and commercial records, maps, and similar documents produced in the past
that recorded conditions and events of that time

e. articles, books, and other documents by current historians listing and analyzing all the
available evidence regarding a particular historical period
26. The passage indicates that prior to the use of pollen analysis in the study of the history of the
Irish landscape, at least some historians believed which one of the following?
a. The Irish landscape had experienced significant flooding during the 17th century.
b. Cereal grain was not cultivated anywhere in Ireland until at least the seventh century.
c. The history of Irish landscape in the 16th and 17th centuries was well documented.
48
d. Madder was not used as a dye plant in Ireland until after the eighteenth century.
e. The beginning of flax cultivation in County Down may well have occurred before the
18th century.
27. Which one of the following most accurately describes the relationship between the second
paragraph and the final paragraph?
a. The second paragraph proposes a hypothesis for which the final paragraph offers a
supporting example.
b. The final paragraph describes a problem that must be solved before the method
advocated in the second paragraph can be considered viable.
c. The final paragraph qualifies the claim made in the second paragraph.
d. The second paragraph describes a view against which the author intends to argue, and
the final paragraph states the author’s argument against that view.
e. The final paragraph offers procedures to supplement the method described in the
second paragraph
–––END–––
49
ABSTRACT REASONING
50
51
52
53
54
–––END–––
55
ANSWER KEY
ANTONYMS
MATHEMATICS GRAMMAR SENTENCE
IMPROVEMENT 11. b.
1. E 1. c. has
12. d.
2. E doubled 21. c.
13. d.
3. D 2. e. None of 22. d.
14. d.
4. B the above 23. a.
15. a.
5. B 3. b. would 24. d.
16. c.
6. B not have 25. a.
17. a.
7. C been 26. d.
18. b.
8. A 4. d. Do you 27. e.
19. b.
9. C ever 28. b.
20. d.
10. D 5. c. their 29. a.
11. B 6. a. Your 30. a.
12. D 7. c. their ANALOGY
SYNONYMS
13. C 8. a. to (SINGLE)
14. A 9. b. whom
1. e.
15. C 10. b. is
2. a. 21. e.
16. A 3. e. 22. c.
17. C 4. b. 23. d.
IDENTIFYING
18. C 5. c. 24. b.
ERRORS
19. E 6. a. 25. b.
20. C 7. a. 26. b.
21. A 11. a
8. c. 27. c.
22. B 12. b
9. c. 28. b.
23. D 13. e
10. a. 29. a.
24. A 14. b
30. c.
25. E 15. e
26. E 16. b
27. D 17. b
28. E 18. b
29. E 19. c
30. A 20. C
56
ANALOGY PARAGRAPH LOGICAL

(PAIRED) COMPLETION REASONING
1. A 31. C
31. d. 51. b. 2. A 32. E
32. b. 52. a. 3. B 33. C
33. d. 53. a. 4. B 34. B
34. d. 54. d. 5. A 35. B
6. B 36. A
35. d. 55. a.
7. B 37. B
36. d. 56. c.
8. B 38. B
37. d. 57. a. 9. A 39. B
38. a. 58. d. 10. A 40. A
39. b. 59. d. 11. D 41. A
40. d. 60. a. 12. C 42. B
13. D 43. B
14. C 44. B
SENTENCE 15. C 45. D
COMPLETION 16. B 46. D
17. C 47. B
18. D 48. B
41. c. 19. D 49. B
42. e. 20. B 50. A
43. c. 21. 51. B
22. E 52. E
44. b.
23. D 53. B
45. e.
24. A 54. B
46. a. 25. C 55. A
47. c. 26. C 56. B
48. c. 27. E 57. B
49. c. 28. E 58. B
50. e. 29. C
30. A
57
READING 17. E 5. A 23. A

COMPREHENSION 18. C 6. D 24. B
19. B 7. C 25. B
1. E
20. E 8. D 26. D
2. D
21. D 9. A 27. A
3. A
22. D 10. C 28. C
4. E
23. A 11. D 29. B
5. D
24. B 12. A 30. C
6. B
25. D 13. A 31. D
7. A
26. E 14. A 32. D
8. A
27. C 15. D 33. A
9. C
16. B 34. A
10. B
ABSTRACT 17. C 35. A
11. D
REASONING 18. B 36. D
12. C
1. B 19. B 37. B
13. E
2. A 20. D 38. D
14. A
3. C 21. C 39. C
15. A
4. D 22. D 40. D
16. A
58

2019 LAE Practice Test - The Sigma Rho Fraternity

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2019 LAE Practice Test - The Sigma Rho Fraternity

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THE SIGMA RHO FRATERNITY

LAE TIPS AND TRICKS

Logic and Critical Thinking

EXAM DAY TIPS

Before the LAE:

During the LAE

22. Which of the following fractions has the greatest value?

28. Evaluate: 22 + 90.5 + 21 + 2250

2. I _____ to Ilocos and seen the exhibits at Marcos’ museum. (10)

3. If Marshall had locked his car properly, it _____ stolen. (3)

4. _____ get tired of driving on the same route everyday? (7)

6. _____ winning in spite of the odds inspired us all. (1)

10. The majority of construction workers _____ college graduates. (9)

16. One cannot perform multiple tasks simultaneously if he is easily distracted by

a. It is highly desirable that you should furnish evidence of your expenses

e. None of the above

1. vituperative comments 6. occlude the path

11. opprobrious decision 12. avoid being profligate

21. malinger : ail :: flatter : 26. disease : pathologist :: tenet :

31. perspicacious : insight :: 36. limerick : poem ::

51. a. account 53. a. restraint

55. a. serious 58. a. strained

a. The statement is an assumption.

a. The statement is an assumption.

a. The statement is an assumption.

a. The statement is an assumption.

a. The statement is an assumption.

a. The statement is an assumption.

a. The statement is an assumption.

a. The statement is an assumption.

a. The statement is an assumption.

a. The statement is an assumption.

d. Jen refuses to dance with either Raf or Louis.

17. During the year, researchers have reported the following:

c. Weather cannot be predicted exactly.

A museum is presenting a series of exhibits of five artists: A, B, C, D, and E.

22. Which of the following must surely be true?

c. The digit 2 appears in some position before the digit 3.

30. Which one of the following CANNOT be true?

a. The statement follows the given premises.

a. The statement follows the given premises.

a. The statement follows the given premises.

a. The statement follows the given premises.

a. The statement follows the given premises.

The author of these statements would agree that:

Which one of the following is inconsistent with the preceding facts?

c. Ms. Tracey is currently working for a rival company.

58. Paul should have no liability at all.

lyric narrative. Her use of language in these poems is

a. poetry should not involve characters or narratives

Did music and human language originate

the primacy of language over music that we can

Darwin claimed that since “neither the enjoyment

(60) neurological basis essentially constitutes the capacity

10. Each of the two passages mentions the relation of music to

The World Wide Web, a network of electronically

references to other works, but with one difference: the

22. According to the passage, present copyright laws

For example, analyses of samples from Long

that recorded conditions and events of that time

available evidence regarding a particular historical period

ANALOGY PARAGRAPH LOGICAL

READING 17. E 5. A 23. A