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Note : English version of the instructions is printed on the back cover of this booklet.

66-A
1. F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸Àj 3. F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉ/ºÉýPÉUÀ¼ÀÄ
EzÉ/ EªÉ ? ¸Àj EzÉ/EªÉ ?
I. PÁ²äÃgÀ¢AzÀ C¸ÁìªÀÄ ªÀgÉUÉ I. ºÀgÀ¥ÀàªÀÅ FUÀ ¥ÁQ¸ÁÛ£ÀzÀ
ºÀ©âgÀĪÀ »ªÀiÁ®AiÀÄ ¥ÀªÀðvÀ ¹Azsï ¥ÁæAvÀzÀ°èzÉ
±ÉæÃt ¸ÉÊ©ÃjAiÀiÁ ¢AzÀ ©Ã¹ II. ºÀgÀ¥ÀàªÀÅ MAzÀÄ £ÀUÀgÀ
§gÀĪÀ ²ÃvÀ® UÁ½¬ÄAzÀ £É¯ÉAiÀiÁVzÉ
¨sÁgÀvÀPÉÌ gÀPÀëuÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß MzÀV¹ªÉ. III. «±Á® ¸ÁߣÀzÀ vÉÆnÖAiÀÄÄ
II. F±Á£Àå ¨sÁUÀzÀ ¥ÀªÀðvÀUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÉƺÉAeÉÆzÁgÉÆzÀ°è zÉÆgÉwzÉ.
JvÀÛgÀªÁV gÀĪÀÅzÀjAzÀ ¸Àj GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PɼÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ½AzÀ
¥ÀƪÀð¢AzÀ zÁ½PÉÆÃgÀgÀÄ DAiÀÄÄÝ UÀÄgÀÄw¹j.
¨sÁgÀvÀPÉÌ §gÀ¯ÁUÀ°®è. (1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ
III. ªÁAiÀÄĪÀå ¨sÁUÀzÀ°è ¥ÀªÀðvÀ
(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ
ªÀÄzsÀåzÀ zÁjUÀ¼ÀÄ
(3) II ºÁUÀÆ III
PɼÀºÀAvÀzÀ°ègÀÄwÛzÀÝ
¥ÀjuÁªÀĪÁV ªÀÄzsÀå K²AiÀÄzÀ (4) I, II ºÁUÀÆ III
zÁ½PÉÆÃgÀgÀÄ ¨sÁgÀvÀzÉƼÀUÉ 4. F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉ/UÀ¼ÀÄ
¥ÀæªÉò¸À®Ä ¸ÁzsÀåªÁ¬ÄvÀÄ. ¸ÀjAiÀiÁV EzÉ/EªÉ ?
F PɼÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ½AzÀ DAiÀÄÄÝ ¸Àj I. eÉÊ£ÀzsÀªÀÄð PÀÆqÀ, ¨ËzÀÞ
GvÀÛgÀ UÀÄgÀÄw¹. zsÀªÀÄðzÀAvÉ, ¨ÁæºÀät
(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ ªÀiË®åUÀ½AzÀ vÀ£ÀߣÀÄß
(2) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II ªÀiÁvÀæ ¥ÀævÉåÃQ¹PÉÆAqÀzÀÝjAzÀ C¥ÁgÀ
(3) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III ªÀiÁvÀæ d£ÁPÀµÀðuÉUÉ ¥ÁvÀæªÁ¬ÄvÀÄ.
(4) I, II ºÁUÀÆ III II. eÉÊ£ÀzsÀªÀÄðªÀÅ PÀæªÉÄÃt ¥À²ÑªÀÄ
2. ¹ÜvÀåAvÀgÀ ¸ÀÆPÀëö䲯ÁAiÀÄÄUÀªÀÅ ¨sÁgÀvÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ zÀQët ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ°è
AiÀiÁªÀ ¸ÀA¸ÀÌøw¬ÄAzÀ AiÀiÁªÀ vÀ£Àß ¥Àæ¨sÁªÀªÀ£ÀÄß
¸ÀA¸ÀÌøwUÉ §zÀ¯ÁªÀuÉ AiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¨É¼É¹PÉÆArvÀÄ.
¸ÀÆa¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ ? III. ªÀzsÀðªÀiÁ£À ªÀĺÁ«ÃgÀ£À vÀAzÉ
(1) D¢ ºÀ¼É²¯ÁAiÀÄÄUÀ¢AzÀ ªÀÄzsÀå MAzÀÄ PÀëwæAiÀÄ PÀÄ®zÀ
ºÀ¼Éò¯ÁAiÀÄÄUÀPÉÌ £ÁAiÀÄPÀ£ÁVzÀÝ.
(2) CAvÀå ºÀ¼É²¯ÁAiÀÄÄUÀ¢AzÀ £ÀªÀ ¸Àj GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PɼÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ½AzÀ
²¯ÁAiÀÄÄUÀPÉÌ DAiÀÄÄÝ UÀÄgÀÄw¹.
(3) £ÀªÀ²¯ÁAiÀÄÄUÀ¢AzÀ (1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ
²¯ÁvÁªÀÄæAiÀÄÄUÀPÉÌ (2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ
(4) ²¯ÁvÁªÀÄæAiÀÄÄUÀ¢AzÀ §ÈºÀvï (3) II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III ªÀiÁvÀæ
²¯ÁAiÀÄÄUÀPÉÌ (4) I, II ºÁUÀÆ III
66-A (2)
1. Which of the following
statement/s is/are correct?
I. Himalayan ranges running
from Kashmir to Assam
have been protecting India
from cold Siberian winds
II. No invader could cross into
India from the East because
North East mountain ranges
are high and covered with
snow.
III. On the North western front,
passes are low lying and
invaders from Central Asia
found it possible to come
into India.
Select the correct answer using
codes given below.
(1) I only
(2) I and II only
(3) I and III only
(4) I, II and III
2. Mesolithic is a period of
transition from
(1) Lower Paleolithic to
Middle Paleolithic
(2) Upper Paleolithic to
Neolithic
(3) Neolithic to Chalcolithic
(4) Chalcolithic to Megalithic.
66-A
3. Which of the following
statement/s is/are correct?
I. Harappa is now in the Sindh
province of Pakistan
II. Harappa is a city site
III. Great Bath is found in
Mohenjodaro
Select the correct answer using
the codes given below.
(1) I only
(2) II only
(3) II and III only
(4) I, II and III
4. Which of the following
statements is/are correct?
I. Jainism attracted vast
masses of people as it
clearly distanced itself, like
Buddhism also did, from the
Brahmanical values
II. Jainism made its impact felt
gradually in Western and
Southern India.
III. Vardhamana Mahavira’s
father was the chief of a
Kshatriya clan.
Select the right answer by using
the code given below.
(1) I only
(2) II only
(3) II and III only
(4) I, II and III
(3)
5. F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ ? 7. F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉ/UÀ¼ÀÄ ¸Àj ?
I. E¸ÁèA zsÀªÀÄðªÀÅ ¸Áܦ¸À®ànÖzÀÄÝ
(1) C±ÉÆÃPÀ£À J®è ±Á¸À£ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ
Qæ.±À. JAl£Éà ±ÀvÀªÀiÁ£ÀzÀ
¨Á»ä°¦AiÀÄ°èªÉ. D¢¨sÁUÀzÀ°è
(2) ªÁAiÀÄĪÀå ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ°è£À II. E¸ÁèA zsÀªÀÄðzÀ ¸ÁÜ¥ÀPÀ
C±ÉÆÃPÀ£À ±Á¸À£ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ ¨Áæ»ä ªÀĺÀªÀÄäzïCgÉéAiÀÄzÀ
°¦AiÀÄ°èªÉ. ªÁå¥ÁjAiÀiÁVzÀÝ
III. ªÀĺÀªÀÄäzÀ CgÀ§gÀ£ÀÄß CªÀgÀÄ
(3) ªÀiËAiÀÄð ¸ÁªÀiÁædåzÀ «¸ÀÛøvÀ ºÀĹ zÉʪÀUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀÆf¸ÀĪÀ
¥ÀæzÉñÀzÀ°è C±ÉÆÃPÀ£À PÀÄjvÀÄ nÃQ¸À vÉÆqÀVzÁUÀ
±Á¸À£ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ ¨Áæ»ä°¦ CªÀgÀÄ ªÀĺÀªÀÄäzÀgÀ §UÉÎ
AiÀÄ°èAiÀÄÆ ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ ªÁAiÀÄĪÀå PÉÆÃ¥ÀzÀ ªÀÄ£ÉÆèsÁªÀ
vÁ½zÀgÀÄ.
¨sÁUÀzÀ° RgÉÆÃ¶× ¸Àj GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß PɼÀV£À
°¦AiÀÄ°èAiÀÄÆ §gÉAiÀÄ DAiÉÄÌUÀ½AzÁAiÀÄÄÝ UÀÄgÀÄw¹.
®ànÖzÀݪÀÅ. (1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ
(4) C±ÉÆÃPÀ£À J®è ±Á¸À£ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ (2) I ºÁUÀÆ II ªÀiÁvÀæ
(3) II ºÁUÀÆ III ªÀiÁvÀæ
RgÉÆÃ¶× °¦AiÀÄ°èªÉ. (4) I, II ºÁUÀÆ III
8. gÁ§lð PÉèöÊªï §AUÁ®, ©ºÁgï
6. ªÀiËAiÀÄðgÀ PÁ®zÀ°è F PɼÀV£À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ Nr¸ÁUÀ¼À ¢ªÁ¤ ºÀPÀÄÌUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
AiÀiÁgÀÄ G£ÀßvÁ¢üPÁjUÀ¼ÁVzÀÝgÀÄ ? ¥ÀqÉzÀÄPÉÆAqÀzÀÄÝ F PɼÀV£À
¥ÀjuÁªÀÄPÉÌ/ ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄUÀ½UÉ
I. ªÀÄAwæ ºÁUÀÆ ¥ÀÄgÉÆûvÀ PÁgÀtªÁ¬ÄvÀÄ.
II. ¸ÉãÁ ¥Àw ºÁUÀÆ AiÀÄĪÀgÁd I. CzÀÄ EAVèõÀjUÉ C¥ÁgÀ
ºÉZÀÄѪÀj DzÁAiÀĪÀ£ÀÄß
III. ªÀÄAwæ, ¥ÀÄgÉÆûvÀ ºÁUÀÆ vÀA¢vÀÄ.
¸ÉãÁ¥Àw II. PÁ£ÀÆ£ÀÄ ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜAiÀÄ ªÉÄïÉ
IV. ªÀÄAwæ, ¥ÀÄgÉÆûvÀ, ¸ÉãÁ¥Àw CªÀjUÉ ¤AiÀÄAvÀæt
MzÀV¹vÀÄ.
ªÀÄvÀÄÛ AiÀÄĪÀgÁd
III. gÀPÀëuÁ ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜAiÀÄ ºÀPÀÄÌ ¢ªÁ£À£À
PɼÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ½AzÀ DAiÀÄÄÝ ¸Àj PÉÊvÀ¦à EAVèõÀjUÉ
GvÀÛgÀ UÀÄgÀÄw¹. ªÀUÀðªÁ¬ÄvÀÄ.
PɼÀV£À DAiÉÄÌUÀ½AzÁAiÀÄÄÝ ¸Àj GvÀÛgÀ
(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ UÀÄgÀÄw¹.
(2) II ªÀiÁvÀæ (1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ
(3) III ªÀiÁvÀæ (2) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II ªÀiÁvÀæ
(3) II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III ªÀiÁvÀæ
(4) I, II, III ºÁUÀÆ IV (4) I, II ºÁUÀÆ III

66-A (4)
5. Which of the following
statements is correct?
(1) All the Ashokan inscriptions
are written uniformly in
Brahmi script
(2) In North-western India only
they are written in the
Brahmi script.
(3) Over a major part of the
Mauryan empire, the
Ashokan inscriptions were
written in the Brahmi script
while in the North-Western
part of India they were
written in the Kharoshti
script.
(4) All the Ashokan inscriptions
are written in Kharoshthi
script.
6. Who among the following were
the high officials during the
Mauryan Period?
I. Mantri and Purohita
II. Senapati and Yuvaraja
III. Mantri, Purohita and
Senapati.
IV. Mantri, Purohita, Senapati
and Yuvaraja.
Select the correct answer using
the codes given below.
(1) I only
(2) II only
(3) III only
(4) I, II, III and IV
66-A
7. Which of the following
statement/s is/are correct?
I. Islam was founded in the
early part of the 8th century
A.D.
II. Muhammad, the founder of
Islam was an Arabian
merchant.
III. Arabs began to regard
Muhammad with anger
when he began criticising
them of worshipping false
gods.
Select correct answer using the
codes given below.
(1) I only
(2) I and II only
(3) II and III only
(4) I, II and III
8. Robert Clive getting the Diwani
rights over Bengal Bihar and
Orissa resulted in the following.
I. It brought to the British a
great additional income
II. It helped them establish a
firm control over the law
and order
III. It transferred the right of
Defence from the Diwan to
the English East India
Company.
Select the correct answer using
the codes given below.
(1) I only
(2) I and II only
(3) II and III only
(4) I, II and III
(5)
9. F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ºÉýPÉ ¸ÀjAiÀiÁVzÉ ?
(1) EAVèõÀgÉÆA¢UÉ ºÉÊzÀgÀ£À
¸ÀA§AzsÀUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÀzÁ
ªÉÄÊwæAiÀÄÄvÀªÁVzÀݪÀÅ.
(2) ºÉÊzÀgÀ£ÀÄ DgÀA¨sÀ¢AzÀ®Æ
EAVèõÀgÀ
«gÉÆâüAiÀiÁVzÀÝ£ÀÄ.
(3) EAVèõÀgÉÆA¢UÉ ºÉÊzÀgÀ£À
¸ÀA§AzsÀUÀ¼ÀÄ Qæ.±À.1767gÀ
ªÀgÉUÉ §ºÀĪÀÄnÖUÉ
ªÉÄÊwæAiÀÄÄvÀªÁVzÀݪÀÅ.
(4) ºÉÊzÀgï ªÉÆzÀªÉÆzÀ®Ä
©ænµÀgÉÆA¢UÉ ºÀUÉvÀ£ÀzÀ
¸ÀA§AzsÀ ºÉÆA¢zÀÄÝ £ÀAvÀgÀ
ªÉÄÊwæAiÀÄÄvÀªÁzÀ£ÀÄ.
10. 1784 ªÀÄAUÀ¼ÀÆgÀÄ M¥ÀàAzÀzÀ £ÀAvÀgÀ
F PɼÀPÀAqÀ PÁgÀtPÁÌV
n¥ÀÄà¸ÀįÁÛ£À£ÀÄ ©ænµÀgÀ£ÀÄß
¸ÀA¥ÀÆtðªÁV ¸ÀzɧrAiÀÄĪÀ
¤zsÁðgÀPÉÌ §AzÀ£ÀÄ.
(1) zÀQët ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ, «±ÉõÀªÁV
PÀ£ÁðnPï ªÉÄÃ¯É vÀ£Àß ¥Àæ¨sÀÄvÀé
¸Áܦ¸ÀĪÀ CªÀ£À ªÀĺÀvÁéPÁAPÉëUÉ
EAVèõÀgÀÄ vÉÆqÀPÁVzÀÝgÀÄ.
(2) zÀQët ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ°è ©ænµÀgÀ
G¥À¹Üw ¬ÄAzÁV ªÉÄʸÀÆgÀÄ
gÁdåzÀ ªÁå¥ÁgÀ
ªÁtÂdåUÀ¼À »vÀPÉÌ C¥ÁgÀ
£ÀµÀÖªÁUÀ vÉÆqÀVvÀÄÛ.
(3) n¥ÀÄà«£À «gÀÄzÀÞ ©ænµÀgÀÄ zÉÆqÀØ
ªÉÄÊwæPÀÆlªÉÇAzÀ£ÀÄß ¤«Äð¸À
vÉÆqÀVzÀÝgÀÄ.
(4) n¥ÀÄà«£À «gÀÄzÀÞ PÉÆqÀUÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
ªÀÄ®¨ÁgÀ£À°è CªÀgÀÄ
§AqÁAiÀÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
¥ÀæZÉÆâ¸ÀÄwÛzÀÝgÀÄ.
66-A
11. n¥ÀÄà«£À ¥ÀvÀ£Á £ÀAvÀgÀ ªÉÄʸÀÆj£À
¥ÀæzÉñÀªÀ£ÀÄß «¨sÀf¸ÀĪÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ vÀªÀÄä
¥ÀæzÉñÀUÀ½UÉ ¸ÉÃ¥ÀðqÉUÉƽ¹PÉƼÀÄîªÀ
AiÉÆÃd£ÉAiÀÄ°è ¨sÁVAiÀiÁVzÀÝ
±ÀQÛUÀ¼À°è F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁgÀÄ
¸ÉÃjgÀ°®è ?
(1) CPÁðn£À £ÀªÁ§
(2) ºÉÊzÀgÁ¨Á¢£À ¤eÁªÀÄ
(3) ©ænµÀgÀÄ
(4) ªÀÄgÁoÀgÀÄ
12. PÉÆïÁgÀ a£ÀßzÀ UÀtÂUÉ ¤ÃgÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
«zÀÄåZÀÒQÛAiÀÄ ¥ÀÆgÉÊPÉ, EArAiÀÄ£ï
E£ï¹ÖlÆåmï D¥sï ¸ÉÊ£ïì ºÁUÀÆ
PÀ£ÀßqÀ ¸Á»vÀå ¥ÀjµÀwÛ£À ¸ÁÜ¥À£É
EªÀÅ F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ
zÉÆgÉAiÀÄ D½éPÉ PÁ®zÀ
¸ÁzsÀ£ÉUÀ¼ÁVzÀݪÀÅ?
(1) ªÀÄÆgÀ£ÉAiÀÄ PÀȵÀÚgÁd MqÉAiÀÄgï
(2) ºÀvÀÛ£ÉAiÀÄ ZÁªÀÄgÁd MqÉAiÀÄgï
(3) £Á®ér PÀȵÀÚgÁd MqÉAiÀÄgï
(4) dAiÀÄZÁªÀÄgÁd MqÉAiÀÄgï
13. zɺÀ° PÉʪÀ±ÀªÁzÀ MAzÀÄ
wAUÀ¼ÉƼÀUÉ 1857gÀ §AqÁAiÀĪÀÅ
F PɼÀPÀAqÀ AiÀiÁª ¥ÀæzÉñÀUÀ½UÉ
ºÀgÀrvÀÄ ?
I. PÁ£À¥ÀÄgÀ, ®PÉÆß, §£ÁgÀ¸ï
II. ºÉÊzÁæ¨Ázï, §gÉð,
CºÀªÀÄzÀ£ÀUÀgï
III. gÀhiÁ¤ì, C®ºÁ¨Ázï,
dUÀ¢Ã±À¥ÀÄgÀ
¸Àj GvÀÛgÀªÀ£ÀÄß F PɼÀV£À
DAiÉÄÌUÀ½AzÀ DAiÀÄÄÝ UÀÄgÀÄw¹.
(1) I ªÀiÁvÀæ
(2) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II ªÀiÁvÀæ
(3) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III ªÀiÁvÀæ
(4) I, II ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III
(6)
9. Which of the following
statements is correct?
(1) Haidar’s relations with The
English were always
friendly.
(2) Haidar was anti-British
from the very beginning
(3) Haidar’s relation with the
English were generally
friendly down to A. D. 1767
(4) Haidar was hostile to the
English in the beginning but
became friendly later.
10. After the treaty of Mangalore in
1784, Tipu became steadily
determined on the idea of
inflicting a total destruction of
the British because of which of
the following reason/s?
(1) They had come in the way
of his ambition of
domination over South
India, especially carnatic
(2) Mysorean trade and
commercial interests
suffered heavy losses
because of the presence of
the British in South India
(3) The British were building
up a grand alliance against
him
(4) British were instigating
rebellions in Kodagu and
Malabar against him
66-A
11. Who among the following was
not included in the powers that
parcelled out the territories of
Mysore and annexed them to
their own regions after the fall of
Tipu?
(1) Nawab of Arcot
(2) Nizam of Hyderabad
(3) The British
(4) The Marathas
12. Electricity and water supply to
Kolar Gold Fields,
establishment of the Indian
Institute of Science and Kannada
Sahitya Parishat were the
achievements of the period of
which of the following rulers?
(1) Krishnaraja Wodeyar III
(2) Chamaraja Wodeyar X
(3) Krishnaraja Wodeyar IV
(4) Jayachamaraja Wodeyar
13. Within a month of the capture of
Delhi, the Revolt of 1857 spread
to
I. Kanpur, Lucknow, Benaras
II. Hyderabad, Bareilly,
Ahmadnagar
III. Jhansi, Allahabad,
Jagadishpur
Select the correct answer using
the codes given below.
(1) I only
(2) I and II only
(3) I and III only
(4) I, II and III
(7)
14. gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ ºÉÆÃgÁlzÀ DgÀA©üPÀ 17. PÉÊUÁ CtıÀQÛ ¸ÁܪÀgÀzÀ
ºÀAvÀzÀ°è F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ PÁAiÀiÁðZÀgÀuÉ
¨sÁgÀwÃAiÀÄ gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ PÁAUÉæ¸À£À ªÀiÁqÀĪÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ?
GzÉÝñÀªÁVgÀ°®è ? (1) BARC ¨Á¨Á CtıÀQÛ
(1) ¨sÁgÀvÀ MAzÀÄ gÁµÀÖçªÁV ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzsÀ£Á PÉÃAzÀæ
gÀÆ¥ÀÄUÉƼÀÄîªÀ ¥ÀæQæAiÉÄAiÀÄ£ÀÄß (2) ISRO ¨sÁgÀwÃAiÀÄ ¨ÁºÁåPÁ±À
¥ÉÆæÃvÁ컸ÀĪÀzÀÄ. ¸ÀA±ÉÆÃzsÀ£Á PÉÃAzÀæ
(2) zÉñÀªÁ¹UÀ½UÉ vÀªÀÄä (3) NPCIL ¨sÁgÀwÃAiÀÄ CtıÀQÛ
gÁdQÃAiÀÄZÀlĪÀnPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¤UÀªÀÄ
£ÀqɸÀ®Ä MAzÀÄ KPÀwævÀ (4) gÀPÀëuÁ E¯ÁSÉ
ªÉâPÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß MzÀV¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
(3) zsÀªÀÄð¤gÀ¥ÉÃPÀë gÁµÀÖçªÉÇAzÀ£ÀÄß 18. ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ°è ¸ÁA¥ÀæzÁ¬ÄPÀªÁV PÁ¦ü
¤«Äð¸ÀĪÀzÀÄ. ¨É¼ÉAiÀÄĪÀ gÁdåUÀ¼ÁªÀŪÀÅ ?
(4) ©ænµÀ D½éPÉUÉ §»gÀAUÀ (1) C¸ÁìA, ªÀÄtÂ¥ÀÄgÀ,
¥Àæw¨sÀluÉAiÀÄ ¸À¤ßªÉñÀªÀ£ÀÄß £ÁUÁ¯ÁåAqï
¸ÀȶָÀĪÀzÀÄ. (2) PÀ£ÁðlPÀ, vÀ«Ä¼ÀÄ£ÁqÀÄ, PÉÃgÀ¼À
(3) UÀÄdgÁvÀ, ªÀĺÁgÁµÀÖç,
15. ªÉÆAmÁUÀÄ-ZɪÀÄì¥sÉÆqÀðgÀ ªÀÄzsÀå¥ÀæzÉñÀ
ªÀgÀ¢AiÀÄ£ÁßzsÀj¹ ©ænµÀ ¸ÀA¸ÀwÛ£À°è (4) PÀ£ÁðlPÀ, DAzsÀæ¥ÀæzÉñÀ, PÉÃgÀ¼À
¥Á¸ÁzÀ ªÀĸÀÆzÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß »ÃUÉAzÀÄ
PÀgÉAiÀÄ®ànÖvÀÄ. 19. PÀ£ÁðlPÀzÀ CvÀÄå£ÀßvÀ ²RgÀ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ?
(1) 1909 gÀ PÁAiÉÄÝ (1) £ÀA¢¨ÉlÖ
(2) 1919 gÀ ¨sÁgÀvÀ ¸ÀgÀPÁgÀzÀ (2) ZÁªÀÄÄAr ¨ÉlÖ
PÁAiÉÄÝ (3) ¥À²ÑªÀÄ WÀlÖUÀ¼ÀÄ
(3) 1935 gÀ ¨sÁgÀvÀ ¸ÀgÀPÁgÀzÀ (4) ªÀÄļÀåAiÀÄå£À Vj
PÁAiÉÄÝ
(4) ¨sÁgÀvÀ ¸ÁévÀAvÀæöåzÀ PÁAiÉÄÝ 20. 2011£Éà d£ÀUÀtwAiÀÄ ¥ÀæPÁgÀ
PÀ£ÁðlPÀ
16. AiÀiÁªÀ §UÉAiÀÄ ªÀÄtÄÚ ºÉaÑ£À ¤ÃgÀ£ÀÄß gÁdåzÀ°è ¸ÁPÀëgÀvÉAiÀÄ ¥ÀæªÀiÁt
»r¢lÄÖPÉƼÀÄîªÀ ¸ÁªÀÄxÀåð ±ÉÃPÀqÁ
ºÉÆA¢zÉ. 75.36 CzÀgÀ°è ¥ÀÄgÀĵÀgÀ ¸ÁPÀëgÀvÉAiÀÄ
(1) PÉA¥ÀÄ ªÀÄtÄÚ ¥ÀæªÀiÁtªÉµÀÄÖ.
(2) eÉA©nÖUÉAiÀÄ ªÀÄtÄÚ (1) 66.01%
(3) ªÉÄPÀÌ®Ä ªÀÄtÄÚ (2) 82.47%
(4) eÉÃr ªÀÄtÄÚ (3) 76.06%
(4) 57.80%
66-A (8)
14. Which among the following was
not the major objective of the
Indian National Congress in the
early stage of the National
Movement?
(1) Promoting the process of
India becoming a nation
(2) Creating a common platform
where countrymen could
conduct their political
activities.
(3) Building a secular nation
(4) Creating a situation of open
opposition to British rule.
15. A Bill based on the report of
Montagu Chelmsford was passed
in British Parliament and came
to be known as
(1) Act of 1909
(2) The Govern nent of India
Act of 1919
(3) The Govern neat of India
Act of 1935
(4) The Indian Independence
Act
16. Which type of soil retains
maximum amount of water?
(1) Red soil
(2) Laterite soil
(3) Alluvial soil
(4) Clayey
66-A
17. Who is the operators of Kaiga
nuclear power plant?
(1) Baba atomic Research
Center (BARC)
(2) Indian space Research
Organisation (ISRO)
(3) Nuclear Power Corporation
of India Limited (NPCIL)
(4) Ministry of Defence
18. The traditional major coffee
growing states of India.
(1) Assam, Manipur, Nagaland
(2) Karnataka, Tamil Nadu,
Kerala
(3) Gujarat, Maharashtra,
Madhya Pradesh
(4) Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh,
Kerala
19. Which is the highest peak in
Karnataka?
(1) Nandi hills
(2) Chamundi hills
(3) Western hills
(4) Mullayanagiri
20. The literacy rate of Karanataka
state as per 2011 census is
75.36% out of which male
literacy rate is ________.
(1) 66.01%
(2) 82.47%
(3) 76.06%
(4) 57.80%
(9)
21. 1976 gÀ PÀȵÁÚ §ZÁªÀvï PÀ«ÄõÀ£ï 24. ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ ¸ÀA«zsÁ£ÀzÀ AiÀiÁªÀ
wæð£ÀAvÉ PÀ£ÁðlPÀPÉÌ zÉÆgÉvÀ C£ÀÄZÉÑÃzÀªÀÅ wzÀÄÝ¥ÀrUÉ
¤Ãj£À ¥ÀæªÀiÁt ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAxÀ G¥À§AzsÀUÀ¼ÉÆA¢UÉ
(1) 800 n.JA.¹. ªÀåªÀºÀj¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ ?
(2) 560 n.JA.¹. (1) 250 £Éà C£ÀÄZÉÒÃzÀ
(3) 700 n.JA.¹. (2) 368 £Éà C£ÀÄZÉÒÃzÀ
(4) 2060 n.JA.¹. (3) 352 £Éà C£ÀÄZÉÒÃzÀ
(4) 74 £Éà C£ÀÄZÉÒÃzÀ
22. PÀ£ÁðlPÀzÀ PÀgÁªÀ½AiÀÄ°è
zÉÆgÉAiÀÄĪÀ ªÀÄvÀìöåzÀ ªÀÄÄRå 25. £ÀªÀÄä ¸ÀA«zsÁ£ÀzÀ II £Éà ¨sÁUÀzÀ 5
¥Àæ¨sÉÃzÀªÉAzÀgÉ jAzÀ 11 £Éà C£ÀÄZÉÒÃzÀUÀ¼ÀÄ------
(1) ºÀqÁØPï UÉ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹ªÉ.
(2) lÆ£Á (1) ªÀÄÆ®¨sÀÆvÀ ºÀPÀÄÌUÀ¼ÀÄ
(3) PÁqï (2) £ÁUÀjPÀvÀéPÉÌ ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀ
(4) ªÀiÁåPÀgÀ¯ï vÀvÀéUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¤AiÀĪÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ
23. §A¢ü ¥ÀævÀåQëÃPÀgÀt (ºÉéAiÀĸÀð (3) ªÀÄÆ®¨sÀÆvÀ PÀvÀðªÀåUÀ¼ÀÄ
PÁ¥Àð¸ï) F jl£À CxÀð (4) wzÀÄÝ¥ÀrAiÀÄ «zsÁ£À
(1) C¢üãÀ zÀeÉðAiÀÄ C¢üPÁjUÉ 26. F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ PÁAiÉÄÝAiÀÄÄ ªÀÄPÀ̼À
CªÀ£À C¢üPÁgÀ ªÁå¦ÛAiÀÄ°è zÀÄrªÉÄAiÀÄ£ÀÄß C¥ÀgÁzsÀªÉAzÀÄ
§gÀĪÀ PÁAiÀÄðªÀ£ÀÄß ¥ÀjUÀt¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ ?
ªÀiÁqÀĪÀAvÉ £ÁåAiÀiÁ®AiÀÄ (1) OzÉÆåÃVPÀ PÁAiÉÄÝ
¤zÉÃð²¸ÀĪÀ DeÉÕ.
(2) ªÀgÀzÀQët ¤µÉÃzsÀ PÁAiÉÄÝ
(2) C¢üãÀ zÀeÉðAiÀÄ C¢üPÁjUÉ
(3) Qæ«Ä£À¯ï PÁ£ÀÆ£ÀÄ wzÀÄÝ¥Àr
CªÀ£À C¢üPÁgÀ ªÁå¦ÛUÉ
PÁAiÉÄÝ
M¼À¥ÀqÀzÉà EgÀĪÀ PÁAiÀÄðªÀ£ÀÄß
(4) ªÀÄ»¼Á C¸À¨sÀå ¤gÀÆ¥Àt
ªÀiÁqÀzÀAvÉ £ÁåAiÀiÁ®AiÀÄ
PÁAiÉÄÝ
¤ÃqÀĪÀ DeÉÕ.
(3) §AzsÀ£ÀPÉÌ M¼À¥ÀlÖ ªÀåQÛAiÀÄ£ÀÄß 27. PÉÊUÁjPÉUÀ¼À°è PÁ«ÄðPÀjUÉ ªÀåªÀ¸ÁÜ¥ÀPÀ
£ÁåAiÀiÁ®AiÀÄPÉÌ ºÁdgÀÄ ªÀÄAqÀ°AiÀÄ°è ¥Á¯ÉÆμÀÄîªÀ
¥Àr¸ÀĪÀAvÉ £ÁåAiÀiÁ®AiÀÄ CªÀPÁ±ÀªÀ£ÀÄß F PɼÀV£À
C¢üPÁgÀUÀ½UÉ ¤ÃqÀĪÀ DeÉÕ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀgÀ°è PÁt§ºÀÄzÀÄ ?
(4) MAzÀÄ «µÀAiÀĪÀ£ÀÄß vÀ£ÀUÉ (1) ªÀÄÆ®¨sÀÆvÀ ºÀPÀÄÌUÀ¼ÀÄ
CxÀªÁ ¨ÉÃgÉÆAzÀÄ C¢üPÁjUÉ (2) ¤zÉÃð±ÀPÀ vÀvÀéUÀ¼ÀÄ
ªÀUÁð¬Ä¸ÀĪÀAvÉ (3) ¦ÃpPÉ
£ÁåAiÀiÁ®AiÀÄ ¤ÃqÀĪÀ DeÉÕ. (4) ªÀÄÆ®¨sÀÆvÀ PÀvÀðªÀåUÀ¼ÀÄ

66-A (10)
21. According to 1976 Krishna
Bachavath Commission what is
the total share of water available
to Karnataka ?
(1) 800 TMC
(2) 560 TMC
(3) 700 TMC
(4) 2060 TMC
22. Name the species of fish found
in coastal Karnataka.
(1) Haddock
(2) Tuna
(3) Cod
(4) Mackeral
23. The Habeas corpus writ means
(1) Order of the court to an
inferior authority to do an
act which falls within his
jurisdiction.
(2) Order of the court to
prohibit an inferior
authority from doing an act
which does not fall within
his jurisdiction.
(3) Order of the court directing
the authority to produce the
detained person in the court.
(4) Order of the court to an
inferior authority to transfer
the matter to it or to some
other authority.
66-A
24. Which article of the Indian
constitution deals with the
provisions related to
amendment?
(1) Article 250
(2) Article 368
(3) Article 352
(4) Article 74
25. Part II, Articles 5 to 11 of be
Constitution deal with
(1) Fundamental rights
(2) Principles and rules
governing citizenship
(3) Fundamental duties
(4) Method of amendment
26. Employment of child labour is
considered as crime under which
of the following acts?
(1) The industrial act
(2) The dowry prohibition act
(3) The criminal law
amendment act
(4) Indecent representation of
women act
27. Opportunity for workers
participation in management of
industries is secured under
which of the following?
(1) Fundamental rights
(2) Directive principles
(3) The preamble
(4) Fundamental duties
(11)
28. ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ ªÀĸÀÆzÉ ªÀÄAqÀ£ÉUÉ 31. ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ ¸ÀA«zsÁ£ÀzÀ°è
¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀAvÉ PɼÀV£À ºÉýPÉUÀ¼À°è £ÀªÀÄÆ¢¸À®àlÖ ¸ÀªÀiÁ£ÀvÉAiÀÄ ºÀPÀÄÌ
AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¸Àj ? PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀPÉÌ
(1) CzÀ£ÀÄß gÁdå¸À¨sÉÃAiÀÄ°è ¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÉ ?
ªÀÄAr¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
(1) ªÀåQÛvÀé «PÀ¸À£ÀPÉÌ CªÀPÁ±À
(2) CzÀ£ÀÄß ¸ÀA¸ÀwÛ£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉÃ
¸ÀzÀ£ÀzÀ¯ÁèzÀgÀÆ (2) zsÀªÀÄð, d£ÁAUÀ, eÁw, °AUÀ,
ªÀÄAr¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ. d£Àä¸ÀܼÀ EvÁå¢UÀ¼À DzsÁgÀzÀ
(3) CzÀ£ÀÄß ¯ÉÆÃPÀ¸À¨sÉAiÀÄ°è ªÀiÁvÀæ ªÉÄÃ¯É vÁgÀvÀªÀÄå ªÀiÁqÀzÉÃ
ªÀÄAr¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ. EgÀĪÀÅzÀÄ.
(4) AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÆ C®è. (3) ¤gÀAPÀıÀ §AzsÀ£ÀzÀ «gÀÄzÀÞ
29. ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ CzsÀåPÀëgÀ ZÀÄ£ÁªÀuÁ ¥ÀæQæAiÉÄ ¸ÁévÀAvÀæöå
AiÀÄ°è AiÀiÁgÀÄ ¨sÁUÀªÀ»¸ÀÄvÁÛgÉ ? (4) C®à¸ÀASÁåvÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜUÀ½UÉ
(1) ¸ÀA¸ÀwÛ£À ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀÄ ¤ÃqÀ¯ÁzÀ ¸ÁévÀAvÀæöå.
(2) «zsÁ£À ¥ÀjµÀvï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
«zsÁ£À¸À¨sÁ ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀÄ 32. PÉÃAzÀæzÀ°è CmÁ¤ð d£ÀgÀ¯ïjgÀĪÀAvÉ
(3) gÁdå¸À¨sÉ, ¯ÉÆÃPÀ¸À¨sÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ gÁdåzÀ°è AiÀiÁjgÀÄvÁÛgÉ ?
«zsÁ£À ¥ÀjµÀvï ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀÄ
(4) gÁdå¸À¨sÉ, ¯ÉÆÃPÀ¸À¨sÉ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ (1) CPËAmÉAmï d£ÀgÀ¯ï
«zsÁ£À¸À¨sÁ ¸ÀzÀ¸ÀågÀÄ (2) CqÉÆéPÉÃl d£ÀgÀ¯ï
30. 1992gÀ 73£Éà ¸ÀA«zsÁ£À (3) ¯ÉÆÃPÁAiÀÄÄPÀÛ
wzÀÄÝ¥ÀrAiÀÄÄ PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀPÉÌ (4) PÁ£ÀÆ£ÀÄ ªÀÄAwæ
ªÀĺÀvÀé ¤ÃqÀÄvÀÛzÉ ?
(1) UÁæ«ÄÃt ¥ÀæzÉñÀUÀ¼À°è 33. PɼÀUÉ PÉÆnÖgÀĪÀ zÉñÀzÀ ¸ÁA¸ÀÌøwPÀ
¥ÀjuÁªÀÄPÁj ªÀ®AiÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÁA¸ÀÌøwPÀ
PÁAiÀÄð¤ªÀðºÀuÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß PÉÃAzÀæUÀ¼À ¥ÀnÖAiÀÄ°è
¸ÀA¹zÀÞvÉ UÉƽ¸ÀĪÀ ¸À®ÄªÁV ¸ÀjAiÀiÁzÀªÀÅUÀ¼À£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹.
¥ÀAZÁAiÀÄvÀ ªÀ®AiÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ ¸ÁA¸ÀÌ ø wPÀ PÉÃAzÀæ
ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¥ÀÄ£Àgï
I GvÀÛgÀ ªÀ®AiÀÄ ¥ÉnAiÀiÁ®
WÀn¸ÀĪÀzÀÄ.
(2) £ÀUÀgÀ ¥ÀæzÉñÀzÀ DyðPÀ II zÀQët ªÀ®AiÀÄ ¨ÉAUÀ¼ÀÆgÀÄ
ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜVAvÀ UÁæ«ÄÃt III F±Á£Àå ªÀ®AiÀÄ ¢ªÀiÁ¥ÀÄgÀ
¥ÀæzÉñÀzÀ DyðPÀ ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜAiÀÄ£ÀÄß IV ¥ÀƪÀð ªÀ®AiÀÄ ZÉ£ÉÊ
§®¥Àr¸ÀĪÀzÀÄ. (1) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ II
(3) gÁdå ¸ÀPÁðgÀªÀ£ÀÄß (2) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ III
§®¥Àr¸ÀĪÀzÀÄ. (3) I ªÀÄvÀÄÛ IV
(4) PÉÃAzÀæ ¸ÀPÁðgÀªÀ£ÀÄß
(4) AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¸Àj E®è
§®¥Àr¸ÀĪÀzÀÄ.

66-A (12)
28. Which among the following 31. Right to equality under Indian
statements is true regarding Constitution refers to which of
introduction of money bill? the following conditions?
(1) It can be introduced in
Rajya Sabha (1) Opportunity to develop
(2) It can be introduced in personality
either house of the (2) No discrimination on
Parliament grounds of religion, race,
(3) It can be introduced only in caste, sex, place of birth, etc
Lok Sabha
(3) Freedom from arbitrary
(4) None of the above
arrest
29. Who participates in the election
proceedings of the Indian (4) Freedom granted to minority
President? institutions
(1) The members of Parliament
(2) The members of Legislative 32. Who is the state counterpart of
council and Legislative Attorney-General?
Assembly
(3) The members of Rajya (1) Accountant General
Sabha, Lok Sabha and (2) Advocate General
Legislative councils (3) Lokayukta
(4) The members of Rajya (4) Law Minister
Sabha, Lok Sabha and
Legislative Assemblies
33. In the following list of cultural
30. The 73rd Amendment act 1992
gave importance to which of the sectors and cultural centers
following? choose the correct one.
(1) To revamp the Panchayat SECTORS CENTERS
system so as to ensure I. North sector Patiyal
effective working in rural
II. South sector Bengaluru
areas.
(2) To make rural economy III North-east sector Dimapura
stronger than urban IV. East sector Chennai
economy (1) I and II
(3) To strengthen the state
(2) I and III
government
(4) To strengthen the central (3) I and IV
government (4) None of these

66-A (13)
34. ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ°è ¥ÀæxÀªÀÄ ¹ªÉÄAmï 38. ZÀAzÀæ£À ªÉÄÃ¯É PÉ®¸À ¤ªÀð»¸ÀzÀ
PÁSÁð£ÉAiÀÄÄ J°è ªÀÄvÀÄÛ AiÀiÁªÁUÀ ¸ÁzsÀ£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ?
¥ÁægÀA¨sÀªÁ¬ÄvÀÄ ? (1) vÁ¥ÀªÀiÁ¥ÀPÀ (xÀªÀiÁð«ÄÃlgï)
(1) ªÀÄÄA§¬Ä - 1819
(2) gÉÆûvÀzÀÄåw ªÀiÁ¥ÀPÀ
(2) £ÀªÀzɺÀ° - 1901
(¸ÉàPÉÆæëÄÃlgï)
(3) ªÀÄzÁæ¸À (ZÉ£ÉÊ) - 1904
(4) ¨ÉAUÀ¼ÀÆgÀÄ - 1906 (3) ¸ÉÊ¥À£ï
(4) ¹àçAUï ¨Á宣ïì
35. F PɼÀV£À ºÉÆðPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀÆtð
UÉƽ¹. 39. UÀæºÀªÀÅ PÁAvÀPÉëÃvÀæ ºÉÆA¢gÀ®Ä
AiÉÄ£ï : PÀgɤì :: EgÀĪÀ PÁgÀtªÉãÀÄ ?
(1) »vÁÛ¼É : ¯ÉÆúÀ (1) qÉÊ£ÀªÉÆà ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄ
(2) ºÀƪÀÅ : ¸ÀĪÁ¸À£É
(2) qÁ¥Àègï ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄ
(3) PÁUÀzÀ : ¥ÀĸÀÛPÀ
(3) zÀÄåw«zÀÄåvï ¥ÀjuÁªÀÄ
(4) PÉÃgÀ¼À : gÁdå
(4) vÀ£Àß CPÀëzÀ ªÉÄð£À CzÀgÀ
36. M§â ºÀÄqÀÄUÀ FUÀ vÀ£Àß vÀAzÉVAvÀ ¨sÀæªÀÄuÉ
ªÀÄÆgÀ£Éà MAzÀgÀµÀÄÖ ªÀAiÀĹì£ÀªÀ£ÁV
zÁÝ£É. ºÀ£ÉßgÀqÀÄ ªÀµÀðUÀ¼À 40. MAzÀÄ PÀ©âtzÀ ªÀ¸ÀÄÛ«UÉ vÀÄPÀÄÌ
£ÀAvÀgÀ DvÀ£ÀÄ vÀ£Àß vÀAzÉAiÀÄ ªÀAiÀĹì£À »rzÁUÀ, PÀ©âtzÀ DPÉìöÊqÀÄ
CzsÀðzÀ ªÀAiÀĹì£ÀªÀ £ÁVgÀÄvÁÛ£É.
(1) ªÀ¸ÀÄÛ«£À vÀÆPÀzÀ°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉÃ
ºÁUÁzÀgÉ ºÀÄqÀÄUÀ£À FV£À ªÀAiÀĸÉìµÀÄÖ ?
§zÀ¯ÁªÀuÉ E®èzÉ
(1) 10 ªÀµÀðUÀ¼ÀÄ
gÀÆ¥ÀÄUÉƼÀÄîvÀÛzÉ.
(2) 11 ªÀµÀðUÀ¼ÀÄ
(3) 12 ªÀµÀðUÀ¼ÀÄ (2) ªÀ¸ÀÄÛ«£À vÀÆPÀzÀ°è
(4) 13 ªÀµÀðUÀ¼ÀÄ E½PÉAiÀiÁUÀĪÀ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ
gÀÆ¥ÀÄUÉƼÀÄîvÀÛzÉ.
37. F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ (3) ªÀ¸ÀÄÛ«£À vÀÆPÀzÀ°è
C£ÀĪÀA²ÃAiÀÄvÉAiÀÄ PÁ¬Ä¯ÉAiÀiÁVzÉ ? ºÉZÀѼÀzÉÆA¢UÉ
(1) (¸ÀÌ«ð) gÀPÀÛ ¦vÀÛ ªÁå¢ü gÀÆ¥ÀÄUÉƼÀÄîvÀÛzÉ.
(2) (jPÉmïì) ªÉÄzÀÄ ªÀÄÆ¼É gÉÆÃUÀ (4) ªÀ¸ÀÄÛ«£À §tÚ CxÀªÁ vÀÆPÀzÀ°è
(3) §tÚ PÀÄgÀÄqÀÄvÀ£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÉà §zÀ¯ÁªÀuÉ GAlÄ
(4) EgÀļÀÄ PÀÄgÀÄqÀÄvÀ£À ªÀiÁqÀzÉ.
66-A (14)
34. Where and when the first cement 38. A device which would not work
industry was started in India ? on the moon is
(1) Mumbai 1819
(1) Thermometer
(2) New Delhi 1901
(3) Madras(Chennai) 1904 (2) Spectrometer
(4) Bangalore 1906 (3) Siphon
(4) Spring balance
35. Complete the following analogy.
Yen : Currency ::
(1) brass : metal 39. What causes a planet to have a
(2) flower : fragrance magnetic field?
(3) paper : book
(1) The dynamo effect
(4) Kerala : state
(2) The Doppler effect
36. A boy now one third as old as (3) The photoelectric effect
his father. Twelve years later he
will be half as old as his father. (4) Its rotation about its axis
Then the present age of the boy
is
(1) 10 years 40. When an iron object gets rusted,
(2) 11 years iron oxide is formed
(3) 12 years (1) without any change in the
(4) 13 years weight of the object
(2) with decrease in the weight
37. Which of the following is
of the object
hereditary disorder?
(1) Scurvy (3) with increase in the weight
(2) Rickets of the object
(3) Colour blindness (4) without any change in the
(4) Night blindness colour of the object
66-A (15)
41. F PɼÀV£À ºÉýPÉUÀ½AzÀ
vÁQðPÀªÁV §gÀ¯ÁzÀAxÀ
wêÀiÁð£ÀªÀ£ÀÄß UÀÄgÀÄw¹.
ºÉýPÉ : J®è ¸ÀIJQëvÀ d£ÀgÀÄ
¸ÀÄ¢Þ¥ÀwæPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄßNzÀÄvÁÛgÉ.
PÀĪÀiÁgÀ£ï ¸ÀÄ¢Ý ¥ÀwæPÉUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
NzÀĪÀÅ¢®è.
wêÀiÁð£À:
I. PÀĪÀiÁgÀ£ï ¸ÀIJQëvÀ£À®è
II. ¸ÀÄ¢Ý ¥ÀwæPÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß NzÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
¸ÀIJQëvÀjUÉ CUÀvÀåªÉãÀÆ C®è
(1) 2£Éà wêÀiÁð£ÀPÉÌ ªÀiÁvÀæ
§gÀ¯ÁVzÉ
(2) 1£Éà wêÀiÁð£ÀPÉÌ ªÀiÁvÀæ
§gÀ¯ÁVzÉ
(3) 1 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 2£ÉÃ
wêÀiÁð£ÀUÀ¼ÉgÀqÀPÀÆÌ
§gÀ¯ÁVzÉ
(4) 1 CxÀªÁ 2gÀ°è MAzÀÄ
wêÀiÁð£ÀPÉÌ §gÀ¯ÁVzÉ
42. F PÀ¼ÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è£À AiÀiÁªÀ
DAiÉÄÌAiÀÄÄ vÀPÀð§zÀÞªÁVzÉ ?
ºÉýPÉ : ¥ÉÆzÉAiÀÄ°ègÀĪÀ JgÀqÀÄ
¥ÀQëUÀ½VAvÀ PÉÊAiÀÄ°ègÀĪÀ MAzÀÄ
¥ÀQëAiÀÄÄ ¨É¯É¨Á¼ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
wêÀiÁð£À :
I. £ÀªÀÄä §½ K¤zÉAiÉÆà CµÀÖPÉÌ
£ÁªÀÅ vÀȦۥÀlÖPÉƼÀî¨ÉÃPÀÄ.
II. £ÀªÀÄä §½ EgÀ¢gÀĪÀ
ªÀ¸ÀÄÛ«UÉ £ÁªÀÅ ºÀA§°¸À
¨ÁgÀzÀÄ
(1) 1 ªÀiÁvÀæ
(2) 2 ªÀiÁvÀæ
(3) 1 CxÀªÁ 2gÀ°è
AiÀiÁªÀÅzÁzÀgÀÆ MAzÀÄ
(4) 1 ªÀÄvÀÄÛ 2 EªÉgÀqÀÆ
66-A
43. ªÀÄÄQ®£ï ºÀ£ÉßgÀqÀÄ ªÀµÀð ªÀAiÀĹì£À
ºÀÄqÀÄUÀ ªÀÄÆgÀÄ ªÀµÀðUÀ½AzÀ DvÀ£ÀÄ
vÀ£Àß vÀAzÉ vÁ¬ÄUÉ MAzÀÄ £Á¬Ä
¨ÉÃPÉAzÀÄ PÉüÀÄwÛzÁÝ£É. DvÀ£À vÀAzÉ
vÁ¬ÄAiÀÄÄ ªÀ¸Àw ¸ÀAQÃtðzÀ°è
(C¥ÁlðªÉÄAmï) £Á¬ÄAiÀÄÄ
¸ÀªÀiÁzsÁ£À¢AzÀ EgÀĪÀÅ¢®èªÉAzÀÄ
vÁªÀÅ ¨sÁ«¸ÀĪÀÅzÁV DvÀ¤UÉ
ºÉüÀÄwÛzÁÝgÉ. DzÀgÉ CªÀgÀÄ DvÀ¤UÉ
¥ÀQëAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ElÄÖPÉƼÀî®Ä C£ÀĪÀÄw
¤ÃrgÀÄvÁÛgÉ. ªÀÄÄQ®£ï EzÀĪÀgÉUÉ
vÁ£ÀÄ AiÀiÁªÀ «zsÀzÀ ¥ÀQëAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
EµÀÖ¥ÀqÀ§ºÀÄzÀÄ JA§ÄzÀ£ÀÄß
¤zsÀðj¹gÀĪÀÅ¢®è.
ºÁVzÀÝgÉ, F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ
ºÉýPÉAiÀÄÄ ¤dªÁzÀÄzÀÄ ?
(1) ªÀÄÄQ®£Àß vÀAzÉ-vÁ¬Ä,
£Á¬ÄUÀ½VAvÀ ºÉZÁÑV
¥ÀQëAiÀÄ£ÀÄß EµÀÖ¥ÀqÀÄvÁÛgÉ.
(2) ªÀÄÄQ®£ï ¥ÀQëAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
EµÀÖ¥ÀqÀĪÀÅ¢®è
(3) ªÀÄÄQ®£ï vÀ£Àß vÀAzÉ-
vÁ¬ÄAiÉÆA¢UÉ ªÀ¸Àw
¸ÀAQÃtðzÀ°è (C¥ÁlðªÉÄAmï)
ªÁ¹¸ÀÄvÁÛ£É.
(4) ªÀÄÄQ®£ï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ DvÀ£À vÀAzÉ-
vÁ¬Ä C°èAzÀ ¨ÉÃgÉqÉ
ºÉÆÃUÀ§AiÀĸÀÄwÛzÁÝgÉ.
44. eÁUÀwPÀ ¸ÁÜ£À ¤zsÀðgÀuÉ ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜAiÀÄÄ
F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀPÉÌ CªÀPÁ±À
PÀ°à¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ ?
(1) ¨sÀÆzÀȱÀå
(2) D¼ÀªÀ£ÀÄß C¼ÉAiÀÄĪÀÅzÀÄ
(3) ¸ÀܼÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄ
(4) zÀÆgÀ
(16)
41. Identify the conclusions which
follows logically from the
statement.
Statement : All educated
people read newspapers.
Kumaran does not read
newspaper.
Conclusions :
I. Kumaran is not educated
II. Reading newspaper is not
essential to be educated.
(1) Only conclusions II follows
(2) Only conclusions I follows
(3) Both I and II follows
(4) Either I or II follows
42. Which of the following option
follows logically ?
Statement : A bird in hand is
worth two in the bush
Conclusions :
I. We should be content with
what we have.
II. We should not crave for
what is not
(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Either I or II
(4) Both I and II
66-A
43. Mukilan is twelve years old. For
three years, he has been asking
his parents for a dog. His parents
have told him that they believe a
dog would not be happy in an
apartment, but they have given
him permission to have a bird.
Mukilan has not yet decided
what kind of bird he would like
to have.
Which of the following statement
must be true then?
(1) Mukilan’s parents like birds
better than dogs
(2) Mukilan does not like birds
(3) Mukilan lives in an
apartment with his parents
(4) Mukilan and his parents
would like to move.
44. Global positioning system
provides the following :
(1) Landscape
(2) Measuring depth
(3) Location and time
(4) Distance
(17)
45. 2011gÀ d£ÀUÀtw ¥ÀæPÁgÀ ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ 50. L.J¸ï.L.J¸ï. EzÀÄ F
d£À¸ÀASÉå JµÀÄÖ ? PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀgÀ
¥ÀæxÀªÀiÁPÀëgÀUÀ¼ÀÄ ?
(1) 1.18 ©°AiÀÄ£ï (1) E¸Áè«ÄPï ¸ÉÖÃmï EAl°eÉ£ïì
(2) 1.21 ©°AiÀÄ£ï ¸À«ð¸ï
(2) E¸Áè«ÄPï ¸ÉÖÃmï D¥sï EgÁPï
(3) 1.05 ©°AiÀÄ£ï CAqï ¹jAiÀiÁ
(4) 1.20 ©°AiÀÄ£ï (3) E¸Áè«ÄPï ¸ÉÖÃmï D¥sï EgÁ£ï
46. ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ°è AiÀiÁªÀ gÁdåªÀÅ Cwà CAqï ¹jAiÀiÁ
(4) EAlgï ¸À«ð¸À¸ï EAl°eÉ£ïì
ºÉZÀÄÑ d£À¸ÀASÉå ºÉÆA¢zÉ ? D¥sï ¹jAiÀiÁ
(1) ©ºÁgï 51. ¥ÀnÖ-1 gÀ°è ¨Á§ÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀnÖ-2
(2) ªÀÄzsÀå¥ÀæzÉñÀ gÉÆA¢UÉ ºÉÆA¢¹ §gɬÄj.
(3) ªÀĺÁgÁµÀÖç ¥ÀnÖ - 1 ¥ÀnÖ - 2
A) ¨sÁgÀv I) D¯ïà÷ì (D¯ÉàöÊ£ï)
(4) GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀæzÉñÀ B) ¹éqÀÓgÀ¯ÁåAqï II) D¯ÉØöå
47. ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ MlÄÖ PÉÃAzÁæqÀ½vÀ C) ¸ÉÊ©ÃjAiÀÄ III) DåAr¸ï
D) a° IV) CgÁªÀ½
¥ÀæzÉñÀUÀ¼ÀÄ JµÀÄÖ ? ¸ÀAPÉÃvÀ :
(1) 8 (2) 9 A B C D
(3) 7 (4) 10 (1) II III IV I
(2) II IV I III
48. FPɼÀV£À gÁdåUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀ (3) IV I II III
gÁdåªÀÅ ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ°è CvÀåAvÀ aPÀÌ (4) I II III IV
gÁdåªÁVzÉ ? 52. F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ PÀȵÁÚ
(1) CgÀÄuÁZÀ® ¥ÀæzÉñÀ £À¢AiÀÄ G¥À-£À¢AiÀÄ®è ?
(2) ªÉÄÃWÁ®AiÀÄ (1) WÀl¥Àæ¨sÁ
(3) UÉÆêÁ (2) ªÀÄ®¥Àæ¨sÁ
(3) ©üêÀiÁ
(4) ¹QÌA
(4) ¨sÀzÁæ
49. f-7 EzÀÄ F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀPÉÌ
53. ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ°è ¥ÀlÖtªÀ£ÀÄß F PɼÀV£À
¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÀÄzÁVgÀÄvÀÛzÉ ?
AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀgÀ DzsÁgÀzÀ ªÉÄïÉ
(1) K¼ÀÄ gÁµÀÖçUÀ¼À ªÀÄÄRå¸ÀÜgÀÄ ¥Àj¨sÁ¶¸À ¯ÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ ?
(2) «±ÀézÀ K¼ÀÄ ²æêÀÄAvÀ C©üªÀÈ¢Þ (1) £ÀUÀgÀ ¸À¨sÉ EgÀĪÀ ¸ÀܼÀ
ºÉÆA¢zÀ gÁµÀÖçUÀ¼ÀÄ (2) ¥ËgÀ¸À¨sÁ PÉëÃvÀæ ¸À«Äw EgÀĪÀ
(3) «±ÀézÀ K¼ÀÄ C©üªÀÈ¢Þ ¸ÀܼÀ
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66-A (18)
45. As per 2011 Census India’s total 50. ISIS is an acronym of which of
population is the following :
(1) Islamic State Intelligence
(1) 1.18 billion service
(2) 1.21 billion (2) Islamic State of Iraq and
(3) 1.05 billion Syria
(3) Islamic State of Iran and
(4) 1.20 billion Syria
46. Which state of the following has (4) Inter Services Intelligence
of Syria
highest population in India ?
(1) Bihar 51. Match the items of List-1 with
(2) Madhya Pradesh List-2 :
List-1 List-2
(3) Maharashtra
A) India I) Alpine
(4) Uttar Pradesh B) Switzerland II) Altai
47. Total union territories of India is C) Siberia III) Andes
D) Chile IV) Aravalli
(1) 8 (2) 9 A B C D
(3) 7 (4) 10 (1) II III IV I
(2) II IV I III
48. Which of the following is (3) IV I II III
smallest State in India ? (4) I II III IV
(1) Arunachal Pradesh
52. Which of the following is not a
(2) Meghalaya tributary of the river Krishna ?
(3) Goa (1) Ghataprabha
(4) Sikkim (2) Malaprabha
(3) Bhima
49. G7 refers to which of the (4) Bhadra
following ?
(1) Heads of seven 53. In India a town is defined on the
governments basis of which of the following :
(2) Seven wealthiest developed (1) A place with municipal
nations of the world corporation
(2) A place with municipal area
(3) Seven developing countries
committee
of the world (3) A place having more than
(4) Seven underdeveloped 5000 inhabitants
countries of the world (4) All the above
66-A (19)
54. 2014gÀ ©æPïì (BRICS) ±ÀÈAUÀ¸À¨sÉUÉ 58. ¥ÀnÖ-1 gÀ°è£À ¨Á§ÄUÀ¼À£ÀÄß ¥ÀnÖ-2
F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ gÁµÀÖçUÀ¼À gÀ°ègÀĪÀ ¨Á§ÄUÀ¼ÉÆA¢UÉ ºÉÆA¢¹
ªÀÄÄRå¸ÀÜgÀÄ ºÁdjzÀÝgÀÄ ? §gɬÄj.
(1) ¨sÁgÀvÀ, aãÁ, AiÀÄÄ.J¸ï.J., ¥ÀnÖ - 1 ¥ÀnÖ - 2
¹AUÁ¥ÀÄgÀ A) PÉÃgÀ¼À I) ¯ÁªÀtÂ
(2) ¨sÀÆvÁ£ï, £ÉÃ¥Á¼À, ¹QÌA, B) ªÀĺÁgÁµÀÖç II) ¨sÁAUÁæ
²æîAPÁ C) ¥ÀAeÁ¨ï III) UÀ¨Áð
(3) ¨Éæf¯ï, gÀµÁå, ¨sÁgÀvÀ, aãÁ D) UÀÄdgÁvï IV) vÉAiÀÄåªÀiï
ªÀÄvÀÄÛ zÀQët D¦üæPÀ A B C D
(4) gÀµÁå, ¨sÁgÀvÀ, AiÀÄÄ.PÉ., (1) IV I II III
AiÀÄÄ.J¸ï.J.
(2) II III IV I
55. F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ zÉñÀzÀ°è ¥sÀÄåf (3) III II I IV
¥ÀªÀðvÀ EzÉ ? (4) II III I IV
(1) aãÁ 59. F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀ£ÀÄß
(2) EAqÉÆãÉöAiÀiÁ ¸Á¢ü¸ÀĪÀÅzÀÄ PÁUÉÆÃqÀÄ ¸ÀvÁåUÀæºÀzÀ
(3) PÉÆÃjAiÀÄ UÀÄjAiÀiÁVvÀÄÛ ?
(4) d¥Á£ï (1) PÀȶ ZÀ¼ÀĪÀ½
(2) FrUÀ zÀAUÉ
56. F PɼÀV£À CgÀ¸ÀgÀ°è AiÀiÁªÀ CgÀ¸À£À (3) ¨sÀÆ ªÀiÁ°ÃPÀgÀ gÀPÀëuÉ
DqÀ½vÀ ªÀåªÀ¸ÉÜAiÀÄ°è PÀ¯Áåt gÁdåzÀ (4) ¸ÁªÀiÁfPÀ ¸ÀÄzsÁgÀuÉ
DgÀA©üPÀ ¥ÀjPÀ®à£ÉAiÀÄÄ 60. F PɼÀV£ÀªÀgÀ°è DzsÀĤPÀ PÀ£ÁðlPÀzÀ
¥Àæw©A©vÀªÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ ? »AzÀĽzÀ ªÀUÀðUÀ¼À £ÉÃvÁgÀ AiÀiÁgÀÄ ?
(1) ZÀAzÀæUÀÄ¥ÀÛ ªÀiËAiÀÄð (1) J¸ï.¤d°AUÀ¥Àà
(2) C±ÉÆÃPÀ ªÀiËAiÀÄð (2) ©.§¸ÀªÀ°AUÀ¥Àà
(3) ¥ÀÄ®PÉò - II (3) PÉ.ºÀ£ÀĪÀÄAvÀAiÀÄå
(4) gÁdgÁd ZÉÆüÀ (4) r.zÉêÀgÁd CgÀ¸ï
61. __________ PÁgÀt¢AzÀ
57. F PɼÀV£ÀªÀgÀ°è AiÀiÁgÀÄ VæÃPï Qæ«ÄUÀ¼ÀÄ ¤Ãj£À ªÉÄÃ¯É ªÀÄļÀÄUÀzÉ
EwºÁ¸ÀPÁgÀ ? ZÀ°¸À§ºÀÄzÀÄ.
(1) °« (1) zÀæªÀ¹Üw ªÉÄîÄäPÀ MvÀÛqÀ
(2) mÁå¹l¸ï (2) QæAiÀiÁ²Ã® ªÉÄïÉÃgÀÄ«PÉ
(3) PÁåmÉÆà (3) ¤Ãj£À ªÀÄAzÀvÀé
(4) ºÉgÉÆÃqÁl¸ï (4) ¤Ãj£À ªÉÄïÉäöÊ J¼ÉvÀ

66-A (20)
54. The BRICS summit of 2014 was 58. Match the items of List-I with
attended by which of the List-II
following heads of countries ? List-I List-II
(1) India, China, USA and A) Kerala I) Lavani
Singapore B) Maharashtra II) Bhangra
(2) Bhutan, Nepal, Sikkim and C) Punjab III) Garba
Sri Lanka D) Gujarat IV) Theyyam
(3) Brazil, Russia, India, China A B C D
and South Africa (1) IV I II III
(4) Russia, India, UK and USA (2) II III IV I
(3) III II I IV
55. In which of the following (4) II III I IV
country Mt. Fuji is located ?
(1) China 59. The Kagodu Satyagraha aimed at
achieving which of the following :
(2) Indonesia
(1) Agrarian Movement
(3) Korea
(2) Idiga mutiny
(4) Japan (3) Protecting the landlords
(4) Social reformation
56. The early concept of welfare
state is reflected in the 60. Who among the following
administrative system of which Championed the cause of
of the following kings ? depressed classes in modern
(1) Chandragupta Maurya Karnataka?
(2) Ashoka Maurya (1) S Nijalingappa
(2) B Balavelingappa
(3) Pulakesi II
(3) K Hanumanthayya
(4) Raja Raja Chola (4) D Devaraj Urs

57. Who among the following is a 61. Insects can move on the surface
Greek historian ? of water without sinking due to
(1) Livy (1) Hydrostatic Upthrust
(2) Tacitus (2) Dynamic lift
(3) Cato (3) Viscosity of water
(4) Surface Tension of water
(4) Herodotus
66-A (21)
62. _________ JA§ WÀlPÀzÀ°è
£ÀÆåQèAiÀÄgï C¼ÀvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
C©üªÀåQÛ¸À¯ÁVzÉ.
(1) DåAUÀ¸ÀÖçªÀiï ªÀiÁ£À
(2) ¥sÀ«Äð
(3) £ÀÆål£ï
(4) mɸÁè
63. D¦ÖPÀ¯ï ¥sÉʧgï _______ vÀvÀézÀ
ªÉÄÃ¯É PÁAiÀÄð¤ªÀð»¸ÀÄvÀÛªÉ.
(1) ªÀQæèsÀªÀ£À
(2) ¸ÁÌöåljAUï (ZÀzÀÄgÀÄ«PÉ)
(3) MlÄÖ DAvÀjPÀ ¥Àæw¥sÀ®£À
(4) ªÀåwPÀgÀt
64. ªÀļÉAiÀÄ ¢£ÀzÀAzÀÄ, ¸ÀtÚ ¥ÀæªÀiÁtzÀ
JuÉÚ ¥ÀzÀgÀUÀ¼ÀÄ ¤Ãj£À ªÉÄïÉ
ºÉƼÉAiÀÄĪÀ ªÀtðUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
vÉÆÃj¸ÀÄvÀÛªÉ. EzÀPÉÌ
PÁgÀt_________
(1) ¥Àæ¸ÀgÀt (2) zsÀÄæ«ÃPÀgÀt
(3) «ªÀvÀð£É (4) ªÀåwPÀgÀt
65. CgɪÁºÀPÀUÀ½UÉ ¸ÀÆPÀÛ
C±ÀÄzÀÞUÉƽ¸ÀĪÀ ¥ÀzÁxÀðUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
¸ÉÃj¸ÀĪÀÅzÀjAzÀ _______
(1) vÀ£Àß «zÀÄåvï ¥ÀæwgÉÆÃzsÀ²Ã®vÉ
AiÀÄ£ÀÄß ºÉaѹPÉƼÀÄîvÀÛzÉ.
(2) vÀ£Àß «zÀÄåvï ªÁºÀPÀvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
ºÉaѹPÉƼÀÄîvÀÛzÉ.
(3) C¢üPÀ ªÉÇïÉÖÃd£ÀÄß
vÀqÉzÀÄPÉƼÀî®Ä
¸ÀªÀÄxÀðªÁV¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(4) vÀ£Àß G¥ÀAiÉÆÃUÀ ¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄ
ºÉZÁÑUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
66-A
66. PÁ¯ÉÑAqÀÄ DPÁgÀzÀ°ègÀĪÀ ¥ÀæSÁåvÀ
EAUÁ®zÀ Cw¸ÀÆPÀëöä £Áå£ÉÆà PÀt
AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ.
(1) ªÀdæ
(2) UÁæ¥sÉÊmï
(3) ¥sÀÄ®jãï
(4) EAUÁ® £Áå£ÉÆÃlÆå§UÀ¼ÀÄ
67. ®Æ¬Ä¸ï ¥ÀjPÀ®à£É C£ÀĸÁgÀ PÁëgÀ
JAzÀgÉ
(1) J¯ÉPÁÖç£ï ¥ÀqÉAiÀÄĪÀÅzÀÄ
(2) J¯ÉPÁÖç£ï PÉÆqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
(3) ¥ÉÆæmÁ£ï PÉÆqÀĪÀÅzÀÄ
(4) ¥ÉÆæmÁ£ï ¥ÀqÉAiÀÄĪÀÅzÀÄ
68. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ßæÜÈåÏÇÈæ¼åÐ
C¤®ªÁVzÉ (ÑæÇ·ÝÒ˜µó ˜µæÏÜÈó) ?
(1) ÜÈåÑÉòµó ´µðñ„’ðÞûñ´µó
(2) ºÉÊqÉÆæÃd£ï ÇÈð²µæ’ðÞûñ´µó
(3) £ÉÊmÉÆæÜÈó „’ðÞûñ´µó
(4) EAUÁ® qÉÊ DQìqï
69. qÉPÉÆÖçøï ________ DVzÉ.
(1) ¸ÀÆåPïgÉÆøï
(2) ¯ÁåPÉÆÖøï
(3) ªÀiÁ¯ÉÆÖøï
(4) UÀÆèPÉÆøï
70. ________ gÁdåzÀ°è vÁgÀ¥ÀÄgï
£ÀÆåQèAiÀÄgï ±ÀQÛ ¸ÁܪÀgÀªÀ£ÀÄß
¸Áܦ¸À¯ÁVzÉ.
(1) gÁd¸ÁÛ£ï
(2) ªÀĺÁgÁµÀÖç
(3) PÀ£ÁðlPÀ
(4) vÀ«Ä¼ÀÄ£ÁqÀÄ
(22)
62. Nuclear sizes are expressed in 66. The most famous foot ball
the unit called shaped carbon nano particle is
(1) Angstrom (1) Diamond
(2) Fermi (2) Graphite
(3) Newton (3) Fullerene
(4) Tesla (4) Carbon nanotubes
67. According to Lewis concept, a
63. Optical Fibers work on the
base is
principle of (1) Electron acceptor
(1) Refraction (2) Electron donor
(2) Scattering (3) Proton donor
(3) Total internal reflection (4) Proton acceptor
(4) Interference
68. Which of the following is a
64. On a rainy day, small oil films laughing gas?
on water show brilliant colours. (1) Sulphur dioxide
This is due to (2) Hydrogen peroxide
(3) Nitrous oxide
(1) Dispersion
(4) Carbon dioxide
(2) Polarization
(3) Diffraction
69. Dextrose is _________.
(4) Interference (1) Sucrose
(2) Lactose
65. Suitable impurities are added to (3) Maltose
a semiconductor to (4) Glucose
(1) Increase its electrical
resistivity 70. Tarapur nuclear power plant is
(2) Increase its electrical situated in the state
conductivity (1) Rajasthan
(3) Enable it to withstand (2) Maharashtra
higher voltages (3) Karnataka
(4) Increase its life (4) Tamil Nadu
66-A (23)
71. C¤ªÉÆæü° JA§ ¥ÀgÁUÀ¸Àà±Àð 76. ¥À槮ªÁzÀ gÀPÀۻãÀvÉAiÀÄÄ EzÀgÀ
AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀjAzÀ DUÀÄvÀÛzÉ. PÀrªÉĬÄAzÁV DUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(1) ¤ÃgÀÄ (d®) (1) «l«Ä£ï ©
(2) «l«Ä£ï © 12
(2) Qæ«ÄQÃlUÀ¼ÀÄ
(3) «l«Ä£ï © 6
(3) ¨ÁªÀÅ°
(4) «l«Ä£ï © 9
(4) UÁ½
77. G¹gÁlzÀ ¸ÀªÀÄAiÀÄzÀ°è£À UÁ½AiÀÄ
72. zÀÄåw¸ÀA±ÉèõÀuÉ ¥ÀæQæAiÉÄUÉ UÁvÀæªÀ£ÀÄß »ÃUÉ PÀgÉAiÀįÁUÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
CUÀvÀå«gÀĪ CA±ÀUÀ¼ÀÄ AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ? (1) ªÉÊl¯ï UÁvÀæ
(1) CO2+H2O+¨É¼ÀPÀÄ (2) mÉÊqÀ¯ï UÁvÀæ
(2) ¤ÃgÀÄ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¨É¼ÀPÀÄ (3) ªÉÊl¯ï PÀëªÀÄvÉ
(3) O2+H2O+¨É¼ÀPÀÄ (4) LrAiÀįï UÁvÀæ
(4) H2O 78. ¥Àæ¸ÀÄÛvÀ C.S.O.gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ zÉòAiÀÄ
73. ªÉÄåPÁ®fAiÀÄ CzsÀåAiÀÄ£À AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀPÉÌ GvÀà£ÀߪÀ£ÀÄß AiÀiÁªÀ ________ zÀ
¸ÀA§AzsÀ ¥ÀnÖgÀÄvÀÛzÉ. ªÀÄÆ® ¨É¯ÉUÉ ªÀiÁ¥À£À ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(1) D¯ÉÎ(¥Áa) (1) 2004-05 (2) 2011-12
(2) ¥sÀAUÉÊ (²°ÃAzsÀæUÀ¼ÀÄ) (3) 2001-02 (4) 1999-2000
(3) ¨ÁåQÖÃjAiÀÄ 79. 14£ÉAiÀÄ ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ DAiÉÆÃUÀªÀÅ F
(4) ªÉÊgÀ¸ï PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ ªÀiÁ£ÀzÀAqÀUÀ¼À
74. EgÀĪÉUÀ¼ÀÄ ________ ªÀÄÆ®PÀ DzsÁgÀzÀ ªÉÄÃ¯É gÁdåUÀ½UÉ
¸ÀAªÀºÀ£À £ÀqɸÀÄvÀÛªÉ. ¸ÀA¥À£ÀÆä®UÀ¼À£ÀÄß «vÀj¸ÀÄvÀÛzÉ.
(1) ¥sÉgÉƪÉÆãïUÀ¼ÀÄ (1) d£À¸ÀASÉå d£ÁAVÃAiÀÄ
(2) ºÁªÉÆÃð£ÀÄUÀ¼ÀÄ ¥ÀjªÀvÀð£É DzÁAiÀÄzÀ zÀÆgÀ
(3) C®ªÉÆãÀUÀ¼ÀÄ ¥ÀæzÉñÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ CgÀtå ¥ÀæzÉñÀ
(4) PÉÊgÀªÀiÁ£ïUÀ¼ÀÄ (2) d£À¸ÀASÉå ªÀÄÆ®¸ËPÀAiÀÄð
«wÛÃAiÀÄ ²¸ÀÄÛ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥ÀæzÉñÀ
75. UÉæÃmï ¨ÁåjAiÀÄgï
jÃ¥sï_________ §½ EzÉ. (3) d£À¸ÀASÉå d£ÁAVÃAiÀÄ
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(2) £ÀÆåf¯ÁåAqï ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥ÀæzÉñÀ
(3) ¹¯ÉÆãï (4) d£À¸ÀASÉå DzÁAiÀÄzÀ CAvÀgÀ
(4) EAqÉÆ£ÉõÀå ¥ÀæzÉñÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ «wÛÃAiÀÄ ²¸ÀÄÛ.

66-A (24)
71. Anemophily is pollination by 76. Pernicious Anemia is caused by
(1) Water the deficiency of
(2) Insects (1) Vitamin B
(3) Bats (2) Vitamin B 12
(3) Vitamin B 6
(4) Wind
(4) Vitamin B 9
72. The process of photosynthesis
77. The volume of Air breathed in
needs
and out during respiration is
(1) CO2 + H2O + Sunlight referred to as
(2) H2O + Sunlight (1) Vital volume
(3) O2 + H2O + Sunlight (2) Tidal volume
(4) H2O (3) Vital Capacity
(4) Ideal volume
73. Mycology is the study of
(1) algae 78. At present C.S.O. calculates
(2) fungi GDP at the base year prices of
(1) 2004-05 (2) 2011-12
(3) bacteria
(3) 2001-02 (4) 1999-2000
(4) virus
79. 14th Finance Commission’s
74. Ants communicate through criteria for devolution of
(1) Pheromones resources among the states are
(2) Hormones (1) Population, Demographic
(3) Allomones change, Income distance,
(4) Kairomones Area and Forest cover
(2) Population, Infrastructure,
Fiscal Discipline, and Area.
75. The great Barrier Reef exists (3) Population, Demographic
near change, Infrastructure and
(1) Australia Area.
(2) New Zealand (4) Population, Income
(3) Ceylon Distance, Area and Fiscal
(4) Indonesia Discipline.

66-A (25)
80. F PɼÀV£À AiÀiÁªÀ gÁdåzÀ°è ¸ÉêÁ 84. CQÌ vÀAvÀæeÁÕ£À ¥ÁPÀð J°è
vÉjUÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß «¢ü¸À¯ÁUÀĪÀ¢®è. ¸ÁÜ¥À£ÉAiÀiÁVzÉ.
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85. ¥ÁæzÉòPÀ C¸ÀªÀÄvÉÆî£ÀzÀ ªÁgÀÄ
81. ±ÁAvÁPÀĪÀiÁgÀ £ÉÃvÀÈvÀézÀ C¢üPÀ ¥ÀjµÀÌgÀuÉAiÀÄ (2000-2002) C¢üPÀ
±ÀQÛAiÀÄ ¸À«ÄwAiÀÄÄ F PɼÀV£ÀzÀPÉÌ ±ÀQÛAiÀÄ ¸À«ÄwAiÀÄ ¥ÀæPÁgÀ Cw
¸ÀA§A¢ü¹zÉ. »AzÀƽzÀ vÁ®ÆèPÀÄUÀ¼À MlÄÖ ¸ÀASÉå ?
(1) G¢ÝªÉÄAiÀÄ ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ (1) 35 (2) 40
(2) ¥Àj¸ÀgÀ ¥ÀæªÀiÁt (3) 39 (4) 45
(3) ¨sÁgÀwAiÀÄ DºÁgÀ ¤UÀªÀÄzÀ
86. ¨sÁgÀwÃAiÀÄ ªÀÄ»¼Á ¨ÁåAPï AiÀiÁªÀ
ªÀÄgÀĸÁÜ¥À£É
¥Àæ±À¹ÛAiÀÄ£ÀÄß vÀ£ÀßzÁV¹PÉÆArzÉ.
(4) vÉÊ® ¨É¯ÉUÀ¼À ªÀÄgÀĸÁÜ¥À£É
(1) KµÁå£ï ¨ÁåAQ£À ¸ÁzsÀPÀ ¥Àæ±À¹Û
2015
82. ªÁ¶ðPÀ G¢ÝªÉÄUÀ¼À ¸ÀªÉðAiÀÄ CAQ (2) KµÁå£ï ¨ÁåAQ£À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
¸ÀASÉåUÀ¼À ¥ÀæPÁgÀ PÀ£ÁðlPÀzÀ°è MlÄÖ ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ a®ègÉ ªÀ»ªÁlÄ
£ÉÆÃAzÀtÂPÀÈvÀ ¥sÁåQÖçUÀ¼À ¥Àæw±ÀvÀ. ¨ÁåAQAUï ¥Àæ±À¹Û 2015
(1) 10.15% (3) KµÁå£ï ¨ÁåAQAUÀð ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
(2) 05.27% ºÀtPÁ¸ÀÄ ¸ÀUÀlÄ ªÀ»ªÁlÄ
(3) 20.12% ¨ÁåAQAUï ¥Àæ±À¹Û 2015
(4) 15.14% (4) «¹µÀÖ ¸ÁzsÀ£ÉUÁV AiÀÄÆgÉÆÃ
ºÀt ¥Àæ±À¹Û 2015
83. AiÀiÁªÀ ªÀµÀðzÀ°è PÀ£ÁðlPÀzÀ°è
¤ªÀÄð® UÁæªÀÄ ¥ÀÄgÀ¸ÁÌgÀ 87. F PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀ£ÀÄß
¥ÀjZÀ¬Ä¸À¯Á¬ÄvÀÄ. EwÛÃaUÉ vÉUÉzÀĺÁPÀ¯ÁVzÉ.
(1) 2007-08 (1) ¸ÉêÁ vÉjUÉ
(2) 2010-11 (2) ªÀiË®åªÀ¢üðvÀ vÉjUÉ
(3) 2012-13 (3) GqÀÄUÉÆgÉ vÉjUÉ
(4) 2013-14 (4) ¸ÀA¥ÀvÀÄÛ vÉjUÉ

66-A (26)
80. Service tax is not levied in 84. The rice technology park is
which of the states? located at
(1) Nagaland (1) Sindhnur
(2) Karatagi
(2) Arunachal Pradesh
(3) Manvi
(3) Goa (4) Gangavati
(4) Jammu and Kashmir
85. According to the High power
81. High powered committee headed committee on Redressal of
by Shanta Kumar is pertaining to Regional Imbalances (2000-
(1) Industrial Finance 2002), the most backward
Talukas are
(2) Environmental Standard
(1) 35 (2) 40
(3) Restructuring of Food
(3) 39 (4) 45
Corporation of India
(4) Oil Price Restructuring 86. Bharathiya Mahila Bank won
which one of the following awards.
82. ASI statistics indicate Karnataka (1) Asian banker achievement
accounts for what percentage of award 2015
the total number of registered (2) Asian banking and finance
factories? retail banking award 2015
(1) 10.15 percent (3) Asian banking and finance
(2) 05.27 percent whole sale banking award
(3) 20.12 percent 2015
(4) 15.14 percent (4) Euromoney award for
excellence 2015
83. Nirmal Gram Puraskar was
87. Which one of the following has
introduced in Karnataka
been recently abolished ?
(1) 2007-08
(1) Service tax
(2) 2010-11 (2) Value Added Tax
(3) 2012-13 (3) Gift tax
(4) 2013-14 (4) Wealth tax
66-A (27)
88. _________ gÀÆ¥Á¬ÄUÀ½AvÀ
ºÉaÑ£À ºÀtªÀ£ÀÄß ªÀUÁðªÀuÉ
ªÀiÁqÀĪÀÅzÀPÁÌV ¥Áå£ï
¸ÀASÉåAiÀÄAiÀÄ£ÀÄß
PÀqÁØAiÀÄUÉƽ¸À¯ÁVzÉ.
(1) 10,000 gÀÆ¥Á¬ÄUÀ¼ÀÄ
(2) 50,000 gÀÆ¥Á¬ÄUÀ¼ÀÄ
(3) 2,00,000 gÀÆ¥Á¬ÄUÀ¼ÀÄ
(4) 1,00,000 gÀÆ¥Á¬ÄUÀ¼ÀÄ
89. ¤Ãw (NITI) DAiÉÆÃUÀzÀ ¥ÀÆtð
gÀÆ¥À EªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÁVzÉ.
(1) £ÁåµÀ£À¯ï E£ï¹ÖlÆåµÀ£ï
¥sÁgï mÁæ£Àì¥sÁgÀ«ÄAUï
EArAiÀiÁ
(2) £ÁåµÀ£À¯ï E£ï¹ÖªÀiÁåmï ¥sÁgï
mÁæ£Àì¥sÁgÀ«ÄAUï EArAiÀiÁ
(3) £ÁåµÀ£À¯ï E£ï¹ÖlÆåµÀ£ï
¥sÁgï mÁæ£Àì¥sÁgÀªÉĵÀ£ï
EArAiÀiÁ
(4) £ÁåµÀ£À¯ï E£ï¹ÖlÆåmï ¥sÁgï
mÁæ£Àì¥sÁgÀªÉĵÀ£ï EArAiÀiÁ
90. PɼÀV£ÀªÀÅUÀ¼À°è AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ
gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ DzÁAiÀĪÀ£ÀÄß ¯ÉPÁÌZÁgÀ
ªÀiÁqÀÄvÀÛzÉ ?
(1) ¤Ãw DAiÉÆÃUÀ
(2) gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ C©üªÀÈ¢Þ DAiÉÆÃUÀ
(3) gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ ªÀiÁzsÀj ªÉÆÃdtÂ
(4) PÉÃAzÀæ ¸ÀASÁå±Á¸ÀÛç ¸ÀA¸ÉÜ
91. «±Àé¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄ ¨sÀzÀævÁ ¸À«ÄwAiÀÄ°è
_______ zÉñÀªÀÅ ±Á±ÀévÀªÀ®èzÀ
¸ÀzÀ¸Àå zÉñÀªÁVzÉ.
(1) CªÉÄÃjPÀ ¸ÀAAiÀÄÄPÀÛ ¸ÀA¸ÁÜ£À
(2) aãÁ
(3) d¥Á£ï
(4) ¥sÁæ£Àì
66-A
92. ªÀÄÄA¢£À ¸ÁPÀð ¸À¨sÉAiÀÄÄ _____
zÀ°è £ÀqÉAiÀÄÄvÀÛzÉ.
(1) D¥sÀWÁ¤¸ÁÛ£ï
(2) ¨sÁgÀvÀ
(3) ²æîAPÁ
(4) ¥ÁQ¸ÁÛ£À
93. PɼÀUÉ PÉÆnÖgÀĪÀ AiÀiÁªÀ
CAvÀgÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ DºÁgÀ ¸ÀA¸ÉÜAiÀÄÄ
EwÛÃaUÉ ¨sÁgÀwÃAiÀÄ gÉʯÉé ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
G¥ÀºÁgÀ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
¥ÀæªÁ¸ÉÆÃzÀåªÀÄzÉÆA¢UÉ gÉÊ°£À°è
DºÁgÀ ¸ÉêÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß MzÀV¸À®Ä
M¥ÀàAzÀPÉÌ ¸À» ºÁQzÉ.
(1) ªÀiÁåPï qÉÆ£Á¯ïØ
(2) PÉ.J¥sï.¹.
(3) ¸À¨ï.ªÉÃ.
(4) qÁ«Ä£ÉÆÃeï ¦eÁÓ
94. gÁ¶ÖçÃAiÀÄ GzÉÆåÃUÀ ¸À®ºÁ
eÁ®vÁtªÀ£ÀÄß PÉÃAzÀæ ¸ÀPÁðgÀzÀ
AiÀiÁªÀ ªÀÄAvÁæ®AiÀÄzÀ CrAiÀÄ°è
¸ÉÃj¸À¯ÁVzÉ ?
(1) ªÀiÁ£ÀªÀ ¸ÀA¥À£ÀÆä®
ªÀÄAvÁæ®AiÀÄ
(2) P˱À®å C©üªÀÈ¢Þ ªÀÄvÀÄÛ
OzÉÆåÃVPÀ ªÀÄAvÁæ®AiÀÄ
(3) ªÀiÁ»w ªÀÄvÀÄÛ ¥Àæ¸ÁgÀt
ªÀÄAvÁæ®AiÀÄ
(4) «eÁÕ£À ªÀÄvÀÄÛ vÀAvÀæeÁÕ£À
ªÀÄAvÁæ®AiÀÄ
(28)
88. PAN is made as compulsory for
transaction more than
(1) ` 10,000
(2) ` 50,000
(3) ` 2,00,000
(4) ` 1,00,000
89. Full form of NITI Ayog.
(1) National Institution for
transforming India.
(2) National Institute for
transforming India.
(3) National Institution for
transformation India.
(4) National Institute for
transformation India.
90. Which among the following will
calculate national income of
India ?
(1) NITI Ayog
(2) National Development
Board
(3) National Sample Survey
(4) Central Statistical Institute
91. Which one of the following is
not a permanent member of
security council of UN ?
(1) United states
(2) China
(3) Japan
(4) France
66-A
92. Next SAARC summit will be
held in
(1) Afghanistan
(2) India
(3) Sri Lanka
(4) Pakistan
93. Which of the following
international food organization
recently tied up with Indian
Railway and Catering and
Tourism Corporation (IRCTC)
to serve meals on trains?
(1) McDonald
(2) KFC
(3) Subway
(4) Domino’s Pizza
94. National Career counseling
portal launched by Union
Government comes under which
of the following ministry?
(1) Ministry of Human
Resource Development
(2) Ministry of Skill
Development and
Entrepreneurship
(3) Ministry of Information and
Broadcasting
(4) Ministry of Science and
Technology
(29)
95. PÀqÀ® ¸ÀºÀPÁgÀPÁÌV ¨sÁgÀvÀªÀÅ AiÀiÁªÀ 98. ¥ÀAZÁAiÀÄvï gÁeï ZÀÄ£ÁªÀuÉAiÀÄ°è
zÉñÀzÉÆA¢UÉ ªÉÊmï ²¦àAUï ¸Àà¢üð¸À®Ä C¨sÀåyðUÉ PÀ¤µÀÖ
«zÁåºÀðvÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß ¤UÀ¢¥Àr¹zÀ
ªÀiÁ»wAiÀÄ M¥ÀàAzÀPÉÌ ¸À» ºÁQzÉ.
¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ ¥ÀæxÀªÀÄ gÁdå AiÀiÁªÀÅzÀÄ ?
(1) aãÁ
(1) PÀ£ÁðlPÀ
(2) ªÀiÁ°Øêïì
(2) GvÀÛgÀ ¥ÀæzÉñÀ
(3) ²æîAPÁ
(3) gÁd¸ÁÛ£À
(4) ¹AUÁ¥ÀÄgÀ
(4) PÉÃgÀ¼À

96. EAqÉÃªï «ªÀiÁ£À ºÉÃgÀÄ ¤¯ÁÝt

PÀA¥À¤AiÀÄÄ ¸Áܦ¹gÀĪÀ zÉñÀzÀ
ªÉÆzÀ® SÁ¸ÀV «ªÀiÁ£À ºÉÃgÀÄ
¤¯ÁÝtzÀ ¸ÉêÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß DUÀ¸ïÖ 1jAzÀ
AiÀiÁªÀ £ÀUÀgÀzÀ°è ¸Áܦ¸À®Ä
WÉÆö¹zÉ.
(1) ¨ÉAUÀ¼ÀÆgÀÄ
99. ªÀiÁgÁl ¨É¯É 500/-
gÀÆ¥Á¬ÄUÀ½zÁÝUÀ, ¤ªÀé¼À ¯Á¨sÀªÀÅ
25 ¥Àæw±ÀvÀ«zÁÝUÀ, PÉÆAqÀ
¨É¯ÉAiÀÄ£ÀÄß PÀAqÀÄ »r¬Äj.
(1) gÀÆ. 250/-
(2) gÀÆ. 350/-

(2) ZÉ£ÉßöÊ (3) gÀÆ. 300/-

(3) ºÉÊzÀgÁ¨Ázï (4) gÀÆ. 400

(4) PÉÆîÌvÁÛ
100. ¸ÁÖPï ªÀiÁPÉðmï ¸ÀA§AzsÀzÀ°è SEBI
JAzÀgÉ
97. ¨sÁgÀvÀzÀ JµÀÄÖ gÉʯÉé ¤¯ÁÝtUÀ¼À£ÀÄß
¹é¸ï ZÁ¯ÉAeï «zsÁ£ÀzÀrAiÀÄ°è (1) ¸ÁÖPï JPÀìZÉÃAeï ¨ÁåAPï D¥sï
¥ÀÄ£ÀB C©üªÀȢݥÀr¸À®Ä PÉÃAzÀæ EArAiÀÄ
¸ÀPÁðgÀªÀÅ C£ÀĪÉÆâ¹zÉ ? (2) ¸ÁÖPï JPÀ£Á«Ä ¨ÉÆÃqÀð D¥sï
EArAiÀÄ
(1) 400
(2) 600 (3) ¸ÁÖPï JPÀìZÉÃAeï ¨ÉÆÃqÀð
D¥sï EArAiÀÄ
(3) 550
(4) ¸ÁÖPï JPÀìZÉÃAeï §Ä¹£É¸ï
(4) 410 D¥sï EArAiÀÄ
66-A (30)
95. With which country did India 98. Which Indian state has become
sign an agreement on sharing the first state to fix a minimum
educational qualification for
White-Shipping information to
contesting elections to the
enhance maritime cooperation? Panchayati Raj Institutions?
(1) China
(1) Karnataka
(2) Maldives
(2) Uttar Pradesh
(3) Srilanka
(4) Singapore (3) Rajasthan
(4) Kerala
96. Indev Air Freight Station, India’s
first private air freight station 99. Compute the cost price, when
(AFS), has announced its selling price is Rs. 500/- and
commencement of operations gross profit is 25% on cost price
from August 1, 2015 in which (1) Rs. 250/-
Indian city?
(2) Rs. 350/-
(1) Bangalore
(3) Rs. 300/-
(2) Chennai
(3) Hyderabad (4) Rs. 400/-
(4) Kolkata
100. In the Stock market concern,
97. How many Indian railway SEBI means :
stations got approval from (1) Stock Exchange Bank of
central government for their India
re-development through Swiss (2) Stock Economy Board of
Challenge Method? India
(1) 400 (3) Stock Exchange Board of
(2) 600 India
(3) 550 (4) Stock Exchange Business of
(4) 410 India

66-A (31)
 DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Subject Code
2015 Version Code
66 QUESTION BOOKLET
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
A
Time Allowed : 1½ Hours Maximum Marks : 100

INSTRUCTIONS
1. Before encoding the Question Booklet version code in the OMR sheet, you should check
that this Question Booklet does NOT have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or
questions etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete ‘Question Booklet’ of the available
series.
2. Write and encode clearly the Question Booklet Version Code A, B, C or D, as the case
may be, in the appropriate space provided for the purpose, in the OMR Answer Sheet.
3. You have to enter your Register Number in the Register Number
Question Booklet in the box provided alongside.
DO NOT write anything else on the Question Booklet.
4. This Question Booklet contains 100 questions. Each question contains four responses
(answers). Select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case
you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you
consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE RESPONSE for each question.
5. All the responses should be marked ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided
and ONLY in Black or Blue Ballpoint Pen. See instructions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All questions carry equal marks. Attempt all questions. Your total marks will depend
only on the number of correct responses marked by you in the Answer Sheet.
7. Before proceeding to mark the responses in the Answer Sheet, you have to write and
encode particulars regarding Register Number, Question Booklet Version Code etc.,
(along with your signature) in the space provided for in the Answer Sheet.
8. You should not make any marking on any other part of the Question Booklet.
9. Immediately after the final bell indicating the conclusion of the examination, stop making
any further markings in the Answer Sheet. Be seated till the Answer Sheets are collected
and accounted for by the Invigilator.
10. Questions are printed both in Kannada and English. If any confusion arises in the
Kannada Version, please refer to the English Version of the Questions.
11. Use of calculators of any kind is permitted.
DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

66-A