DS Digital

Question Bank
Science - Class 8
Time: 1 hours 10 mins Max Marks: 2087

General Instructions:
1

A. Select the correct answer. (1 x 600 = 600)

1. In vacuum, the velocity of light is:
a. 3 × 108 km/s
b. 3 × 108 cm/s
8
c. 3 × 10 m/s
d. None of these

Answer: c

2. When light strikes a mirror at a 30° angle, the angle of reflection is:
a. 45°
b. 60°
c. 30°
d. None of these

Answer: b

3. The focal length of a plane mirror is:

a. Half of its aperture
b. Infinity
c. Zero
d. Double of its aperture

Answer: c

4. What would be the refractive index of an object with critical angle of 30°?
a. 0.5
b. 0.2
c. 2.5
d. 2

Answer: d

5. Curvature of a plane glass is:

 a. Zero
b. Equal to C
c. Infinity
d. None of these

Answer: c

6. When a drop of water looks like a pearl, it is due to:

a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Total internal reflection
d. None of these

Answer: c

7. Which of the following statements is true in context with blindness?

a. It can be inborn
b. It is never acquired
c. It can either be inborn or be acquired
d. None of these

Answer: a

8. A 20 cm high object is kept 100 cm away from a plane mirror. What size will the image
created by it be?
a. 40 cm
b. 20 cm
c. 100 cm
d. 10 cm

Answer: b

9. Angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection:

a. Only in some special cases
b. Sometimes
c. Never
d. Always

Answer: d

10. When we see in bad-light conditions, the pupil size becomes:

a. Reduced
b. Enlarged
c. Remains the same
d. None of these
 Answer: b

11. Images created by a plane mirror are:

a. Virtual, behind the mirror and exactly of the same size as the parent object
b. Virtual, enlarged and behind the mirror
c. Enlarged and real at the surface of the mirror
d. None of these

Answer: a

12. What is the light reflected from earth known as:

a. Reflected light
b. Diffracted light
c. Earth light
d. Moonlight

Answer: c

13. In diamond, the velocity of light is:

a. 1.5×108
b. 1.2×108
c. 2.5×108
d. 2.1×108

Answer: b

14. A ray of light traveling to a denser medium from a rarer medium:

a. Reflects back
b. Bends away from normal
c. Goes straight
d. Bends towards normal

Answer: d

15. Human eye behaves as:

a. Convex mirror
b. Convex Lenx
c. Concave mirror
d. Concave lens

Answer: b

16. Lateral displacement is always directly proportional to:

a. Velocity of light
b. Thickness of the slab
 c. Angle of refraction
d. Angle of incidence

Answer: b

17. When light splits into basic colour components, the phenomenon is called:
a. Spectrum
b. Refraction
c. Diffraction
d. Dispersion

Answer: d

18. What breaks up light into spectrum?

a. Mirror
b. Convex lens
c. Prism
d. All of these

Answer: c

19. Images created on retina are:

a. Reversed left to right
b. Upside down
c. Flat
d. All of these

Answer: d

20. The moon is:

a. A black body
b. A luminous body
c. A non-luminous body
d. A semi-luminous body

Answer: c

21. In what form does energy give the sensation of light?

a. Light
b. Dispersion
c. Reflection
d. Refraction

Answer: a
22. When someone has blue eyes, that means their:
a. Sclera is blue
b. Iris is blue
c. Retina is blue
d. Cornea is blue

Answer: b

23. If light reflects back at a 30° angle, the angle of incidence would be
a. 15°
b. 60°
c. 30°
d. 75°

Answer: c

24. What is the condition called when all the objects nearby seem blurred to a person?
a. Night blindness
b. Hypermetropia
c. Cataract
d. Myopia

Answer: c

25. A visually impaired person can use his fingers to read. This technique is:
a. Braille
b. Brallie
c. Bralle
d. None of these

Answer: a

26. When the angle of reflection is 55°, the angle of incidence should be:
a. 55°
b. 90°
c. 35°
d. 45°

Answer: a

27. Our eyes perceive a body as moving only when images formed flash at a rate of:
a. Slower than 16/second
b. Faster than 10/second
c. Slower than 10/second
d. Faster than 16/second
 Answer: d

28. The impression of images remain on retina for nearly:

a. 1/10th of a second
b. 1/16th of a second
c. 1/15th of a second
d. 1/12th of a second

Answer: b

29. If C is the critical angle, then Sin C is equal to:

a. n2
b. n/1
c. n/2
d. 1/n

Answer: d

30. We can read with naked eyes at the most comfortable distance of:
a. 25 cm
b. 30 cm
c. 30 cm
d. 20 scm

Answer: a

31. The amount of light reflected is dependent of:

a. Length of the surface
b. Nature of the surface
c. Material of the surface
d. Both nature and material of the surface

Answer: d

32. Which of the following part of eye gives it its distinctive colour?
a. Iris
b. Retina
c. Cornea
d. Lens

Answer: a

33. What would be the angle of reflection if the angle of incidence is 0 °?

a. 45°
b. 90°
 c. 60°
d. 0°

Answer: d

34. When light falls on a polished wooden table, the type of reflection that occurs is:
a. Diffused
b. Regular
c. Both diffused and regular
d. None of these

Answer: b

35. When light is reflected more than once, the phenomenon is called:
a. Reflection
b. Deflection
c. Multiple reflection
d. None of these

Answer: c

36. When a plane mirror creates laterally inverted images, the phenomenon is knows as:
a. Inversion
b. Dispersion
c. Reflection
d. Diffraction

Answer: a

37. A real image is the one that can be obtained on a screen. This statement is:
a. Always True
b. Always False
c. Sometimes true and sometimes false
d. None of these

Answer: a

38. A shining or polished surface can act as a mirror:

a. Not necessarily
b. It can never act as a mirror
c. It will always act as mirror
d. It might act as lens

Answer: c
39. If your image is erect and of the same size, you are looking in a:
a. Convex mirror
b. Plane mirror
c. Concave mirror
d. None of these

Answer: b

40. Out of VIBGYOR, which light travels fastest?

a. Violet
b. Blue
c. Red
d. Yellow

Answer: c

41. What kind of images will a pool of water create on a sunny day?
a. Real images
b. Virtual image
c. Both real and virtual images
d. None of these

Answer: b

42. The use of machines in agriculture:

a. Increases the quantity of crop yield
b. Increases the time taken to harvest
c. Increases the fertility of land
d. Increases the use of farm animals

Answer: a

43. Which one of the following is not an advantage of ploughing?

a. It allows the penetration of roots of plants
b. It helps in proper aeration and eradicates weeds
c. It promotes the growth of useful bacteria
d. It leads to water logging in plants

Answer: d

44. The agricultural tool used to level fields is:

a. Plough
b. Hoe
c. Harrow
d. Seed drill
 Answer: c

45. Which of the following crops need plantation?

a. Maize
b. Papaya
c. Potato
d. Rice

Answer: d

46. To prevent spoilage of grains, dried leaves of #DASH# can be used.

a. Neem
b. Tulsi
c. Aloe
d. Peepal

Answer: a

47. Which of the following is the correct order for soil preparation?
a. Leveling, ploughing, sowing, manuring
b. Ploughing, leveling, sowing, manuring
c. Leveling, ploughing, manuring, sowing
d. Ploughing, sowing, leveling, manuring

Answer: b

48. Which one of the following is the most common weed that grows with every crop?
a. Amaranthus
b. Chenopodium
c. Wild oats
d. Wild peas

Answer: c

49. Which of the following tools are used to break soil to the size of grains to get better yield?
a. Tractor, hoe, seed drill
b. Seed drill, tiller, tractor
c. Plough, tractor, hoe
d. Plough, cultivator, hoe

Answer: d

50. Rhizobium bacteria which fixes atmospheric nitrogen is found in:

a. Roots of leguminous plants
b. Roots of paddy plants
 c. Leaves of leguminous plants
d. Leaves of wheat and pea plant

Answer: a

51. Which of the following is a weedicide?

a. Malathion
b. Superphosphate
c. Potash
d. Urea

Answer: a

52. Wheat crops are classified as:

a. Legumes
b. Cereals
c. Cash crops
d. Fibres

Answer: b

53. During transplantation, the plant is transferred at #DASH# stage.

a. Seed
b. Seedling
c. Flowering
d. Fruiting

Answer: b

54. Farmers are advised not to burn crops as:

a. It can be used for making manure
b. It can be used as feed for cattle
c. Burning can cause air pollution
d. All of the above

Answer: d

55. In soil, an earthworm works as a/an

a. Plough
b. Leveler
c. Seed drill
d. Hoe

Answer: a
56. As paddy requires lot of water, it should be grown in:
a. Sandy soil
b. Loamy soil
c. Clayey soil
d. Black soil

Answer: c

57. Which of the following do we use to kill wild plants growing in between crops?
a. Pesticide
b. Insecticide
c. Weedicide
d. Herbicides

Answer: c

58. Which one of the following is not a type of manure?

a. Green manure
b. Compost
c. Animal manure
d. Biofertiliser

Answer: d

59. Carrot and wheat are examples of

a. Rabi crop
b. Kharif crop
c. Perennial crops
d. Summer crops

Answer: a

60. Seeds can be sown by

a. Broadcasting
b. Ploughing
c. Seed drills
d. Broadcasting and seed drills

Answer: d

61. Which of the following is not a type of manure?

a. Mushroom compost
b. Coir compost
c. Sewage compost
d. NPK
 Answer: d

62. Fertilisers are made up of

a. Organic material
b. Plant and animal wastes
c. Inorganic material
d. All of these

Answer: d

63. In biological control of pests, beetles are used to control the population of
a. Ants
b. Aphids
c. Bees
d. Cockroaches

Answer: b

64. Which one of the following is used for removing weed?

a. Sickle
b. Plough
c. Hoe
d. All of these

Answer: d

65. Two seeds with desired characteristics are crossed to produce a

a. Mixed crop
b. Rabi crop
c. Weed
d. Hybrid

Answer: d

66. Before sowing, the first step in crop cultivation is

a. Removing weed
b. Soil preparation
c. Irrigation
d. Manuring

Answer: b

67. Which of the following is not a perennial plant?

a. Banana
b. Wheat
 c. Ginger
d. Potato

Answer: b

68. The vaccine for small pox was discovered by

a. Louis Pasteur
b. Alexander Fleming
c. Edward Jenner
d. Robert Koch

Answer: c

69. Yeast is used for the production of alcohol and wine as it helps in
a. Fermentation
b. Pasteurisation
c. Preservation
d. All of the above

Answer: a

70. The microorganism found in the root nodules of leguminous plants that can fix atmospheric
nitrogen is a
a. Virus
b. Bacterium
c. Fungus
d. Yeast

Answer: b

71. Ram lives in a house surrounded by stagnant water. He does not use mosquito nets and
repellents. He is likely to become infected by
a. Cholera
b. Malaria
c. Measles
d. Polio

Answer: b

72. Common salt, sugar, oil and vinegar can be used for #DASH# food items.
a. Freezing
b. Flavouring
c. Fermenting
d. Preserving
 Answer: d

73. The microbe used in the baking industry to make bread soft and fluffy is
a. Yeast
b. Rhizobium
c. Lactobacillus
d. Agaricus

Answer: a

74. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus?

a. Cholera
b. Hepatitis A
c. Typhoid
d. Tuberculosis

Answer: b

75. Which of the following plant diseases is caused by bacteria?

a. Rust of wheat
b. Citrus canker
c. Yellow vein mosaic of okra
d. Tobacco mosaic

Answer: b

76. Medicines that kill or stop the growth of disease causing microorganisms are called
a. Antibodies
b. Antihistamines
c. Antibiotics
d. Antiviruses

Answer: c

77. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Microorganisms can be seen with the help of binoculars
b. Protozoans cause dysentery and malaria
c. The cockroach is the carrier of malaria
d. Microorganisms are always unicellular

Answer: b

78. The process of converting sugar into alcohol is called

a. Fermentation
b. Pasteurisation
 c. Fixation
d. Preservation

Answer: a

79. Tuberculosis is a communicable disease that spreads through

a. Water
b. Air
c. Mosquitoes
d. Food

Answer: b

80. The scientist who discovered penicillin was called

a. Edward Jenner
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Alexander Fleming
d. Robert Koch

Answer: c

81. Which gas is produced by yeast during respiration?

a. Carbon dioxide
b. Oxygen
c. Nitrogen
d. Hydrogen

Answer: a

82. Which of the following is a microbe?

a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Protozoa
d. All of the above

Answer: d

83. Garima lives in a village where drinking water is contaminated. Garima is likely to become
infected with which of the following diseases?
a. Tuberculosis
b. Typhoid
c. Chicken pox
d. Measles

Answer: b
84. Several diseases, including tuberculosis, hepatitis and measles can be prevented by
a. Vaccination
b. Preservation
c. Medication
d. Treatment

Answer: a

85. Which of the following is a preservative used in pickles?

a. Sodium benzoate
b. Sodium metabisulphite
c. Sodium chloride
d. All of the above

Answer: d

86. The consumption of food contaminated by some microorganisms can cause

a. Adulteration
b. Food poisoning
c. Discolouration
d. Putrefaction

Answer: b

87. The bacteria used for production of cheese are

a. Lactobacillus and yeast
b. Lactobacillus and Streptococci
c. Lactobacillus and Spirogyra
d. Streptococci and Yeast

Answer: b

88. Which one of the following is produced by fermentation of barley?

a. Beer
b. Cheese
c. Wine
d. Yoghurt

Answer: a

89. Which one of the following in not a product of fermentation?

a. Cheese
b. Mushrooms
c. Beer
d. Wine
 Answer: b

90. The casein present in milk, is a type of

a. Carbohydrate
b. Fat
c. Protein
d. Vitamin

Answer: c

91. The weakened strains of bacteria and viruses are used in production of
a. Nitrogen
b. Vaccines
c. Antibiotics
d. Vitamins

Answer: b

92. Which one of the following is a fungal disease?

a. Ringworm infection
b. Typhoid
c. Hepatitis
d. Tuberculosis

Answer: a

93. Which one of the following diseases is not caused by droplet infection?
a. Tuberculosis
b. Common cold
c. Whooping cough
d. Hepatitis

Answer: d

94. The bread dough rises due to

a. Production of alcohol
b. Production of carbon dioxide
c. Breakdown of sugars
d. Breakdown of proteins

Answer: b

95. The monomer of cellulose is:

a. Fructose
b. Glucose
 c. Sucrose
d. Lactose

Answer: b

96. Which fibre is also known as artificial wool?

a. Acrylic
b. Rayon
c. Nylon
d. Polyester

Answer: a

97. Which of the following plastic is used for coating the uniform of a firemen?
a. Bakelite
b. PVC
c. Melamine
d. Teflon

Answer: c

98. Which of the following fibres has sweet smelling chemicals as monomers?
a. Terrywool
b. Polyester
c. Acrylic
d. Rayon

Answer: b

99. Which of the following will absorb the least amount of water?
a. Cotton
b. Jute
c. Silk
d. Nylon

Answer: d

100. The raw material used to manufacture rayon is:

a. Cotton
b. Wood pulp
c. Esters
d. Ethene

Answer: b
101. Synthetic fibres are highly heat sensitive because:
a. They are made from chemicals derived from petroleum and natural gas
b. They are hydrophobic in nature and do not absorb water
c. They are prepared in laboratories
d. They can absorb a lot of heat and melt easily

Answer: a

102. What type of arrangement of monomers gives strength to thermosetting plastics?

a. Straight linkage
b. Cross linkage
c. Linear arrangement
d. Diagonal linkage

Answer: b

103. Which of the following groups consists of items that can be recycled?
a. Plastic toys, plastic carrier bags, cooker handles
b. Carry bags, electrical switches, cooker handles
c. Electrical switches, water bottles, PVC pipes
d. PVC pipes, plastic carrier bags, plastic toys

Answer: d

104. Synthetic fibres that use natural raw materials are called:
a. Semi synthetic fibres
b. Mixed fibres
c. Natural fibres
d. Synthetic natural fibres

Answer: a

105. Rayon is also known as:

a. Artificial wool
b. Artificial cotton
c. Artificial silk
d. Artificial jute

Answer: c

106. Which of the following is the first fully synthetic fibre?

a. Rayon
b. Polyester
c. Polycot
d. Nylon
 Answer: d

107. Nylon is used for making ropes because:

a. It does not absorb water
b. It is not attacked by moths
c. It has high tensile strength
d. It is a synthetic fibre

Answer: c

108. Thermoplastics cannot be used to make electrical plugs because:

a. They are good conductors of electricity
b. They melt at high temperatures
c. They break easily
d. They are good conductors of heat

Answer: b

109. Which of the following is an example of thermosetting plastic?

a. Melamine
b. PVC
c. Polythene
d. PET

Answer: a

110. Which of the following properties makes plastic suitable for storing pickles?
a. Plastics do not react with water and air
b. Plastics are very light
c. Plastics do not react with acids
d. Plastics can be moulded into different shapes and sizes

Answer: c

111. Which of the following is not an example of mixed fibres?

a. Polywool
b. Terylene
c. Terrycot
d. Polycot

Answer: b

112. The non-stick coating on kitchen wares is made up of:

a. Bakelite
b. Teflon
 c. Melamine
d. PVC

Answer: b

113. Which type of plastics can be heated and reshaped?

a. Natural plastics
b. Thermoplastics
c. Thermosetting plastics
d. All plastics

Answer: b

114. Which type of material should be used to make handles of cooking pots and pans?
a. Thermoplastics
b. Steel
c. Thermosetting plastics
d. Iron

Answer: c

115. Which of the following statements is true about plastic?

a. It is a monomer
b. It is a natural substance
c. It is a polymer
d. It is obtained from rubber tree

Answer: c

116. Which one of the following is not a property of plastics?

a. Plastics are insulators
b. Plastics are brittle
c. Plastics are non- reactive
d. Plastics react with acids

Answer: d

117. In thermosetting, plastic monomers are joined by:

a. Circular chains that are loosely attached
b. Linear chains that are loosely attached
c. Linear chains that are cross linked
d. Circular chains that are cross linked

Answer: c
118. Which of the following is not made up of thermoplastics?
a. Toys
b. Computer cases
c. Water bottles
d. Plastic bags

Answer: b

119. If monomers of ethene are polymerised, the plastic made would be:
a. Polyethene
b. Polymer
c. Polyester
d. Polyvinyl

Answer: a

120. Plastic is not disposed off by burning because:

a. It does not burn
b. Petrol is required to burn it
c. It produces toxic gases on burning
d. It is biodegradable

Answer: c

121. The plastics are recycled by:

a. Reusing them
b. Burying in a landfill
c. Burying in soil
d. Remoulding them into a new object

Answer: d

122. Plastics are used to coat electrical appliances because:

a. They are light
b. They are stable
c. They can be remoulded
d. They are insulators

Answer: d

123. Which of the following best describes the properties of metals?

a. Hard, brittle and insulators
b. Liquid, shiny and conductors
c. Shiny, malleable and conductors
d. Soft, ductile and very reactive
 Answer: c

124. The elements which demonstrate the properties of both metals and non-metals are known as:
a. Semi-metals
b. Metalloids
c. Non-metalloids
d. Plastics

Answer: b

125. The white powder formed by burning magnesium is:

a. Magnesium sulphate
b. Magnesium oxide
c. Magnesium carbonate
d. Magnesium sulphide

Answer: b

126. When gases like carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide are dissolved in rain water they form acid
rain. This proves that:
a. Clouds are acidic
b. All gases are acidic
c. Non-metal oxides are acidic
d. Any gas becomes acidic when dissolved in water

Answer: c

127. What colour change is observed when rust is tested with litmus solution?
a. Solution turns magenta
b. Solution turns blue
c. Solution shows no change
d. Solution turns red

Answer: b

128. Sulphur dioxide when dissolved in water forms:

a. Sulphurous acid
b. Sulphur hydroxide
c. Sulphur hydride
d. Sulphonic acid

Answer: a

129. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a. Silicon is an example of a metalloid
 b. A metal's reaction with an acid is a displacement reaction
c. Non-metals do not react with water though they may be very reactive in air
d. A less reactive metal can displace a more reactive metal but the opposite is not possible

Answer: d

130. Pure gold is not used to make jewellery because:

a. It is too soft
b. It corrodes easily
c. It is too shiny
d. It is liquid in its pure state

Answer: a

131. Metals are used for making kitchen ware such as pots and pans because they:
a. Are good conductors of heat
b. Are malleable
c. Have high melting points
d. Have all the above properties

Answer: d

132. Identify the correct equation:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Answer: c

133. The gas evolved on adding metal to an acid is:

a. Hydrogen
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Hydrogen sulphide
d. Carbon disulphide

Answer: a

134. Carbon dioxide is #DASH# in nature.

a. basic
b. acidic
c. neutral
d. amphoteric

Answer: b
135. When magnesium is burned it produces:
a. A sooty flame
b. No flame, only smoke
c. A dazzling white flame
d. A dazzling coloured flame

Answer: c

136. Copper turns green during the monsoon due to the formation of:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Answer: a

137. An element that can lose an electron to form positive ions is classified as:
a. Metals
b. Non metals
c. Sub atoms
d. Neutrons

Answer: a

138. Which one of the following elements does not occur as a mineral?
a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Aluminium
d. Platinum

Answer: c

139. Extraction of metals from their ores comes under:

a. Distillation
b. Filtration
c. Metallurgy
d. Oxidation

Answer: c

140. All of the following elements show the property of malleability except:
a. Iron
b. Silver
c. Aluminium
d. Graphite
 Answer: d

141. Oxides of non-metals are #DASH# in nature.

a. Basic
b. Acidic
c. Neutral
d. All of these

Answer: b

142. The dull green colour of copper vessels is due to:

a. Exposure to air
b. Corrosion of copper
c. Reduction of copper
d. Galvanisation of copper

Answer: c

143. Which one of the following metal reacts most vigorously with oxygen and water?
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. Phosphorus

Answer: b

144. A solid X reacts with an acid to produce a gas which produces a pop sound and lights a splint.
The gas produced is:
a. Oxygen
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Hydrogen
d. Nitrogen

Answer: c

145. The metal used for galvanization of iron and steel from rusting is:
a. Copper
b. Aluminium
c. Lead
d. Zinc

Answer: d

146. Which of the following is not a fossil fuel?

a. Wood
 b. Coal
c. Petroleum
d. Natural gas

Answer: a

147. Which of the following is not obtained during petroleum refining?

a. LPG
b. Diesel
c. CNG
d. Paraffin wax

Answer: c

148. Apart from being used as motor fuel, petrol is also used as:
a. Fuel for jet aircrafts
b. Solvent for dry cleaning
c. Fuel for industries
d. Road surfacing material

Answer: b

149. Which of the following is the cleanest fuel?

a. Coal
b. CNG
c. Petrol
d. Wood

Answer: b

150. Petroleum and natural gas are formed mainly from:

a. Decayed swamp plants
b. Decayed land animals
c. Mineral deposits
d. Decayed sea organisms

Answer: d

151. Which petroleum product is now used instead of coal tar for surfacing roads?
a. Bitumen
b. Lubricating oil
c. Crude oil
d. Paraffin wax

Answer: a
152. Which of the following is the purest form of carbon?
a. Charcoal
b. Coke
c. Coal
d. Petrol

Answer: b

153. Choose the correct statement:

a. Fossil fuels can be prepared in laboratories
b. Petrochemicals are used in making fibres
c. Natural gas is found below petroleum deposits
d. Minerals are inexhaustible resources

Answer: b

154. What is the name of the thick black liquid obtained by processing coal?
a. Lubricating oil
b. Charcoal
c. Coal tar
d. Bitumen

Answer: c

155. An exhaustible natural resource:

a. Need not be conserved
b. Is present in unlimited quantities
c. Can be exhausted by human activities
d. Can be rapidly replenished

Answer: c

156. Which of the following is an inexhaustible resource?

a. Coal
b. Sunlight
c. Oil
d. Wildlife

Answer: b

157. Which of the following is not a product obtained by processing coal?

a. Coke
b. Coal tar
c. Charcoal
d. Coal gas
 Answer: c

158. Where was the world's first successful oil well drilled?
a. Mumbai High, Maharashtra
b. Pennsylvania, USA
c. Makum, Assam
d. Ghawar Field, Saudi Arabia

Answer: b

159. Due to its commercial importance petroleum is also called:

a. The king of oils
b. Black gold
c. Crude oil
d. Crude gold

Answer: b

160. Which of the following petroleum products is used as a fuel for heavy motor vehicles?
a. Petrol
b. Kerosene
c. Diesel
d. LPG

Answer: c

161. CNG is an abbreviation for which of the following names?

a. Certified natural gas
b. Compressed natural gas
c. Controlled natural gas
d. Cooled natural gas

Answer: b

162. Which one of the following is not a non- renewable resource?

a. Coal
b. Natural gas
c. Petroleum
d. Water

Answer: d

163. Which one of the following is not a fossil fuel?

a. Coal
b. Biogas
 c. Compressed natural gas
d. Petroleum

Answer: b

164. The petroleum is found:

a. Between impervious rocks and water
b. Between impervious and permeable rocks
c. Between porous rocks
d. Mixed with ocean water

Answer: a

165. The usable component of natural gas is:

a. Diesel
b. LPG
c. Methane
d. Butane

Answer: c

166. Which one of the following is not an advantage of using compressed natural gas?
a. It needs large storage space and is difficult to detect in case of leakage
b. It does not leave residue on burning
c. Can be easily transported through pipes
d. It is cheaper than other fossil fuels

Answer: a

167. Which of the following statement is true about petroleum?

a. It is heavier than water
b. It is lighter than water
c. It has the same density as water
d. It has the same fuel efficiency as coal

Answer: b

168. Which fraction of petroleum is used for making candles?

a. Paraffin
b. Natural gas
c. Bitumen
d. Asphalt

Answer: a
169. The burning of fossil fuels cause:
a. Green house effects
b. Emission of gases like carbon dioxide
c. Global warming
d. All of these

Answer: d

170. Which one of the following is not derived from crude oil?
a. LPG
b. Biogas
c. Diesel
d. Kerosene

Answer: b

171. Identify the correct set of conditions required for combustion:

a. Fuel, oxygen and attainment of the fuel's ignition temperature
b. Fuel, hydrogen and attainment of the fuel's ignition temperature
c. Presence of oxygen and fuel alone
d. Fuel and attainment of the fuel's ignition temperature

Answer: a

172. Which of the following is not a type of combustion?

a. Rapid combustion
b. Spontaneous combustion
c. Fusion
d. Explosion

Answer: c

173. Which of the following colour flame is the hottest?

a. Yellow
b. Blue
c. Black
d. Orange

Answer: b

174. The middle zone of the flame is also known as the:

a. Glowing zone
b. Shining zone
c. Luminous zone
d. Lustrous zone
 Answer: c

175. A glass rod held in the middle zone of a candle flame turns black due to the:
a. Deposition of wax on it
b. Deposition of unburned carbon particles on it
c. Burning of the glass
d. Melting of the glass

Answer: b

176. Carbon dioxide is used as a fire extinguisher because:

a. It does not support combustion
b. It is non-combustible
c. It cuts off the supply of oxygen
d. All of the above

Answer: d

177. Hydrogen gas has the highest calorific value of any commonly used fuel but it still cannot be
used as a domestic fuel because:
a. It has a high ignition temperature
b. It is difficult to burn
c. It has a high rate of combustion
d. It causes a lot of pollution

Answer: c

178. Respiration is considered to be a type of:

a. Rapid combustion
b. Slow combustion
c. Explosion
d. Fast combustion

Answer: b

179. Which poisonous gas is produced by incomplete combustion of a fuel?

a. Carbon dioxide
b. Hydrogen dioxide
c. Carbon monoxide
d. Sulphur trioxide

Answer: c

180. Which gas in the air is a supporter of combustion?

a. Nitrogen
 b. Oxygen
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Hydrogen

Answer: b

181. Which of the following is an example of spontaneous combustion?

a. Burning of sodium when left in the open
b. Burning of a matchstick on striking the match head
c. Ignition of a firecracker
d. Lighting of LPG with a gas lighter

Answer: a

182. Which of the following is the highly inflammable substance?

a. Polyester
b. Wood
c. Iron
d. Green leaves

Answer: a

183. Which of the following should not be used to extinguish an electrical fire?
a. Sand
b. Blanket
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Water

Answer: d

184. A blanket is able to extinguish a small fire because:

a. It is inflammable
b. It cuts off the oxygen supply
c. It cuts off the fuel supply
d. It has cooling properties

Answer: b

185. The innermost zone of a flame is the:

a. Black zone
b. Red zone
c. Yellow zone
d. Blue zone

Answer: a
186. Flames are produced if during combustion the substance:
a. Melts
b. Vaporises
c. Remains solid
d. Expands

Answer: b

187. Which of the following fuels has the highest calorific value?
a. Petrol
b. CNG
c. Diesel
d. Hydrogen

Answer: d

188. A good fuel should have a:

a. High ignition temperature
b. High calorific value
c. High cost
d. High rate of combustion

Answer: b

189. The blue zone of a flame indicates:

a. No combustion
b. Complete combustion
c. Incomplete combustion
d. Rapid combustion

Answer: c

190. Which of the following is not a combustible substance?

a. Wood
b. Petroleum
c. Paper
d. Rock

Answer: d

191. What is the lowest temperature at which the substance catches fire called?
a. Freezing temperature
b. Ignition temperature
c. Burning temperature
d. Boiling point
 Answer: b

192. If an electrical gadget catches fire, we should:

a. Pour water on the flames
b. Switch off the gadget
c. Pull the plug out of the socket
d. Use a blanket to cover the flame

Answer: d

193. A fire extinguisher:

a. Decreases the ignition temperature
b. Decreases the temperature of the air
c. Cuts off the air supply
d. Increases the temperature of air

Answer: c

194. Which is the hottest part in the flame of a candle?

a. Blue
b. Yellow
c. Black
d. Wick

Answer: a

195. Which of the following does not undergo complete combustion?

a. LPG
b. Biogas
c. Natural gas
d. Wood

Answer: d

196. Fuels are classified as:

a. Solid, liquid or gas
b. Combustible and non combustible
c. Flammable or Inflammable
d. Natural and artificial

Answer: a

197. The animals found in a particular area are called its

a. Flora
b. Fauna
 c. Species
d. Creatures

Answer: b

198. Which of the following are examples of the endemic fauna of the Pachmarhi Biosphere
Reserve?
a. Indian giant squirrel
b. Bison
c. Flying squirrel
d. All of the above

Answer: d

199. Which of the following animals are extinct?

a. Dinosaurs
b. Ibex
c. Wild goats
d. Gharials

Answer: a

200. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Endangered species are all extinct
b. Rock shelters are found in Satpura National Park
c. The answer to deforestation is reforestation
d. Project Tiger was launched by the government to protect tigers

Answer: a

201. Deforestation leads to

a. A decrease in the soil's ability to hold water
b. A change in soil properties
c. Soil erosion
d. All of the above

Answer: d

202. ______________ is restocking of the destroyed forests by planting new trees.

a. Afforestation
b. Reforestation
c. Deforestation
d. Desertification

Answer: b
203. Which act was enacted in 1980 by our government for conserving forests and also meeting the
basic needs of people living in or near forests?
a. Environment Protection Act
b. Forest Conservation Act
c. Forest Preservation Act
d. Eco friendly Act

Answer: b

204. Which of the following are threatened wild animals?

a. The black buck
b. The golden cat
c. The marsh crocodile
d. All of these

Answer: d

205. Which of the following national parks is in Assam?

a. Jim Corbett
b. Kaziranga
c. Satpura
d. Pachmarhi

Answer: b

206. A species that is restricted to a particular geographical region is known as

a. Endangered
b. Vulnerable
c. Endemic
d. Threatened

Answer: c

207. Cutting large areas of forest

a. Upsets the natural ecosystem
b. Results in soil erosion
c. Causes less rainfall
d. All of the above

Answer: d

208. Which of the following are factors responsible for the loss of biodiversity?
a. Deforestation
b. Excessive grazing
c. Construction of cities, dams and industries
 d. All of the above

Answer: d

209. The natural surroundings of a plant or animal, where it grows, multiplies, and thrives naturally
is called its
a. Habitat
b. Environment
c. Ecosystem
d. Ecopark

Answer: a

210. All of the plants, animals and microorganisms in an area along with non-living components
such as the climate, soil, river deltas etc. together constitute a/an
a. Environment
b. Ecosystem
c. Habitat
d. Sanctuary

Answer: b

211. The source book that keeps a record of all endangered animals and plants is called the
a. White Data Book
b. Record Entry Book
c. Red Data Book
d. Endangered Record Book

Answer: c

212. The first reserve forest of India was

a. Pachmarhi
b. Thekkady
c. Satpura
d. Periyar

Answer: c

213. An area reserved for wild life where they can freely use the habitat and natural resources is
called a
a. Sanctuary
b. Biosphere reserve
c. National park
d. All of the above
 Answer: c

214. A group of organisms that can interbreed is called a

a. Species
b. Genus
c. Breed
d. None of the above

Answer: a

215. The movement of a species from its own habitat to some other habitat for a particular time
period every year for a specific purpose like breeding is called
a. Hibernation
b. Migration
c. Acclimatisation
d. Accommodation

Answer: b

216. Which of the following is not a cause of deforestation?

a. Droughts
b. Cutting of trees
c. Landslides
d. Turning forest areas into national parks

Answer: d

217. Loss of topsoil over a period of time leads to

a. Drought
b. Landslides
c. Desertification
d. Excessive rainfall

Answer: c

218. How many biosphere reserves are there in India?

a. 5
b. 15
c. 10
d. 20

Answer: b

219. The species that are on the verge of extinction are called
a. Endangered species
 b. Extinct species
c. Endemic species
d. Vulnerable species

Answer: a

220. Biodiversity is the

a. Living and the non-living components of the earth
b. All the living components of the earth
c. Only the forest covers of the world
d. Endemic species of India

Answer: b

221. Which of the following is responsible for the extinction of a species?

a. Loss of habitat
b. Floods
c. Deforestation
d. All of the above

Answer: d

222. Dodo is
a. An extinct species
b. An endangered species
c. A rare species
d. A vulnerable species

Answer: a

223. The animals found in a particular area are called its

a. Flora
b. Fauna
c. Species
d. Creatures

Answer: b

224. Which of the following are examples of the endemic fauna of the Pachmarhi Biosphere
Reserve?
a. Indian giant squirrel
b. Bison
c. Flying squirrel
d. All of the above
 Answer: d

225. Which of the following animals are extinct?

a. Dinosaurs
b. Ibex
c. Wild goats
d. Gharials

Answer: a

226. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Endangered species are all extinct
b. Rock shelters are found in Satpura National Park
c. The answer to deforestation is reforestation
d. Project Tiger was launched by the government to protect tigers

Answer: a

227. ______________ is restocking of the destroyed forests by planting new trees.

a. Afforestation
b. Reforestation
c. Deforestation
d. Desertification

Answer: b

228. Which act was enacted in 1980 by our government for conserving forests and also meeting the
basic needs of people living in or near forests?
a. Environment Protection Act
b. Forest Conservation Act
c. Forest Preservation Act
d. Eco friendly Act

Answer: b

229. Which of the following are threatened wild animals?

a. The black buck
b. The golden cat
c. The marsh crocodile
d. All of these

Answer: d

230. Which of the following national parks is in Assam?

a. Jim Corbett
 b. Kaziranga
c. Satpura
d. Pachmarhi

Answer: b

231. A species that is restricted to a particular geographical region is known as

a. Endangered
b. Vulnerable
c. Endemic
d. Threatened

Answer: c

232. Which of the following are factors responsible for the loss of biodiversity?
a. Deforestation
b. Excessive grazing
c. Construction of cities, dams and industries
d. All of the above

Answer: d

233. The natural surroundings of a plant or animal, where it grows, multiplies, and thrives naturally
is called its
a. Habitat
b. Environment
c. Ecosystem
d. Ecopark

Answer: a

234. All of the plants, animals and microorganisms in an area along with non-living components
such as the climate, soil, river deltas etc. together constitute a/an
a. Environment
b. Ecosystem
c. Habitat
d. Sanctuary

Answer: b

235. The first reserve forest of India was

a. Pachmarhi
b. Thekkady
c. Satpura
d. Periyar
 Answer: c

236. An area reserved for wild life where they can freely use the habitat and natural resources is
called a
a. Sanctuary
b. Biosphere reserve
c. National park
d. All of the above

Answer: c

237. A group of organisms that can interbreed is called a

a. Species
b. Genus
c. Breed
d. None of the above

Answer: a

238. The movement of a species from its own habitat to some other habitat for a particular time
period every year for a specific purpose like breeding is called
a. Hibernation
b. Migration
c. Acclimatisation
d. Accommodation

Answer: b

239. Which of the following is not a cause of deforestation?

a. Droughts
b. Cutting of trees
c. Landslides
d. Turning forest areas into national parks

Answer: d

240. How many biosphere reserves are there in India?

a. 5
b. 15
c. 10
d. 20

Answer: b

241. The species that are on the verge of extinction are called
 a. Endangered species
b. Extinct species
c. Endemic species
d. Vulnerable species

Answer: a

242. Biodiversity is the

a. Living and the non-living components of the earth
b. All the living components of the earth
c. Only the forest covers of the world
d. Endemic species of India

Answer: b

243. Which of the following is responsible for the extinction of a species?

a. Loss of habitat
b. Floods
c. Deforestation
d. All of the above

Answer: d

244. Which one of the following organelles is not found in an animal cell?
a. Chloroplast
b. Vacuole
c. Mitochondria
d. Central

Answer: a

245. Which of the following is a function of the nucleus?

a. To provide energy to the cell
b. To synthesise proteins
c. To help in reproduction
d. To provide protection to the cell

Answer: c

246. In prokaryotes, the nucleic acids

a. Are present in a nuclear envelope
b. Are covered with cytoplasm
c. Do not have a membrane
d. Have flagella
 Answer: c

247. Amoeba is
a. Unicellular
b. Devoid of nucleus
c. Multicellular
d. Non-living organism

Answer: a

248. The building blocks of life are

a. Proteins
b. Carbohydrates
c. Cells
d. Organisms

Answer: c

249. All cell organelles

a. Have different functions
b. Do not carry out any function
c. Similar functions
d. Can live independently

Answer: a

250. Which of the following is not a cell organelle?

a. Lysosome
b. Golgi bodies
c. Mitochondria
d. Proteins

Answer: d

251. A student has two unidentified cells, one is a plant cell and one is an animal cell. Which
structures will help the student to identify and differentiate between plant and animal cells?
a. Cell wall
b. Chloroplast
c. Vacuole
d. All of these

Answer: d

252. Which of the following is not a part of the cell theory?

a. All living things are made of one or more cells
 b. All cells contain the same organelles
c. Cells are the basic units of structure and function in organisms
d. All cells arise from existing cells

Answer: b

253. Which of the following helps plant cells to remain rigid?

a. Cell membrane
b. Nucleus
c. Chloroplast
d. Central vacuole

Answer: d

254. What is the role of the cytoskeleton in a cell?

a. Maintaining cell shape
b. Cell movement
c. Cell division
d. All of these

Answer: d

255. Which of these is smallest in size?

a. Prokaryote cell
b. Red blood cell
c. Virus
d. Lymphocyte

Answer: a

256. Which of the following organelles is called the power house of the cell?
a. Mitochondrion
b. DNA
c. Nucleus
d. Peroxisome

Answer: a

257. This organelle is not found in plant cells. It is an important organelle for cell division in animal
cells.
a. Centriole
b. Ribosomes
c. Chloroplast
d. Vacuole
 Answer: a

258. The main function of proteins embedded in the cell membrane is to

a. Pack substances produced in cell
b. Store waste
c. Carry genetic information
d. Transport of substances

Answer: d

259. Which of these organelles is called the suicide bag of the cell?
a. Lysosome
b. Chloroplast
c. Mitochondria
d. Golgi body

Answer: a

260. The cell membrane is composed of:

a. A single layer of proteins
b. A phospholipid bi-layer
c. A carbohydrate bi-layer
d. A single layer of lipids

Answer: b

261. The packaging and processing centre for proteins in a cell is

a. Smooth E.R.
b. Golgi body
c. Mitochondria
d. Rough E.R.

Answer: d

262. Which one of the following is not an advantage of being a multicellular organism?
a. They have a specialised environment
b. They can grow to be very large
c. They can obtain food from many sources
d. They have complex bodies

Answer: d

263. The cell membrane of plants and animals allow certain materials to pass through this and
others are prevented from passing through, this type of membrane is called:
a. Selectively impermeable membrane
 b. Selectively permeable membrane
c. Permeable membrane
d. Impermeable membrane

Answer: b

264. The main enzymes for respiration are present in:

a. Mitochondria
b. Nucleus
c. Golgi Bodies
d. Endoplasmic Reticulum

Answer: a

265. The contents present inside the cell are chemically different than the surroundings as:
a. Nuclear membrane is porous
b. Cell wall is porous
c. Cell membrane is selectively permeable
d. Cell membrane is impermeable

Answer: c

266. Which of the following has same function in both plants and animals?
a. Ribosomes
b. Chloroplast
c. Vacuoles
d. Centriole

Answer: a

267. A student was studying the organelles of a cell as endoplasmic reticulum, mitochondria,
nucleus, ribosome, centriole and centrosome. Which cell was he was studying about?
a. Prokaryotic cell
b. Plant cell
c. Animal cell
d. Red blood cell

Answer: c

268. Which of the following is not a plastid?

a. Chloroplast
b. Chromoplast
c. Leucoplast
d. Cytoplasm
 Answer: d

269. Which of the following statements is true about the cell structure?
a. The nucleoplasm and the cytoplasm together make up the protoplasm
b. Chloroplasts are type of ribosomes, which occurs in plant cells
c. In many multi-cellular organisms, cells have projections known as cilia and flagella
d. Cell destruction occurs by centrosomes

Answer: a

270. When cells of multicellular organisms divide, it results in #DASH#, whereas when cells of
unicellular organisms divide, it results in #DASH#.
a. growth, reproduction
b. reproduction, vegetative growth
c. cell division, reproduction
d. reproduction , cell growth

Answer: a

271. A scientist finds a cell that has a defect, which results in the loss of its ability to control the
passage of substances in and out of the cell. The possible defect is in:
a. Cell wall
b. Cell membrane
c. Nuclear membrane
d. Nucleus

Answer: b

272. According to the Modern Cell Theory, from where do cells originate?
a. Barks
b. Arise by themselves
c. Pre-existing cell
d. None of these

Answer: c

273. Which of the following cells do not have a cell wall?

a. Plant cells
b. Bacterial cells
c. Fungi cell
d. Animal cells

Answer: d

274. The organelle responsible for storing water in the plant cell is:
 a. Golgi body
b. Endoplasmic reticulum
c. Vacuole
d. Mitochondria

Answer: c

275. Which of the following are viviparous?

a. Ducks
b. Frogs
c. Houseflies
d. Human beings

Answer: d

276. Male gametes called sperms are produced by

a. Sperm ducts
b. Testes
c. Ovaries
d. Penis

Answer: b

277. The uterus in females is the organ where

a. Foetus develops
b. Eggs are produced
c. Fertilisation takes place
d. Eggs are stored

Answer: a

278. Animals that lay eggs are called

a. Oviparous
b. Viviparous
c. Unisexual
d. Bisexual

Answer: a

279. In humans, fertilisation results in the formation of

a. An ovum
b. A zygote
c. A foetus
d. A baby
 Answer: b

280. Reproduction involving a single parent is called

a. Asexual reproduction
b. Bisexual reproduction
c. Sexual reproduction
d. External reproduction

Answer: a

281. Amoeba reproduces by

a. Budding
b. Binary fission
c. Metamorphosis
d. Fusion

Answer: b

282. Aquatic animals like fish and star fish commonly reproduce via
a. Asexual reproduction
b. External fertilisation
c. Internal fertilisation
d. In vitro fertilisation

Answer: b

283. How many nuclei does a zygote have?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. None

Answer: a

284. The reproductive organs in human females include

a. Ovaries, oviducts, a uterus and an embryo
b. Ovaries, testes, sperm ducts and a penis
c. Ovaries, oviducts and a uterus
d. Ovaries, oviducts, a uterus and ova

Answer: c

285. Binary fission occurs in

a. Hydra
b. Amoeba
 c. Tadpoles
d. Frogs

Answer: b

286. When fertilisation takes place outside the female body, it is called
a. External fertilisation
b. Internal fertilisation
c. Binary fission
d. Fusion

Answer: a

287. The production of an exact copy of a cell, any other living part, or a complete organism is
called
a. Cloning
b. Fertilising
c. Development
d. Metamorphosis

Answer: a

288. The fusion of an ovum and a sperm is called

a. Ovulation
b. Reproduction
c. Fertilisation
d. Formation

Answer: c

289. After fertilisation the human embryo grows inside the

a. Fallopian tubes
b. Vagina
c. Uterus
d. Ovaries

Answer: c

290. Which of the following statements is not true?

a. In humans, each ovary releases a matured egg into the oviduct every month
b. A baby develops in the uterus
c. Like a sperm, an egg is a single cell
d. An embryo develops to become a foetus

Answer: a
291. Which of the following birds lays the largest egg?
a. An ostrich
b. A pelican
c. A penguin
d. A horn Bill

Answer: a

292. In Hydra new individuals develop from

a. Eggs
b. Buds
c. An embryo
d. Gametes

Answer: b

293. A human sperm

a. Has a tail, a middle piece and a head
b. Is a single cell with no cell components
c. Is produced by the penis
d. All of the above

Answer: a

294. After the sperms mature, they move into the urethra by way of the
a. Penis
b. Testes
c. Bladder
d. Vas deferens

Answer: d

295. The testes

a. Produce sperm
b. Secrete testosterone
c. Are located in the scrotum
d. All of the above

Answer: d

296. As sperms move through the urethra, they mix with fluid secreted by
a. Seminal vesicles
b. Prostate gland
c. Both seminal vesicles and prostate gland
d. None of these
 Answer: c

297. The fallopian tubes

a. Secrete estrogen
b. Produce eggs
c. Helps in transporting the ova
d. Provides nutrients to embryo

Answer: c

298. Sperms are produced in

a. The testes
b. The seminiferous tubules
c. Prostate gland
d. Scrotum

Answer: a

299. After a female reaches puberty, one immature egg cell completes its development about every
a. Day
b. Week
c. Month
d. Trimester

Answer: c

300. A foetus gets nutrients and oxygen from

a. Placenta
b. Vagina
c. Fallopian tubes
d. Uterus

Answer: a

301. An amoeba reproduces by dividing into identical structures with equal division of nucleus and
cytoplasm. This represents the process of
a. Binary fission
b. Fragmentation
c. Budding
d. Sexual reproduction

Answer: a

302. If an organism reproduces asexually, its offspring will be

a. Genetically different from each other
 b. Produced as a result of fertilisation
c. Produced from specialised cells known as gametes
d. Genetically identical to the parent

Answer: d

303. Which of the following organisms does not undergo external fertilisation?
a. Frog
b. Cow
c. Fish
d. Hydra

Answer: b

304. Which of the following is not a type of asexual reproduction?

a. Budding
b. Fragmentation
c. Binary fission
d. Pollination

Answer: d

305. When an adolescent's facial hair starts growing, acne develops, or breasts start growing, or the
genitals start changing; these changes are caused due to which of the following activity?
a. Hypothalamus
b. Adrenal gland
c. Pituitary gland
d. Adrenal gland

Answer: c

306. The general and the earliest changes that occur during puberty in female are:
a. Appearance of underarm hair
b. Appearance of breast buds
c. Beginning of menstruation
d. Appearance of pubic hair

Answer: b

307. Which hormone controlls metamorphosis in frogs?

a. Insulin
b. Estrogen
c. Thyroxine
d. Adrenalin
 Answer: c

308. Adam's apple is prominent in:

a. Boys of any age
b. Girls of any age
c. Adolescent girls
d. Adolescent boys

Answer: d

309. When your body reaches a certain age, your brain releases a special hormone that starts the
changes of puberty called:
a. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
b. Luteinizing hormone
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone
d. Growth hormone

Answer: a

310. The development of primary sexual characteristics is indicated by

a. Appearance of pubic hair
b. Change in height and weight
c. Development of acne
d. Growth and Development of ovaries

Answer: d

311. Changes in secondary sexual characteristics are mostly observed as changes in:
a. Weight
b. External appearance
c. Height
d. Voice

Answer: b

312. The growth of facial hair, acne, breast development and genital changes are caused by
a. Ovaries or testicles
b. Urethra
c. Fallopian tubes
d. Prostate glands

Answer: a

313. Muscle growth during puberty occurs

a. Only in males
 b. In both males and females
c. Only in females
d. Partially in females

Answer: b

314. How many chromosomes do human cells have?

a. 40
b. 23
c. 46
d. 15

Answer: c

315. An organism receives

a. All chromosomes from one parent
b. Only half chromosomes from each parent
c. No chromosomes from parent
d. Only cytoplasm from the parent

Answer: b

316. The number of autosomes in a human cell are

a. 22
b. 23
c. 46
d. 44

Answer: d

317. If a baby girl is born to a couple, her chromosome constitution will be

a. YY
b. XXY
c. XY
d. XX

Answer: d

318. The release of male and female sex hormones is stimulated by

a. Thyroid gland
b. Adrenal gland
c. Pitutary gland
d. Exocrine glands

Answer: c
319. If a person shows persistent high blood sugar levels, the probable reason could be
a. Over secretion of sex hormones
b. Under stimulation of thyroid gland
c. Malfunctioning of pancreas
d. Overproduction of adrenaline

Answer: c

320. The secondary sexual characteristics develop

a. In infancy
b. Only in females
c. During puberty in both males and females
d. Only in males

Answer: b

321. AIDS virus can pass to a normal person from an infected person
a. By sharing the syringes used for injecting drugs
b. Through sexual contact
c. Transmitted through breast milk from an infected mother to her
d. All of the above

Answer: d

322. Examples of narcotics are

a. Heroine
b. Morphine
c. Codeine
d. All of the above

Answer: d

323. AIDS is an acronym for

a. Acquired Immune Deficient Disease
b. Acquired Immunodeficiency Disease
c. Acquired Immunodeficient Disease
d. Acquired Immune Deficit Disease

Answer: b

324. An example of a common stimulant is

a. Cough syrup
b. Fruit Juice
c. Coffee
d. Vitamin Tablet
 Answer: c

325. An example of a depressant is

a. Tea
b. Alcohol
c. Coffee
d. Milk

Answer: b

326. Human Immunodeficiency Virus causes

a. AIDS
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Cancer

Answer: a

327. There is no known cure or vaccine for

a. AIDS
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Cancer

Answer: a

328. Alcoholism can have ill effects on a drinker's

a. Health
b. Relationship
c. Social standing
d. All of the above

Answer: d

329. Drugs usually affect the

a. Respiratory system
b. Central nervous system
c. Excretory system
d. Reproductive system

Answer: b

330. What is the SI unit of force?

a. Newton (N)
b. Joule (J)
 c. Watt (W)
d. Pascal (Pa)

Answer: a

331. What happens to the speed of a moving object when it is pushed in the direction of its
motion?
a. Speed decreases
b. Speed increases
c. It stays the same
d. Its motion reverses

Answer: b

332. Force is a ____ quantity.

a. Scalar and vector
b. Scalar
c. Vector
d. None of these

Answer: c

333. Pressure is a _____ quantity.

a. Scalar
b. Sector
c. Neutral
d. Both scalar and sector

Answer: a

334. What is the SI unit of pressure?

a. Newton
b. Watt
c. Pascal
d. Meter

Answer: c

335. Pressure in defined as:

a. Force x distance
b. Force x Area
c. Force x Mass
d. Force/Area

Answer: d
336. A force is:
a. Push
b. Pull
c. Both push and pull
d. None of these

Answer: c

337. Frictional force is a _____ force.

a. Muscular
b. Contact
c. Non Contact
d. Heavy

Answer: b

338. Magnetic force is a ______ force.

a. Contact
b. Heavy
c. Muscular
d. Non-Contact

Answer: d

339. Force applied perpendicularly on a surface is known as?

a. Thrust
b. Newton
c. Pressure
d. All of these

Answer: a

340. 1 Pa (Pascal) is equal to:

a. 1 Newton / 1 meter2
b. 1 Newton x 1 meter2
c. 1 Newton + 1 meter2
d. None of these

Answer: a

341. A charged balloon attaches to a wall because of ________ force.

a. Muscular
b. Magnetic
c. Electrostatic
d. Frictional
 Answer: c

342. A charged body will _______ an uncharged body.

a. Repel
b. Attract
c. Both repel and attract
d. First repel and then attract

Answer: b

343. The north pole of a magnet will _________ the north pole of another magnet.
a. Repel
b. Attract
c. Both repel and attract
d. None of these

Answer: a

344. Two forces acting on a rocket immediately as it is launched are:

a. Friction and muscular
b. Gravitation and friction
c. Both friction and muscular and gravitation and friction
d. None of these

Answer: b

345. When an apple falls from the tree, the force acting on it is ________ force.
a. Gravitational
b. Muscular
c. Electrostatic
d. Frictional

Answer: a

346. Atmospheric pressure is measured by a:

a. Hygrometer
b. Thermometer
c. Barometer
d. None of these

Answer: c

347. Which of the following is the CGS unit of pressure?

a. Dyne/cm2
b. Newton
 c. Kg/Newton
2
d. Newton/m

Answer: a

348. The kind of force that acts between any two charged bodies is:
a. Frictional force
b. Gravitational force
c. Muscular force
d. Electrostatic force

Answer: d

349. A barometer uses ________ to measure pressure.

a. Water
b. Air
c. Mercury
d. Coal

Answer: c

350. Pressure exerted by air on any point on the earth is called?

a. Atmospheric Pressure
b. High Pressure
c. Low Pressure
d. None of these

Answer: a

351. On a mountain top, the atmospheric pressure:

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Stays the same
d. None of these

Answer: b

352. The pressure of water at the bottom of a pond is _______ than pressure at the surface.
a. Lower
b. Higher
c. Same
d. None of these

Answer: b
353. Pressure of a liquid in all directions at the same depth is:
a. Same in all direction
b. Different in different direction
c. It becomes zero
d. Pressure is independent of depth

Answer: a

354. What is the cause of change in the motion of an object?

a. Pressure
b. Force
c. Both pressure and force
d. Only Gravity

Answer: b

355. When ploughing, we use:

a. Frictional force
b. Magnetic force
c. Gravitational force
d. Muscular force

Answer: d

356. In liquids, pressure goes up depending on:

a. Nature of vessel
b. Depth of liquid
c. Density of solute
d. All of these

Answer: b

357. A rolling ball stops after sometime due to _____ force.

a. Gravitational
b. Frictional
c. Magnetic
d. Electrostatic

Answer: b

358. When opening a drawer, we:

a. Pull
b. Push
c. Lift
d. Hit
 Answer: a

359. The strength of force is called its:

a. Magnitude
b. Power
c. Weight
d. None of these

Answer: a

360. On what factors does pressure depend upon?

a. Force applied
b. Area
c. Both force and area
d. None of these

Answer: c

361. Attraction of paper bits towards a comb is an example of:

a. Magnetic force
b. Gravitational force
c. Muscular force
d. Electrostatic force

Answer: d

362. A ball being thrown up in the air and coming back downwards is an example of:
a. Magnetic force
b. Gravitational force
c. Muscular force
d. Electrostatic force

Answer: b

363. Attraction of iron nails towards a magnet is an example of:

a. Magnetic force
b. Gravitational force
c. Muscular force
d. Electrostatic force

Answer: a

364. Pushing of the pile of rubbish by a broom is an example of:

a. Contact force
b. Non-contact force
 c. Both contact and non-contact force
d. Gravitational

Answer: a

365. Squeezing of the toothpaste tube to extract the toothpaste is an example of what kind of
force?
a. Contact force
b. Non-contact force
c. Electrostatic force
d. Gravitational force

Answer: a

366. A body in motion on a surface ultimately gets stopped due to force of:
a. Gravitation
b. Magnetism
c. Friction
d. Muscular

Answer: c

367. If the surface area is increased, then pressure will:

a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Stay the same
d. None of these

Answer: b

368. We can accelerate a swing by:

a. Pushing it
b. Pulling it
c. Lifting it
d. Kicking it

Answer: a

369. While picking up his school bag, a kid uses:

a. Magnetic force
b. Gravitational force
c. Electrostatic force
d. Muscular force

Answer: d
370. If the force being exerted is increased and area of contact is decreased then pressure will:
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Stay the same
d. None of these

Answer: a

371. Hair on the hand rising when brought near a television screen is an example of what kind of
force?
a. Magnetic
b. Gravitational
c. Muscular
d. Electrostatic

Answer: d

372. A blacksmith hammering iron to change its shape is an example of what kind of force?
a. Magnetic
b. Gravitational
c. Muscular
d. Electrostatic

Answer: c

373. Drawing water out of a well is an example of what kind of force?

a. Contact force
b. Non-contact force
c. Gravitational
d. Electrostatic

Answer: a

374. A ball rolling on the ground slows down and finally stops because of:
a. Friction
b. Gravitation
c. Magnetism
d. None of these

Answer: a

375. ______ is a device used to measure force on an object.

a. Spring Break
b. Spring Balance
c. Spring Rope
 d. None of these

Answer: b

376. Substances that reduce friction are called:

a. Paints
b. Lubricants
c. Oil
d. Water

Answer: b

377. Friction depends upon _____ of the two surfaces in contact.

a. Smoothness
b. Holes
c. Irregularities
d. None of these

Answer: c

378. We know kinetic friction as______also.

a. Resultant friction
b. Potential friction
c. Dynamic friction
d. Successive friction

Answer: c

379. Friction produces:

a. Water
b. Air
c. Heat
d. Magnetic effect

Answer: c

380. It is easier to hold an earthen pot than steel pot as:

a. Steel pot has more friction
b. Earthen pot has more friction
c. Earthen pot has less friction
d. Steel pot has less friction

Answer: b

381. Static friction is _____ sliding friction.

 a. Equivalent To
b. Same As
c. Lower Than
d. Greater Than

Answer: d

382. Rolling friction is ______ sliding friction.

a. Less than
b. Greater than
c. Same as
d. None of these

Answer: a

383. Rolling friction is less when:

a. The object is thrown in water
b. The flattened area of contact is smaller
c. The object is divided into two equals
d. The flattened area of contact is greater

Answer: b

384. On applying force, an object start moving when:

a. Frictional force and applied force act in same direction
b. Applied force is equal to static force
c. Applied force is more than static force
d. Motion of object is independent of friction

Answer: c

385. The force required to keep the object moving with same speed is a measure of:
a. Static friction
b. Sliding friction
c. Rolling friction
d. Contact friction

Answer: b

386. The force required to overcome friction at the instant an object start moving from rest is a
measure of:
a. Static friction
b. Sliding friction
c. Rolling friction
d. Contact friction
 Answer: a

387. Friction is a useful force in which of the following instances?

a. Pushing a heavy box
b. Swimming in a pool
c. Walking on the road
d. Tearing of shoes

Answer: c

388. What is friction directly proportional to?

a. Mass of a sliding object
b. Colour of a sliding object
c. Smoothness of a sliding object
d. Direction of motion of a sliding object

Answer: a

389. _____ friction is greater than rolling and sliding friction.

a. Static
b. Start
c. Dragging
d. All of these

Answer: a

390. Soapy water on the floor will _____ friction.

a. Increase
b. Reduce
c. Make no difference
d. All of these

Answer: b

391. Grooves on tyres are meant to:

a. Decrease applied force
b. Decrease friction
c. Equalise frictional and applied force
d. Increase frictional force

Answer: d

392. Nails have pointed tips in order to:

a. Increase friction
b. Fix firmly
 c. Make friction zero
d. Reduce friction

Answer: d

393. Which of the following exerts friction?

a. Gas
b. Solid
c. Liquid
d. All of these

Answer: d

394. When you strike a matchstick against the rough surface, it catches fire due to:
a. Gravitation
b. Pressure
c. Friction
d. Motion

Answer: c

395. The machine in which oil and lubricant cannot be used, friction is reduced by:
a. Making spongy surfaces
b. Using powder
c. Creating an air cushion
d. All of these

Answer: c

396. Fluid friction can be minimised by:

a. Oils
b. Lubricants
c. Streamlining the shape
d. None of these

Answer: c

397. A polished surface has:

a. Very low friction
b. High friction
c. No friction
d. All of these

Answer: a
398. Sliding is replaced in most machines by using?
a. Lubricants
b. Powder
c. Ball bearings
d. None of these

Answer: c

399. Which of the following will exert less friction?

a. Objects moving in air
b. Objects moving in water
c. Objects moving on rail
d. Objects moving on road

Answer: a

400. When one body rolls over the surface of another body, the resistance to its motion is called:
a. Static friction
b. Sliding friction
c. Rolling friction
d. None of these

Answer: c

401. Which of the following causes shower of meteors?

a. Friction from spaceship
b. Friction of air
c. Friction because of streamlined shape
d. Friction of carbon dioxide

Answer: b

402. Objects move because of:

a. Resultant force
b. Force applied on them
c. Weight
d. Friction

Answer: a

403. The frictional force on an object, in a fluid depends on:

a. Speed of the fluid
b. Nature of the fluid
c. Shape of the object
d. All of these
 Answer: d

404. When tyres of a vehicle touch the road and deform, it is due to:
a. Static friction
b. Sliding friction
c. Limiting friction
d. Rolling friction

Answer: d

405. When friction hinders motion of an object, we need to keep applied force:
a. Equal to the force of friction
b. More than the force of friction
c. More than the weight of body
d. Less than the force of friction

Answer: b

406. If force of friction is absent:

a. A bike won't stop
b. We cannot walk
c. Matchsticks won't light up
d. All of these

Answer: c

407. Ball bearings between hubs and the axles of ceiling fans and bicycles are used because:
a. Rolling friction is smaller than the sliding friction
b. Rolling friction is greater than the sliding friction
c. Rolling friction is equal to sliding friction
d. Ball bearings helps in generating sliding friction

Answer: a

408. The force of friction always _____ the applied force.

a. Is in the same direction of
b. Zeroes
c. Opposes
d. None of these

Answer: c

409. A smooth surface offers _____ friction.

a. High
b. Low
 c. Maximum
d. No

Answer: b

410. In nature, the shape of fish is streamlined to:

a. Decrease fluid friction
b. Increase fluid friction
c. Make the shape likeable
d. No specific purpose

Answer: a

411. Which of the following is caused by friction?

a. Lubrication
b. Gravity
c. Fluidity
d. Heat

Answer: d

412. Frictional force is independent of:

a. Area of surface in contact
b. Weight of body in motion
c. External force applied on body
d. Nature of surface in contact

Answer: a

413. The direction of frictional force is:

a. Same as the direction of motion of object
b. Opposite to the direction of motion of object
c. Perpendicular to the direction of motion of object
d. Downward

Answer: b

414. Which of the following surfaces will offer least friction to run a toy car?
a. Dry marble floor
b. A cloth
c. Wet marble floor
d. Newspaper

Answer: c
415. When a block begins to move, the maximum frictional force is:
a. Static friction
b. Rolling friction
c. Sliding friction
d. Limiting friction

Answer: d

416. Why the sole of your shoes is grooved?

a. To make them look stylish
b. To increase friction
c. To provide the shoes better grip on the floor
d. None of these

Answer: c

417. What is not a kind of friction?

a. Kinetic friction
b. Static friction
c. Magnetic friction
d. Rolling friction

Answer: c

418. The sound produced by a tuning fork is of:

a. Triple frequency
b. Double frequency
c. Multiple frequency
d. Single frequency

Answer: d

419. If sound can travel in water with a speed of 1500 m/s, what would be its speed in steel?
a. 600 m/s
b. 1000 m/s
c. 6000 m/s
d. 1500 m/s

Answer: c

420. Ultrasound waves are produced by:

a. Bats
b. Monkeys
c. Dolphins
d. Both bats and dolphins
 Answer: d

421. Which of the following does not characterise sound?

a. Loudness
b. Quality
c. Pitch
d. Time

Answer: d

422. We know sounds with a frequency of less than 20 Hertz as:

a. Megahertz sounds
b. Subsonic sounds
c. Sonic sounds
d. Ultrasonic sounds

Answer: b

423. Reflected sounds are known as:

a. Radar
b. Sonar
c. Echo
d. None of these

Answer: c

424. The loudness of sound is dependent of:

a. Amplitude of the sound
b. Speed of the sound
c. Frequency of the sound
d. All of these

Answer: a

425. What does the pitch of a note depend on?

a. Speed of the sound
b. Amplitude of the sound
c. Frequency of the sound
d. None of these

Answer: c

426. Stringed musical instruments produce high-pitch notes when:

a. Strings are firmly stretched
b. Strings are thin
 c. Strings are short
d. All of these

Answer: d

427. Humans have an audible range of:

a. 20 to 20,000 Hertz
b. 10 to 10,000 Hertz
c. 10 to 20,000 Hertz
d. 20 to 10,000 Hertz

Answer: a

428. Another name for the outer ear is:

a. Pinna
b. Peena
c. Pina
d. None of these

Answer: a

429. The organ responsible for producing sound in humans is:

a. Pharynx
b. Larynx
c. Cornea
d. None of these

Answer: b

430. The speed of sound would be maximum in:

a. Vacuum
b. Hydrogen
c. Water
d. Silver

Answer: d

431. Which of the following is not an ear bone?

a. Anvil
b. Strammer
c. Stirrup
d. Hammer

Answer: b
432. What does the outer ear resemble in shape?
a. A tunnel
b. A funnel
c. A kernel
d. All of these

Answer: b

433. Which of the following represents correct order of medium, in which the speed of sound is
highest to lowest?
a. Liquid > Gas > Solid
b. Solid > Liquid > Gas
c. Solid < Liquid < Gas
d. Liquid >Solid > Gas

Answer: b

434. Which part of the ear is responsible for creating electric impulses for brain from sound
energy?
a. Middle ear
b. Outer ear
c. Inner ear
d. Pinna

Answer: c

435. Outer ear is separated from middle ear by a stretched membrane known as:
a. Eardrum
b. Ear tube
c. Ear filler
d. Ear pinna

Answer: a

436. Which of the following distinguishes between flatter and shriller sound?
a. Frequency
b. Pitch
c. Speed
d. Amplitude

Answer: b

437. When two different sounds have the same pitch and loudness, the property that distinguishes
them is known as:
a. Quality or timbre
 b. Frequency of sounds
c. Speed of sounds
d. Amplitude of sounds

Answer: a

438. In Jal-tarang, the sound with lowest pitch is produced by:

a. Cup containing maximum water
b. Cup containing minimum water
c. Empty cup
d. Independent of the amount of water in cups

Answer: b

439. What is the sound energy transmitted per unit area per unit time known as?
a. Speed
b. Frequency
c. Intensity
d. None of these

Answer: c

440. What kind of sources can produce a sound?

a. Sources that do not vibrate
b. Sources that vibrate
c. Sources that are visible
d. All of these

Answer: b

441. Apparatus used to locate or identify objects under water is:

a. Radar
b. Sonar
c. Sound waves
d. X-rays

Answer: b

442. Which method is safer for detecting the baby?

a. X-ray
b. Ultrasound
c. Both X-ray and ultrasound
d. Using gamma rays

Answer: b
443. What kind of objects have a high pitch?
a. Objects that vibrate slowly
b. Objects that vibrate fast
c. Objects that never vibrate
d. Pitch is independent of vibration

Answer: b

444. Tone is a sound wave of:

a. Double frequency
b. No frequency
c. Single frequency
d. None of these

Answer: c

445. ______ helps us recognise the voice of a known person.

a. Velocity of voice
b. Intensity of voice
c. Pitch of voice
d. Quality of voice

Answer: d

446. A short-duration wave is known as:

a. Time period
b. Pulse
c. Velocity
d. Frequency

Answer: b

447. The easiest medium for sound to travel is:

a. Solids
b. Liquids
c. Vacuum
d. Gases

Answer: a

448. What does pitch refer to in sound?

a. Softness
b. Speed
c. Shrillness
d. Loudness
 Answer: c

449. Coming from vibrations, sound is a form of:

a. Noise
b. Music
c. Energy
d. None of these

Answer: c

450. Audible range of dogs is:

a. Up to 40, 000 Hertz
b. Up to 50, 000 Hertz
c. 40 to 60, 000 Hertz
d. None of these

Answer: c

451. Sound can travel as easily through vacuum as other media:

a. Up to 40, 000 Hertz
b. Up to 50, 000 Hertz
c. 100 to 60, 000 Hertz
d. Sound cannot travel in vacuum

Answer: b

452. Noise is:

a. A displeasing or unwanted sound
b. A pleasing sound
c. Music
d. None of these

Answer: a

453. Vibrations produced by _____ sound flat.

a. Sitar
b. Musical scale
c. Tuning fork
d. Empty steel glass

Answer: c

454. Which of the following kind of vibrations is sound rich?

a. Irregular waves
b. Vibrations produced by sitar
 c. Regular vibrations
d. None of these

Answer: b

455. The range of loudness of painful sounds is:

a. 110 db
b. 70 db
c. 90 db
d. None of these

Answer: a

456. The organs of balance of sound are:

a. Semi-circular canals
b. Middle ear
c. Outer ear
d. None of these

Answer: a

457. Sound vibrations are first perceived by our ears:

a. In air molecules
b. Inside ear
c. Both in air molecules and inside ear
d. None of these

Answer: a

458. Before a concert, Veena players tune their instruments so that:

a. Tighter strings can have a high pitch
b. Strings can be loosened for a lower pitch
c. Tighter strings can produce a low pitch
d. None of these

Answer: a

459. What channels vibes down the eardrum?

a. Inner Ear
b. Middle Ear
c. Outer Ear
d. None of these

Answer: c
460. Voice box is another name of:
a. Pharynx
b. Larynx
c. Both pharynx and larynx
d. Ears

Answer: b

461. Amplitude is responsible for:

a. Speed of sound waves
b. Frequency of sound waves
c. Loudness of sound waves
d. Pitch of sound waves

Answer: c

462. A cation has:

a. Same number of protons and electrons
b. Lesser number of electrons than protons
c. Lesser number of protons than electrons
d. Same number of protons, electrons and neutrons

Answer: b

463. Liquids conduct electricity by movement of:

a. Electrons
b. Ions
c. Atoms
d. Molecules

Answer: b

464. The positive terminal of LED is represented by:

a. The longer lead
b. The shorter lead
c. Any of the leads
d. The bulb itself

Answer: a

465. The ions present in copper sulphate are:

a. Cu2+ and S2-
b. Cu+ and SO4-
c. Cu2+ and SO42-
d. Cu+ and SO32-
 Answer: c

466. Which are the products we obtain during electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride?
a. Hydrogen gas, chlorine gas and sodium hydroxide
b. Hydrogen gas, sodium metal and chlorine gas
c. Hydrogen gas, sodium metal and sodium hydroxide
d. Chlorine gas and hydrogen gas only

Answer: a

467. An atom is neutral because:

a. Electrons are equal to neutrons
b. Neutrons are equal to protons
c. Protons are equal to electrons
d. Protons, electrons and electrons are all equal

Answer: c

468. Which of the following element is obtained as diatomic molecule during electrolysis?
a. Hydrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Chlorine
d. All of the above

Answer: d

469. Which of the following is not the effect produced by the flow of electric current?
a. Chemical effect
b. Magnetic effect
c. Cooling effect
d. Heating effect

Answer: c

470. Which of the following liquids does not conduct electricity?

a. Distilled water
b. Tap water
c. Salt solution
d. Acid

Answer: a

471. Which of the following processes uses the chemical effects of a current?
a. Electroplating
b. The purification of metals
 c. Making ammonia and margarine
d. All of the above

Answer: d

472. Why is chromium metal electroplated onto products such as car bumpers, bath taps and
bicycle handlebars?
a. It comes in a variety of colours
b. It has a low melting point
c. It is shiny and resists scratches
d. All of the above

Answer: c

473. Which of the following devices is used to convert chemical energy into electrical energy?
a. An electric generator
b. A solenoid
c. An electric motor
d. An electric cell

Answer: d

474. An electric cell generates electric current:

a. By converting heat to electrical energy
b. By using chemical energy
c. By using a magnetic effect
d. By converting light to chemical energy

Answer: b

475. While electroplating, it is important to:

a. Place the object to be plated at the cathode, i.e. the negative electrode
b. Place the metal to be oxidized at the anode, i.e., the positive electrode
c. Use a solution that contains a salt of the metal to be deposited as the electrolyte
d. Do all of the above

Answer: d

476. An electrode:
a. Does not conduct electricity
b. Bends when the temperature changes
c. Is a conductor through which an electric current enters or leaves an electrolyte
d. Is a chemical compound that ionizes when dissolved or molten to produce an electrically
conductive medium
 Answer: c

477. An electrolyte is:

a. A substance that does not conduct electricity
b. A substance that bends when the temperature changes
c. A conductor through which an electric current enters or leaves a solution
d. A chemical compound that ionizes when dissolved or molten to produce an electrically
conductive medium

Answer: d

478. In the process of purification of copper metal, a thin plate of pure copper and a thick rod of
impure copper are used as electrodes. Which of the following metal salt solutions could be
used as the electrolyte?
a. Ferrous sulphate
b. Zinc sulphate
c. Copper sulphate
d. Magnesium sulphate

Answer: c

479. Which of the following liquids conduct electricity?

a. Distilled water
b. Milk
c. Salt solution
d. Both distilled water and milk

Answer: c

480. Why is it better to use a light-emitting diode (LED) rather than a light bulb when testing the
electrical conductivity of liquids?
a. An LED glows even when a weak electric current flows in a circuit
b. LEDs do not melt even when a high electric current flows in a circuit
c. LEDs are environment friendly
d. LEDs are cheap

Answer: a

481. Firemen shut off the electricity supply for the area before using water hoses to douse a fire.
Why?
a. To prevent the fireman from being electrocuted because ordinary water is a conductor of
electricity
b. To prevent electrical devices from being spoilt
c. To reduce electricity usage
d. To prevent the fire from spreading
 Answer: a

482. Which metal is electroplated onto iron to make 'cans' for storing food
a. Gold
b. Silver
c. Platinum
d. Tin

Answer: d

483. The chemical effect produced by an electric current depends on?

a. The nature of the conducting solution
b. The nature of the electrodes
c. The nature of the conducting solution and the nature of the electrodes
d. Neither the nature of the conducting solution nor the nature of the electrodes

Answer: c

484. In vacuum, the velocity of light is:

a. 3 × 108 km/s
b. 3 × 108 cm/s
c. 3 × 108 m/s
d. None of these

Answer: c

485. Magnification created by a plane mirror is:

a. Zero
b. -1
c. Infinity
d. 1

Answer: d

486. When light strikes a mirror at a 30° angle, the angle of reflection is:
a. 45°
b. 60°
c. 30°
d. None of these

Answer: b

487. The focal length of a plane mirror is:

a. Half of its aperture
b. Infinity
 c. Zero
d. Double of its aperture

Answer: c

488. If power of a lens is 2D, what would be its focal length?

a. 150 cm
b. -0.5m
c. 50 cm
d. 50 m

Answer: c

489. Curvature of a plane glass is:

a. Zero
b. Equal to C
c. Infinity
d. None of these

Answer: c

490. When a drop of water looks like a pearl, it is due to:

a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Total internal reflection
d. None of these

Answer: c

491. We can correct myopia with:

a. Convex lens
b. Concave lens
c. Plano convex lens
d. Cylindrical lens

Answer: b

492. What kind of mirror is used for light focusing?

a. Plane
b. Convex
c. Concave
d. None of these

Answer: c
493. Which of the following statements is true in context with blindness?
a. It can be inborn
b. It is never acquired
c. It can either be inborn or be acquired
d. None of these

Answer: a

494. When dipped in water, a stick appears broken. This is because of:
a. Total internal reflection
b. Refraction
c. Reflection
d. None of these

Answer: b

495. Angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection:

a. Only in some special cases
b. Sometimes
c. Never
d. Always

Answer: d

496. When we see in bad-light conditions, the pupil size becomes:

a. Reduced
b. Enlarged
c. Remains the same
d. None of these

Answer: b

497. Images created by a plane mirror are:

a. Virtual, behind the mirror and exactly of the same size as the parent object
b. Virtual, enlarged and behind the mirror
c. Enlarged and real at the surface of the mirror
d. None of these

Answer: a

498. What is the light reflected from earth known as:

a. Reflected light
b. Diffracted light
c. Earth light
d. Moonlight
 Answer: c

499. In diamond, the velocity of light is:

a. 1.5×108
b. 1.2×108
c. 2.5×108
d. 2.1×108

Answer: b

500. A ray of light traveling to a denser medium from a rarer medium:

a. Reflects back
b. Bends away from normal
c. Goes straight
d. Bends towards normal

Answer: d

501. Human eye behaves as:

a. Convex mirror
b. Convex Lenx
c. Concave mirror
d. Concave lens

Answer: b

502. Lateral displacement is always directly proportional to:

a. Velocity of light
b. Thickness of the slab
c. Angle of refraction
d. Angle of incidence

Answer: b

503. What is the value of r if i refers to critical angle?

a. 180°
b. 90°
c. Zero
d. 45°

Answer: b

504. When light splits into basic colour components, the phenomenon is called:
a. Spectrum
b. Refraction
 c. Diffraction
d. Dispersion

Answer: d

505. Light at earth can be seen from:

a. Earth’s surface
b. Moon
c. Sun
d. Another galaxy

Answer: b

506. What breaks up light into spectrum?

a. Mirror
b. Convex lens
c. Prism
d. All of these

Answer: c

507. Images created on retina are:

a. Reversed left to right
b. Upside down
c. Flat
d. All of these

Answer: d

508. The moon is:

a. A black body
b. A luminous body
c. A non-luminous body
d. A semi-luminous body

Answer: c

509. In what form does energy give the sensation of light?

a. Light
b. Dispersion
c. Reflection
d. Refraction

Answer: a
510. When someone has blue eyes, that means their:
a. Sclera is blue
b. Iris is blue
c. Retina is blue
d. Cornea is blue

Answer: b

511. When the angle between reflected and incident rays is 60°, the angle of reflection would be
a. 50°
b. 60°
c. 10°
d. 30°

Answer: d

512. What is the condition called when all the objects nearby seem blurred to a person?
a. Night blindness
b. Hypermetropia
c. Cataract
d. Myopia

Answer: c

513. Our eyes perceive a body as moving only when images formed flash at a rate of:
a. Slower than 16/second
b. Faster than 10/second
c. Slower than 10/second
d. Faster than 16/second

Answer: d

514. The impression of images remain on retina for nearly:

a. 1/10th of a second
b. 1/16th of a second
c. 1/15th of a second
d. 1/12th of a second

Answer: b

515. If C is the critical angle, then Sin C is equal to:

a. n2
b. n/1
c. n/2
d. 1/n
 Answer: d

516. We can read with naked eyes at the most comfortable distance of:
a. 25 cm
b. 30 cm
c. 30 cm
d. 20 scm

Answer: a

517. The amount of light reflected is dependent of:

a. Length of the surface
b. Nature of the surface
c. Material of the surface
d. Both nature and material of the surface

Answer: d

518. What would be the angle of reflection if the angle of incidence is 0 °?

a. 45°
b. 90°
c. 60°
d. 0°

Answer: d

519. In a kaleidoscope, there is/are:

a. No mirror
b. Only one mirror
c. Multiple mirrors
d. None of these

Answer: c

520. When light falls on a polished wooden table, the type of reflection that occurs is:
a. Diffused
b. Regular
c. Both diffused and regular
d. None of these

Answer: b

521. When light is reflected more than once, the phenomenon is called:
a. Reflection
b. Deflection
 c. Multiple reflection
d. None of these

Answer: c

522. When a plane mirror creates laterally inverted images, the phenomenon is knows as:
a. Inversion
b. Dispersion
c. Reflection
d. Diffraction

Answer: a

523. A real image is the one that can be obtained on a screen. This statement is:
a. Always True
b. Always False
c. Sometimes true and sometimes false
d. None of these

Answer: a

524. A shining or polished surface can act as a mirror:

a. Not necessarily
b. It can never act as a mirror
c. It will always act as mirror
d. It might act as lens

Answer: c

525. If your image is erect and of the same size, you are looking in a:
a. Convex mirror
b. Plane mirror
c. Concave mirror
d. None of these

Answer: b

526. Out of VIBGYOR, which light travels fastest?

a. Violet
b. Blue
c. Red
d. Yellow

Answer: c
527. What kind of images will a pool of water create on a sunny day?
a. Real images
b. Virtual image
c. Both real and virtual images
d. None of these

Answer: b

528. Size of moon keeps changing when viewed from earth. This change is called?
a. Solar System
b. Segments of moon
c. Phases of moon
d. None of these

Answer: c

529. Stars appear small because:

a. They are far off
b. They reflect moon's light
c. They have dim light
d. They reflect the sun

Answer: a

530. Sky is not clear in cities due to:

a. Clouds
b. Dust and Smoke
c. Large area
d. None of these

Answer: b

531. The stars, planets, moon and objects in sky are called:
a. Solar bodies
b. Celestial bodies
c. Lunar bodies
d. Solar system

Answer: b

532. Path of the planet around the sun is called:

a. Spin
b. Dent
c. Orbit
d. Rotation
 Answer: c

533. As per recent observations by astronomers, the universe:

a. Is breaking into pieces
b. Is contracting
c. Is expanding
d. Never existed

Answer: c

534. Which planet has a huge red spot?

a. Mars
b. Saturn
c. Venus
d. Jupiter

Answer: d

535. A piece of rock which burns as it falls on Earth through the Earth's atmosphere is:
a. Asteroids
b. Meteoroids
c. Meteorite
d. Meteor

Answer: d

536. The sun is a:

a. Planet
b. Satellite
c. Star
d. Comet

Answer: c

537. What do millions of stars together form?

a. A galaxy
b. Sun
c. Constellation
d. Solar System

Answer: a

538. The path of a planet revolving around the sun is:

a. Orbit
b. Circle
 c. Radius
d. Pole

Answer: a

539. Sunlight travels a distance of ________ in one year.

a. 3.26 x 1012 km
b. 9.46 x 1012 km
c. 1 x 1012 km
d. 2.33 x 1012 km

Answer: b

540. After Sun, the star that is nearest to earth is:

a. Orion
b. Ursa Major
c. Alpha Centauri
d. Ursa Minor

Answer: c

541. The science of study of universe is:

a. Agronomy
b. Astronomy
c. Spacionomy
d. Astrology

Answer: b

542. Which of the following is known as the 'dwarf planet'.

a. Pluto
b. Neptune
c. Mercury
d. Uranus

Answer: a

543. Earth rotates on its axis from:

a. East to West
b. West to East
c. North to South
d. South to North

Answer: b
544. The star, situated in the direction of the earth's axis is:
a. Sun
b. Moon
c. Pole Star
d. None of these

Answer: c

545. Which of the following is called 'evening star'?

a. Mars
b. Mercury
c. Jupiter
d. Venus

Answer: d

546. Which of the following has well-grown sets of rings:

a. Uranus
b. Neptune
c. Saturn
d. Jupiter

Answer: c

547. Saptarishi constellation is also called:

a. Small Dipper
b. Big Skipper
c. Big Dipper
d. None of these

Answer: c

548. Which planet is also known as largest in the following options?

a. Uranus
b. Neptune
c. Saturn
d. Jupiter

Answer: d

549. How many planets are there in our solar system?

a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 9
 Answer: c

550. The farthest planet from the Sun in the solar system is:
a. Uranus
b. Neptune
c. Mars
d. Jupiter

Answer: b

551. The nearest star from the Earth is:

a. Sun
b. Pole Star
c. Moon
d. None of these

Answer: a

552. Which of the following planet has no natural satellite?

a. Saturn
b. Venus
c. Jupiter
d. Earth

Answer: b

553. Do planets have light of their own?

a. Yes
b. No
c. Not always
d. Some of the planets have.

Answer: b

554. Moon has its surface rich in:

a. Oxygen
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Hydrogen
d. None of these

Answer: c

555. Moon is a:
a. Man made satellite
b. Natural satellite
 c. Star
d. All of these

Answer: b

556. The planet nearest to the sun is:

a. Mars
b. Mercury
c. Jupiter
d. Venus

Answer: b

557. How many satellites does mercury have?

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

Answer: a

558. The brightest planet in the night sky is?

a. Mars
b. Mercury
c. Jupiter
d. Venus

Answer: d

559. The only satellite of Earth is:

a. Sun
b. Mercury
c. Jupiter
d. Moon

Answer: d

560. Venus rotates from:

a. East to West
b. West to East
c. North to South
d. South to North

Answer: a
561. Moon rotates on its axis in:
a. 30 days
b. 27 days
c. 29 days
d. None of these

Answer: c

562. Which planet is called the red planet?

a. Mercury
b. Venus
c. Mars
d. Earth

Answer: c

563. The least dense planet in our solar system is:

a. Saturn
b. Uranus
c. Neptune
d. Jupiter

Answer: a

564. Red planet is another name of:

a. Venus
b. Mars
c. Jupiter
d. Neptune

Answer: b

565. New moon is when the moon is:

a. Invisible
b. Visible
c. Partially visible
d. None of these

Answer: a

566. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are called as:

a. Inner Planets
b. Outer Planets
c. Stars
d. Satellites
 Answer: b

567. The hottest planet in solar system is:

a. Venus
b. Sun
c. Jupiter
d. Neptune

Answer: a

568. The name of the first Indian satellite was:

a. Aryabhatta
b. Sputnik I
c. Jupiter
d. Moon

Answer: a

569. The tail of a comet is always directed _____ the sun.

a. towards
b. away from
c. perpendicular from
d. All of these

Answer: b

570. The first Indian man-made satellite was called:

a. INSAT
b. GSAT
c. Aryabhatta
d. None of these

Answer: c

571. Glass houses used to grow plants in very cold regions are known as:
a. Plant houses
b. Heat houses
c. Green houses
d. Growth houses

Answer: c

572. Reducing emission of which of the following gases will reduce the acid rain?
a. Carbon monoxide
b. Nitrous oxide
 c. Ozone
d. Oxygen

Answer: b

573. Kyotoprotocol is an agreement aimed at:

a. Reducing greenhouse gases' emission
b. Increasing forest area
c. Preventing ozone layer depletion
d. All of the above

Answer: a

574. Recycled water can be used for which of the following activities?
a. Cooking
b. Washing vegetables
c. Drinking
d. Watering plants

Answer: d

575. Marble cancer refers to which of the following conditions of Taj Mahal?
a. Formation of cracks in marble
b. Marble turning yellow due to corrosion
c. Marble getting old
d. Marble turning grey

Answer: b

576. Which is the best way to deal with plastic waste?

a. Burn the waste
b. Put it in compost pit
c. Throw the waste in oceans
d. Make something new out of old plastic products

Answer: d

577. Which of the following will produce the least amount of carbon monoxide when burnt in air?
a. Natural gas
b. Petrol
c. Diesel
d. Coal

Answer: a
578. Which of the following is a natural cause of air pollution?
a. Volcanic eruptions
b. Dust released during coal mining
c. Burning of leaves in garden
d. Formation of smog

Answer: a

579. Industries that do not follow the regulations meant for controlled discharge of sewage are
responsible for:
a. Soil and water pollution
b. Water and air pollution
c. Air and soil pollution
d. Air, soil and water pollution

Answer: d

580. Which of the following fuels is the most eco friendly?

a. Petrol
b. Kerosene
c. Coal
d. Natural gas

Answer: d

581. Which of the following techniques does not kill the microbes present in water?
a. Exposing the water to UV radiations
b. Boiling of water
c. Filtering water through layers of sand and gravels
d. Adding chlorine tablets to water

Answer: c

582. Use of which of the following forms of energy should be reduced in order to reduce air
pollution?
a. Solar energy
b. Thermal power
c. Wind energy
d. Hydro power

Answer: b

583. Which of the following is not a water borne disease?

a. Polio
b. Malaria
 c. Jaundice
d. Cholera

Answer: a

584. Ganga action plan is meant to:

a. Beautify the river bed of Ganga river
b. Build temples next to Ganga river
c. Clean the river Ganga
d. Increase the amount of water in the river Ganga

Answer: c

585. Disease causing microbes reach the water bodies due to which of the following reasons?
a. Acid rain
b. Release of sewage
c. Release of chemicals
d. Washing off of fertilisers and pesticides

Answer: b

586. In the atmosphere, sulphur combines with water vapour to produce sulphuric acid that leads
to:
a. Acid rain
b. Fog
c. Smog
d. Precipitation

Answer: a

587. The heat-trapping ability of some gases in the atmosphere is responsible for:
a. Acid rain
b. The production of CFCs
c. The greenhouse effect
d. Increased levels of UV radiation

Answer: c

588. CFCs destroy ozone because ultraviolet radiation breaks the bonds in CFCs, and the:
a. Free chlorine atoms become more stable
b. Free chlorine atoms react to destroy ozone
c. CFCs prevent ultraviolet radiation from reaching the Earth's surface
d. CFCs are released into the atmosphere

Answer: b
589. Ozone depletion in the upper atmosphere can lead to an increased risk of:
a. Skin cancer
b. Asthma
c. Cataract
d. Both skin cancer and cataract

Answer: d

590. Where is ozone layer present?

a. Troposphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Mesosphere
d. Thermosphere

Answer: b

591. Which of the following is not caused by global warming?

a. Melting of polar ice caps
b. Increase in rainfall
c. Deforestation
d. Rise in sea level

Answer: c

592. Most of the radiation reaching the Earth is:

a. Reflected back to the space
b. Absorbed by the ozone layer
c. Absorbed by the Earth's atmosphere
d. Absorbed by the Earth's surface

Answer: d

593. Which of the following is the major cause of ground water pollution?
a. House hold cleaning agent
b. Industrial effluents dumped in water bodies
c. Motor oil not disposed off properly
d. All above the above

Answer: d

594. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

a. Sulphur dioxide
b. Water vapour
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Nitrous oxide
 Answer: b

595. Which of the following are natural sources of air pollution?

a. Forest fires
b. Volcanic eruptions
c. Dust storm
d. All of the above

Answer: d

596. Use of excessive fertiliser in fields leads to the deficiency of which of the following gas in the
nearby water body?
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Carbon monoxide
c. Nitrogen
d. Oxygen

Answer: d

597. Refrigerators and air conditioners have which of the following gas?
a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Methane
c. Chlorofluorocarbons
d. Sulphuric acid

Answer: c

598. In which of the following place is ozone hole largest?

a. Antarctica
b. USA
c. Europe
d. India

Answer: a

599. Carbon monoxide is a pollutant because it:

a. Absorbs CO2
b. Reacts with hemoglobin
c. Causes burning of eyes
d. Inhabits photosynthesis

Answer: b

600. Fertiliser washed into rivers can cause excessive growth of:
a. Microorganism
 b. Algae
c. Fungi
d. Sea snakes

Answer: b

B. Answer the given questions in 40-50 words. (1 x 31, 2 x 1, 3 x 331, 4

x 8, 5 x 16, 6 x 1, 7 x 4,
8 x 6, 9 x 1, 10 x 1 =
1239)
1. The pupil size grows when we see in dim light. Is that true or false? Explain.

Answer: True.
Actually, the pupil becomes large in order to enhance the amount of light that enters into eyes
in poor light conditions. This is a natural phenomenon; it is meant to help increase visibility in
dim light.

2. Angle of incidence can never be equal to angle of reflection. True or false.

Answer: False. As per the first law of reflection, it is always equal to the angle of reflection.

3. What causes the formation of a rainbow?

Answer: A rainbow appears when water droplets in the atmosphere cause sunlight to disperse.
In this phenomenon of dispersion of sunlight, water drops act as small prisms.

4. What kind of reflection will occur when a light beam strikes chalk powder—regular or
diffused and why?

Answer: When a light beam strikes chalk powder, diffused reflection will take place. This is
because the surface of chalk powder is irregular. So, when light comes in contact with it, it
reflects away diffused.

5. What are the laws of reflection?

Answer: First Law of Reflection states that the angle of incidence is always equal to the angle
of reflection. Second Law of Reflection states that at the point of reflection, the incident ray,
the reflected ray, and the normal all lie in the same plane.

6. What kind of images does a plane mirror create?

Answer: A plane mirror creates virtual images. This is because the object in the image is as
far behind the mirror as the parent object. Also, it is of the same size as the original object.
 7. In which of these media will light travel fastest—water, turpentine, or kerosene?

Answer: Velocity of light is always inversely proportional to a medium’s refractive index.

Since the refractive index of water is the lowest, light will travel fastest in it.

8. What is the point of incidence?

Answer: This is the point at a mirror’s surface where incident rays strike and reflected rays
deflect.

9. Images formed by a plane mirror are laterally inverted. Give an example.

Answer: In front of a plane mirror, when someone touches their right ear with left hand, the
image shows that the left ear is touched with right hand. This is an example of inversion of
images created by a plane mirror.

10. Diamond has a reflective index of 2.42. What do you understand by this statement?

Answer: The statement implies that the speed of light in diamond is 2.42 times less than the
speed of light in the air.

11. Rohan lights up a matchstick and places it in between two parallel mirrors. The mirrors are at
a distance of 2 m. How many images of the matchstick are created? Why?

Answer: Parallel mirrors continue to reflect back the images to each other endlessly. This
results in creation of infinite number of images. So, an infinite number of images of burning
matchstick are created on two parallel mirrors.

12.

Answer:

13.
 Answer:

14. Why does a glass prism disperse the white light?

Answer: As we know, white light is a combination of 7 colorful lights. When white light is
passed through a prism, these colorful lights bend at different angles. When these lights finally
come out of the prism, they appear to be dispersed (coming out at different places) and this is
precisely the reason why a spectrum is created.

15. ‘Do not look at the sun or a powerful light directly’. Why?

Answer: The sun or a powerful light has ultra-violet rays that could damage your eyes. Hence,
it is advised to not look at the sun or a powerful light directly.

16. ‘It is necessary that you take proper care of your eyes.’ Explain with respect to your eating
habits.

Answer: Balanced diet is a must to keep a person healthy. If a person’s diet is not proper, it
can affect the eye too. Lack of Vitamin A in food causes eye troubles. Hence, it is necessary
to eat food rich in Vitamin A, for example, green vegetables, eggs, raw carrots, etc.

17. When in a dark room, how clearly can we see objects in and outside the room?

Answer: Normally, we can see object clearly when the light reflected by them easily meets our
eyes. But, there is no reflection of light in a dark room. This is the reason we are unable to see
things around us. However, if there is enough light outside, we don’t find any problems seeing
things lying there. Here, the reflection of light is enough to create sufficient visibility.
18. What are the major differences between regular reflection and diffused reflection?

Answer: Regular reflection occurs only on a regular or smooth surface. On the other hand,
diffused reflection occurs on a rough surface. Where all reflects rays in regular reflection are
parallel to each other, rays in diffused reflection are unparalleled. Also, rays reflected during
regular reflection travel in one direction. But, rays reflected during diffused reflection move in
different direction.

19. What is persistence of vision?

Answer: This is the phenomenon that makes it possible for the image impressions to stay on
the retina for one-sixteenth of a second. Under this phenomenon of the eye, images appear to
be moving if next image is passed before the previous one has been eliminated. In order to
view still images, it is important that the gap between any two images is more than one
sixteenth of a second. So, when a number of still images move rapidly one after another, they
appear to be moving.

20. Fill in the blanks using the words provided.

Food, Rabi, kharif, Crop rotation, Weeding, Tilling, Broadcasting
a. Wheat is a ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ crop.

b. ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ plants are sown in November and harvested in April.

c. Removing unwanted plants from the crop is called ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ .

d. Sowing seeds by hands is called ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ ̲ .

Answer:
a. Food
b. Rabi
c. weeding
d. broadcasting

e. Classify the following crops in the categories provided:

Carrots, banana, ginger, rice, wheat, onion, maize, mustard

Categories: Kharif crops, Rabi crops, Biennials, Perennials

Answer: Kharif crops: Rice and maize

Rabi crops: Wheat and mustard
Biennials: Carrots and onion
Perennials: Banana and ginger

f. Complete the sequence of agricultural practices followed for crop production:

 Soil preparation, a.________, manuring, b.___________,
c.________, harvesting, d.____________.

Answer:
a. Sowing
b. Irrigation
c. Weeding
d. Storage

g.

Answer:

h. Why is seed drill considered more efficient for sowing seeds?

Answer: The seed drill helps us to sow the seeds uniformly at proper distances and
depths. It also covers the seeds with soil after sowing, which prevents damage caused by
birds. It saves time and labour.

i. A farmer’s uses seed drill to sow seeds at proper distance. Why is distance important
while sowing seeds?

Answer: Distance is important to avoid overcrowding, which ensures that each plant gets
sufficient sunlight, nutrients and water from the soil.

j. In northern India, wheat is grown in one season and legumes are grown as fodder in the
other season. Why is this practice followed by the farmers?

Answer: This technique is called crop rotation. It helps in replenishment of soil. The
Rhizobium bacteria are present in the nodules of the roots of leguminous plants which
fix atmospheric nitrogen.
k. "Use of manures is advantageous over fertilisers". Justify.

Answer: Manures have higher content of nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus and
potassium. The microbes present in manure helps in aeration of soil. It does not lead to
contamination of water and is also cheaper to buy.

l. Paddy cannot be grown in winter season. Explain.

Answer: Paddy cannot be grown in winter as it is monsoon dependent cereal; it requires

lot of water to grow.

m. Neem leaves are sundried and put in an iron drum containing wheat. Why?

Answer: Neem leaves have antimicrobial properties; it helps in preventing attack of

microorganisms and insects from infesting the grain and causing spoilage.

n. How is combine harvester beneficial to farmers?

Answer: The combine harvester or combine is a machine that harvests grain crops. It
combines three separate operations comprising harvesting—reaping, threshing, and
winnowing—into a single process. It is a cost effective, time saving and labour reducing
method of harvesting crops.

o. Explain how soil gets affected by the continuous plantation of crops in a field.

Answer: The continuous plantation of crop results in depletion of essential nutrients like
nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium. Growing one kind has many other disadvantages
like it is difficult to maintain cover on the soil; it encourage pests, diseases and weeds; it
can reduce the soil fertility and damage the soil structure

p. Write the correct order of sugarcane production from farm to factory:

Sending crops to sugar factory. Irrigation, Harvesting, Sowing, Preparation of soil,
Ploughing of field, Manuring

Answer: Ploughing of field----Preparation of soil---Sowing---Manuring---Irrigation---

Harvesting----Sending crops to sugar factory

q. What will happen if wheat will be sown as kharif crop?

Answer: All crops require optimum temperature, humidity and light conditions in order
to grow well. If wheat is grown as kharif crop that is if it is grown in rainy season then it
can spoil the growth and damage the flowers and formation of seeds in wheat plants.

r. Why is it necessary to sow seeds at an appropriate depth?

 Answer: The seeds should be grown at an appropriate depth. If they are sown deeper,
they will not get enough sunlight and air to germinate. If sown at low depth, they might
get eaten by birds or other organisms. Therefore, it is important to sow seeds at an
optimal depth.

s.

Answer:

t. What does the population trend of the future mean for agriculture?

Answer: Production must keep increasing in order to feed everyone. Transportation and
distribution will be even more important than they are today. A growing urban
population will use resources in greater quantities than their fewer rural neighbors who
produce the food. Conserving land, water and energy resources and using new
technologies to increase production will grow in importance. Marketing new products
will continue to be a growing business.

u. It takes long time to create healthy growing soil; can we consider it as a renewable
resource?

Answer: Soil formation from its parent material would take 500 to 1000 years.
Therefore soil isn’t a renewable resource. People in agriculture work to keep their
healthy growing soils from blowing or washing away. They also replenish soils with
water and nutrients that are taken up by plants during the growing process.
v. Which products we use every day are dependent on soil? Do you think it is important to
conserve soil and agriculture land? Why?

Answer: Every day we use most of the products that are obtained from some or other
plant or cereal. Yes, it is important to conserve soil and agriculture as our need for food
is met through agriculture products.

w. What is agricultural land used for?

Answer: Agricultural land is not only used for obtaining food, but they also provide us
timber, fibre for clothes and various pharmaceutical products are also obtained from
them.

x. What determines whether land is suitable for agriculture?

Answer: Climate (moisture and heat or amount of sunlight), topography and the soil
type—all these determine whether the land will be productive agriculturally or not. The
soil is important because different soils have different properties and characteristics; for
example, two soils may provide different nutrients and hold different amounts of water.
They might be suitable for growth of different crops.

y. Can a land area or the crops be modified to make it better suited for agriculture? How?

Answer: Yes, we can improve the soil conditions by using fertilisers. Preparation of soil
is the first step before growing a crop. By using different tilling methods, soil can be
loosened to allow the roots to breathe easily and also bring the nutrient rich soil to the
top so that plants can use these nutrients.

z. A waste management company approached a farmer with agricultural land, to acquire it

and convert it into a landfill site. What will you suggest the farmer? Why?

Do you think waste management company’s decision to convert agricultural land to

landfill is justified? Explain.

Answer: The farmer should not give his agricultural land for building a landfill as it is a
fertile land that can produce various crops. Landfill should be outside the city or village
on a land area, which is of no use. No, the waste management company cannot convert
agricultural land into landfill as the land helps in production of food crops, which bring
more value than converting the land into a site for landfill.

aa. Why is selection of seeds important?

Answer: Selection of seeds is an important step in crop production. It determines the

percentage production and yield of crops. The seeds selected should be of high yielding
variety and free of pest and microbes in order to ensure good yield.
ab. Give three positive and negative impacts of the green revolution.

Answer: Green revolution has saved millions of lives, allowed some developing nations
to become net exporters of grain, preserved habitat and biodiversity in some ecosystems.
Negative impact of green revolution is that it has lead to increased use of energy;
worsened erosion, salinisation, desertification, eutrophication, increased air pollution;
and contributed to global warming.

ac. a. A farmer practices monoculture (grows only one crop) to make a crop more or less
prone to pests? Explain.

b. What will you suggest him?

Answer: a. Monoculture makes a crop more vulnerable to pests because a pest

population adapted to that plant can destroy entire fields.
b. In few rows the farmer should also grow some other crop that requires same type of
irrigation and nutrition condition.

ad. A farmer practices crop rotation, one season he grows leguminous plants. Do you think
he should use NPK fertiliser or urea in his farms? Explain.

Answer: As farmer is practicing crop rotation, he will be using additional urea or NPK
fertiliser as growing leguminous crops replenish the nitrogen to the soil.

ae. A farmer wanted to sow gram seeds in his field. He collected seeds and put it in a
container with water, some seeds sank down and some seeds were floating. Which seeds
he will be selecting and why?

Answer: The seeds that float on top on soaking in water will not germinate even when
favourable conditions are given. The farmer will choose the seeds that do not float on
water.

af. A farmer was growing only maize in a particular field for five successive seasons. He
found that the yield decreases every time. Give reasons and how can his problem be
solved?

Answer: Growing paddy for five successive years leads to depletion of soil nutrients.
Farmers should practice crop rotation so that the soil gets replenished with all the
nutrients.

ag. A group of students conducted activity where they have taken three glasses A, B and C
with same amount of soil and planted same sized seedlings. They added cow dung
manure in glass A, little urea in glass B and nothing in glass C. After one week they
found the seedlings in glass B has shown more growth than A and C. Give reason for
your observation.
 Answer: Glass B shows more growth than others as urea is a rich source of nitrogen and
plants for growth utilise nitrogen for making new leaves and other structures.

ah. Which irrigation method can be used to conserve water and Why?

Answer: Drip system can be used to conserve water. This system provides water to
plants drop by drop just at the position of the roots. This is the best technique for
watering fruits, plants, gardens and trees. They are very efficient as water is not wasted
at all.

ai. Ramu has produced 100 tons of wheat this season. He could only sell half of his
produce. Suggest him storage methods, which he can use to minimise waste and
spoilage?

Answer: Ramu should store wheat in gunny bags sprayed with insecticides and
pesticides. Also, grain silos can be used for storage. Silos are specially designed
cylinders which protects grains from pesticides and microorganisms.

aj. An increase in food production, especially in underdeveloped and developing nations,

through the introduction of high-yield crop varieties and application of modern
agricultural techniques. The introduction of high-yielding varieties of seeds and the
increased use of chemical fertilisers and irrigation are known collectively as the Green
Revolution, which provided the increase in production needed to make India self-
sufficient in food grains, thus improving agriculture in India.
a. Who is known as father of green revolution in India?
b. Who introduced high yielding wheat variety in India?
c. Considering the current scenario, do you think India has become self sufficient for
food?
d. What further steps can we take to improve agriculture in our country to meet the
demands of ever growing population?

Answer:
a. M S Swaminathan
b. Dr. Norman Borlaug
c. Considering current export and production percentages, India is self sufficient. But
due to ever growing population, demand of food is increasing. Also, the climate
change is affecting the production of various crops. In few years of time, India
will have to review all its agricultural practices.
d. We can further improve our agriculture by educating our farmers about various
new methods of agriculture, mechanisation of agriculture and new high yielding
varities of seeds.

ak. Sandeep recently bought a farmland and wants to start farming in that area.
 a. Which crops he should grow during summer season?
b. Which crops should he grow in winter?
c. Suggest three practices that he should follow in order to increase yield of his
crops.

Answer:
a. Paddy, maize and soybeans, pulses and vegetables should be grown during summer
season.
b. Wheat, gram, pea and mustard should be grown during winter season.
c. Sandeep can increase yield by using high yielding variety of seeds, using adequate
amount of fertilisers, manure and water for the crops. The yield can also be
increased by the growing pest resistant varieties.

al.

Answer:

am. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

Plants suffer stress when they cannot get enough water. Drought stress causes the closure
of the leaf stomata, which restricts photosynthesis and thereby reduces growth.
Irrigation should be applied to prevent drought stress occurring.

Three main factors affect crop water supply:

 The level of water demand, expressed as evapo-transpiration.
The amount of water in the soil.
The ability of the root system to extract water from the soil.
a. Why is irrigation important?
b. Which factors determine the need and amount of irrigation for a crop?
c. What will happen if plants are not irrigated properly and are under water stress?
d. Which is the traditional method used for irrigation?
e. Mention two modern methods of irrigation.

Answer: a. Irrigation is important to ensure good plant health and keeping crops well
irrigated helps in increasing the yield of crops.
b. The rate of evapo-transpiration, moisture content of the soil, ability of root system to
extract water determines the need and amount of irrigation for a crop.
c. The plants will start wilting and dying causing loss of crops.
d. Surface irrigation is the traditional method used for irrigation.
e. Drip and sprinkler irrigation methods are modern methods of irrigation.

an. Topic: Indigenous plant varieties

Description: Collect information about the improved varieties of wheat, rice and maize
which are produced by Indian Council of Agriculture Research.

Instructions:
a. This project can be used both as individual project or can be used for group
activity.
b. Students will collect information regarding the high yielding varieties.
c. Students will collect pictures of different pure lines, indigenous pure seeds and
improved varieties. If possible students will collect samples for each variety. They
will collect and compare information under following headings:
Size of seeds
Yield percentage
Nutritional content of seeds
d. Students will present their findings in PowerPoint presentation in class or can set
an experiment if possible in class, with the help of a teacher.

Answer:

ao. Fill in the blanks using the given words.

Communicable diseases, Pasteurisation, Virus, Antibodies, Microorganisms

Lactobacillus, Pathogens, Nitrogen fixation
a. Disease causing microorganisms are called _______________.
b. When a disease carrying microbe enters the human body, the body produces
 __________to fight the invader.
c. __________ is the process of converting atmospheric nitrogen into compounds of
nitrogen.
d. Curds are formed from milk by the action of ______________.
e. Some ________________ grow on our food and cause food poisoning.
f. Microbial diseases that can spread from an infected person to a healthy person
through the air, water, food or physical contact are called _______________.
g. The process of heating milk to above 100 º C for 15 to 30 seconds and then
suddenly chilling and storing it to prevent the growth of microbes is called
___________.
h. Measles is caused by a ____________.

Answer:
a. Pathogens
b. Antibodies
c. Nitrogen fixation
d. Lactobacillus
e. Microorgansims
f. Communicable diseases
g. Pasteurisation
h. Virus

ap.

Answer:

aq. Classify the following organisms to their respective groups given below:

Spirogyra, Yeast, Lactobacillus, Diatoms, Mushrooms, Streptococcus

Groups: Bacteria, Algae, Fungi

Answer: Bacteria: Lactobacillus, Streptococcus

 Algae: Spirogyra, Diatoms
Fungi: Yeast, Mushrooms

ar.

Answer:

as.

Answer:
at. How are microbes useful to us? Explain with examples how they help in following:
a. In food industry
b. In medicine
c. In agriculture
d. Cleaning the environment

Answer: Microbes have a number of uses in our daily life. They are used in curd,
cheese, wine, vinegar, antibiotics and a number of other products that we use in our
daily life.
a. In food industry: Microbes are used in making bread, cheese, wine
b. In medicine: Microbes are used in production of vaccines, antibiotics,
manufacturing of vitamins
c. In agriculture: Microbes are used in nutrient recycling, in aeration of soil,
decomposing dead and decaying leaves, fixation of nitrogen
d. Cleaning the environment: Microbes are used in decomposition of dead and
decaying matter, cleaning of oil spills

au. How are yeasts different from parasites? How do they help or harm us?

Answer: Yeasts usually don’t make us sick. They like to grow in foods with a lot of
sugar. When added to bread dough, yeasts help the bread rise. Parasites are tiny animals
that can be seen only with a microscope. Amoebas are examples of parasites that can
live in drinking water. If we drink that water, we can get sick.

av. These days a number of methods can be used for acidification of milk i.e. converting it
to curd or cheese by coagulation; like rennet tablets, using citric acid. Despite this, we
prefer fermentation or cultural methods, where we depend on microorganisms to cause
acidification and coagulation. Explain why?

Answer: The fermentation process increases the shelf-life of the product, enhances the
taste and improves the digestibility of milk. Therefore, we prefer fermentation and
culture methods to produce curd or cheese. Different Lactobacilli strains have been
grown in laboratories to produce cultured milk products with different tastes.
aw. Ravi has a sore throat. He finds some antibiotics in his mother’s medicine cabinet. Do
you think he should take those antibiotics to cure his sore throat? Why or why not?

Answer: No, Ravi should not take those antibiotics as they might not be the specified
medicines for the treatment of sore throat. Antibiotics should be taken only with
doctors’ advise. If sore throat is due to viral infection, then antibiotics will not be able to
cure it as viral infection cannot be controlled by antibiotics.

ax. How can a food borne illness outbreak be harmful to people?

Answer: Food borne illnesses are generally caused due to bacteria. These bacteria spread
through contact, air, water and faecal matter. Food borne illness can lead to severe
diahorrea and fever. A serious outbreak can be threatening to a population as they
spread through various modes.

ay. Sam has severe abdominal pain with severe diarrhea. Doctor has found out the causative
organism with following features:
a. It is a part of normal flora of our intestine
b. It travels through faecal matter
c. It is also used as probiotic
i. What is the causative organism of Sam’s diarrhea?
ii. What precautions should we take to avoid these types of infections?
iii. Do you think doctor will prescribe antibiotic to Sam? Why?

Answer: Sam’s illness

i. E.coli
ii. We should practice good hygiene habits, wash our hands properly, keep our food
covered and drink clean water.
iii. Yes, doctor will prescribe antibiotic as the disease is caused by bacteria and
antibiotics are helpful in treating bacterial infections

az. Doctors and other health care professionals always advise to wash our hands properly.
How long do you think we need to wash our hands to make sure they are free from
microbes?

Answer: We should at least wash our hands for one minute following proper method.
We should wash our hand with soap, scrubbing upper side and palms and cleaning nails
as well.

ba. These days a number of probiotics are sold in the market.

a. What are probiotics?
b. Give two examples of commercially sold probiotics.
c. Which bacteria are most commonly used as probiotics?
 Answer:
a. Probiotics are the good bacteria which help in digestion and keep our intestine
healthy.
b. Yakult, Danone
c. Lactobacilli and Bifidobacterium

bb. Is it possible for the same microbe to be harmful and useful to us? Give examples.

Answer: Yes, same bacteria can be useful and harmful both. Example: E.coli present in
our intestine helps in digestion and synthesis of vitamin B12. Same bacteria can cause
infection of stomach, urine and blood.

bc. There are germs everywhere in our surroundings; in bathrooms, on door knobs, in our
bodies etc.
a. Do you think that they are harmful, necessary, unavoidable or helpful? Explain.
b. What measures can you take daily to avoid getting sick or contracting illnesses?

Answer:
a. There are a number of microorganisms that live on our body, and are everywhere.
Most of these microbes are not harmful but sometimes these microbes can cause
illness if proper cleanliness and hygiene is not maintained.
b. We should keep our surroundings clean, take bath regularly, wash our hands
before and after eating, keep our food and water covered, dispose off waste and
faecal matter properly and drink water from a clean source.

bd. Discuss the role of microorganism in decomposing matter in nature and nutrient
recycling. Name few microorganisms that help in nutrient recycling.

Answer: There are a number of microorganisms that are present in the soil that help in
decomposing dead and decaying leaves and other organic matter. These microorganisms
help in breakdown of matter that helps in soil replenishment. Some of the bacteria help
in fixing atmospheric nitrogen. These microbes help in mobilising nutrients from
organic matter and return it to soil or nature. Example of microbes: Moulds,
Mushrooms, Rhizobium, Nitrosomonas, Azotobacter, Nitrobacter.

be.
 Answer:

bf. Why do we need to preserve food? Give three methods of food preservation.

Answer: Preserving food increases the shelf life of fresh, seasonal foods that makes it
last longer. Fresh fruit and vegetables start getting spoiled for more than a week.
Depending on how they are stored, dried, canned, or frozen fruit and vegetables can last
for months and years. Food preservation:
Slows down the growth of bacteria
Kills the bacteria altogether.
Different food preservation methods are:
a. Freezing is one of the most commonly used processes for preserving a very wide
range of foods. The true flavour, colour and appearance remain intact during
freezing. Most vegetables are blanched, dried and then frozen. Fruits can be
frozen, dry, or in sugar or syrups. Vegetables can be pickled, raw, or cooked. They
are stored in vinegar, which is a weak acid, and this prevents bacteria from
spoiling the food.
b. Sun drying: This is the oldest method of preservation. In this method, vegetables,
fruits etc are dried in the sun and stored. As the moisture content becomes low,
the chance of spoilage reduces.
c. Pasteurisation: Pasteurisation is a process of heating food, to a specific
temperature for a fixed length of time and then immediately cooling it after it is
 removed from the heat. This process slows spoilage caused by microbial growth in
the food.
d. Sealing food in air tight packages: Sealing food in air tight packets helps in
reducing the exposure of the microbes present in air and hence prevents spoilage.

bg. Every season doctor’s advise us to get a flu shot. Why hasn’t the flu vaccine eliminated
the influenza virus?

Answer: A vaccine helps the body to make specific antibodies to fight a particular
infectious disease. These antibodies then attach themselves to the antigens in the outer
coat of the virus. The influenza virus has the ability to mutate and modify their outer
coat therefore cannot be cured with one type of vaccine. Also there are about 400
different types of viruses that can cause flu.

bh. Rhea knows that antibiotics don’t cure the cold or flu.
a. Do you think she should take antibiotics for treating her cold?
b. What should the doctor recommend or prescribe for her?

Answer:
a. Antibiotics can only treat bacterial infections and the flu is caused by a virus.
Coughs and colds are caused by viruses and in many cases the body’s own natural
defenses will fight these infections. Therefore, Rhea should not take antibiotics for
treating her cold.
b. Doctors can prescribe pain killers to help reduce the pain and fever associated
with the infection.

bi. What is the role of microorganisms in nitrogen fixation?

Answer: Microorganisms have an important role in nitrogen availability to all organisms:

Some bacteria can convert N2 into ammonia by nitrogen fixation; these bacteria
are either free living or symbiotically with plants or other organisms.
Some bacteria help in transformations of ammonia to nitrate and of nitrate to N2
or other nitrogen gases.
Many bacteria and fungi degrade organic matter, releasing fixed nitrogen for reuse
by other organisms.

Choose one microorganism from the following: E.coli, Yeast, Penicillium,

Influenza virus. Make an information flier to be distributed in a class room. It may
include the following:
a. Structure of the microbe
b. The different places they can be found
c. How they affect humans in either a good or bad way?
 d. Any specific growth requirements of that group of microbe

Answer: E.coli:
a. Rod-shaped bacterium of the genusEscherichia.
b. It is commonly found in the lower intestine of warm-blooded organisms.
c. It can live on a wide variety of substrates. E. coli uses mixed acid
fermentation in anaerobic conditions.
d. It is used as an indicator organism for fecal contamination. Virulent strains
can cause gastroenteritis, urinary tract infections.
Yeast:
a. Yeasts are unicellular. They appear or become multicellular through
budding.
b. It grows on substrate with high sugar content.
c. It is widely used in fermentation processes for producing wines, ciders,
making bread, pizza base.
Influenza:
a. It is virus that is transmitted through the air by coughs, sneezes and
contaminated surfaces.
b. Viruses are borderline organisms which require a host to multiply
c. Most viruses are disease causing in plants and animals.
d. Some viruses are used in retroviral therapy and to produce vaccines.
e. The viruses can be inactivated by sunlight, disinfectants and detergents. The
virus can be inactivated by soap; frequent hand washing reduces the risk of
infection.

Answer:
During the summer, curds should be kept in a refrigerator. Why?

Answer: To avoid excess growth of bacteria and to avoid souring of curd it should
be kept in a refrigerator.

Dia wants to make yoghurt/curd at home. She has all the procedure with her but
she has some queries regarding the process. Answer the following queries for Dia
regarding the process of yoghurt formation.
a. What is the process that causes change in the milk called? Explain the
process.
b. Why was it important to add some yogurt to the milk mixture?
c. What will happen if boiled yogurt is added to the milk, and why?
d. What changes occur as the mixture changes from milk to yogurt and why do
these changes occur?
e. Why was it important to keep the mixture warm overnight?

Answer: Dia’s yoghurt queries:

a. Fermentation is the process by which the milk changed to yogurt. During
fermentation, microbes use simple sugars and convert them to acids, gas and
alcohol.
b. It was important to add some yogurt to the milk mixture as the live yogurt
contained the bacteria which carried out fermentation.
c. No change will occur because the yogurt has been boiled and all microbes
are killed. Fermentation cannot occur when this sterile yogurt is added to the
milk.
d. The lactic acid produced by the bacteria causes the milk to sour resulting in
a thickening and slight colour change.
e. Bacteria prefer to grow at approximately 37 oC, temperatures lower or
higher than this range will either kill microbes or reduce the rate at which
they multiply. It is important for the bacteria to grow and multiply quickly in
order to produce lactic acid to cause the milk to change to yogurt.
Answer:
Answer:

Vani had to leave the house immediately after dinner, so she did not get time to
wash her plates or clean up the kitchen. When she arrived home two days later,
her kitchen smelled bad. Why? What happened to the leftover food?

Answer: Kitchen smelled bad because the left over started deteriorating due to
action of microorganisms.

What are antibiotics? Why is it important to follow a doctor’s instructions while

administering antibiotics?

Answer: Antibiotics are the agents which stops or inhibits the growth of
microorganisms. The antibiotics should be taken by doctors advise as they can
cause various side effects and also body can develop antibiotic resistance.

Give some different methods of food preservation.

Answer: Various methods of food preservation are: Chemical methods,

Preservation with salts, preservation with oil and vinegar, heat and cold treatment,
pastuerisation.

Why are children given vaccinations? List the important vaccinations given for
different diseases.

Answer: Some diseases can be prevented by vaccination, therefore children are

given vaccination. Important vaccines given for various diseases are: MMR, DPT,
Rota virus, Polio, Hepatitis, Tetanus, Tuberculosis, Influenza, Pnuemococcal.

Define the following terms:

a. Synthetic fibre
b. Mixed fibre
c. Polymer
d. Thermosetting plastic
e. Plasticity

Answer:
a. Fibres prepared artificially using chemicals
b. Fibres prepared by combining natural and synthetic fibres
c. Long chain formed by repeated joining of smaller units
d. Plastic formed by cross linked joining of monomers
e. Ability of being easily moulded or shaped

Why should we not wear synthetic clothes in kitchen?

Answer: Synthetic fibres are made of petrochemicals and hence are very heat
sensitive i.e, they catch fire easily. So we should not wear synthetic clothes in
kitchen.

Which fibre is also known as artificial silk? Why is this fibre said to be a semi-
synthetic fibre?

Answer: Rayon is known as artificial silk. It is said to be semi-synthetic because

wood pulp which is a natural product is used as a raw material for preparing rayon.
Hence rayon is not a completely synthetic fibre.

Instead of buying pure cotton or terylene for her dress material, Kavya preferred
to buy terrycot. State two advantages of using a mixed fibre over pure synthetic or
natural fibres.

Answer: Mixed fibres are more lustrous than natural fibre but not as lustrous as the
synthetic fibres. Mixed fibres are more resistant to be attacked by moth or insects
as compared to natural fibres and lesser heat sensitive than synthetic fibres. Thus
they are easier to maintain.

Why do people prefer to wear cotton over synthetic fibres during summers?

Answer: Cotton being a natural fibre absorbs sweat and exposes it to air outside.
This helps sweat to evaporate and keeps our body cooler. But synthetic fibres do
not absorb sweat and we feel hot wearing them. So people prefer wearing cotton
over synthetic fibres during summer.

If your school has started a ‘Say no to plastic’ campaign, and as a part of the
campaign, you are given the responsibility to spread awareness about the
importance of campaign among the fellow students and teachers. State two ways
in which you can fulfill this responsibility?

Answer:
a. I can present a skit to highlight the issue.
b. I can organise workshop about how to prepare paper bags that can be used
instead of plastic bags.

Why does burning of cotton smell like burning of paper while silk when burned
smell like charred meat?

Answer: Cotton is a plant fibre that is obtained from plants and so is the paper. So
they both smell similar when burned. Whereas both meat and silk are made of
protein. So they give a similar smell when burned.

What makes plastic chairs preferable over iron chairs?

Answer: Iron over the period of time gets rusted due to its reaction with oxygen
and moisture. But plastic is unreactive in nature and does not corrode. Thus plastic
chairs are more durable and preferred than iron chairs.

State one use each based on the following properties of synthetic polymers:
a. Teflon is non sticking plastic even at high temperature
b. Nylon has high tensile strength
c. Synthetic fibres do not absorb water
Answer:
a. Teflon is used for coating non stick cookwares.
b. Nylon is used for making rock climbing ropes.
c. Synthetic fibres are used to make umbrellas.

Leena had some old clothes of her which were no longer useful to her. Since they
were torn she could not donate them. Considering they were synthetic clothes she
did not dispose them in the dustbin and rather used them to make carry bags.
What is indicated by Leena’s behaviour?

Answer: Leena has shown concern towards nature by not dumping synthetic fibres.
She has made an effort to reduce the waste. She has also shown her intelligence in
making useful things out of waste materials.

Simi saw her mother putting the summer clothes off as the winters approached.
She noticed that while keeping the cotton clothes her mother kept naphthalene
balls with them but not with the synthetic clothes. Explain why the two types of
clothes were stored differently?

Answer: Synthetic fibres being made of chemicals do not feed moths or insects
which feed on natural fibres. Natural fibres are plants or animal products and
hence serve as food for insects. Thus naphthalene balls which are moth repellents
are used while storing clothes made of natural fibres. But they are not required for
storing artificial fibre clothes.

Give reason for the following:

a. PET bottles get deformed when left near to flame
b. Melamine is used for coating dress of firemen

Answer:
a. PET is a thermoplastic and hence heat sensitive. When brought near to flame
it will melt and get deformed.
b. Melamine is fire resistant plastic i.e., it is not affected by high temperature
of fire and hence prevents the clothes of firemen from getting burned.

Though nylon is not a good sweat absorber, still why is it used to make the dress
for sports persons?

Answer: Nylon is a stretchable, strong and light fibre. Thus nylon clothes are used
for sportspersons as the clothes will be light to wear, easily stretchable while
playing and will not get torn easily. Hence it will be more durable.
Though plastic is very useful to us, we still need to control their use as they are
proving to be environmental hazards. Explain how the different methods of
disposing plastic waste are harming the environment.

Answer: The ways in which plastic disposal harms the environment are as follows:
i. Plastics are non-biodegradable and hence when they are dumped in soil they
remain there for hundreds of year. Thus they choke the soil and harm the
organisms living in soil. Also some plastics release toxic chemicals which
pollute the soil and ground water.
ii. If they are burned they release very toxic gases which pollute the air.
iii. Plastics if dumped in open block the drains and cause flooding of the area.

Why do synthetic fibres cause more severe burns than natural fibres when they
catch fire?

Answer: Synthetic fibres melt on burning and stick to skin thus causing more
severe burns than natural fibres which do not melt on burning.

Why do you think plastic containers have replaced metal containers in

households?

Answer: Plastic does not react with air, moisture, or food stored as it is unreactive
in nature. Metals are reactive, so they get corroded easily and hence are less
durable than plastics.

Give one word answer for the following:

The only acidic solution that can react with gold.

Answer: Aqua regia

Give one word answer for the following:

Non-metal whose presence is required for burning any substance.

Answer: Oxygen

Give one word answer for the following:

Non-metal present in air that only plants can use but is required by all living
organisms for synthesis of protein.

Answer: Nitrogen
Give one word answer for the following:

Non-metal that forms the hardest substance found in nature.

Answer: Carbon (Diamond)

Give one word answer for the following:

Metal which is present in our RBCs.

Answer: Iron

Give one word answer for the following:

An example of a metalloid.

Answer: Silicon

Give one word answer for the following:

The only non-metal found in liquid state.

Answer: Bromine

Answer:

Why does sodium start to burn when added to water?

Answer: Sodium when reacts with water releases hydrogen gas. Lots of heat is also
produced during the reaction. Due to this heat hydrogen gas starts to burn as
hydrogen gas is combustible.

A steel spoon when left in pickle for some days turns black. Why?

Answer: Steel is an alloy of iron. Iron is a reactive metal that reacts with acid
present in the pickles and gets corroded. Hence a steel spoon turns black.

How can we test the gas evolved during the reaction of aluminium metal with
sodium hydroxide?

Answer: When aluminium reacts with sodium hydroxide it releases hydrogen gas.
It can be tested by bringing a burning candle near to it. If the gas evolved burns
producing a pop sound, it is hydrogen.

Why no colour change is observed when copper is added to iron sulphate?

Answer: Copper is less reactive than iron. So it cannot displace iron from iron
sulphate and no change will be observed.

Answer:

How can you use dilute sulphuric acid to find out if the given element is a metal or
a non-metal? How will the temperature of the reaction mixture change in both the
cases?

Answer: If the given element on addition to sulphuric acid forms bubbles and the
solution turns warm, the element is a metal. As metals react with acid to release
hydrogen gas that forms bubbles. If the element does not react with sulphuric acid,
the element is a non-metal. In case of reaction of non-metals with the acid, there is
will be no noticeable change in temperature. Whereas in case of reaction of metal
with acid, the test tube will become warm as heat will be released and temperature
will rise.
Why does copper not react with dilute hydrochloric acid?

Answer: Copper is less reactive than hydrogen and hence cannot displace
hydrogen from dilute acids. So it does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid.

Aluminium is used for making cooking utensils and does not burn on heating. But
if we use a wooden utensil, it starts to burn. Why?

Answer: Aluminium is a good conductor of heat. So the heat gets distributed and
it does not reach its ignition temperature. Wood is a poor conductor of heat. So
heat provided gets localised and heats only a part of it making it reach its ignition
temperature.

Potassium reacts vigorously with cold water whereas magnesium reacts with hot
water only. What do you infer from this about the reactivity of the two metals?
Give reason for the answer.

Answer: Potassium is more reactive than magnesium. So magnesium need more

energy to react with water and hot water has higher energy. Thus potassium can
react with cold water but magnesium reacts with hot water only.

Sudha went to a jewellery shop to buy gold ring. While preparing the bill, the
shopkeeper charged her at the rate of 24 K gold. Sudha told the jeweler that 24 K
gold is never used to make jewelry and got the bill corrected as actually only 22 K
gold was used in the ring.
a. Why is 24 K gold not used for making jewellery?
b. Which are the metals mixed with gold for making jewellery?
c. What do you learn from Sudha’s response in the jewellery shop?

Answer:
a. 24 K gold is pure gold which is very soft and can easily be bent. So complete
24 K gold is not used for making jewellery.
b. Silver and copper are mixed with gold for making jewellery to make it
harder.
c. We learn that we should be alert and aware as consumers while buying
anything. Also we should use our knowledge wisely in our daily life.

While carrying out a chemical test, a student took test tube full of acid and added
5 pieces of magnesium ribbon to it. Is this the right way to carry out chemical tests
in the laboratory? Give reason for your answer.

Answer: It is not the right way because the chemicals we use in laboratory when
thrown reach the sewage generated and causes water pollution. It also causes
wastage of chemicals and resources.

Why do we prepare alloys? Explain with an example.

Answer: Alloys are prepared to get the desired properties of the metals mixed. We
use gold for making jewellery as it is shiny and does not become dull with time.
But it is very soft and pure gold can bend very easily. So we mix it with silver or
copper to make it harder and make it suitable for making jewellery, which will be
shiny as gold but harder and hence more durable.

Both phosphorus and potassium are highly reactive elements which burn if left
exposed in the air. To prevent this, phosphorus is stored in water but potassium is
stored in kerosene. Why?

Answer: Potassium is a metal and hence very reactive with water also, thus stored
in kerosene with which it does not react at all. But phosphorus is a non-metal and
does not react with water. Hence stored easily in water.

Can either iron sulphate or silver nitrate be stored in a copper vessel without a
chemical reaction taking place? Explain your answer.

Answer: Iron sulphate can be stored in copper vessel as copper is less reactive than
iron and will not be able to displace iron from iron sulphate. But copper is more
reactive than silver and will displace silver from silver nitrate. Thus chemical
reaction will occur if silver nitrate is stored in copper vessel.

Give one word answers for the following:

Full form of PCRA.

Answer: Petroleum Conservation Research Association

Give one word answers for the following:

Chemicals obtained from petroleum that are used to prepare fibres and plastics.

Answer: Petrochemicals

Give one word answers for the following:

Gas collected above petroleum found in reservoirs

Answer: Natural gas

Give one word answers for the following:

Resources like coal, which are limited in amount in nature.

Answer: Exhaustible resources

Answer:

Why can’t we produce coal in laboratories?

Answer: Producing fossil fuels requires very long time and the conditions
required, such as very high temperature, pressure and absence of air cannot be
created in a laboratory.

Why do we need to conserve petroleum for future when we have alternate fuels
available?

Answer: Petroleum is not just required as a fuel. It also gives many products like
kerosene and petrol on fractional distillation and petrochemicals which are useful
in industries. Alternate fuels cannot replace the petroleum products and
petrochemicals in industries.

What is destructive distillation of coal? Why do we need to process coal?

Answer: Strong heating of coal in the absence of air is known as destructive

distillation. We need to process coal to get products like coke which are used in
manufacturing steel and in the extraction of many metals.

Petroleum is formed under high pressure and at high temperature in the absence
of oxygen. What could happen if oxygen is present along with high temperature
after petroleum has been formed?
Answer: At high temperature and pressure, the presence of oxygen will cause the
combustion of petroleum as petroleum is highly inflammable and presence of
oxygen helps to burn the petroleum at high temperature.

Which of the two is a better fuel: coke or coal? Give reason.

Answer: Coke is better as it is more pure form of carbon and causes less pollution
on burning.

What is global warming? How does burning of fossil fuels cause global warming?

Answer: Global warming is the abnormal rise of temperature of the atmosphere

due to increase in greenhouse gases. Burning of fuels releases carbon dioxide
which is a greenhouse gas and contributes to global warming.

Why should we not burn coal in a closed room?

Answer: In closed room, there is no fresh supply of oxygen. Insufficient oxygen

causes incomplete combustion of coal and release poisonous gas carbon
monoxide. So we should not burn coal in a closed room.

Both LPG and kerosene are petroleum products. Then why do people prefer to
have LPG as the cooking fuel instead of kerosene?

Answer: LPG being a gaseous fuel burns fast and causes less pollution as
compared to kerosene which is a liquid fuel. Kerosene takes more time to burn
and releases lot of soot and other harmful gases.

Though natural gas and petroleum are formed much deeper below water, after
they are formed they rise above water and below impervious rocks. Why?

Answer: Both petroleum and natural gas are immiscible with water and being
lighter than water rise above the water. Since they cannot move beyond the
impervious layer, they get collected between the impervious rock layer and the
water.

Coal was formed when trees got buried millions of years ago. Wood is also a fuel
and is obtained from plants and trees. Why can’t wood be called fossil fuels?

Answer: Wood is not a fossil fuel because it is obtained directly from the trees and
not the hundreds of years old dead remains of trees. These old remains are fossils
and fuels obtained from them are only fossil fuels.

State two tips you can give to your mother to take care while driving that can help
her save fuel.
Answer:
a. Switch off the engine at the red lights
b. Drive at a constant speed

What is the full form of CNG? List two uses of CNG. CNG is a cleaner fuel than
coal and petroleum. Does the burning of CNG not contribute to global warming?

Answer: Full form of CNG is compressed natural gas. CNG is used for
manufacturing fertilisers and is used as fuel in vehicles. It does contribute to
global warming as it contains carbon and on burning releases carbon dioxide,
which is also a greenhouse gas.

State the principle behind the process of fractional distillation of petroleum.

Answer: Different components of petroleum vaporise at different temperatures

and hence can be separated at different heights of fractionating column in which
columns with varied temperatures are maintained.

How is burning of fossil fuels in factories and vehicles leading to corrosion of

marble of Taj Mahal in Agra?

Answer: When fossil fuels are burned they release gases like carbon dioxide,
sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen. These are acidic gases that combine with
rain and lead to acid rain. This acidic rainwater is reacting with the marble of the
monument and corroding it.

The process of fossil fuel formation is ongoing in nature. So, why are fossil fuels
considered non-renewable resources?

Answer: Fossil fuel takes thousands of years to be formed. So rate at which they
are being used is much faster than the rate at which they are formed. Thus, they
cannot be replenished.

How can we reduce the pollution caused by fossil fuels?

Answer:
Use cleaner fuels like CNG and LPG instead of solid and liquid fuels
Use public transport instead of individual vehicles
Use bicycle or walk for short distances.

Why is CNG replacing petrol as a fuel in some transport vehicles? What other
alternative fuels can also be used to fuel such vehicles?
Answer: CNG releases lesser harmful gases than petrol and thus can use less
pollution. LPG can be used as a fuel or electricity charged battery can be used to
operate vehicles.

Define the following terms:

a. Combustion
b. Fuel
c. Ignition temperature
d. Inflammable substances
e. Spontaneous combustion
f. Calorific value
g. Acid rain
h. Global warming

Answer:
a. Combustion is chemical reaction of a substance with oxygen at a certain
temperature which releases lot of energy as heat and light.
b. Fuel is a combustible substance that is burned to produce energy.
c. Ignition temperature is the minimum temperature that must be reached
before a substance starts to burn.
d. Inflammable substances are those that have low ignition temperature and
burn very fast.
e. Spontaneous combustion is the process of burning that starts on its own
without any external instigation.
f. Calorific value is the amount of heat produced when 1 kg of a fuel is
completely burned.
g. When the rain water becomes acidic after dissolving gases like oxides of
sulphur and nitrogen from atmosphere, it is known as acid rain.
h. Global warming is the abnormal rise in atmospheric temperature due to
increase in amount of greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide in air.

Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct words given below:

Calorific value, Yellow, Heat energy, Chemical energy, Carbon dioxide, Ignition
temperature
a. A good fuel should have low ____________________.
b. On burning, the fuels produce large amount of ____________________.
c. Fuels cause pollution due to release of ____________.
d. The _____________ part of flame consists of carbon particles.

Answer:
a. ignition temperature
 b. heat energy
c. carbon dioxide
d. yellow

A good fuel should be cheap and readily available. Wood is also cheap and is
readily available. Can we call it a good fuel?

Answer: Wood cannot be called a good fuel because wood when burned releases
lots of smoke and leaves behind residue which are responsible for pollution. Also,
using wood leads to deforestation.

Why does a burning candle turn the wall near to it black?

Answer: Candle undergoes incomplete combustion and releases soot, which when
deposits on the wall turns it black.

Wax burns incompletely and hence is not a very good fuel. Still wax candles are
burned to light up a dark room. Why?

Answer: Wax candles are used because when they undergo incomplete combustion
the flame produced has orange colour and is more luminous than the flame
produced on complete combustion of fuel which is blue in colour. Hence wax is
used to light up a dark room.

Why do we prefer LPG over kerosene for cooking?

Answer: LPG undergoes complete combustion and produces very less harmful
gases while kerosene undergoes incomplete combustion and produces lots of
smoke and harmful gases.

Why do some fuels burn without flame?

Answer: Fuels produce flame when the volatile substances present in them,
vaporise and start to glow at that temperature. Some solids burn without flame due
to lack of volatile substances in them that could form the flame.

Suppose you have a minor fire at your place due to short circuit and you have a
bucket of water and sand in the room. Which one will you choose to extinguish
the fire? Give reason for your choice. What qualities are required to deal with
such a situation?

Answer: Will use sand because impure water is good conductor of electricity and
it might cause electric shock. Sand is an insulator. Qualities required to deal with
such a situation are presence of mind and having knowledge to make the right
choice.

What is a spontaneous combustion? State with an example.

Answer: Spontaneous combustion is a combustion reaction that starts without any

apparent external cause. Example is burning of sodium metal when left in open
air.

Would it be easier to burn thin magnesium ribbon or thick bar of magnesium

metal? Give reason for your answer.

Answer: It would be easier to burn thin magnesium ribbon. It is thinner than metal
bar, so more particles are exposed to fire. All the particles of ribbon will reach
their ignition temperature faster and react faster with oxygen than the metal bar.

An inflated air balloon with little amount of water inside was heated on a candle
flame. Why did the balloon not burst?

Answer: The water in the balloon absorbed heat and did not let the air inside heat
up and expand. Thus balloon did not burst.

Why does a matchstick not burn by itself? How can rubbing it against a rough
surface make it burn?

Answer: The ignition temperature of chemical present on the head of matchstick

is higher than room temperature. Thus it does not burn itself. On rubbing it against
a rough surface, heat is produced due to friction which help the matchstick reach
its ignition temperature.

How does pouring of petrol on wood logs help them to burn faster?

Answer: Petrol is inflammable with low ignition temperature. So it catches fire

faster and releases enough heat to help wood burn, which has a higher ignition
temperature and take more time to burn.

Why is it difficult to control forest fires?

Answer: It is difficult to control forest fires because enough fuel and oxygen is
available in forests. It is difficult to remove the fuel i.e., the trees or stop the
supply of oxygen. Thus, conditions required for combustion could not be
controlled in forests.

How does carbon dioxide help in extinguishing fire?

Answer: Carbon dioxide is non supporter of combustion and being heavier than
oxygen, covers the burning substance. This cut off the oxygen supply, which is
required for the process of combustion to continue.

When a person’s cloth catches fire, Srishti was standing nearby. She immediately
wrapped that person with a blanket. Why? What qualities are shown by Srishti
through this act?

Answer: Srishti wrapped the person in blanket in order to cut off the oxygen
supply to the burning clothes, which are acting as fuel. Continuous supply of
oxygen is required for fuel to burn. Qualities shown by her are that she is brave,
intelligent and helpful.

Vivek told his mother that he could smell the leakage of LPG from the cylinder.
As they both went to check it in the kitchen, Vivek went to switch on the light but
his mother stopped him. Why?

Answer: LPG has very low ignition temperature. While switching on the light
sometimes a spark is produced by the switch. Even that much heat as produced by
the spark would be enough to let the LPG reach its ignition temperature and burn
causing an accident.

Which one burns faster and why: green leaves or dry leaves?

Answer: Dry leaves burn faster because they do not have water. So they reach
their ignition temperature faster. Water as moisture is present in green leaves. It
absorbs the heat supplied and does not let the leaves reach their ignition
temperature.

Why should an oil fire not be doused with water? What other method can be used
to extinguish such a fire?

Answer: Water is heavier than oil. Hence when water is added to douse the fire, it
will sink below the oil and the oil keeps burning at the top of water. Hence water
cannot douse off fire. The pan with burning oil can be covered to cut off the
oxygen supply. Combustion process cannot continue in the absence of oxygen.

A cloth catches fire when held over a candle flame. But when the same cloth is
wrapped around a five rupee coin and then held over the flame it does not burn.
What is the reason for this difference?

Answer: Coin is made up of metal which is a good conductor of heat. Hence the
coin conducts away the heat from the cloth and the cloth is not able to reach its
ignition temperature even when it is held directly over the flame. Thus the cloth
does not burn.
Why are we advised against sleeping in a closed room with a smouldering coal fire
in it?

Answer: We should not sleep in closed room with coal burning inside because in a
closed room there is no fresh supply of oxygen. Thus due to lack of oxygen the
coal undergoes incomplete combustion and produce carbon monoxide which is a
poisonous gas. When we inhale this gas, it binds with the hemoglobin in the blood
and reduces the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood.

Fill in the blanks using the given words.

Reforestation,Deforestation, Biosphere, Reserves, Desertification, Sanctuary,

Biodiversity, Endangered, Flora
a. ____________species are species facing the danger of extinction.
b. The variety of organisms including plants, animals and microorganisms
existing on earth constitutes ____________.
c. The gradual conversion of fertile land into desert is called ____________.
d. An area where animals are protected from any disturbance to themselves
and their habitat is a ____________.
e. Large areas of protected land for the conservation of wildlife, plant and
animal resources and the traditional life of the tribals living in the area are
called ____________.
f. Plants found in a particular area are called the ____________ of that area.
g. ____________involves restocking destroyed forests by planting new trees.
h. Clearing forests and using that land for other purposes is called
____________.

Answer:
a. Endangered
b. Biodiversity
c. Desertification
d. Sanctuary
e. Reserve
f. Flora
g. Reforestation
h. Deforestation
Answer:

Why is it important to help endangered species?

Answer: It is important to help endangered species as they form a part of our

ecosystem and all organisms help in maintaining ecological balance. They are vital
to various food chains and food webs also. Also, genetic diversity helps in
maintaining the prosperity of an ecosystem.

In an ecosystem a species of tree is labeled as threatened? Do you think it is same

as endangered?

Answer: No, threatened and endangered are not same. Endangered species refer to
the organisms that are already on verge of extinction and threatened refers to the
organism that are prone and at a higher risk of becoming endangered.

Which factors lead to endangerment of flora and fauna of an ecosystem?

Answer: The reasons for endangerment of flora and fauna are as follows:
Habitat destruction
Habitat fragmentation
Overkill
Invasive species
Secondary effects resulting through the other ecosystem extinctions
Do you think it is justified to let a species go extinct if we don’t know any benefits
from it? Explain.

Answer: No, we should conserve biodiversity as some species might not benefit us
directly but may form an important part of ecosystem and help in maintaining the
balance. Each species can adapt itself to fit in a particular ecological niche and
plays a specific part when it interacts with other living and non-living components
of its ecosystem. When things change beyond a certain limit, some species no
longer prosper and their numbers decline.

A forest has been massively cleared for building houses. Do you think it can lead
to endangerment of species and how?

Answer: Yes, massive clearing of forests can lead to endangerment as it leads to

habitat destruction for the animals and also leads to scarcity of their food. Many
species are not able to find a new habitat and hence are not able to survive.

What is being done to protect tigers under project tiger initiative?

Answer: Project Tiger was launched by Government of India in 1972 to protect

tigers of our community. The purpose was to ensure the survival and maintenance
of tigers of India. Under this project, significant increase in tiger population has
been observed in various national parks and wild life sanctuaries.

What are two of the roles zoos play in species conservation? Provide examples for
each role.

Answer: Zoos help in captive breeding of all species, thus helping in increasing the
population of species. They also help in reintroduction of species in its natural
habitat. Once the desired species have reproduced in sizeable number they can be
reintroduced in their natural habitat.

What is the ecological role or niche of an animal? What will happen if we take out
an animal from its ecological niche and place it in a new habitat?

Answer: The role of an organism and its interaction with its surrounding is called
its ecological niche. The animal will either flourish if suitable conditions are there
or it might die if it is a prey in new habitat. Both will cause shift in ecological
balance of both ecosystems.

Some scientists predict that very few species of wild animal will be available in
the red data book after 100 years for the forth coming human generations. Do you
agree with this? Explain.

Answer: No, I don’t agree as there is massive reduction in natural habitat and steps
taken to conserve species are still very limited. The number of species in Red data
book may increase as lot of plant and animal species are threatened by the various
man-made and natural changes caused in their habitat.

You are visiting a national park along with family. Your brother asks you about
the purpose of national park. What objectives will you like to tell him behind
setting up a national park?

Answer: Purpose of setting up a national park:

A national park is an area of scenic beauty protected and maintained by the
Government to preserve flora and fauna that also provides human recreation and
enjoyment. They help in preserving the ecosystem and animals along with
educating the people about forest and providing them some recreational facilities
as well. Examples: Corbett National Park, Satpura National Park.

You are visiting a national park along with family. Your brother asks you about
the purpose of national park. What objectives will you like to tell him behind
setting up a national park?

Answer: Purpose of setting up a national park:

A national park is an area of scenic beauty protected and maintained by the
Government to preserve flora and fauna that also provides human recreation and
enjoyment. They help in preserving the ecosystem and animals along with
educating the people about forest and providing them some recreational facilities
as well. Examples: Corbett National Park, Satpura National Park.

In a rainforest a few species of organisms are left in very small numbers, a

scientist wants to record and register name of these species. Where can the
scientist record and register these species?

Answer: The scientist can record the names of the species in IUCN Red Data
book. This book contains a record of animals and plants which are known to be in
danger and is published by IUCN.

Protected forests are also not safe for some wild animals. Why?

Answer: The protected forests are also sometimes not safe for the animals as
poachers and hunters kill the animals to sell their skin, musk, tusks for their own
benefit.

There are number of tribes living in various forests. How do you think they
depend on forests and can help in preserving them?

Answer: The livelihood of these tribes depends upon the forest and products
obtained from the forests. The tribes have knowledge about the medicinal plants
and their properties. They practice conservation of these forests as they provide
them with livelihood and are part of their devotion and culture.

Why do animals migrate? Give examples of animals that migrate.

Answer: Most organisms migrate in search of food. But there are many other
reasons for migration. Organisms may migrate for following reasons as well:
a. to find essential minerals
b. to find shelter or avoid harsh winter weather, example: arctic tern
c. to search for a mate, example: male sperm whale
d. to give birth, lay eggs or raise young, example: grey whale

How can we overcome the problems of deforestation?

Answer: We can overcome problems of deforestation by reducing our dependency

on tree products. Recycling paper, cutting less trees and by planting more and
more trees we can overcome problems of deforestation.

List some ways of conserving forests and wildlife.

Answer: We can conserve forests and wildlife by banning hunting, reducing usage
of animal based products such as fur, skin of animals used for making bags etc, by
reducing cutting of trees for timber and other purposes.

Fill in the blanks using the given words.

Reforestation,Deforestation, Biosphere, Reserves, Desertification, Sanctuary,

Biodiversity, Endangered, Flora
a. ____________species are species facing the danger of extinction.
b. The variety of organisms including plants, animals and microorganisms
existing on earth constitutes ____________.
c. The gradual conversion of fertile land into desert is called ____________.
d. An area where animals are protected from any disturbance to themselves
and their habitat is a ____________.
e. Large areas of protected land for the conservation of wildlife, plant and
animal resources and the traditional life of the tribals living in the area are
called ____________.
f. Plants found in a particular area are called the ____________ of that area.
g. ____________involves restocking destroyed forests by planting new trees.
h. Clearing forests and using that land for other purposes is called
____________.

Answer:
 a. Endangered
b. Biodiversity
c. Desertification
d. Sanctuary
e. Reserve
f. Flora
g. Reforestation
h. Deforestation

Answer:

Why is it important to help endangered species?

Answer: It is important to help endangered species as they form a part of our

ecosystem and all organisms help in maintaining ecological balance. They are vital
to various food chains and food webs also. Also, genetic diversity helps in
maintaining the prosperity of an ecosystem.

In an ecosystem a species of tree is labeled as threatened? Do you think it is same

as endangered?

Answer: No, threatened and endangered are not same. Endangered species refer to
the organisms that are already on verge of extinction and threatened refers to the
organism that are prone and at a higher risk of becoming endangered.

Which factors lead to endangerment of flora and fauna of an ecosystem?

Answer: The reasons for endangerment of flora and fauna are as follows:
Habitat destruction
Habitat fragmentation
Overkill
Invasive species
Secondary effects resulting through the other ecosystem extinctions

Do you think it is justified to let a species go extinct if we don’t know any benefits
from it? Explain.

Answer: No, we should conserve biodiversity as some species might not benefit us
directly but may form an important part of ecosystem and help in maintaining the
balance. Each species can adapt itself to fit in a particular ecological niche and
plays a specific part when it interacts with other living and non-living components
of its ecosystem. When things change beyond a certain limit, some species no
longer prosper and their numbers decline.

A forest has been massively cleared for building houses. Do you think it can lead
to endangerment of species and how?

Answer: Yes, massive clearing of forests can lead to endangerment as it leads to

habitat destruction for the animals and also leads to scarcity of their food. Many
species are not able to find a new habitat and hence are not able to survive.

What is being done to protect tigers under project tiger initiative?

Answer: Project Tiger was launched by Government of India in 1972 to protect

tigers of our community. The purpose was to ensure the survival and maintenance
of tigers of India. Under this project, significant increase in tiger population has
been observed in various national parks and wild life sanctuaries.

What are two of the roles zoos play in species conservation? Provide examples for
each role.

Answer: Zoos help in captive breeding of all species, thus helping in increasing the
population of species. They also help in reintroduction of species in its natural
habitat. Once the desired species have reproduced in sizeable number they can be
reintroduced in their natural habitat.

What is the ecological role or niche of an animal? What will happen if we take out
an animal from its ecological niche and place it in a new habitat?

Answer: The role of an organism and its interaction with its surrounding is called
its ecological niche. The animal will either flourish if suitable conditions are there
or it might die if it is a prey in new habitat. Both will cause shift in ecological
balance of both ecosystems.

Some scientists predict that very few species of wild animal will be available in
the red data book after 100 years for the forth coming human generations. Do you
agree with this? Explain.

Answer: No, I don’t agree as there is massive reduction in natural habitat and steps
taken to conserve species are still very limited. The number of species in Red data
book may increase as lot of plant and animal species are threatened by the various
man-made and natural changes caused in their habitat.

You are visiting a national park along with family. Your brother asks you about
the purpose of national park. What objectives will you like to tell him behind
setting up a national park?

Answer: Purpose of setting up a national park:

A national park is an area of scenic beauty protected and maintained by the
Government to preserve flora and fauna that also provides human recreation and
enjoyment. They help in preserving the ecosystem and animals along with
educating the people about forest and providing them some recreational facilities
as well. Examples: Corbett National Park, Satpura National Park.

In a rainforest a few species of organisms are left in very small numbers, a

scientist wants to record and register name of these species. Where can the
scientist record and register these species?

Answer: The scientist can record the names of the species in IUCN Red Data
book. This book contains a record of animals and plants which are known to be in
danger and is published by IUCN.

Protected forests are also not safe for some wild animals. Why?

Answer: The protected forests are also sometimes not safe for the animals as
poachers and hunters kill the animals to sell their skin, musk, tusks for their own
benefit.

There are number of tribes living in various forests. How do you think they
depend on forests and can help in preserving them?

Answer: The livelihood of these tribes depends upon the forest and products
obtained from the forests. The tribes have knowledge about the medicinal plants
and their properties. They practice conservation of these forests as they provide
them with livelihood and are part of their devotion and culture.

Why do animals migrate? Give examples of animals that migrate.

Answer: Most organisms migrate in search of food. But there are many other
reasons for migration. Organisms may migrate for following reasons as well:
a. to find essential minerals
b. to find shelter or avoid harsh winter weather, example: arctic tern
c. to search for a mate, example: male sperm whale
d. to give birth, lay eggs or raise young, example: grey whale

List some ways of conserving forests and wildlife.

Answer: We can conserve forests and wildlife by banning hunting, reducing usage
of animal based products such as fur, skin of animals used for making bags etc, by
reducing cutting of trees for timber and other purposes.

Answer: c
Answer:

Fill in the blanks using the given words.

Mitochondria, Lysosomes, Bacterium, Organelle, Nucleus, Cytoplasm

a. An example of a prokaryotic cell is a single celled _____________.
b. The interior of a cell is called the ___________.
c. A cell’s digestive enzymes are packaged and distributed by the
____________.
d. The ________________ is the control centre of the cell.

Answer:
a. Bacterium
b. Cytoplasm
c. Lysosome
d. Nucleus

If we remove the nucleus of a cell, which functions will get affected?

Answer: Cell division will be interrupted. Functions of all the organelles will be
interrupted as all organelles and functions of a cell are controlled by the nucleus.
There will be no protein synthesis and eventually cell will die without the nucleus.

Explain how the shapes of various cells help each type of cell to carry out its
function within the body.

Answer: There are different types of cell present which vary in structure, size and
function. Few examples of different cells that perform various functions are:
Red blood cells are concave in shape and help them to carry oxygen molecules.
Nerve cells have extensions that connect to other nerve cells to make an
information network. Amoeba cells have an irregular shape that allows them to
surround and engulf food. Guard cells are bean shaped to help open and close
plant stomata.
Answer:

What are the three main characteristics of a cell? How do cells differ from each
other?

Answer: The three main characteristics of a cell are reproduction, reaction and
that they maintain homeostasis. The cells differ in shape, size and structure.

Through your knowledge of polymers, explain the role of polymers in cell and
which structures of cell are made up of polymers?

Answer: Polymers play an important role in cell structure. Most of the membranes
and structure found in cells are made up of some type of polymers, like cell wall
in plants is made up of cellulose; the cell membrane is made up of phospholipid
bilayer that is also lipid chain associated with phosphate group. In our body
various cells are connected through and communicate some type of polymers
present in our body. The cell wall, cell membrane, microtubules, spindle fibres are
all made up of different kind of polymers.
How are the vacuoles in animal cells different from those in plant cells?

Answer: Animal cells have one or more small vacuoles whereas plant cells have
one large central vacuole that takes up most of the cell volume. In plant cells, the
function of vacuoles is to store water and maintain turgidity of the cell. Vacuoles
in animal cells store water, ions and waste.

What is an organelle? How do they differ from organs?

Answer: An organelle is a specialised subunit within a cell that has a specific

function, and it is usually separately enclosed within its own lipid bilayer.
Organelles are part of a cell; they are sub-units of a cell. Organs are specialised
structure made up of similar kind of cells that perform a similar function.

Classify the following organisms as unicellular and multicellular:-

Bacteria, Moulds, Amoeba, Entamoeba, Mushroom, Penicillium, Paramecium,

Euglena, Yeast, Rhizopus, Spirogyra, Protozoa

Answer: Unicellular: Amoeba, Bacteria, Paramecium, Euglena, Entamoeba,

Protozoa
Multicellular: Moulds, Mushroom, Penicillium, Yeast, Rhizopus

What are plastids and what are their functions? How is cytoplasm different from
cell sap?

Answer: Plastids are present in all living plant cells and help in photosynthesis
process. They also act as storage site for starches and oils, improving the
nutritional quality of the plants. Jelly-like substance, present in the cells where all
the processes of a cell take place is called cytoplasm. In plant cells there's a thin
lining, whereas in animal cells most of the cell is cytoplasm. The liquid inside the
vacuole is known as cell sap, and its chemical composition usually is different
from that of the surrounding cytosol, as various substances are actively transported
inside through cell membrane. Cytoplasm might be rich in proteins whereas cell
sap is mostly contains water.

Why do multicellular organisms need to have specialised cells? What are some
specialised cells within the human body?

Answer: Specialisation is needed because all cells in a complex organism do not

have access to the external environment. Examples of some specialised cells in
human body are nerve cell, RBC, WBC, Lymphocytes.
Answer:

If the nucleus is like the Prime Minister of a country, then what would the cell
organelles be and why?

Answer: All other organelles will be called the cabinet minister as they are
controlled by the nucleus and works under the control of it.

What can cells tell us about life?

Answer: Cells are the basic unit of life and carry out functions required for life.
What characteristics must a substance have to be considered a living thing?

Answer: A living thing must be able to reproduce, grow, respond to stimuli and
move.

Why are all cells not similar in shape, size and function?

Answer: All cells are different as they carry out different functions in our
environment or their surroundings. The cell structure helps them to carry out
specific functions.

Animal cells do not have rigid cell walls whereas plant cells do not. Can you think
of any reasons?

Answer: Cell wall provides rigidity to the plants and helps it to stand, whereas cell
wall is absent in animal cells as they have skeletal and muscular system to provide
internal framework.

Why are plant and animal cells different?

Answer: Plant and animals cells are different as plants can manufacture their own
food whereas animal cells cannot make their own food. They depend on other
cells and various sources to meet their nutritional requirement. The cells are more
specialised in animals as compared to plants.

Fill in the blanks using the given words.

Metamorphosis, Oviparous, Embryo, Invitro fertilisation, Budding, Foetus,

Viviparous, Sexual reproduction
a. Babies born through the technique of __________are called test tube babies.
b. The zygote formed after fertilisation begins to develop into a __________.
c. The process of transformation from larva to adult that involves a complete
change in appearance is called ____________.
d. Animals that give birth to live young are called ______________.
e. Hydra reproduces asexually by ______________.
f. ______________is characterised by the fusion of two cells called male and
female gametes, usually coming from two parents.
g. Animals that lay eggs, like hens, frogs and lizards, are called ____________.
h. Once an embryo gets to the stage where all body parts can be identified, it is
called a ______________.

Answer:
a. Invitro fertilisation
b. Embryo
 c. Metamorphosis
d. Viviparous
e. Budding
f. Sexual reproduction
g. Oviparous
h. Foetus

Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct words given below:

Uterus, Vagina, Outside, Water, Fragmentation, Budding, Zygote, Fertilisation

a. The _______________is the hollow, muscular organ in which a foetus
grows.
b. The fusion of male and female gametes is called ________.
c. External fertilisation in frog takes place in _____________.
d. Hydra reproduces by _______________.
e. In oviparous animals, the young ones develop __________ of the female
parent.

Answer:
a. Uterus
b. Fertilisation
c. Water
d. Budding
e. Outside

f.

Answer:
g. Name the part of the reproductive system in which:
a. Fertilisation takes place
b. Implantation takes place
c. Ovulation occurs
d. Production of sperm takes place
e. The foetus develops

Answer:
a. Oviducts / Fallopian tubes
b. Uterus / Uterine wall
c. Ovaries
d. Testes
e. Uterus

h. Two mL of semen generally have millions of sperm, why so many sperms

are produced when only one sperm is required for fertilising one egg?
Which part of the sperm enters the egg?

Answer: To maximise the chance of fertilisation and to ensure the

production of offspring, many sperms are released. Also for reproduction,
the sperm has to travel up to the egg. Many sperms are not able to reach the
egg because; once the egg is fertilised it secretes a layer of enzymes so other
sperms cannot penetrate then. This is why many sperms are produced for
fertilising one egg. The sperm enters through head in the egg.

i. Arrange the following in correct sequence:

a. Ovum, Embryo, Zygote, Foetus, Fertilisation
b. Implantation of embryo, Fertilisation, Ovulation, Giving birth
c. Frog, Fertilisation, Spawn, Metamorphosis, Tadpole
d. Division of cytoplasm, Doubling of cell content, Division of nucleus,
Parent amoeba, Daughter amoeba
 Answer:
a. Ovum---Fertilisation---Zygote----Embryo---Foetus
b. Ovulation---Fertilisation----Implantation of embryo----Giving birth
c. Spawn---Fertilisation---Tadpole ---Metamorphosis---Frog
d. Parent amoeba---Doubling of cell content---Division of nucleus --
Division of cytoplasm---Daughter amoeba

j. What is metamorphosis? Why do frogs show metamorphosis but not

humans?

Answer: The process of transformation from an immature form of an

animal like larva to adult form in two or more distinct stages is called
metamorphosis. It is seen in butterflies, silk worms, frogs and insects. In
human beings the body parts remain similar; human beings show growth but
not metamorphosis.

k.

Answer:
 l.

Answer:

m. Budding, binary fission and fragmentation are all types of asexual

reproduction. What is the common feature of all these methods of
reproduction?

Answer: The common features of various methods of asexual reproduction

 are:
a. Offsprings produced are identical to the parents so desired traits can
be transmitted to the next generation
b. A quick method of reproduction
c. Only one parent organism is required, no special organs or cells also
required

n. A lot of organisms like Amoeba, Yeast, and Hydra undergo asexual

reproduction. Why do you think asexual reproduction is beneficial to these
organisms?

Answer: Asexual reproduction ensures faster multiplication of cells.

Developments of new individuals in this method are from a single parent.
This parent is the one that is well adjusted with its relevant environment and
thus have a greater chance of survival in the given environment.

o. Hydra can also reproduce sexually but still it undergoes budding. Why do
you think does Hydra undergo budding?

Answer: Organisms such as hydra may also reproduce sexually. The choice
between sexual and asexual reproduction is often mediated by
environmental conditions. Generally, in favourable conditions the organisms
undergo sexual reproduction; in unfavourable or drastic conditions
organisms undergo asexual reproduction methods as it ensures faster
multiplication ensuring survival.

p. In human beings, where does the embryo stay till it is fully developed? How
its nutritional, respiratory and excretory functions are carried out?

Answer: The embryo gets attached to the uterine wall through the placenta
which is a specialised tissue richly supplied by blood and takes care of all
the developmental functions of the developing embryo such as nutrition,
respiration, and excretion.

q. Give reasons for the following:-

a. Platypus lays eggs but is not oviparous animal.
b. The sperm is motile.

Answer:
a. They lay eggs but feed the young ones on milk through the mammary
glands. The organisms that feed their young ones are also classified as
viviparous. Vivipary is characteristics of mammals. One of the
characteristic features of mammals is having mammary glands.
 b. Sperms have to enter the female reproductive passage and fertilise the
ovum by travelling through the vagina and uterus for this in the
fallopian tube/oviduct; therefore, it is necessary for sperm to be
motile.

r. Rewrite the following statements by correcting them:

a. Amoeba and many bacteria reproduce by regeneration, which means
splitting.
b. Moulds and mushrooms are fungi that reproduce by forming buds.
c. Spores are single cells which drop off the parent and become new
organisms whether the conditions are favorable or unfavourable.
d. Most yeasts reproduce by budding, in which an enlargement forms on one
side of a cell and the parent cell dies in the process.
e. Some plants and animals can make new body parts to replace lost ones
through a process called recreation.
f. In plants, an example of regeneration is cloning, where a piece of a plant
is exposed to moist/humid conditions to grow mould.

Answer: a. Amoeba and many bacteria reproduce by fission.

b. Moulds and mushrooms are fungi that reproduce by forming spores.
c. Spores are single cells which drop off the parent and become new
organisms only in unfavourable conditions. I.e. if there is enough water and
food for them to live.
d. Most yeasts reproduce by budding, in which an enlargement forms on one
side of a cell eventually breaks off to form a new yeast cell, the parent cell
does not die but remains as such.
e. Some plants and animals can make new body parts to replace lost ones
through a process called regeneration.
f. In plants, an example of regeneration is cloning, in which a piece of a
plant is put into moist / humid conditions where it forms a whole new plant.

s. Why do all inherited traits in asexual reproduction come from a single

parent? Does this give them a survival advantage? How?

Answer: All inherited traits come from single parent as in this method the
cells duplicates its genetic material and cytoplasm and then divides, hence
the genetic material is from a single parent. It does give cells a survival
advantage as only the cell which are already adjusted to particular
environment will grow, ensuring survival for all cells of similar types.

t. Why do organisms need to reproduce? How do adaptations affect an

organism’s potential to survive and reproduce?
 Answer: Reproduction is essentially required for the continuation of the
species. When there is an environmental or other change, the organisms who
already have adaptations that are beneficial to the new environment are
much better able to survive and continue the species versus those who do
not. Adaptations occur slowly over time and due to genetic variations
organisms can develop adaptation gradually to survive in a particular
condition.

u. Human sperm have a tail. Why?

Answer: The human sperm is motile as it has to reach the egg in order to
complete the process of fertilisation.

v. Ram saw a cluster of frogs’ eggs floating in a pond near his house. Can you
help Ram to work out why fish and frogs lay hundreds of eggs but a hen lays
only one egg at a time?

Answer: In frogs and fish there is external fertilisation and also there is a
risk of eggs been eaten away from predators, therefore to ensure survival
and fertilisation they lay a large number of eggs or spawn in water. Whereas
hen has internal fertilisation, increasing the chance of formation of
offspring.

w. Arrange the following in correct order of sequence:

a. Testes, Puberty, Target site, Testosterone, Pituitary gland
b. Thickening of uterine wall, Maturation of egg, Breakdown of uterine
wall, Release of egg from ovary

Answer:
a. Puberty—Pituitary gland—Testosterone—Target site—Testes
b. Maturation of egg—Release of egg from ovary—Thickening of
uterine wall—Breakdown of uterine wall

x. Arrange the following sentences related to menstrual cycle in their correct

sequence:
a. Release of egg from ovary
b. Breakdown of thickened inner wall of uterus
c. Thickening of wall of uterus
d. Maturation of ovum
e. Maturation of ovum

Answer:
 a. Release of egg from ovary
b. Thickening of wall of uterus
c. Breakdown of thickened inner wall of uterus

y. Fill in the blanks using the given words.

Balanced diet, addiction, stimulant, lifestyle, Lung cancer, health,

depressant, tolerance, Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome, narcotic,
HIV, Central nervous system

a. The physical and mental well-being of an individual is regarded as an

individual’s__________________.
b. To keep the body healthy, every human being, at any age, needs to have a
healthy _________________.
c. For a healthy body every human being should eat __________.
d. _____________________ is a drug derived from opium that relives pain
and induces sleep.
e. _________________ is a drug that increases activity in some part of the
body including the central nervous system.
f. Physiological or psychological dependence on a substance such as drugs is
called __________.
g. Smoking can cause ________________.
h. Long term abuse of alcohol can cause damage to _____.
i. AIDS is caused by a dangerous virus __________________.
j. AIDS is an acronym for _____________________________.

Answer: a. Health
b. lifestyle
c. balanced diet
d. Narcotic
e. Stimulant
f. Addiction
g. Lung cancer
h. Central nervous system
i. HIV
j. Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome

z. Fill in the blanks using the given words:

Addiction, Glucagon, Blood stream, Lymph, Menarche, Menopause,

Testosterone, Insulin
a. The beginning of menstrual cycle is called _____________.
 b. The endocrine glands release hormones into______________.
c. The hormone that raises the blood sugar is ________________.
d. The male sex hormone is called__________________.
e. The physiological and psychological dependence of a person on a
substance is called_____________.

Answer:
a. Menarche
b. Blood stream
c. Glucagon
d. Testosterone
e. Addiction

aa. Why do teens develop body odour when they enter puberty?

Answer: As you enter puberty, the puberty hormones affect glands in your
skin. The sebaceous glands become more active causing more sweat. The
bacteria on the body and sweat cause bad odour. Thus, teens develop body
odour when they enter puberty.

ab. What is the role of hormones in initiating reproductive function? What is

the difference between primary and secondary sex characteristics?

Answer: Hormones from pituitary stimulate testes and ovaries to release

testosterone and estrogen respectively. These sex hormones reach to target
sites through bloodstream. They then stimulate the changes in the body at
the onset of puberty.

Two kinds of changes take place in the body in response to increased sex
hormones during puberty. Primary sex characteristics are directly related to
reproduction: the production of ova (eggs) in females and sperm in males.
Secondary sex characteristics are the other bodily changes resulting from the
rise in sex hormones during puberty, not including the changes related
directly to reproduction.

ac.
 Answer:

ad. Give reason for the following:

a. Human beings can reproduce only after reaching a certain age.
b. People should have enough iodine in their diet.
c. Tadpoles growing in iodine deficient water have retarded growth.
d. Voice in adolescent boys becomes hoarser.
e. In human beings, female has no role in determining the gender.

Answer:
a. Human beings attain reproductive maturity once the sex hormones are
stimulated and activated, which generally take place between the age
of 10-15.
b. The process of growth and development is regulated by thyroxine
hormone which is produced by thyroid gland. So people should have
enough iodine in their diet.
c. Iodine is required for thyroxine production. That is why retarded
growth is seen in tadpoles living in iodine deficient.
d. In adolescent boys, sometimes, the muscles of the growing voice box
go out of control and the voice becomes hoarse.
e. Sperms are of two types, having either X or Y chromosome. When a
sperm containing X chromosome fertilises the egg, the zygote would
have two X chromosomes and develop into a female child. If the
 sperm contributes a Y chromosome to the egg (ovum) at fertilisation,
the zygote would develop into a male child. So you see that females
have no role in determining gender of a child as Y chromosomes that
leads to a boy offspring is contributed by a male parent.

ae. Why do human females have a limited reproductive phase? Discuss

reproductive phase in the life of a women.

Answer: In females the reproductive phase of life begins at puberty and

continues till they reach the age of 45-50 years. The egg begins to mature
with the onset of puberty. One mature ovum is released by one of the
ovaries every month. The process is called ovulation.

Females of reproductive age begin from 10-15 years of age. They

experience cycles of hormonal activity that repeat at about one-month
intervals. The average menstrual cycle takes about 28 days and occurs in
phases: the follicular phase (development of the egg), the ovulatory phase
(release of the egg), and the luteal phase (hormone levels decrease if the egg
is not fertilised). There are four major hormones (chemicals that stimulate
or regulate the activity of cells or organs) involved in the menstrual cycle:
follicle-stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, estrogen, and
progesterone.

af. Which types of drugs are abused by adolescent? Why adolescents should not
take drugs?

Answer: Adolescents’ drug abuse substances use can be classified as

experimental, social, medicinal, or addictive. The drugs may be stimulants
like cocaine, heroin, marijuana, they may be depressant like alcohol and
they can be hallucinogenic like mushrooms.

Teenagers should not take drugs as they are not good for health; they cause
addiction and impair our thinking and judgments. The adolescents whose
substance use is addictive experience withdrawal symptoms when they
reduce or stop their use of the substance.

ag. Which hormone produces insulin? What will happen if our body does not
produce enough insulin?

Answer: Insulin hormone is secreted from pancreas. The lack of insulin

production will cause increase in blood sugar level that can lead to diabetes
mellitus or diabetes type II.

ah. List physical changes that begin puberty. What is the relationship between
 hormones and the physical changes during adolescence? How does brain
changes during adolescence?

Answer: The changes that occur during puberty are: production of

testosterone and sperm, production of estrogen, growth spurt, weight gain,
guys become more muscular, guys’ voices get deeper, lengthening and
widening of penis, enlargement of testes, girls become curvier, girls gain
weight on hips, breasts develop, menstruation starts, hair growth, acne, body
odour

ai.

Answer:

aj.

Answer:
ak.

Answer:

al. What is the role of the male sex hormone testosterone? Why is it important
that the temperature of the scrotum remains at 35 º C?

Answer: The functions of testosterone are:

a. It causes male genitalia to develop.
b. It helps in the development of secondary sexual characteristics.
c. It controls male sex drive and aggression.
It is important for scrotum to be at 35 º C in order to produce sperm. The
production of sperm takes place at a lower temperature than average body
temperature.

am. What is the chemical nature of hormones? How are they transported in
 body?

Answer: Hormones are chemical substances that help to regulate processes

in the body. Hormones are secreted by glands and travel to their target
organs in the bloodstream. Several hormones are involved in the female
menstrual cycle. Hormones can be used to control human fertility and other
processes.

an. Describe steps that schools and parents can take to discourage smoking,
alcohol and drug abuse among teenage students.

Answer: The school and parents should make kids aware about the ill effects
of abusing alcohol, drug abuse and smoking. They should have students
programme that keep kids occupied and interested in various sports to
ensure sound mental and physical health.

ao. There are many myths associated with AIDS. Research and list all the myths
that are medically incorrect about this fatal disease.

Answer: Common misconception regarding AIDS are: It can spread through

shaking hands, by eating together with a person who is HIV positive and it
has no cure.

ap. What is force? Give its effect and an example.

Answer: Force can be defined as a pull or push acting on an object. It tends

to change or actually changes the state of the object. One example of
‘application of force’ is when a football is kicked.

aq. Why do school bags have wide straps or belts as handles?

Answer: Broad straps in school bags are meant to reduce the pressure
exerted by the weight. Narrow straps cause discomfort and pain in shoulders
because the entire weight acts on the smallest area. With wide belts, the
pressure gets divided.

ar. Gravity is one kind of force acting on a moving arrow. What is another
force?

Answer: The force of friction. Air friction is produced when the surface of
the arrow comes in contact with air and tries to cut through it.

as. Why do labourers wear turbans while using their heads to carry heavy loads?

Answer: Wearing turbans or caps helps increase the area of contact. When
 the load meets the turban, the pressure on the head gets reduced
automatically.

at. When we hit hot iron with a hammer, what affects its shape?

Answer: Shape is affected by the impact of the force that is generated

because of repeated hammering.

au. Why do sea divers use special suits while diving?

Answer: In oceans, water pressure increases with depth. Deep down, it is

strong enough to completely damage the human body. This is why deep-sea
divers need to carry special suits that can endure extremely high pressure.

av. What is gravitational force? Give examples.

Answer: Every object in this universe applies a force on every other object.
That force is known as gravitational force. Gravity is the gravitational force
applied by the earth on other objects on or near its surface. A stone on the
ground or thrown up in the air, for instance, experiences gravity.

aw. What is the difference between contact forces and field forces?

Answer: Contact forces are the forces that act only when two objects come
in physical contact with each other. Contrary to that, field forces are those
that can act without any physical contact between two objects.

ax. What is atmospheric pressure?

Answer: Like all other things or bodies in the universe, air too exerts
pressure on other objects. This pressure applied by air is known as
atmospheric pressure.

ay. Why does a sharp knife cuts objects more rapidly than a blunt one?

Answer: This is because a sharper knife applies more pressure than a blunt
one at a small area, making it easier to cut. Technically, the area of contact
between a sharp knife and the object is smaller as compared to that of a
blunt knife and the object.

az. Shivam drops a hammer on an iron sheet with a force of 60 N. The area of
hammer that strikes the iron sheet is 4 m2. What is the pressure applied on
the sheet?

Answer: Total force applied, F = 60 N

 Total area, A = 4 m2
We know that,
Force = Pressure × Area Or Pressure, P = (Force/Area)
So, Pressure = 60 N/4 m2) = 15 N/m2
Since 1 Newton per square meter = 1 Pascal
Pressure applied on the iron sheet = P = 15 Pa

ba.

Answer:

bb. Arvin and Shyam are pushing a box on a floor. What are the different forces
acting on the box and in which direction?

Answer: There are many different forces acting on the box.

1. Muscular force: The muscular force is applied by Arvin and Shyam on
the box. This force is acting in the direction they are trying to push the
box.
2. Frictional force: It is acting in a direction opposite to where Arvin and
Shyam are trying to move the box.
3. Gravitational force: This force is acting downwards towards the centre
of earth.
4. Reaction force: This force is acting upwards. It cancels the
gravitational force.
They will be able to move the box only if their muscular force is greater
than the frictional force.

bc. What are the different forces acting on the box when two boys push a box
upwards on an inclined floor?

Answer: In this case,

 1. The muscular force applied by Arvin and Shyam on the box. This
force is acting in the direction they are trying to push the box i.e.
upwards on the inclined floor.
2. Frictional force. It is acting in a direction opposite to where Arvin and
Shyam are trying to move the box i.e. downwards on the inclined floor.
3. Gravitational force. This force is acting downwards towards the centre
of earth.
4. Reaction force. This force is acting perpendicular (and upwards) to
the inclined floor.
Note: In this case, the gravitational and reaction force do not cancel each
other out.

bd. A stone on the ground is at rest. Are there any forces acting on it? Explain.

Answer: The stone on the ground is at rest because the resultant of all forces
acting on it is zero. For example, the gravity is pulling the stone downwards
but the reaction force acting upwards in equal amount cancels out the
gravitational force. Since there are equal and opposite forces acting on the
stone, it is at rest and not in motion.

be. Sahil saw a leaking tap in his kitchen. He was worried and wanted to stop
the leakage immediately. But Sahil could not understand the reason why
fountains of water were coming out of the leakage and with such force.
What could be the reason behind water coming out of the tap and how
should he stop the leakage for the time being? What values you learn from
Sahil?

Answer: The reason behind the fountains of water coming out of tap is the
pressure, liquids exert on the walls of the container and to stop the leakage
for the time being, he must tie a piece of cloth, very tightly, around the
leakage.
Sahil is a responsible citizen. He does not like wastage of resources. He
wants to preserve water, which is a precious resource of our planet Earth.
Like Sahil, we all should be caring and loving to the Earth and its resources.

bf. Which force is acting in a case where a balloon is rubbed with cloth sticks to
the wall?

Answer: When we rub a balloon with a synthetic cloth and press it against
the wall, it sticks there. The force that acts between the wall and the balloon
is electrostatic force. Actually, the balloon gets charged after the rub. Since
electrostatic force is always applied by a charged body or object on an
uncharged object, the balloon gets easily attracted to the uncharged wall.

bg. The powder in carrom board is meant to increase friction. True or false.
 Answer: False. Powder in a carrom board game is used to decrease friction
and make it easier to play. A smooth carrom board is easier to play on.

bh. Friction is of no use and only creates problems. True or false. Explain.

Answer: False. Friction helps us in daily life in so many ways. For example,
it is only because of friction between our feet and ground that we can walk.
Screws and nails stick to wall due to friction too. Without friction, the world
wouldn’t be the same.

bi. Pressure of two surfaces affects the force of friction. True or false. Explain.

Answer: True. The intensity of frictional force depends a lot on how hard
any two surfaces press against each other. The harder the surfaces are in
contact the more becomes the area of contact if we look at the micro level
and hence friction increases.

bj. What is rolling friction force?

Answer: It is kind of a resistive force that effectively slows down the motion
of wheels on a solid surface. This force is generated due to adhesion
between any two surfaces.

bk. Streamlining can reduce air resistance or friction. Explain.

Answer: It is true. The best example is the design of an airplane that has a
streamlined shape. With pointed fronts, they effectively cut air friction in
order to move swiftly. We can take examples of birds and fish as well from
nature whose bodies are streamlined. Also if you will see racing cars the
same features can be seen very clearly as compared to the normal cars.

bl. Why do sportsmen prefer shoes with spikes?

Answer: This is because spikes provide a fine grip with ground by increasing
friction. With the increase of friction it becomes less probable for a player
to slip while running or playing. This makes it easier to run or play.

bm. Why are objects that move inside fluids given a unique shape?

Answer: They are given special shapes to minimise drag, the force of
friction exerted by fluids. Ships, for instance, are streamlined to overcome
fluid friction.

bn. Friction makes it possible to write on paper. How?

 Answer: When we move the nib of a pen on the paper, friction between the
paper surface and ball point enables writing. Without friction, we wouldn’t
be able to write.

bo. Why is it highly difficult to move a car with a deflated tyre?

Answer: With a flat tyre, the force of friction between the road surface and
the tyre rim increases. This makes it tough to move the car.

bp. On a horizontal surface, a brick slides very easily. How can we increase the
intensity of the force of friction?

Answer: We can enhance the magnitude of the force of friction by placing a

second brick on top. The more the weight/volume of the object, the better
frictional force or grip it has with the surface in contact.

bq. Can you write on a highly smooth mirror? Explain.

Answer: Writing on a highly smooth mirror would either be very difficult or

nearly impossible. This is because a smooth surface offers little to no
resistance. The pens work on the principle of friction. When we strike the
nib of pain against the surface, it is the friction that ensures that some ink
would be dropped according to the movement of the nib. If there is no
friction, as it would be the case with a highly smooth mirror, we wouldn’t be
able to write.

br. Why do we say that the invention of wheel (thousands of years ago) changed
the world? Explain in relation to the force of friction.

Answer: A wheel experiences much less than friction than just about any
other shape. It is primarily due to the reason that the area of contact, in case
the object is circular, is the minimum. Without wheels, transporting
anything from one place to another was a huge challenge. Dragging luggage,
for example, is a situation that we cannot even imagine today. It would
require a whole lot more effort to transport even few hundred kilograms of
goods from one place to another without making use of wheels.

bs.

Answer:
bt. An ice-skating ground is prepared in such a way that it has no friction. If
you were to transport a heavy iron box from one end of the ground to other,
would you use a vehicle or push it manually? Why?

Answer: The ice-skating ground, as per the question, has no friction.

Using a vehicle sounds like a good idea but the wheels will not turn on a
friction-less surface. Wheels turn on road or any other surface because of
friction. Pushing the iron box from one end of the ground, on the other
hand, is very easy because there is no friction. One would just need to push
it over slowly. Once the box gains a little speed on the ice-skating round, it
will move at a constant speed to the other end without requiring any
additional effort.

bu. A box of books is placed on an inclined shelf. It does not slide down. Why?
What would happen if inclined shelf is slowly tilted further?

Answer: A component of gravitational force, acting in the downward

direction, will pull the box of books downwards on the inclined shelf. But, if
the box is still at rest, it means the force of friction is strong enough to
cancel the gravitational force. If the inclined shelf is titled further, at one
point in time, the gravitational force will become bigger than the frictional
force and the box of books will slide down.

bv. Karan saw his father sprinkle powder on a carrom board. He was confused
and the following questions came to his mind:
a. Why did he sprinkle powder on the carrom board?
b. How will it help improve with the game-play?
What values you learn about Karan from this scenario?

Answer: The answers to the questions asked by Karan are given below:
a. Karan’s father sprinkled powder on the carrom board to reduce
 friction.
b. Friction is reduced in order to increase efficiency and to make the
movement smooth and it will help increase the efficiency of the player
while playing carrom.
Value we learn about Karan is that he is curious about things around him. He
is inquisitive in nature and wants to understand all facts or concept behind
everything happening around.

bw. Ritika was curious about how does a matchstick catch fire when you strike it
against a rough surface and she tried to light a matchstick without the
supervision of an adult. What is the reason behind the matchstick catching
fire? Also, do you think Ritika should have tried playing with a matchbox?

Answer: The reason behind the matchstick catching fire when you strike it
against a rough surface is friction and friction can also produce heat. Ritika
should not have tried playing with a matchbox as it is dangerous and she
could have burned herself.

bx. If we have to move a heavy and a lighter box on the same floor, which box
will require more force?

Answer: As we know, friction is an excellent self-adjusting force. Heavier

objects exert more force on the surface of the floor as compared to lighter
objects. This is the reason why they experience more force of friction. So,
the heavier box will require more force while being moved around than the
lighter one.

by. How is an object that is making a sound different from a silent object?

Answer: When an object makes sound, it generates vibrations. These

vibrations are responsible for spreading the type of sound made by the
object. On the other hand, a silent object does not produce any vibrations.

bz. Why is it impossible to hear any type of sound on the moon?

Answer: All kinds of sounds need a medium to travel or reach from one
place to other. The most common medium for sound is air. But, since there
is no air on the moon, it is impossible to hear a sound.

ca. Why can’t we hear the sound made by a bat?

Answer: Sound waves above 20,000 Hz are known as ultrasonic sound

waves. Human ears are not designed to hear this type of waves. The screams
of bats are ultrasonic in nature and therefore, we cannot hear them.
cb. Give any two examples of sound pollution at home.

Answer: There are many instruments, appliances, and machines within a

home that create sound pollution. Music systems and exhaust fans, air
coolers, mixer grinder etc. are the best examples.

cc. Unpleasant or pungent sounds are called noise. True or false. Explain.

Answer: True. These unwanted sounds can even lead to partial or permanent
hearing impairment if heard for a long time. Loud music is an example.

cd. Why can sound not travel in a vacuum?

Answer: Sound is fully dependent of a medium when it comes to traveling.

In vacuum, there is no medium available and therefore, sound can travel
through it.

ce. What does the term ‘time period’ mean? Explain.

Answer: Time period is the total time that an object takes to complete one
oscillation. When time period is divided by one what we get is the frequency
of the oscillation which means that in one second how many oscillations an
object completes. So if an object is moving between A and B and when it
goes from A to B and come back from B to A it completes one oscillation.

cf. How do trees at roadside reduce sound pollution?

Answer: Trees at roadside help control sound pollution by absorbing sound

vibrations. So, the higher the number of trees planted along roads, the more
noise they can absorb.

cg. Stretched strings are the source of sound in a sitar. What produces sound in
a flute?

Answer: In a flute, air columns positioned at a regular distance are the

source of sound.

ch. How is shrillness of a sound measured?

Answer: The frequency of vibration is a reliable method when it comes to

determining the shrillness of a sound.

ci.
 Answer:

cj.

Answer:

ck. In case of thunders, why do we see the lightening much before we hear the
sound of thunder?

Answer: It happens because the light travels through the atmosphere at a

much faster speed than sound. While the sound of thunder will travel at a
speed of just 332 m/s, light will travel at a speed of 3,00,000 km/s.

cl.

Answer:
cm. A device vibrates at a very fast speed and completes 25000 oscillations in
one second. What is the frequency of this device? Can we hear the sound
produced by such a device?

Answer: Total number of oscillations completed in one second = 25000

So, Frequency = 25000 Hz
It is ultrasonic sound. As we know, humans can only hear sounds below
20,000 Hz, the sound produced by this device will not be audible to humans.

cn. Karan lives in a residential complex with his family and is very disturbed
with the increasing noise pollution. Suggest some methods to prevent/control
noise pollution in a residential area.

Answer: Methods to control noise pollution in a residential complex are

given below:
1. TV and music systems should run at a volume that is favourable for
everyone.
2. ‘NO HORN’ signs must be put up in and around the residential
complex.
3. Planting more tress around the area will cut down on the noise.
4. Rules and regulations must be set-up and followed by all the residents.

co. Why must we never put a sharp, pointed or hard thing into our ear?

Answer: We must never put a sharp, pointed or hard thing into our ear
because it can damage the eardrum and can impair hearing.

cp. What is the main difference between music and noise?

Answer: Any sound that is able to generate a pleasing or soothing sensation

is music. It can be anything from a composition of musical notes and sounds
of musical instruments to natural chirping of birds. However, music refers
to the creation of pleasing beats by musicians. Opposite to that, noise is
 something that is unpleasant or distracting; some examples are honking
vehicles and sounds of heavy machinery. At times, music can also prove to
be causing noise pollution.

cq. Why do men, women, and kids have different voices?

Answer: There are several factors that are responsible for different voices in
men, women and children. The most common reasons are:
1. The pitch is the first and most important factor when it comes to
determining different types of voices. It is because of difference in the
pitch of voice that men, women and children sound different. Men
have low-pitch voice and sound heavy. However, women and kids
have high-pitch voice and sound sharp.
2. The difference is primarily due to the difference in the thickness and
length of vocal cords.

cr. What are longitudinal and transverse waves?

Answer: Transverse waves are waves wherein the medium particles vibrate
at right angles to the original direction of the wave. Light waves, for
example, are traverse waves.
One the other hand, longitudinal waves are the ones that have medium
particles vibrating back and forth in the same direction as the wave. Sound
wave is the best example of a longitudinal wave.

cs.

Answer:
ct. An atom is itself neutral. Why does it need to form ions?

Answer: Atoms form ions in order to obtain octet configuration, so that they
have a stable electronic configuration.

cu. Molten NaCl conducts electricity but solid sodium chloride does not. Why?

Answer: In solid sodium chloride the sodium and chloride ions are held by
strong forces of attraction. So ions could not move. When melted, these
forces are overcome and in molten state the ions of sodium chloride could
move easily and can conduct electricity.

cv. Why shouldn’t we test the conductivity of liquids by connecting them to the
main electricity supply?

Answer: The current supplied by main electrical supplies is very high and
can hurt or give electric shock to the person carrying out the experiment. So
we should not test the conductivity of liquids by connecting them to the
main electric supply.

cw. Conductivity of two liquids was tested with a simple circuit using LED. For
liquid A the LED glowed brighter than for Liquid B. What does it prove?

Answer: It proves liquid B has more ions, which conducted more electricity
and hence the LED glowed brighter.

cx. Atul had impure water with him. Knowing it would conduct electricity, he
tested it using simple circuit including a bulb. But the bulb did not glow.
However, when he brought the magnetic compass near to the wires, the
needle showed deflection. What is the reason for the bulb not glowing here
assuming the bulb is not fused and connected correctly?

Answer: The reason could be that though liquid is a conductor but the
current conducted is weak and the bulb needs more current to glow. So
magnetic effect is produced in the wire as the current is flowing through it
but it is not enough to make the bulb glow.

cy. Why do we add few drops of acid to water for carrying out its electrolysis?
 Answer: Acids release ions which conduct electricity. This would increase
the rate of electrolysis of water.

cz. After coming from a playground a child was going to switch on the fan, the
other child stopped him and asked him to first dry his hands of sweat as
sweat could increase the risk of electric shock. How could sweat increase
the risk? What value is shown by the second child?

Answer: Sweat contains salts and water released by our body. Salts produce
ions in the presence of water and these ions can conduct electricity. Thus
chances of getting electric shock increase if we touch the switches with
sweaty hands.
Values shown by the second child is that he is concerned about others that
they shouldn’t get hurt. He is careful, has presence of mind, and applies his
knowledge to deal with a situation.

da.

Answer:

db. Why do jewellers electroplate gold over other metal jewelleries?

Answer: Jewellery is electroplated with gold so that it looks shiny and

expensive but is cheaper than actual gold jewellery.

dc. Why don’t we classify objects as insulators instead of poor conductors? State
with an example.

Answer: Even poor conductors can conduct electricity during some

conditions. Only those things that can be classified as insulators do not
conduct electricity at all. For example, air is a poor conductor of electricity
but charges flow through air during lightning.

dd. Aluminium is also obtained by electrolysis of aluminium oxide. Which are

the products obtained at the two electrodes?

Answer: During electrolysis of aluminium oxide, aluminium metal is

obtained at cathode and oxygen gas is obtained at anode.
de. What makes human body a good conductor of electricity?

Answer: Human body has many fluid and ions present in it. These salts
release ions like sodium ions and potassium ions. These ions conduct
electricity thus making human body a good conductor of electricity.

df. If a person in your room has got an electric shock by touching an electric
appliance in the room and you are the only other person in the room, choose
how will you save him? Will hold him directly and move him away from
appliance or will use a wooden plank to move him away? Or would you
rather go out of the room and call and elder to find the solution? Give reason
for your choice.

Answer: Will use wooden plank. Pulling the person away from appliance
myself is dangerous as the electric current from the person could flow to me
and I can also get shock. Calling another person will take time and within
that time the person might get severely hurt or die due to shock. Wood is an
insulator and will prevent me from shock. Immediate action is required in
such a situation to save the life of the person.

dg.

Answer:

dh. If you are testing the rain water collected from an industrial area and from
forest area, in which case will the deflection of needle of magnetic compass
be more? Give reason for the answer.

Answer: The deflection will be more in the rain water collected from
industrial area. This is because in industrial area there is more pollution so
the rain is acidic and will have more ions. So electricity conducted will be
more. More current means stronger magnetic effect and more deflection of
 magnetic needle of the compass. In forest area the rain water will be more
pure and hence a poor conductor of electricity. Thus deflection of compass
needle will be less.

di. After electroplating a coin with copper wire if we connect the coin to anode
and wire to cathode, what will happen?

Answer: Reverse flow of copper will start as the copper metal will start
moving from coin to the wire. The direction of movement of copper will
always be from anode to cathode.

dj. A child has prepared a simple circuit comprising of wires, LED and a
battery. She connected the open ends of the wire with dry salt. She knows
salts are ionic compounds and are good conductors. But here the LED did
not glow. Identify the mistake she is making in this experiment.

Answer: The mistake she is making is that the salt is dry. It will not be able
to release ions if it is not in molten or solution state. Electricity will not be
conducted in the absence of ions.

dk. Why shouldn’t we use running water from taps during lightning?

Answer: The tap water is impure and a good conductor of electricity. During
lightning it might conduct electricity and we might get electric shock. So we
should not use tap water during lightning.

dl. Distilled water does not conduct electricity. What can be added to distilled
water in small amounts to make it a good conductor of electricity?

Answer: Salt, acid or base can be added as they will produce ions and
increase the conductivity of distilled water.

dm. The pupil size grows when we see in dim light. Is that true or false? Explain.

Answer: True.
Actually, the pupil becomes large in order to enhance the amount of light
that enters into eyes in poor light conditions. This is a natural phenomenon;
it is meant to help increase visibility in dim light.

dn. Angle of incidence can never be equal to angle of reflection. True or false.

Answer: False. As per the first law of reflection, it is always equal to the
angle of reflection.

do. What causes the formation of a rainbow?

 Answer: A rainbow appears when water droplets in the atmosphere cause
sunlight to disperse. In this phenomenon of dispersion of sunlight, water
drops act as small prisms.

dp. What kind of reflection will occur when a light beam strikes chalk
powder—regular or diffused and why?

Answer: When a light beam strikes chalk powder, diffused reflection will
take place. This is because the surface of chalk powder is irregular. So,
when light comes in contact with it, it reflects away diffused.

dq. What are the laws of reflection?

Answer: First Law of Reflection states that the angle of incidence is always
equal to the angle of reflection. Second Law of Reflection states that at the
point of reflection, the incident ray, the reflected ray, and the normal all lie
in the same plane.

dr. What kind of images does a plane mirror create?

Answer: A plane mirror creates virtual images. This is because the object in
the image is as far behind the mirror as the parent object. Also, it is of the
same size as the original object.

ds. In which of these media will light travel fastest—water, turpentine, or

kerosene?

Answer: Velocity of light is always inversely proportional to a medium’s

refractive index. Since the refractive index of water is the lowest, light will
travel fastest in it.

dt. What is the point of incidence?

Answer: This is the point at a mirror’s surface where incident rays strike and
reflected rays deflect.

du. Images formed by a plane mirror are laterally inverted. Give an example.

Answer: In front of a plane mirror, when someone touches their right ear
with left hand, the image shows that the left ear is touched with right hand.
This is an example of inversion of images created by a plane mirror.

dv. Diamond has a reflective index of 2.42. What do you understand by this
statement?
 Answer: The statement implies that the speed of light in diamond is 2.42
times less than the speed of light in the air.

dw. Rohan lights up a matchstick and places it in between two parallel mirrors.
The mirrors are at a distance of 2 m. How many images of the matchstick
are created? Why?

Answer: Parallel mirrors continue to reflect back the images to each other
endlessly. This results in creation of infinite number of images. So, an
infinite number of images of burning matchstick are created on two parallel
mirrors.

dx.

Answer:

dy.

Answer:
dz. Why does a glass prism disperse the white light?

Answer: As we know, white light is a combination of 7 colorful lights.

When white light is passed through a prism, these colorful lights bend at
different angles. When these lights finally come out of the prism, they
appear to be dispersed (coming out at different places) and this is precisely
the reason why a spectrum is created.

ea.

Answer:
eb. ‘Do not look at the sun or a powerful light directly’. Why?

Answer: The sun or a powerful light has ultra-violet rays that could damage
your eyes. Hence, it is advised to not look at the sun or a powerful light
directly.

ec. ‘It is necessary that you take proper care of your eyes.’ Explain with respect
to your eating habits.

Answer: Balanced diet is a must to keep a person healthy. If a person’s diet

is not proper, it can affect the eye too. Lack of Vitamin A in food causes eye
troubles. Hence, it is necessary to eat food rich in Vitamin A, for example,
green vegetables, eggs, raw carrots, etc.

ed. When in a dark room, how clearly can we see objects in and outside the
room?

Answer: Normally, we can see object clearly when the light reflected by
them easily meets our eyes. But, there is no reflection of light in a dark
room. This is the reason we are unable to see things around us. However, if
there is enough light outside, we don’t find any problems seeing things lying
there. Here, the reflection of light is enough to create sufficient visibility.

ee. What are the major differences between regular reflection and diffused
reflection?

Answer: Regular reflection occurs only on a regular or smooth surface. On

the other hand, diffused reflection occurs on a rough surface. Where all
reflects rays in regular reflection are parallel to each other, rays in diffused
reflection are unparalleled. Also, rays reflected during regular reflection
travel in one direction. But, rays reflected during diffused reflection move in
different direction.

ef. What is persistence of vision?

Answer: This is the phenomenon that makes it possible for the image
impressions to stay on the retina for one-sixteenth of a second. Under this
phenomenon of the eye, images appear to be moving if next image is passed
before the previous one has been eliminated. In order to view still images, it
is important that the gap between any two images is more than one sixteenth
of a second. So, when a number of still images move rapidly one after
another, they appear to be moving.

eg. How is the distance between the earth and stars measured?
 Answer: Stars are situated millions of kilometers away from the Earth. So,
this distance is measured in light years.

eh. What causes the phases of moon?

Answer: Phases of moon is caused due to the reflection of light towards the
earth. This is because we are able to see only that portion or side of the
moon that reflects light towards the earth.

ei. Where can you locate Venus when the sky is clear?

Answer: Venus is visible as an evening star after sunset. It can be easily

spotted in the western horizon.

ej. What is a constellation?

Answer: A cluster of stars forming an identifiable pattern in the sky is

known as a constellation. Orion is a commonly visible constellation.

ek. Give names of some inner and outer planets.

Answer: Mars and Earth are the two inner planets. Saturn is an outer planet.

el. Other than planets, there are some other objects too in the solar system.
True or false.

Answer: True. Like planets, meteors and satellites are also the members of
our solar system.

em. What is a satellite?

Answer: A satellite is a celestial object or body that keeps revolving around

a particular planet. Moon, for example, is earth’s satellite.

en. What is the right sequnce of planets?

Answer:
Mercury—Venus—Earth—Mars—Jupiter—Saturn—Uranus—Neptune.

eo. All planets in the solar system have rings around them. True or false.
Explain.

Answer: False. Not all planets have rings. Four planets that are based on
gases and have rings are—Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune.

ep. There are both rocky and gaseous planets in our solar system. True or false.
 Explain.

Answer: True. Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars are rocky or terrestrial
planets. Whereas, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune are gaseous planets.

eq. Stars appear to be moving in the sky from one end to the other during the
night. Are they really moving?
Explain with another example.

Answer: Stars do not move in the sky. It is due to the relative motion of
earth.
Earth rotates about its axis (from west to east) and therefore, stars appear to
be in the opposite direction i.e. east to west.
A common example—trees alongside the road appear to be moving when
you are inside a moving bus.

er. A star is located 100 light years away from earth. Is it ever possible for an
astronaut to go and come back from this star?

Answer: No. The star is very far away from earth. Even light would take 100
years in time to reach the star. It would take another 100 years to come
back. So, astronauts can never go and come back from this star even if their
spaceships travelled at the speed of light.

es. How many times will earth rotate about its axis in 500 hours?

Answer: Earth completes one rotation about its axis in one day i.e. 24 hours.
Total number of rotations completed in 500 hours = 500/24 = 20.83
Earth will complete a total of 20.83 rotations about its axis in 500 hours.

et. Why do stars twinkle?

Answer: Stars are located very far away from us. They shine due to their
own light but twinkle.
It happens due to the reason that the light traveling from stars gets refracted
many times through the atmosphere.

eu. Dark side of moon is a myth. Explain.

Answer: Moon takes exactly the same amount of time to complete a rotation
around its own axis as it does to circle around the earth. It essentially means
that only one side of moon is exposed to earth. Both sides of moon receive
sunlight but we get to see only one side. So, dark side of moon is only a
myth. The other side can only be seen from a spacecraft.
ev. How are stars different from planets? What are the three differences
between stars and moons?

Answer: The biggest difference between stars and planets is that while
planets are formed by solid rocks, gases and liquids stars are made up of
gases mostly. Hydrogen and helium are the main constituent gases of the
stars. The other differences are:
Planets possess only thermal energy released by the internal hot mass,
whereas stars are rich in energy generated by nuclear fusion.
Planets lack their own light and shine with the help of their nearest
stars. On the other hand, stars have their own light.
Stars twinkle whereas planets do not.
The three differences between the stars and the moons are:
Stars have their own light while moons do not have their own light.
The size of a star is larger than the size of a moon.
A moon rotates around a planet while a star does not.

How is a full moon different from a new moon?

Answer: A full moon occurs when the sun’s rays fall directly on the
moon. This is when the moon looks like a complete circular body
commonly known as the full moon. This normally happens on
Purnima. The new moon refers to a scenario when the sun and the
earth are at opposite sides of the moon. At this stage, the moon is
invisible. The event is known as Amavasya or the new moon.

What is a lunar month?

Answer: As per the Indian calendar, the time interval between any two
successive full moons is considered as a month. This time interval is
generally of 29 days, 11 hours, and 43 minutes. This month is known
as a lunar month. A lunar month can also be defined as the time
duration between either two full moons or two new moons.

Choose appropriate answer from the given words and fill in the
blanks:
CNG, DDT, van mahotsav, potable water, fertilisers, oil spills, global
warming, sulphur dioxide, CFCs
a. The rise in Earth’s temperature is called _______________.
b. ____________________ causes acid rain.
c. _____________________ causes excessive growth of algae in
water bodies.
d. ______________ accumulates in body fat and travels up the
food chain.
e. ____________ results in the death of birds and aquatic animals.
 f. ____________________ depletes the ozone layer.
g. _________________ is a clean fuel.
h. Water fit for drinking is called _________________.
i. ____________ is celebrated in the month of July every year.

Answer:
a. global warming
b. Sulphur dioxide
c. Fertilisers
d. DDT
e. Oil spills
f. CFCs
g. CNG
h. potable water
i. Van mahotsav

Answer:

How does our atmosphere remain warm at night when no direct

sunlight is received? What is this effect known as? Name three gases
that contribute to this process.

Answer: Some gases absorb the heat reflected back or radiated by the
Earth. They keep the atmosphere warm at night. This effect is known
as the greenhouse effect. Three gases—CO2, CH4 and O3 contribute to
this process.
Why do respiratory problems and allergies increase during winters?

Answer: During winters, the smoke and harmful gases get trapped in
the fog and form smog. So pollutants remain in the lower atmosphere
only and we inhale them more leading to an increase of respiratory
problems and cases of allergies.

How is the increasing population leading to pollution of our water

resources?

Answer: Due to increasing population, the sewage generated is

increasing which are many times released in the rivers and causing
pollution. Also with larger number of people, activities like bathing
and washing in rivers are also increasing. Hence increasing the amount
of pollution caused.

What values need to be inculcated in people to control water

pollution?

Answer: People need to be made more sensitive towards the

environment and the impact of pollution on all forms of life. They
should be made responsible to keep the natural resources clean.

What is BOD? How is it an indicator of water pollution levels?

Answer: BOD is biochemical oxygen demand. It is the oxygen

required by aerobic microorganisms living in water to decompose the
organic waste. High level BOD indicates high demand of oxygen. This
means that bacteria are very active and the water is highly polluted.
The organic waste present in water is in excess which when
decomposed by bacteria raises the BOD.

Pollution of air is leading to many health problems as well as

environmental issues like global warming and acid rain. List two steps
that can be taken to reduce the effect of air pollution in your city.

Answer: To reduce the effect of air pollution we can plant more trees
as they use carbon dioxide and manage its amount in air.
Secondly, factories should remove the harmful gases and soot particles
from smoke before releasing in air.

Pollution of river water in an area remains limited to that area and

does not affect the water resources of the neighbouring areas. Do you
agree? Justify your answer.
Answer: I do not agree as the pollutants in rivers are not localised in an
area and flow with water to different cities affecting the population
there. River also seeps to the ground water of nearby areas and hence
will pollute that as well.

DDT is a widely used pesticide. Why do we need to limit or stop its

usage in farming practices?

Answer: Excess use of DDT is causing it to be absorbed by the plants

through which it enters the food chain and reaches the humans. This is
a harmful chemical which affects our health and hence its use needs to
be controlled.

How does the growth of excessive algae in a water body harm the rest
of aquatic life?

Answer: Too many algae when die add to the organic waste. This
waste when decomposed by bacteria uses up the oxygen dissolved in
water. This reduces the oxygen available for other aquatic organisms
thus harming them.

Release of hot water by power plants is also a source of water

pollution. Explain how?

Answer: Release of hot water causes drastic change in temperature of

water. Animals living in water are used to only a certain range of
temperature. Any rise in that temperature harms them and hence is
called a source of pollution.

Why is the stretch of river Ganga that passes through Kanpur the most
polluted part of the river?

Answer: Kanpur has large number of industries and these industries

add untreated sewage and harmful chemicals to the river. Thus this
stretch is one the most polluted part of river Ganga.

What is meant by river being dead at any place?

Answer: A river said to be dead when it is so polluted and toxic that no

living organism could survive in that river. In the absence of any form
of life in the river, river is said to be dead.

How is the excessive use of plastics in our lives affecting both air and
water quality?
Answer: Plastics are non-biodegradable waste hence disposing it
causes both air and water pollution. If the waste is burned then it
releases poisonous gases which pollute the air. If they are disposed in
landfills or thrown in water, over the period of time they release
harmful chemicals that pollute the water.

What causes pollution of groundwater? How can this affect us?

Answer: Seepage of harmful chemicals, disease causing microbes or

acid rain through soil causes pollution of groundwater. This water is
mostly used by humans and when the contaminants enter the human
body, it can cause various water borne diseases. Polluted groundwater
may have other effects like greying of hair or poisoning.

How is water pollution leading to water scarcity?

Answer: Fresh water available on Earth is limited in amount. So

polluting that water reduces the amount of fresh water available for
our use. This is resulting in water scarcity.

State one way each to reduce the use of water and reuse water at your
home.

Answer: Reduce water usage: Mop the floor instead of washing it

Reuse water: The water used for washing vegetables can be used for
watering plants

Anuj has fallen ill after drinking water without filtering it as it

appeared clean. While playing he drank the water from a nearby tap.
The water was colourless, odourless and tasteless. As he started to
vomit after having the water, his friend immediately took him back to
his home and warned other kids not to drink that water.
a. Why do we need to filter water before drinking?
b. Is boiling of water required after filtration? Give reason for your
answer.
c. What qualities are shown by Anuj’s friend?

Answer:
a. Filtration is required to remove various impurities like extra
salts and chemicals which are present in water even after it is
purified before being supplied to the taps.
b. Boiling of filtered water is required to kill the microbes, which
remain in water even after filtration.
 c. Anuj’s friend has good presence of mind decision-taking ability.
He is also helpful and caring for his friends.

What is the impact of oil spills on aquatic lives?

Answer: Oil is lighter than water and forms a layer above water. This
can be ingested by aquatic animals and can harm them. The animals
penetrate the fur or organisms and reduce their ability to insulate
themselves against temperature changes. Thus they are harmed and
can also die.

Why do polythene bags harm the environment?

Answer: Polythene is a plastic and hence is non-biodegradable. As

polythene bags remain in environment for a very long period of time
after being disposed, they release harmful chemicals and cause soil
and water pollution.

How does land pollution lead to water pollution?

Answer: Chemicals present in soil which causes land pollution is

carried by water to water bodies or seeps into ground water causing
water pollution.

What would happen if chlorinated water of a swimming pool was

regularly discharged into the local river?

Answer: Excessive chlorine addition to the river will make its water
acidic, which will harm the aquatic organisms.

Is it possible to have a food chain without CO2? Then why is increase

in CO2 percentage becoming a serious global issue?

Answer: No, it is not possible as plants need CO2 to make food and
plants are the primary source of food for food chain. Increased CO2
leads to rise in atmosphere temperature known as global warming, as
CO2 has the property of absorbing heat and keeping the atmosphere
warm.

Can pollution lead to extinction of a particular species of animal?

Answer: Yes it can as pollution of air or water can prove to be

extremely harmful for any species and cause their death.
Answer the given questions in 70-80 words. (3 x 1, 5 x 49 =
248)
1. What are multiple reflections? Explain giving example.

Answer: When a ray of light gets reflected multiple times, the

phenomenon is called multiple reflections. Multiple images
formed in a kaleidoscope are a good example. We can make a
light ray reflect more than once by using two or more plane
mirrors and varying the angle between them. It is possible to get
any number of images with the help of the phenomenon of
multiple reflection of light.
Also, the concept of multiple reflections is used in periscopes. A
periscope is made by using two plane mirrors placed in a parallel
line and facing one another in an inclined position at an angle of
45o.

2. Explain the construction and functioning of a kaleidoscope.

Answer: The construction and working mechanism of a

kaleidoscope are based on the theory of multiple images created
by the combination of plane mirrors. This combination helps
create a number of attractive coloured patterns at the same time.
A kaleidoscope is made up of three strips of plane mirror that
are joined together to make a triangle. The triangle is wrapped
up by a piece of cardboard.
This tube-like structure is then filled with several small pieces of
glass on one side. The pieces of glass have several different
colours. Finally, the other side of the tube is closed using a
transparent sheet. When the kaleidoscope is rotated and seen
through at the transparent end, many striking coloured patterns
can be seen.

3. Name two modern methods of irrigation. What are the

advantages of these systems?

Answer: The two modern systems of irrigation are: Sprinkler

irrigation and drip irrigation.
a. Sprinkler System: This system has a network of
perpendicular pipes which have rotating nozzles on top.
These pipes are joined to the main pipeline at regular
intervals. When water flows through the main pipe under
pressure, it escapes from the rotating nozzles. Water gets
sprinkled on the crop as if it is raining. It is more useful on
the uneven and sandy land where sufficient water is not
available.
 b. Drip System: This system provides water to plants drop by
drop just at the position of the roots. It is the best
technique for watering fruit plants, gardens and trees.
They are very efficient as water is not wasted at all.

4. Despite all the problems associated with plastics they are highly
useful because of their light weight, varied colours and sizes and
unreactive nature. The plastic objects have a number printed on
them which represents the plastic can be recycled. Smaller the
number easier it is to recycle it. But we generally carelessly
throw them along with the rest of the biodegradable waste. This
plastic waste finds its way to landfills which in turn leads to the
pollution of soil and groundwater.
a. Hydrofluoric acid is very strong acid. You have to choose
between containers made of glass, metal and plastic.
Which one will you choose and why?
b. A plastic bag has number 1 printed on it and the plastic
box has number 4 printed on it. Which one of the two can
be recycled more easily?
c. Why is it easy to obtain plastic containers in varied sizes?
d. What is biodegradable waste?
e. How does adding plastic waste to landfills pollute
groundwater?

Answer:
a. Will choose plastic as plastic is least reactive of all and
will not react with the acid
b. The plastic with number 1 printed on it can be recycled
more easily.
c. It is easy to obtain plastic containers in varied sizes as
plastics are easy to mould as they become soft on heating
and have high plasticity.
d. Biodegradable waste is the one that can be decomposed by
microorganisms in nature.
e. Plastics are non-biodegradable. So they remain in soil of
landfill and gradually release harmful
chemicals that seep through soil to the groundwater thus
polluting it.

f. List two advantages and two disadvantages of synthetic

fibres over natural fibres.

Answer: Advantages of synthetic fibres and disadvantages

of natural fibres :
They do not absorb water and dry up easily. Natural
fibres absorb more water and do not dry up easily.
They have more strength and hence are more
durable. Natural fibres have lesser strength and break
easily, hence are less durable.
Disadvantages of synthetic fibres and advantages of natural
fibres:
They catch fire easily and it is dangerous to wear
them when near to fire. Natural fibres do not catch
fire as easily.
They do not absorb water. Hence are uncomfortable
to wear in summers. Natural fibres absorb water and
sweat, so are more comfortable in summers.

Radha had two samples of elements with her. She

had to find out which one of them is metal and
which is non-metal. So, she took an iron rod, copper
wires, bulb and battery. Using these how will she
differentiate between a metal and a non-metal? What
qualities are exhibited by Radha through this action?

Answer: The element which gives metal clink on

being struck with iron rod and is sonorous is metal.
The other one is non metal. Prepare a simple circuit
using wires, bulb and battery. Attach the wires to the
element sample. If the bulb glows, the sample is a
conductor and is a metal (except graphite). If the
bulb does not glow the sample is an insulator and is a
non-metal. Values or qualities exhibited by Radha
are as follows: enthusiasm towards experimenting
and learning new things; scientific approach towards
solving problems

Give reason for the following uses of metals:

a. Metals are used to make bells.
b. Mercury is used in thermometer.
c. Aluminium is used to make foil for wrapping
of food items.
d. Gold is used for making jewellery.
e. Diamond is used to make cutting tools.

Answer:
a. Metals are sonorous and produce special loud
 sound on being struck
b. Mercury is liquid metal. Shiny and easy to
read. It has high boiling point and does not boil
while measuring temperature.
c. Aluminium is highly malleable and light metal.
It is easy to draw into light sheets.
d. Gold is very lustrous and does not get dull with
time as it does not react with air or moisture.
e. Diamond is the hardest natural substance and
makes very strong tools used for cutting hard
objects.

Answer:
Answer:

What is acid rain? List three ways in which it harms

us. How can use of CNG instead of petrol in
vehicles reduce the acid rain?

Answer: When rain water dissolves acidic gases like

oxides of nitrogen, sulphur and carbon and passes
through the atmosphere, it becomes acidic. This is
acid rain. Three ways in which acid rain harm us is
as follows:
Makes the soil acidic and unfit for cultivation
Pollutes the water resources and harm the
aquatic life
Corrodes and deteriorates marble, limestone or
metallic structures
CNG releases much lesser amount of oxides of
sulphur and nitrogen which are mainly
released on burning coal, petrol and diesel.
Reduction in amount of these gases will reduce
the acid rain.
a. Give three reasons why we need to
 ensure complete combustion of fuels.
b. If suddenly your LPG stove starts giving
yellow flame instead of blue, what could
be the reason?
c. As soon as Vibha saw that the stove is
giving yellow flame she got it inspected
by a mechanic. What values are shown
by Vibha?

Answer:
a. Three reasons to ensure complete
combustion of fuels are as follows:
i. More heat is released on complete
combustion
ii. Harmful gases like CO and soot
are not released
iii. Fuel is not wasted
b. The air inlet pipe that supplies oxygen
for burning is blocked as yellow flame
indicates incomplete combustion, which
in case of LPG could be because of
insufficient amount of oxygen.
c. Vibha values money and natural
resources as incomplete combustion
would mean wastage of fuel.

We cannot give up burning the fuels but

certainly need to control the pollution caused
by them. Describe three steps that can be
taken to reduce the pollution caused due to
fuels. Mudit is organising a skit in the school
to make the students aware of the need to
reduce pollution. What values are shown by
him?

Answer: Three steps we can take to reduce the

pollution caused due to fuels are as follows:
a. Plant trees as trees absorb CO2 and many
other gases as well as smoke and help in
reducing pollution.
b. Use cleaner fuels like CNG and LPG
which will produce lesser amount of
harmful gases and do not leave pollution
 in the air.
c. Ensure complete combustion of fuels as
when they burn incompletely they
produce soot and poisonous gases like
CO, which pollute the air.
Values: Mudit is concerned about the
surrounding nature. He knows and
understands his duties of a responsible
citizen and wants to take care of the
atmosphere and maintain a better quality
of air.
d.

Answer:

e. Why is it important to conserve

biodiversity? How do natural resources
benefit us?

Answer: Biodiversity is essential for

maintaining the ecological functions,
including stabilising of the water cycle,
maintenance and replenishment of soil
fertility, pollination and cross-
fertilisation of crops and other
vegetation, protection against soil
erosion and stability of food producing
and other ecosystems.

Conservation of biological diversity

leads to conservation of essential
ecological diversity to preserve the
continuity of food chains. Biodiversity
provides the base for the livelihoods,
cultures and economies of several people
like farmers, fisher folk, forest dwellers
and artisans. It provides raw material for
a diverse medicinal and health care
systems.
It also provides the genetic base for the
continuous upgradation of agriculture,
medicine and other sectors. Biodiversity
provides following benefits:
a. Provide ecosystem services like:
Protection of water
resources
Soil formation and
protection
Nutrient storage and
recycling
Pollution breakdown and
absorption
Contribution to climate
stability
Maintenance of ecosystems
Recovery from
unpredictable events
b. Biological resources in the form
of:
Food
Medicinal resources and
pharmaceutical drugs
Wood products
Ornamental plants
Breeding stocks, population
reservoirs
Future resources
Diversity in genes, species
 and ecosystems
c. Social benefits like:
Research, education and
monitoring
Recreation and tourism
Cultural values

f. What will be the benefits of conservation

on the following?
i. Existing environments
ii. Endangered species
iii. The balance of nature
iv. Carbon foot prints

Answer:
i. The existing organism will sustain
and survive and ecological balance
will be maintained without loss of
biodiversity.
ii. It will help in conservation of
endangered species; they might
flourish again if provided with
suitable growth conditions like
natural habitat, food, shelter,
breeding grounds etc.
iii. The balance of nature will be
maintained, there will be relatively
less shift in number of species, less
shift in global climate, weather and
food availability for all the
organisms.
iv. Conservation especially if it is of
forest cover, trees, it will help in
reducing the negative effects of
greenhouse gases which can cause
global warming can cause major
shift in earth’s climate, vegetation
and other ecological factors.

g. In order to meet the ever-increasing

demand of tress in factories and for
shelter, trees are being continually cut. Is
 it justified to cut trees for such projects?
What consequences do cutting of trees
have?

Answer: No, it is not justified to cut trees

or forest for making urban houses,
factories etc. Deforestation causes
increase in the temperature as it leads to
increased level of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere. Fewer trees would mean
that less carbon dioxide will be used up
resulting in its increased amount in the
atmosphere.

This will lead to global warming as

carbon dioxide traps the heat rays. The
increase in temperature on the Earth
disturbs the water cycle and may reduce
rainfall. Ground water level also gets
lowered as there will be no trees to take
up the rain water.

This could cause droughts. Deforestation

is a major cause which leads to the
change in soil properties. Physical
properties of the soil get affected by
plantation and vegetation. Fewer trees
will result in soil erosion. Removal of
the top layer of the soil exposes the
lower hard and rocky layers. Gradually
the fertile land gets converted into
deserts. Deforestation also leads to a
decrease in the water holding capacity of
the soil.

Therefore, water table may change. The

other properties of the soil like nutrient
content, texture etc. also change because
of deforestation.

h. What steps can we take to protect and

conserve our environment and
biodiversity?

Answer: Following are some

conservation actions that we can take up:
Plant trees. Grow native species of
plants (trees, shrubs and climber)
wherever possible, this would
attract local wildlife such as birds,
butterflies and insects.
Grow local vegetables in your
school garden that are not usually
available in the markets. This
would help conserve them for
generations to come.
Initiate, organise and participate in
responsible citizen action against
existing or proposed activities that
harm or are likely to harm local
biodiversity.
We should not use products made
out of animal parts like skin, fur,
ivory, bones, nails, etc., to
discourage wildlife traders and
poachers, and spare the lives of the
remaining animals.
Avoid using insecticides,
pesticides and inorganic fertilisers
and try to use natural plant-based
substitutes wherever possible.
Paper and cloth should replace
non-biodegradable plastic and
polyester which damage the
ecosystem.
Make children aware of their
surroundings and the need for
biodiversity.
Promote bio-farming which is less
intensive and environmental-
friendly.
Make use of sustainable
technologies like smokeless
chulhas, ground water recharging
unit, wind energy, solar power, etc.
Set up ‘Community Sanctuaries’
for free ranging animals migratory
birds and endemic species.
Establish voluntary ‘Village
Reserves’ for plants and animals.
 Assist National level bodies in
recording and preserving rare and
endemic species.
Create ‘Biodiversity Registers’ in
communities, schools, villages.

i. Differentiate between a national park, a

sanctuary and a biosphere reserve.
Explain with examples.

Answer: A national park is an area of

scenic beauty protected and maintained
by the Government to preserve flora and
fauna that also provides human
recreation and enjoyment. They help in
preserving the ecosystem and animals
along with educating the people about
forest and providing them some
recreational facilities as well. Example:
Corbett National park, Satpura National
park

A Sanctuary: In a sanctuary, protection is

given only to the fauna. Limited
operations of harvesting, timber are
allowed. Private ownership is also
permitted. Example: Aravalli bird
sanctuary.

A Biosphere Reserve: Consists of core,

buffer and transition zones. In the core
zone, no human activity is permitted. In
the buffer zone, limited activity is
allowed; whereas in the transition zone,
only all or unlimited human activity is
allowed. The core zone is the protection
zone. Example: Nilgiris Biosphere
Reserve

j. How can you differentiate between

endemic, endangered and extinct
species? Explain with examples.

Answer: Endemic species are those

 species plants and animals which are
found exclusively in a particular area.
They are not naturally found anywhere
else. Particular types of animal or plant
may be endemic to a zone, state or a
country. Example: Wild mango
,br/> Endangered Species: The species
that are on verge of extinction are very
few in number are called endangered
species. Example: Vultures, Tiger

Extinct species: The species or organism

that are no more found on earth in any
habitat is called extinct species. Example
dodo

k.

Answer:

l. What will be the benefits of conservation

 on the following?
i. Existing environments
ii. Endangered species
iii. The balance of nature
iv. Carbon foot prints

Answer:
i. The existing organism will sustain
and survive and ecological balance
will be maintained without loss of
biodiversity.
ii. It will help in conservation of
endangered species; they might
flourish again if provided with
suitable growth conditions like
natural habitat, food, shelter,
breeding grounds etc.
iii. The balance of nature will be
maintained, there will be relatively
less shift in number of species, less
shift in global climate, weather and
food availability for all the
organisms.
iv. Conservation especially if it is of
forest cover, trees, it will help in
reducing the negative effects of
greenhouse gases which can cause
global warming can cause major
shift in earth’s climate, vegetation
and other ecological factors.

m. Differentiate between a national park, a

sanctuary and a biosphere reserve.
Explain with examples.

Answer: A national park is an area of

scenic beauty protected and maintained
by the Government to preserve flora and
fauna that also provides human
recreation and enjoyment. They help in
preserving the ecosystem and animals
along with educating the people about
forest and providing them some
 recreational facilities as well. Example:
Corbett National park, Satpura National
park.

A Sanctuary: In a sanctuary, protection is

given only to the fauna. Limited
operations of harvesting, timber are
allowed. Private ownership is also
permitted. Example: Aravalli bird
sanctuary.

A Biosphere Reserve: Consists of core,

buffer and transition zones. In the core
zone, no human activity is permitted. In
the buffer zone, limited activity is
allowed; whereas in the transition zone,
only all or unlimited human activity is
allowed. The core zone is the protection
zone. Example: Nilgiris Biosphere
Reserve.

n. How do different species in a habitat

help in conserving biodiversity? What
steps would you take to protect the
biodiversity of your area?

Answer: Different species in a habitat

maintain ecological balance by
maintaining food chain and help in
genetic variation. We can take following
steps to protect biodiversity:
1. Plant trees. Grow native species of
plants (trees, shrubs and climber)
where possible, this would attract
local wildlife such as birds,
butterflies and insects.
2. Grow local vegetables in your
school garden that are not usually
available in the markets.
3. Not using products made out of
animal parts like skin, fur, ivory,
bones, nails, etc., to discourage
wildlife traders and poachers, and
spare the lives of the remaining
animals. Adopt vegetarianism
 which would require fewer animals
to be fattened for slaughtering and
more plants to be grown for food.
4. Avoid using insecticides,
pesticides and inorganic fertilisers
and try to use natural plant- based
substitutes wherever possible.
Paper and cloth should replace
non-biodegradable plastic and
polyester which damage the
ecosystem.
5. Make children aware of their
surroundings and the need for
biodiversity.
6. Promote bio-farming which is less
intensive and environmental-
friendly.
7. Set up ‘community sanctuaries’ for
free ranging animals migratory
birds and endemic species.

o. How can you differentiate between

endemic, endangered and extinct
species? Explain with examples.

Answer: Endemic species are those

species plants and animals which are
found exclusively in a particular area.
They are not naturally found anywhere
else. Particular types of animal or plant
may be endemic to a zone, state or a
country. Example: Wild mango
Endangered Species: The species that are
on verge of extinction are very few in
number are called endangered species.
Example: Vultures, Tiger

Extinct species: The species or organism

that are no more found on earth in any
habitat is called extinct species. Example
dodo

p. Explain the causes and consequences of

deforestation.
 Answer: Deforestation is caused due to
cutting of trees excessively.

It can cause increase in the temperature

and pollution level on the earth. It leads
to increase the level of carbon dioxide in
the atmosphere. Ground water level also
gets lowered. Deforestation disturbs the
balance in nature. In cutting of trees
continues rainfall and the fertility of the
soil will decrease. Moreover there will
be increased chances of natural
calamities such as floods and droughts.

q.

Answer:

r.
 Answer:

s.

Answer:

t.

Answer:
u.

Answer:

v. You are a volunteer at HIV / AIDS

clinic. Some school students approach
you with the following queries about
AIDS. Answer the queries for the
students:
a. What is the causative organism of
AIDS?
b. What is the genetic material of
AIDS causing virus?
c. How does AIDS spread from
infected person?
d. Which cells of the body are
 attacked in AIDS?

Answer:
a. AIDS is caused by a virus called
HIV.
b. Genetic material of AIDS virus is
RNA.
c. AIDS can pass on to a normal
person from an infected person by
using infected needle, by
transferring blood from infected
person, by having unsafe sex and
exchange of body fluids.
d. The T-Helper cells that help in
developing in immune response in
our body are affected by HIV
virus. The low number of T helper
cells makes us more prone to
disease and infections and reduces
our body’s ability to fight infection.

w. Study the passage below about drug

abuse and answer the questions that
follow:

Alia and her group of friends go to their

classmate Sunny’s house on Saturday
night for a small party. Alia and her
friends took a soft drink bottle to drink,
which Alia’s elder brother had bought
for everyone. However, Sunny offers
them an energy drink which have
contents: Caffeine (50%), Cocaine (2%)
and water. He also offers Alia and her
friends some cigarettes loaded with
heroin. Alia and her friends have never
smoked before and have never had an
energy drink. Sunny dare Alia to have
the energy drink and smoke. All her
friends are also cheering for Alia. Alia is
confused; she wants to look cool in front
of her friends.
a. What do you think Alia should do?
 Why?
b. Which type of drink did Sunny
offered Alia? Do you think it had
some type of drugs? Name the
drugs.
c. Which substance mentioned in the
passage can act as stimulant?

Answer:
a. Alia should read the contents
of energy drink and if she
knows the contents she
should politely refuse the
drink. She should refuse the
drink as it has stimulants in it
which can cause addiction
and also effect liver and
mental health.
b. Sunny offered Alia energy
drink with high amount of
caffeine and cocaine. Yes,
the energy drink had
stimulant drugs caffeine and
cocaine.
c. Caffeine, cocaine and heroin
all three of them can act as
stimulants.

d.

Answer:

e. Moon does not have an

atmosphere. Why does Earth have
an atmosphere around it?
 Answer: The reason for the planet
earth having its own atmosphere is
the powerful gravity. The
gravitational forces do not allow
the gases in the atmosphere to
escape. On the other hand, most
other planets have little or no
gravity to hold the gases and
prevent them from escaping. For
example, gravity at the moon is too
weak to allow the planet to have its
own atmosphere.

f. What are the factors that liquid

pressure depends on?

Answer: Liquid pressure depends

on a variety of factors, including:
1. The pressure exerted by a
liquid depends on the
magnitude of gravitational
force
2. At the bottom, liquid
pressure depends on the
liquid column’s height.
3. As the depth increases, the
liquid pressure increases.
4. Liquid pressure also depends
on the liquid’s density.
5. Liquid pressure is exerted on
the walls of the container.

g.

Answer:
h. Static friction is greater than
sliding friction. Explain.

Answer: When at rest, objects

have a higher interlocking or
interaction between the surfaces
than when moving. It essentially
means that moving objects always
have less interlocking between
their surfaces. For example, a still
bus will have a greater interaction
with the surface it is resting on
than that of another bus that is in
motion. Therefore, static friction
is always greater than sliding
friction.

i. What are the major disadvantages

of friction?

Answer: Although normally

helpful, friction can be a big
nuisance at times. Some examples
of friction creating problems are:
1. Soles of footwear and tyres
of vehicles wear out only due
to the force of friction.
2. Moving parts of machinery
produce heat and tear down
because of friction.
3. Machines consume extra fuel
and require high
maintenance due to friction.
4. Lots of energy gets wasted in
controlling frictional force in
various mechanical devices.

j. What threats can sound pollution

pose to human health?

Answer: Sound pollution or noise

can have adverse effect on our
health.
The most common threats include:
High blood pressure
Partial as well as permanent
impairment of hearing
abilities, especially because
of constant exposure to loud
music
Lack of sleep and migraine
Stress and anxiety

What is the function of

larynx in a human body?

Answer: Larynx is the main

sound-producing organ in
humans.
It is located at the upper end
of the windpipe in the form
of a hard bump. It is also
called the voice box, it shows
some movement as we
swallow something.
Larynx has two vocal cords
stretched along it in such a
manner that only a narrow
slit is left between them.
This gap is there for the
passage of oxygen. Every
time lungs leave air through
it, sound is produced because
of vibrating vocal cords.

Answer:
Answer:

Why are iron objects

electroplated with
chromium? Release of waste
generated during this process
is polluting the water and
harming us. But it is also
important to prevent the iron
from rusting. So what should
we do to deal with situation?
State two applications of
electrolysis process other
than electroplating.

Answer: Iron objects are

electroplated with chromium
to make them look shiny.
Also they become scratch
resistant and do not get
rusted due to the coating of
chromium. To deal with this
situation we should find out
other ways to prevent rusting
of iron other than chromium
plating. Also in case where
chromium plating is
necessary, the factory should
first remove the metal traces
from the waste generated
and then release it in sewage.
Electrolysis is used to obtain
pure metals from their
impure sample during
metallurgy.

Answer:

Give reason:
a. Electrical appliances
should not be touched
with wet hands.
b. Tin plated iron cans
are used to store food.
c. The passage of electric
current through salt
solution results in
bubbles of gases on
carbon rods.
d. It is advantageous to
use an LED over a
bulb in testing the
 electrical conductivity
of liquids.
e. Iron objects dipped in
molten zinc or
electroplated with zinc
do not corrode.

Answer:
a. Water on our hands
being impure is good
conductor of water and
we can get electric
shock.
b. Tin is less reactive than
iron. Tin does not react
with food while iron
does. Thus using tin
plated cans store food
without reacting with
it.
c. Electrolysis of salt
solution occurs when
electricity is passed
through it results in
formation of hydrogen
gas at cathode and
chlorine gas at anode.
Hence bubbles are
observed.
d. LED can glow with
low current but bulb
need more current.
Thus LED can detect
current and glow even
if the conductivity of
liquid is low and lesser
current is conducted.
e. Zinc forms a
protective layer over
iron and prevents the
contact of iron with
moisture and oxygen
which are required for
rusting of iron.
What are multiple
reflections? Explain giving
example.

Answer: When a ray of light

gets reflected multiple times,
the phenomenon is called
multiple reflections. Multiple
images formed in a
kaleidoscope are a good
example. We can make a
light ray reflect more than
once by using two or more
plane mirrors and varying
the angle between them. It is
possible to get any number
of images with the help of
the phenomenon of multiple
reflection of light.
Also, the concept of multiple
reflections is used in
periscopes. A periscope is
made by using two plane
mirrors placed in a parallel
line and facing one another
in an inclined position at an
o
angle of 45 .

Answer:

How does the rain water

become acidic? Why is the
rain likely to be more acidic
in cities than in villages?
How is acid rain affecting
Taj Mahal? What steps are
taken by the government to
control damage being done
by pollution to Taj Mahal?
Answer: When gases like
sulphur dioxide and oxides
of nitrogen and carbon mix
with rain water, it becomes
acidic due to formation of
acids.
Rain is more acidic in cities
as there is more pollution so
amount of acidic gases
present in air is higher. Acid
rain is causing the marble of
Taj Mahal to corrode and
turn yellow as acids react
with marble. Steps taken by
the government to control
the damage caused to Taj
Mahal are as follows:
Industries have been
moved out of Agra
Petrol and diesel
driven vehicles are not
allowed near Taj
Mahal

Nihal had observed that

during the various religious
activities people throw
flowers and immerse idols in
the river. He was not worried
about the flowers as they are
bio degradable but was
concerned about synthetic
paints used for idols. So this
year Nihal used organic
paints for painting Lord
Ganesha’s idol on ganesh
chaturthi. Nihal’s friend
convinced him that so many
idols with organic paints
when immersed in water are
also polluting the river so
they should carry out the
ritual of idol immersion in
water tank.
 a. How are synthetic
paints harmful for
aquatic life?
b. Do you think replacing
the synthetic paints
with organic paint will
completely stop the
water pollution?
c. What other religious
practices are
responsible for the
pollution of rivers?
d. Apart from their care
for the natural
resources, what values
are shown by Nihal
and his friend?

Answer:
a. Synthetic paints
release toxic chemicals
in water which can
result in death of
aquatic animals.
b. No it will not stop the
pollution completely as
organic paints add to
organic waste in water
and excess of organic
waste increase the
bacterial activity in
water thus reducing the
amount of oxygen
dissolved.
Thus the aquatic
organisms will still be
harmed.
c. Other religious
activities, such as
throwing flowers, ashes
and dead bodies in
water, bathing in
water, performing
pujas and similar
 rituals in rivers also
cause pollution of
rivers.
d. Values shown by Nihal
and his friend are that
they both are
responsible citizens.
They are responsible
enough to take the
initiative to control
water pollution. Also
they believe in healthy
discussions to solve a
problem.

In Abha’s village, trees were

being recklessly cut to clear
the land and use it for
constructing a road. To
prevent this, Abha started a
campaign with the rest of
villagers as they were
worried about the
consequences of the
decreasing green cover in the
village. They knew cutting of
trees and making a road in
its place will further
contribute to the global
warming. But the road
construction was also
important. So the villagers
had to clear the trees and
think of an alternate
solution.
a. What is global
warming?
b. How will cutting of
trees and construction
of road contribute to
global warming?
c. State two ways in
which global warming
is affecting us.
 d. If you are in the village
what alternate solution
will you suggest to
solve this problem?
e. What do you learn
from Abha?

Answer:
a. Global warming is the
rise in average
temperature of the
atmosphere due to
excess trapping of heat
by increased amount of
greenhouse gases.
b. Trees use carbon
dioxide, a greenhouse
gas, for photosynthesis
and help in reducing its
concentration in the
air. Thus deforestation
will result in
accumulation of
carbon dioxide in air
and increase
greenhouse effect.
Also building of road
will ensure more traffic
movement and burning
of fuel in vehicles will
release more
greenhouse gases.
i. Global warming
is causing the
change of
climatic patterns
which is
adversely
affecting the
living organisms.
ii. Global warming
is causing
melting of
glaciers leading
 to rise of water
level and
submerging of
low lying areas.
d. If I am in the village, I
will suggest to plant
more trees in rest of
the area to balance the
effect of deforestation.
e. We learn from Abha
that we should take
environmental issues